The Diamond β Dybvig Model These are the underlying baseline assumptions of the model I. II. III. there are three time periods π‘ = 0, π‘ = 1, π‘ = 2 there are π individuals in the economy π represents the probability of consuming in π‘ = 1; (1 β π) represents the probability of consuming in π‘ = 2 (with 0 β€ π β€ 1 the larger π the more impatient the consumer, if π = 1 then the consumer is very impatient and will only consume in π‘ = 1 and not consume in π‘ = 2, if π = 0 then the consumer is very patient and will only consume in π‘ = 2 and not consume in π‘ = 1) IV. the bank invests in an asset π₯ Utility: here we assume the following functional form for the utility functions ! π π! = 1 β ! ! (1) π€βπππ π = π‘ = 1,2,3 (any other following functional form for the utility functions can alternatively be chosen) The overall expected utility for the whole π‘ = 1,2,3 is then ! π π! , π! = ππ’ π! + 1 β π π’ π! = π 1 β ! ! ! + 1 β π (1 β ! ) ! (2) The world without banks In a world without banks the following payoffs would be resulting: in π‘ = 0 : customers save/invest their money in π‘ = 1: withdraws would provide the individual with a payoff of 1 (so that π! =1) in π‘ = 2: withdraws would provide the individual with a payoff of 1 + π where r is the real interest rate (π! = 1 + π) The overall utility for the consumer would be/ (2) becomes: 1 1 1 π π! , π! = ππ’ π! + 1 β π π’ π! = π 1 β + 1βπ 1β =π 1β + 1βπ π! π! 1 = 1βπ ! 1 β !!! 1β (3) 1 1+π and the ratio of the consumption/income !! !! (4) =1+π The world with banks In a world with banks the following payoffs would be resulting: in π‘ = 0 : customers deposit their income in the bank in π‘ = 1: withdraws would provide the individual with a payoff of π¦! in π‘ = 2: withdraws would provide the individual with a payoff of π¦! In π‘ = 1, there are ππ consumers who prefer to withdraw their money from the bank so that the bank needs to withdraw sufficient funds from the investment to cover the funds π¦! demanded by the consumers (5) πππ¦! = ππ₯ In π‘ = 2, the remaining 1 β π π consumers will paid the income π¦! from the remainder of the asset that has been invested in by the bank (1 β π₯) π 1 β π π¦! = 1 β π₯ 1 + π π (6) here 1 + π represents the return on the asset π₯ for the bank. (In both (5) and (6) the left hand side represents the total amount the bank has to pay to all the consumers demanding their funds back in π‘ = 1 and π‘ = 2 respectively, whereas the right hand side represents the funds that the bank needs to liquidate from the investment π₯ to cover the total amount demanded by the consumers). Competition amongst banks drives the profits for the banks to 0, so that the bank identifies the optimal amounts of π¦! and π¦! to maximise the expected utility of the consumers. We can simplify the consumersβ utility functions in one variable by defining π¦! as a function of π¦! with (5) and (6): from (5) πππ¦! = ππ₯ β ππ¦! = π₯ (7) from (6) π 1 β π π¦! = 1 β π₯ 1 + π π β 1 β π π¦! = (1 β π₯)(1 + π) (8) Substitute (7) for π₯ into (8) (9) 1 β π π¦! = 1 β π₯ 1 + π = (1 β ππ¦! )(1 + π) β π¦! = (1 β ππ¦! ) ! β ! !! = (!!!! (!!!) (10) !!! !!! (11) ! ) (!!!) The consumerβs utility function (2) becomes ! π π¦! , π¦! = ππ’ π¦! + 1 β π π’ π¦! = π 1 β ! ! ! ! substitute (11) for !! (12) + 1 β π (1 β ! ) ! into (12) ! π π¦! = π 1 β ! ! ! + 1 β π (1 β (!!!! !) !!! (!!!) (13) ) so that the expected utility can be maximised: ! max!.!.!.!! π 1 β ! ! + 1+π ! 1β! ! ! ! ! !!! ! ! !!! !!!!! ! + (1 β π)(1 β (!!!)(!!!! )) ! πΉ. π. πΆ. π€. π. π‘. π¦! : 1 1 1 + π 1 β ππ¦! × 0 β 1 β π 0=π !β( π¦! 1 + π 1 β ππ¦! = π !! β !!! =π 1β! ! ! βπ 1 + π ! =π (14) 1 π 1βπ ! 1+π β π¦!! 1 + π 1 β ππ¦! ! (15) from which follows ! ! !!! ! ! !!! !!!!! ! π !! = (16) divide by π ! !!! expand (17) by !!! !!! = !!! ! (17) !!! !!!!! ! (= 1) ! !!! = (!!!) !!! ! !!! ! !!!!! ! = (1 + π) !!! ! !!! ! !!!!! ! 1a detailed description of the differentiation can be found at the end of this document (18) where the last fraction of (18) is equivalent to ! !!! = (!!!) !!! ! !!! ! !!!!! ! ! !!! (see (11)), so that (18) can be expressed as ! (19) = (1 + π) ! ! ! which can be reorganised as !!! !!! = (1 + π) (20) = (21) so that the ratio of incomes is !! !! (1 + π) and also π¦!! = (1 + π)π¦!! so that 1 + π > π¦! > π¦! > 1 With !! !! = (1 + π) (21) < !! !! (22) = 1 + π (22), the banks allow for a better consumption smoothing. The differentiation of the expected utility under banks The above derivative from the second term of the function comes from π π₯ π π₯ π€ππ‘β ππ‘π πππππ£ππ‘ππ£π π π₯ × π ! π₯ β π! π₯ × π π₯ π π₯ ! with π π₯ = 1βπ ! πππ πβ²(π₯)!.!.!.!! = 0 and π π₯ = (1 + π)(1 β ππ¦! ) πππ πβ²(π₯)!.!.!.!! = βπ 1 + π Alternatively, you can also solve this as follows: π΄π π πππ π πππ ππππ π‘πππ‘π , 1 β π πππ 1 + π πππ πππ π ππππ π‘πππ‘π πβπ πππππ£ππ‘ππ£π ππ π ππππ π‘πππ‘ ππ 0 (π. π. π 5 = 5 π‘βππ π ! 5 = 0, πππ π ππππ π‘πππ‘ ππ’ππ‘ππππππ π€ππ‘β π‘βπ π£ππππππππ ππ πππ‘ππππ π‘ ππ ππ’π π‘ π‘βπ ππππ π‘πππ‘ π. π. π π₯ = 5π₯ π‘βππ π ! π₯ = 5 . π·ππππ‘π 1 β π ! ππ π΄ πππ 1 + π ππ π΅ πππ π ππ πΆ πππ 1 + π ππ π·, π‘βππ π€π πππ πππ€πππ‘π 1 1 1 1βπ + 1βπ 1β =π 1β + 1βπ 1β π¦! π¦! π¦! 1 + π 1 β ππ¦! 1 1βπ =π 1β + 1+π 1β π¦! 1 + π 1 β ππ¦! 1 π΄ 1 π΄ =πΆ 1β +π·β =πΆ 1β + π· β 1 β πΆπ¦! !! π¦! π΅ 1 β πΆπ¦! π¦! π΅ max!.!.!.!! π 1 β The derivative will be πΉ. π. πΆ. π€. π. π‘. π¦! : 0=πΆ 1 π΄ ! + 0 β π΅ β1 1 β πΆπ¦! π¦! !! (βπΆ) the derivative of the second term comes from the chain rule where π π π₯ π€ππ‘β π π π₯ π€ππ‘β ππ‘π πππππ£ππ‘ππ£π π ! π π₯ π! π₯ = 1 1 β πΆπ¦! !! π π π‘βππ‘ π ! π π₯ = β1 1 β πΆπ¦! !! and π π₯ = 1 β πΆπ¦! π π π‘βππ‘ π! π₯ = βπΆ replace back for A, B, C, D 1 π΄ 1 1βπ ! 1 !! 0 = πΆ ! + 0 β β1 1 β πΆπ¦! βπΆ = π ! + π΅ 1 + π 1 β ππ¦! π¦! π¦! ! 1 1βπ =π !βπ 1 + π 1 β ππ¦! ! π¦! ! βπ Both options lead to exactly the same result, you also do not explicitly substitute for the constants since that is not particularly pretty (I did this here explicitly to highlight the difference between constants and the variables).
© Copyright 2026 Paperzz