Chap 12 and 16 Take home test: Celly Cycle and Replication Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1) Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers? A) nitrogenous bases B) amino acids C) sugars D) nucleotides ____ 2) What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA? A) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands. B) The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand. C) The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands. D) One strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines. ____ 3) What is a major difference between eukaryotic DNA replication and prokaryotic DNA replication? A) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, while eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication. B) Prokaryotic replication does not require a primer. C) DNA replication in prokaryotic cells is conservative. DNA replication in eukaryotic cells is semi-conservative. D) DNA polymerases of prokaryotes can add nucleotides to both 3' and 5' ends of DNA strands, while those of eukaryotes function only in the 5' 3' direction. ____ 4) Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine? A) 8% B) 42% C) 58% D) 16% ____ 5) Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides? A) a nitrogenous base and a sugar B) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a sugar C) a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group D) a sugar and a purine or pyrimidine Use the data in the accompanying table to answer the following questions. The data were obtained from a study of the length of time spent in each phase of the cell cycle by cells of three eukaryotic organisms designated beta, delta, and gamma. Minutes Spent in Cell Cycle Phases ____ 6) Cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk) is ____. A) present only during the S phase of the cell cycle B) an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins C) the enzyme that catalyzes the attachment of chromosomes to microtubules D) inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin ____ 7) MPF is a dimer consisting of ____. A) cyclin and tubulin B) cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase C) a growth factor and mitotic factor D) ATP synthetase and a protease ____ 8) Once a cell completes mitosis, molecular division triggers must be turned off. What happens to MPF during mitosis? A) It is completely degraded. B) The cyclin component of MPF is degraded. C) It is exported from the cell. D) The Cdk component of MPF is degraded and exported from the cell. ____ 9) What happens if MPF (mitosis-promoting factor) is introduced into immature frog oocytes that are arrested in G2? A) Cell differentiation is triggered. B) The cells undergo meiosis. C) Nothing happens. D) The cells enter mitosis. ____ 10) Neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently because they ____. A) no longer have active nuclei B) can no longer bind Cdk to cyclin C) have entered into G0 D) show a drop in MPF concentration ____ 11) The best conclusion concerning delta is that the cells ____. A) contain no DNA. B) contain no RNA. C) are in the G0 phase. D) divide in the G1 phase. ____ 12) The M-phase checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this does not happen, cells would most likely be arrested in ____. A) prophase B) telophase C) metaphase D) prometaphase ____ 13) How do we describe transformation in bacteria? A) the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule B) the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule C) the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule D) assimilation of external DNA into a cell ____ 14) What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication? A) It joins Okazaki fragments together. B) It synthesizes RNA nucleotides to make a primer. C) It unwinds the parental double helix. D) It stabilizes the unwound parental DNA. The following questions are based on the accompanying figure. ____ 15) In the figure above, MPF reaches its highest concentration during this stage. A) III B) IV C) I D) II ____ 16) Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor? A) changes in the order of cell cycle stages B) inability to form spindles C) lack of appropriate cell death D) inability of chromosomes to meet at the metaphase plate ____ 17) Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex? A) cyclin B) MPF C) Cdk D) PDGF ____ 18) For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why won't this experiment work? A) There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen. B) Although there are more nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have sixteen extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive. C) Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, and the material would be too dangerous for too long. D) Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins. ____ 19) What is a telomere? A) the site of origin of DNA replication B) the mechanism that holds two sister chromatids together C) DNA replication during telophase D) the ends of linear chromosomes ____ 20) Which of the following does NOT occur during mitosis? A) spindle formation B) condensation of the chromosomes C) replication of the DNA D) separation of the spindle poles ____ 21) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found? A) A + C = G + T B) A = C C) G + C = T + A D) A = G and C = T The following questions are based on the accompanying figure. ____ 22) In the figure above, which number represents DNA synthesis? A) II B) III C) IV D) I ____ 23) Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated? A) single-strand DNA binding proteins B) DNA polymerase C) primase D) ligase ____ 24) DNA contains the template needed to copy itself, but it has no catalytic activity in cells. What catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides in the DNA polymer being formed? A) ribozymes B) ATP C) deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates D) DNA polymerase ____ 25) Which of the following statements about the 5' end of a polynucleotide strand of RNA is correct? A) The 5' end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose. B) The 5' end has a carboxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose. C) The 5' end has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose. D) The 5' end has phosphate attached to the number 5 carbon of the nitrogenous base. ____ 26) Some cells have several nuclei per cell. How could such multinucleated cells be explained? A) The cell underwent repeated mitosis, but cytokinesis did not occur. B) The cell underwent repeated mitosis with simultaneous cytokinesis. C) The cell underwent repeated cytokinesis but no mitosis. D) The cell had multiple S phases before it entered mitosis. ____ 27) Which of the following investigators was (were) responsible for the following discovery? In DNA from any species, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine. A) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod B) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl C) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase D) Erwin Chargaff ____ 28) In the polymerization of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and ____ of the last nucleotide in the polymer. A) the 3' OH B) C6 C) the 5' phosphate D) a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base ____ 29) The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to ____. A) the phase between DNA replication and the M phase B) the phase in which DNA is being replicated C) normal growth and cell function D) the beginning of mitosis ____ 30) Semiconservative replication involves a template. What is the template? A) single-stranded binding proteins B) an RNA molecule C) one strand of the DNA molecule D) DNA polymerase ____ 31) What is the function of topoisomerase? A) elongating new DNA at a replication fork by adding nucleotides to the existing chain B) stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork C) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork D) unwinding of the double helix ____ 32) DNA is synthesized through a process known as ____. A) conservative replication B) translation C) semiconservative replication D) transcription ____ 33) Refer to the figure above. What bases will be added to the primer as DNA replication proceeds? The bases should appear in the new strand in the order that they will be added starting at the 3' end of the primer. A) A, G, A, C, G, A, C B) C, A, G, C, A, G, A C) G, T, C, G, T, C, T D) T, C, T, G, C, T, G ____ 34) Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule formation. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, Taxol must affect ____. A) the structure of the mitotic spindle B) formation of the centrioles C) anaphase D) chromatid assembly ____ 35) A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5' to 3' direction because ____. A) replication must progress toward the replication fork B) DNA polymerase can add nucleotides only to the free 3' end C) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5' end of the template D) the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the 3' end ____ 36) In E. coli, which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand in the 5' 3' direction? A) primase B) helicase C) DNA polymerase III D) DNA ligase ____ 37) In a healthy cell, the rate of DNA repair is equal to the rate of DNA mutation. When the rate of repair lags behind the rate of mutation, what is a possible fate of the cell? A) RNA may be used instead of DNA as inheritance material. B) DNA synthesis will continue by a new mechanism. C) The cell will become embryonic. D) The cell can be transformed to a cancerous cell. Use the following information to answer the questions below. The unlettered circle at the top of the figure shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes that have not yet replicated. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is black, and the other is gray. The circles labeled A to E show various combinations of these chromosomes. ____ 38) What is the correct chromosomal condition for one daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis? A) E B) D C) C D) B ____ 39) How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell cytokinesis? A) The contractile filaments found in plant cells are structures composed of carbohydrates; the cleavage furrow in animal cells is composed of contractile phospholipids. B) Plant cells divide after metaphase but before anaphase; animal cells divide after anaphase. C) The structural proteins of plant cells separate the two cells; in animal cells, a cell membrane separates the two daughter cells. D) Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell-wall building blocks on the metaphase plate; animal cells form a cleavage furrow. ____ 40) The difference between ATP and the nucleoside triphosphates used during DNA synthesis is that ____. A) the nucleoside triphosphates have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose B) ATP contains three high-energy bonds; the nucleoside triphosphates have two C) the nucleoside triphosphates have two phosphate groups; ATP has three phosphate groups D) ATP is found only in human cells; the nucleoside triphosphates are found in all animal and plant cells ____ 41) Telomere shortening is a problem in which types of cells? A) only eukaryotic cells B) only prokaryotic cells C) cells in prokaryotes and eukaryotes ____ 42) In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts? A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not. B) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not. C) DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not. D) DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines. ____ 43) Why do histones bind tightly to DNA? A) Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged. B) Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic. C) Histones are covalently linked to the DNA. D) Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged. ____ 44) What is the difference between the leading strand and the lagging strand in DNA replication? A) There are different DNA polymerases involved in elongation of the leading strand and the lagging strand. B) The leading strand requires an RNA primer, whereas the lagging strand does not. C) The leading strand is synthesized in the 3' 5' direction in a discontinuous fashion, while the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' 3' direction in a continuous fashion. D) The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the 5' 3' direction, while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously in the 5' 3' direction. ____ 45) FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein that forms a contractile ring involved in bacterial cytokinesis. Its function is analogous to ____. A) the cell plate of eukaryotic plant cells B) the cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells C) the mitotic spindle of eukaryotic cells D) the microtubule-organizing center of eukaryotic cells ____ 46) In human and many other eukaryotic species' cells, the nuclear membrane has to disappear to permit ____. A) the splitting of the centrosomes B) cytokinesis C) the disassembly of the nucleolus D) the attachment of microtubules to kinetochores ____ 47) In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation? A) No replication fork will be formed. B) Additional proofreading will occur. C) Replication will require a DNA template from another source. D) Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone. ____ 48) Which of the following triggers the cell's passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis? A) PDGF B) Cdk C) cyclin D) MPF AP Test Style 49) The lagging strand is characterized by a series of short segments of DNA (Okazaki fragments) that will be joined together to form a finished lagging strand. The experiments that led to the discovery of Okazaki fragments gave evidence for which of the following ideas? A) DNA polymerase is a directional enzyme that synthesizes leading and lagging strands during replication. B) DNA is a polymer consisting of four monomers: adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine. C) DNA is the genetic material. D) Bacterial replication is fundamentally different from eukaryotic replication. The key shouldn’t be way longer than the distractors. 50) In E. coli replication the enzyme primase is used to attach a 5 to 10 base ribonucleotide strand complementary to the parental DNA strand. The RNA strand serves as a starting point for the DNA polymerase that replicates the DNA. If a mutation occurred in the primase gene, which of the following would you expect? A) Replication would only occur on the leading strand. B) Replication would only occur on the lagging strand. C) Replication would not occur on either the leading or lagging strand. D) Replication would not be affected as the enzyme primase in involved with RNA synthesis. Chap 12 and 16 Take home test: Celly Cycle and Replication Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1) ANS: BLM: 2) ANS: BLM: 3) ANS: BLM: 4) ANS: BLM: 5) ANS: BLM: 6) ANS: BLM: 7) ANS: BLM: 8) ANS: BLM: 9) ANS: BLM: 10) ANS: BLM: 11) ANS: BLM: 12) ANS: BLM: 13) ANS: BLM: 14) ANS: BLM: 15) ANS: BLM: 16) ANS: BLM: 17) ANS: BLM: 18) ANS: BLM: 19) ANS: BLM: 20) ANS: D PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension B PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension A PTS: 1 Application/Analysis A PTS: 1 Application/Analysis B PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension B PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension B PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension B PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension D PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension C PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension C PTS: 1 Application/Analysis C PTS: 1 Application/Analysis D PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension A PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension A PTS: 1 Application/Analysis C PTS: 1 Synthesis/Evaluation A PTS: 1 Application/Analysis D PTS: 1 Application/Analysis D PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 5.5 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 16.1 TOP: Section: 5.5 TOP: Section: 12.3 TOP: Section: 12.3 TOP: Section: 12.3 TOP: Section: 12.3 TOP: Section: 12.3 TOP: Section: 12.3 TOP: Section: 12.3 TOP: Section: 16.1 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 12.3 TOP: Section: 12.3 TOP: Section: 12.3 TOP: Section: 16.1 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 12.2 21) 22) 23) 24) 25) 26) 27) 28) 29) 30) 31) 32) 33) 34) 35) 36) 37) 38) 39) 40) 41) 42) BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: ANS: BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension A PTS: 1 Application/Analysis A PTS: 1 Application/Analysis A PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension D PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension A PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension A PTS: 1 Application/Analysis D PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension A PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension C PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension C PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension C PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension C PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension A PTS: 1 Application/Analysis A PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension B PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension C PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension D PTS: 1 Application/Analysis A PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension D PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension A PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension A PTS: 1 Application/Analysis C PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension TOP: Section: 16.1 TOP: Section: 12.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 5.5 TOP: Section: 12.2 TOP: Section: 16.1 TOP: Section: 16.1 TOP: Section: 12.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 12.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 12.2 TOP: Section: 12.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 16.1 43) ANS: BLM: 44) ANS: BLM: 45) ANS: BLM: 46) ANS: BLM: 47) ANS: BLM: 48) ANS: BLM: D PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension D PTS: 1 Application/Analysis B PTS: 1 Application/Analysis D PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension A PTS: 1 Application/Analysis D PTS: 1 Knowledge/Comprehension TOP: Section: 16.3 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 12.2 TOP: Section: 12.2 TOP: Section: 16.2 TOP: Section: 12.3 AP TEST STYLE 49) ANS: A PTS: 1 50) ANS: TOP: Section: 16.2 BLM: Application/Analysis TOP: Section: 16.2 BLM: Application/Analysis C PTS: 1
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