Instructor: Azeem Ahmad
Your name:________________________________
1 DMACC-BIO732_Quiz 4
Multiple-choice questions. Each correct answer is worth 2 points.
1) Which of the following processes did NOT contribute to the development of genetic engineering?
A) transformation
B) transcription
C) transduction
D) conjugation
E) chemiosmosis
2) Which of the following items is NOT a part of the name of a restriction enzyme?
A) the Gram reaction of the source bacterium
B) the specific epithet of the source bacterium
C) Roman numerals to indicate its order of discovery
D) the strain of the source bacterium
E) the genus of the source bacterium
3) The natural role of restriction enzymes in bacteria is to
A) make conjugation more efficient.
B) allow transposons to move to another place in the chromosome.
C) protect the cell from invading phages.
D) allow cells to accept foreign DNA.
E) provide the cell with new phenotypes, such as antibiotic resistance.
4) A library of cloned sequences representing the expressed genes of an organism is known as a(n)
A) cDNA library.
B) FISH library.
C) gene library.
D) microarray.
E) DNA fingerprint.
5) Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments (the arrow
represents the cutting site of the enzyme)?
A) C↓CGG
B) G↓GATCC
C) G↓AATTC
D) CCC↓GGG
E) A↓AGCTT
6) Which of the following statements regarding vectors is FALSE?
A) Vectors are usually autonomously replicating DNA molecules.
B) A useful vector contains multiple restriction sites for insertion of DNA.
C) Vectors are generally over 100,000 base pairs in size.
D) Cloning vectors frequently contain sequences necessary for expression of inserted sequences.
E) Cloning vectors include a "marker" to facilitate identification of cells containing them.
7) Synthetic nucleic acids are useful as
A) DNA probes.
B) primers for PCR.
C) antisense RNAs.
D) DNA probes and antisense RNAs.
Instructor: Azeem Ahmad
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E) DNA probes, primers, and antisense RNAs.
8) Which of the following would be an appropriate temperature for the first step of PCR?
A) 94°C
B) 37°C
C) 65°C
D) 72°C
E) 55°C
9) Which of the following is essential in PCR?
A) DNA polymerase
B) antisense RNAs
C) reverse transcriptase
D) DNA primers
E) both DNA primers and DNA polymerase
10) If a researcher used Escherichia coli DNA polymerase instead of Thermus aquaticus DNA
polymerase in the PCR procedure, what would be the result?
A) DNA replication would occur more slowly than normal.
B) DNA replication would not occur at all.
C) Many mistakes would occur.
D) DNA replication would occur twice as fast as normal.
E) DNA replication would stop after one cycle.
11) Which of the following would be an appropriate sequence of temperatures for PCR?
A) 94°C, 55°C, 37°C
B) 94°C, 65°C, 72°C
C) 65°C, 72°C, 94°C
D) 94°C, 37°C, 55°C
E) 72°C, 65°C, 94°C
12) If you started with a single DNA molecule, how many would you have at the end of six PCR
cycles?
A) 4
B) 16
C) 32
D) 64
E) 100
13) In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules move toward the __________ electrode because they have an
overall __________ charge.
A) negative, negative
B) positive, positive
C) negative, positive
D) positive, negative
E) negative and positive, neutral
14) Which of the following procedures might be used to detect the presence of genetic sequences of a
virus in a patient's blood?
A) Southern blotting
B) creation of a gene library
C) electroporation
D) genome mapping
E) xenotransplantation
Instructor: Azeem Ahmad
Your name:________________________________
15) A northern blot differs from a Southern blot in
A) the type of probe used.
B) the presence or absence of a nitrocellulose membrane.
C) the size of the genetic sequences involved.
D) the number of genetic sequences detected.
E) the type of nucleic acid being isolated.
16) Which of the following methods of inserting DNA into cells might be used on plant seeds?
A) protoplast fusion
B) injection
C) electroporation
D) both injection and electroporation
E) protoplast fusion, injection, and electroporation
17) The DNA double helix can be separated into single strands using
A) heat.
B) NaOH.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) both heat and NaOH.
E) heat, NaOH, and reverse transcriptase.
18) The sequencing and analysis of an organism's genetic information is called
A) protein synthesis.
B) gene therapy.
C) genomics.
D) northern blotting.
E) PCR.
19) Which of the following devices is used for PCR?
A) an electrophoresis chamber
B) a gene gun
C) a DNA sequencer
D) a thermocycler
E) a nucleic acid synthesis machine
20) DNA fingerprinting can be used
A) to detect unculturable organisms.
B) to generate cDNA clones.
C) in forensic investigations.
D) to generate cDNA clones and libraries.
E) for forensics and detection of unculturable organisms.
21) Subunit vaccines are safer than traditional vaccines because they
A) are acellular.
B) are administered in food.
C) do not pose a risk for causing the disease.
D) are acellular and do not pose a risk for causing the disease.
E) are acellular and can be administered in food.
22) Which of the following recombinant tools is NOT used in DNA fingerprinting?
A) PCR
B) restriction enzyme digestion
C) gel electrophoresis
D) reverse transcription
E) Neither PCR nor gel electrophoresis is used.
Instructor: Azeem Ahmad
Your name:________________________________
23) Synthesis of cDNA __________ requires the use of
A) DNA ligase.
B) agarose.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) restriction enzymes.
E) fluorescent synthetic nucleotides.
24) Probes used for detecting genetic sequences are frequently composed of
A) agarose.
B) synthetic nucleic acids and radioactive chemicals.
C) restriction enzymes.
D) silicon chips.
E) nitrocellulose.
25) __________ are used for cutting DNA molecules into fragments.
A) Antisense RNAs
B) Mutagens
C) DNA polymerase and DNA ligase
D) Restriction enzymes
E) RNA polymerases
26) The process known as PCR involves the use of
A) DNA polymerase.
B) RNA polymerase.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) DNA ligase.
E) restriction enzymes.
27) In Southern blotting, DNA molecules are immobilized on
A) silicon chips.
B) nitrocellulose membranes.
C) agarose.
D) gold beads.
E) paper.
28) Injecting DNA into cells can be accomplished using
A) nitrocellulose membranes.
B) silicon chips and nucleic acids.
C) compressed air and gold beads.
D) micropipettes.
E) micropipettes, or compressed air and gold beads.
29) During DNA electrophoresis, DNA molecules pass through __________, which separates the
molecules according to size.
A) agarose
B) nitrocellulose
C) silicon chips
D) restriction fragments
E) sequencers
30) The enzyme __________ is used for connecting DNA fragments.
A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA ligase
C) restriction enzyme
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D) reverse transcriptase
E) probase
31) An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?
A) Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure.
B) Cells cannot attach to their hosts.
C) Ribosomes lose their function.
D) The sterols in the cell wall become nonfunctional.
E) The replication of cells, including cancer cells, slows down.
32) Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on which of the following types of cells?
A) animal cells
B) bacterial cells
C) fungal cells
D) virus-infected cells
E) both animal and fungal cells
33) Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs?
A) They are less stable and consequently have fewer side effects.
B) They work faster.
C) They have a broader spectrum of action.
D) They must be administered intravenously.
E) They are not readily absorbed, so they persist longer.
34) Antimicrobial sugar analogs are effective for
A) preventing bacterial protein synthesis.
B) preventing cell membrane synthesis.
C) preventing virus attachment.
D) preventing nucleic acid synthesis.
E) blocking a metabolic pathway.
35) Infection of the __________ would be the hardest to treat with antimicrobial drugs.
A) heart
B) kidneys
C) liver
D) brain
E) colon
36) The antimicrobials called quinolones act by
A) disrupting cytoplasmic membranes.
B) inhibiting cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis.
D) inhibiting a metabolic pathway.
E) inhibiting protein synthesis.
37) The tetracyclines interfere with
A) protein synthesis.
B) cell wall synthesis.
C) cell membrane component synthesis.
D) nucleic acid synthesis.
E) folic acid synthesis.
38) The antimicrobial polymyxin
A) inhibits protein synthesis.
B) inhibits nucleic acid synthesis.
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C) blocks a metabolic pathway.
D) disrupts cytoplasmic membranes.
E) inhibits cell wall synthesis.
39) The mechanism of action of sulfonamides is
A) inhibition of metabolic pathways.
B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
D) disruption of cytoplasmic membranes.
E) inhibition of protein synthesis.
40) Pleomorphic bacteria
A) have a slightly curved rod shape.
B) are flexible.
C) reproduce by snapping division.
D) are roughly spherical.
E) vary in size and shape.
41) Which of the following bacterial arrangements is the result of snapping division?
A) tetrads
B) palisades
C) streptoD) sarcinae
E) staphylo42) What bacterial structure is responsible for separating the daughter DNA molecules after
replication?
A) cross wall
B) cytoplasmic membrane
C) fimbria
D) spindle
E) cytoskeleton
43) Endospores
A) are bacterial reproductive structures.
B) can be produced when nutrients are scarce.
C) are produced by bacteria, algae, and fungi.
D) are resistant to everything except radiation.
E) can last for only about 100 years.
44) Which of the following characteristics does NOT distinguish the archaea from the bacteria?
A) the types of transfer RNA used
B) the rRNA sequences present
C) the deoxyribonucleotides
D) cell wall composition
E) cell membrane composition
45) The archaea known as halophiles
A) require temperatures above 45C to survive.
B) require salt concentrations of 9% or greater to survive.
C) are members of the phylum Euryarchaeota.
D) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require temperatures above 45C.
E) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%.
46) The largest known group of archaea is the
Instructor: Azeem Ahmad
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A) thermophiles.
B) halophiles.
C) cyanobacteria.
D) methanogens.
E) hyperthermophiles.
47) Which of the following types of microbes might be found in the Dead Sea?
A) hyperthermophiles
B) phototrophic bacteria
C) methanogens
D) actinomycetes
E) halophiles
48) Which of the following statements regarding cyanobacteria is FALSE?
A) They are oxygenic.
B) Many perform nitrogen fixation.
C) They contain chlorophyll a.
D) They may have given rise to mitochondria.
E) Some are motile.
49) Mycoplasmas are pleomorphic because they
A) have no cell walls.
B) are low G + C Gram-positive bacteria.
C) exhibit snapping division.
D) have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes.
E) produce endospores.
50) Which of the following bacterial genera produce(s) endospores?
A) Bacillus
B) Clostridium
C) Lactobacillus
D) both Bacillus and Lactobacillus
E) both Bacillus and Clostridium
51) Which of the following characteristics is the basis for distinguishing classes of proteobacteria?
A) outer membrane carbohydrates
B) cell wall structure
C) G + C ratio
D) ribosomal RNA sequences
E) cytoplasmic membrane lipid composition
52) A flexible, spiral-shaped bacterium is called a
A) spirochete.
B) vibrio.
C) coccobacillus.
D) spirillum.
E) sarcina.
53) The __________ include the genus Aquifex.
A) archaea
B) proteobacteria
C) deeply branching bacteria
D) high G + C Gram-positive bacteria
E) clostridia
END