1) Measurements of a plant’s growth over a two-week period represent
a. Purpose
b. Variables.
c. Hypotheses.
d. Data.
2. Which of the following should never be done in a lab?
a. Lighting a Bunsen burner
b. Pouring toxic chemicals down the sink
c. Leaving the lab when the fire alarm goes off
d. Keeping your work area neat and uncluttered
3. Interpreting results based on data taken in a controlled setting is called a (an)
a. Analysis
b. Hypothesis
c. Conclusion
d. Theory
4. You predict that the presence of water could accelerate the growth of bread mold. This is a (an)
a. Conclusion.
b. Hypothesis.
c. Experiment.
d. Analysis.
5. A controlled experiment allows the scientist to isolate and test
a. A conclusion.
b. A mass of information.
c. Several variables.
d. A single variable.
6. The work of scientists generally begins with
a. Testing a hypothesis.
b. Making observations and asking questions.
c. Carrying out experiments.
d. Drawing conclusions.
7. Which of the following is found before the analysis section of a lab write-up?
a. Analysis.
b. Data Table.
c. Page number.
d. Class notes.
8. In science, a hypothesis is useful only if
a. It is proven correct.
b. It can be proven incorrect.
c. It can be tested.
d. The explanation is already known.
9. In the experiment meant to test the effect of an anti-cancer drug, one group of mice was given the drug while another
group was given a sugar pill. The group given the sugar pill represented
a. The control group
b. The experimental group
c. The dependent variable
d. The analytical group.
10. An experiment that tests the effect of a single variable is called a
a. Variable experiment.
b. Hypothetical experiment.
c. Theoretical experiment.
d. Controlled experiment.
11. An educated guess based upon observations is a (an)
a. Hypothesis.
b. Inference.
c. Theory.
d. Controlled experiment.
12. The ability to reproduce results is an important part of any
a. Hypothesis.
b. Theory.
c. Law.
d. Experiment.
13. Which of the following might be a valid hypothesis for why a plant appears to be dying?
a. The plant is not being watered enough.
b. The plant is being watered too much.
c. The plant is receiving too much sunlight.
d. All of the above.
14. What kind of data did you (or were you expected to) generate in the “growing bacteria” experiment?
a. Quantitative.
b. Qualitative.
c. Both qualitative and quantitative.
d. We were not expected to generate any data.
15. A hypothesis
a. Can be completely proven.
b. May be disproved by experimentation
c. Does not have to be tested in order to be accepted as probably correct.
d. Is a proven fact.
16. In your bacteria lab, you made observations of your Petri dishes
a. After setting up the hypothesis and following the procedure.
b. After following the procedure and before setting up the hypothesis
c. After the analysis and conclusion.
d. During the analysis and conclusion
17. A change in the lunch menu to incorporate more healthful items will have an effect on the health of school children. This
is an example of
a. Observation.
b. Data.
c. Hypothesis
d. Purpose
18. The distance between the two stores is 2.5 km is an example of
a. Qualitative data
b. Quantitative data
c. Purpose
d. Analysis
19. In which step of the scientific method would you do research?
a. After hypothesis
b. After the experiment has been set up
c. Before the analysis
d. All of the above
e. Only a and b
Matching: Part I (1 Point Each)
Determine whether following data are qualitative or quantitative. Record your answers on the scantron.
A. Qualitative
20)
21)
B. Quantitative
The lab table is black.
The shoe is a size 7.
Matching: Part II (1 Point Each).
Determine whether following statements are observations or inferences. Record your answers on the scantron.
A. Observation
B. Inference
22) John has short hair.
23) The room is 16x8 ft. long.
24) The nucleus is made up of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
electrons and neutrons.
protons and neutrons.
protons, neutrons, and electrons.
protons and electrons.
25) What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a.
b.
c.
d.
negative
positive
possibly positive or negative
neutral
26) In chemical reactions, atoms are
a. rearranged.
b. destroyed.
c. neutralized.
d. created.
27) Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO 2 + H2O -> H2CO3
a.
b.
c.
d.
CO2 and H2O
H2CO3
CO2
CO2, H2O, and H2CO3
28) Which of the following makes up a molecule of water?
a.
b.
c.
d.
one atom of sodium and one atom of chlorine
one atom of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
one atom of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen
two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen
29) The three particles that make up an atom are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
neutrons, isotopes, and electrons
protons, neutrons, and electrons
protons, neutrons, and isotopes
positives, negatives, and electrons
30) The space surrounding the nucleus of an atom contains:
a.
b.
c.
d.
neutrons
electrons
ions
protons
31) If an atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons, its atomic number is
a.
b.
c.
d.
11
23
1
12
32) A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a.
b.
c.
d.
transferring protons
sharing a proton pair
sharing an electron pair
transferring electrons
3 33) When hydrogen and oxygen combine and form water, water is
a.
b.
c.
d.
a product
a reactant
both a product and a reactant
neither a product nor a reactant
34) A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain in New
York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York State has a pH of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.22
4.40
4.30
4.35
35) A substance with a pH of 6 is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
an acid
a base
both an acid and a base
neither an acid nor a base
36) An insect walking on water is an example of which property of water?
a. adhesion
b. cohesion
c. capillary action
d. surface tension
37) The basic building blocks of matter (smallest unit of an element) are called:
a.atoms
b.molecules
c.protons
d.electrons
38 Which element is present in ALL organic compounds?
A. hydrogen
B. carbon
C. oxygen
D. BOTH B and C
39 Why is carbon considered “special”?
a. It has special properties
b. It can bond with many other elements
c. It has 4 valence electrons
d. BOTH B and C
40 An example of a monomer of carbohydrates is:
a. glucose
b. starch
c. glycogen
d. collagen
41 A function of lipids is to:
a. provide heat
b. provide insulation
c. provide hormones
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
42 A polymer of protein is:
a. an amino acid
b. a peptide bond
c. a polypeptide chain
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
43 The elements found in carbohydrates are:
A. Carbon only
B. Carbon and Hydrogen
C. Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
44 All amino acids are the same except for their:
a. amine group
b. carboxyl group
c. R group
d. All of the above
45 Denaturation is when:
a. the structure of the enzyme changes
b. the function of the enzyme changes
c. NONE OF THE ABOE
d. BOTH A and B
46 The “good fat” is considered to be:
a. trans fat
b. unsaturated fat
c. saturated fat
d. BOTH A AND C
47 An inorganic compound:
a. contain hydrogen
b. contains carbon
c. does not contain carbon
d. does not contain hydrogen
48 An example of a protein is:
a. a steroid
b. sucrose
c. hemoglobin
d. butter
49 The bonds that hold amino acids together are:
a. peptide bonds
b. covalent bonds
c. ionic bonds
d. hydrogen bonds
50)Which could not be a compound from which a protein could be directly formed?
A) oil
B) amino acid
C) dipeptide
D) polypeptide
51)Which food substance is most likely to contain the element nitrogen?
A) meat
B) vinegar
C) pure corn oil
D) table sugar
52)Which is a building block used in the formation of carbohydrates?
A) glycerol
B) monosaccharide
C) amino acid
D) dipeptide
53)Disaccharides are formed by a chemical reaction between
A) two amino acid molecules
B)
two glucose molecules
C)
a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids
D)
DNA & RNA
54) Which substances are commonly used as the building blocks in the synthesis of some proteins?
A) sugars
B) amino acids
C) fatty acids and glycerol
D) amino acids and glycerols
55) Which pair of compounds could be classified as inorganic?
(A) nucleic acids and minerals
(B) water and salt
(C) proteins and carbohydrates
(D) proteins and water
56)Protein has a great potential for variation of structure because
(A) many amino acids may combine in a number of ways
(B) fatty acids may vary
(C) nucleotides may vary
57)The main difference between the secondary and quaternary structure of a protein is
(A) bond angles between amino acids
(C) number of polypeptides in the molecule
(B) sequence of amino acids
(D) the folding pattern of the molecule
58) The 'primary structure' of a protein refers to
(A) interactions among the side chains or R-groups of the amino acids
(B) coiling due to hydrogen bonding between amino acids
(C) the number and sequence of amino acids
(D) the alpha-helix, or pleated sheets (e) the weak interaction of two or more polypeptides
59)A fatty acid containing at least two double bonds is called
(A) cholesterol
(B) saturated
(C) polyunsaturated
( D) monounsaturated
60). Which is not a function of carbohydrates (in general)?
(A) Structural support
(B) Immediate energy
(C) Energy storage
(D) Enzymatic catalysis
61 )At a conference, the speaker's grand finale was sautéing mealworms (insect larvae) in butter and serving them to the
audience. They were crunchy (like popcorn) because their exoskeletons contain the polysaccharide (a) linolenic acid
A) cellulose
B) collagen
C) glycogen
D) chitin.
62) Most of people’s food energy comes from
A) carbohydrates.
B) proteins.
C) lipids.
D) cellulose.
63) When your body digests starch, a product of the reaction is
A cellulose.
B) maltose.
C) glucose.
D) a disaccharide
64) Which of the following are structural components of carbohydrates?
A) rings containing carbon
B) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
C) contain nitrogen
d. BOTH A and B
65 To enter or leave a cell, substances must pass through a
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
ribosome
nucleus
centriole
plasma membrane
microtubule
66) A cell has a mitochondrion, ribosomes, smooth and rough ER, and other parts. Based on this
information, it could not be a
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
cell from a pine tree
grasshopper cell
yeast (fungus) cell
bacterium
cheek cell
67) The organelle that directs all the cell’s activities is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
nucleus
mitochondrion
cell membrane
golgi body
ribosome
68) Animal cells do not have
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
nuclei
chloroplasts
cell walls
both B and C
none of the above
69) The organelle that receives proteins, packages them up, and distributes them to other parts of
the cell is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
endoplasmic reticulum
central vacuole
golgi body
lysosome
mitochondrion
70) What organelle functions as a protein factory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ribosome
Lysosome
Cell membrane
Cytoplasm
Centriole
71) The scientist who described cells as “many little boxes” was
A. Robert Hooke
B. Theodor Schwann
C. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
D. Rudolf Virchow
E. Copernicus
72) Cells that have a high energy requirement general have many
A. Flagella
B. Nuclei
C. Mitochondria
D. Centrioles
E. Microfilaments
73) Which of the following contain a nucleus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
prokaryotes
bacteria
eukaryotes
organelles
electrons
74) Which organelle releases energy from sugars and other molecules?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
chloroplast
Golgi apparatus
endoplasmic reticulum
mitochondrion
nucleus
75) The specialized structures that perform important cellular functions
in eukaryotic cells are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
organelles
prokaryotes
cellular organs
organs
eukaryote
76) A two layer “sandwich” of molecules that surrounds an organelle or cell is called a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
chloroplast
centriole
microtubule
vacuole
membrane
77) Which of the following is sometimes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
chloroplasts
mitochondria
vacuoles
ribosomes
chromatin
78) One structure which aids in the movement of a cell is called a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
flagellum
lysosome
chlorophyll
centrioles
vacuole
79) Which organelle in the nucleus makes ribosomes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cell wall
Nucleolus
Mitochondria
Cilia
Golgi body
80) The process of osmosis is an example of:
A. active transport
B. passive transport
C. medium transport
D. both A and B
E. none of the above
81) The process in which a cell takes in material from its surroundings and then releases the
materials inside the cell is called
A. photosynthesis
B. endocytosis
C. exocytosis
D. passive transport
E. both A and B
82) Diffusion is the net movement of molecules from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
an area of equilibrium to an area of high concentration
all of the above
none of the above
83) Which means of particle transport requires input of energy from the cell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
diffusion
osmosis
facilitated diffusion
active transport
fluid mosaic model
84) Someone put celery in a solution in a beaker. You don’t know what type of solution it is, but
you notice the celery is wilted and bendable. What type of solution was the celery in?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Active
Hypotonic
Hypertonic
Isotonic
Passive
85) Which of the following is true about diffusion?
A. Energy is needed.
B. Particles go against the concentration gradient.
C. Particles must travel through a membrane.
D. Molecules move from high to low concentration.
E. It only happens with liquids.
86) What happens to water molecules when a cell is in an isotonic solution?
A. They keep moving equally back and forth across the membrane.
B. They stop moving because equilibrium has been reached.
C. They double in size.
D. They continue to move out of the cell.
E. They continue to move into the cell.
87) If the eyepiece of a microscope magnifies 10x and the objective magnifies 40x, then the total
magnification is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
40
4
400
50
None of the above
88) Always begin examining microscope slides with which power objective?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
High
Low
100 X
1000 X
It doesn’t matter
89 Blood proteins in horses are chemically similar to blood proteins in monkeys. This similarity
suggests that horses and monkeys:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
can interbreed
evolved at the same time
live in the same habitat
have a common ancestor
do not share a common ancestor
90 Darwin’s studies of finches on the Galapagos Islands suggest that the finches’ differences in
beak structure were most directly due to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
characteristics the parents acquired during their lifetimes.
the size of the island where the finches live.
mating behaviors of the different finch species.
the number of predators on the islands
adaptations of the finches to different environments.
91 Suppose a dolphin population becomes trapped in a harbor that is growing smaller and
shallower because of climate changes. Is it likely that the dolphins would evolve into a landdwelling species in a few thousand years?
A. It is possible if the dolphins will themselves to survive
B. It is not possible because the dolphins are not smart enough
C. It is possible if all the dolphins are strong and fit.
D. It is not possible because the Bottleneck effect may occur.
E. It is possible if the some dolphins are born with limbs that allow them to
exploit food from the land and they become fitter than the others.
92 In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thighbone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis
and femur shown in the above figure are
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Examples of fossils
Vestigial structures
Acquired traits
Camouflage
Examples of natural variation
93 When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed and some escape and live
to reproduce. Which best describes this situation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
An individual passes along acquired characteristics to the next generation.
Natural selection is a random process.
Individuals that function best tend to live to reproduce.
Species remain unchanged throughout time.
The prey will become extinct.
94 The primitive atmosphere lacked:
A.
B.
C.
D.
oxygen gas
oxygen within molecules
methane
carbon dioxide
95An inherited characteristic that increases an organism’s ability to survive and
reproduce in its specific environment is called a(n) _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Homologous structure
Vestigial organ
Speciation
Analogous structure
Adaptation
96. Which category contains the most similar organisms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Genus
Phylum
Class
Kingdom
Domain
97. The scientific name for the wolf is Canis lupus. Which is the genus name?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Canis
lupus
Canis lupus
wolf
mammalia
98. If you wanted to find out whether sharks and dolphins share homologous structures, what evidence would you
examine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fetal development
DNA structure
Bones or other body features
Amino acid sequences
Blood
99. When farmers select the largest hogs, the fastest horses, or the cows that produce the most milk for breeding, this is
called ___.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
natural selection
artificial selection
survival of the fittest
homologous variation
survival of the fittest
100. Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on the idea(s) of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Variation and natural selection
Use and disuse
A tendency toward perfect, unchanging species
Artificial selection
The transmission of acquired characteristics
101. Which of the following best describes how Lamarck would explain giraffes with long
necks?
A. Long-necked giraffes eat more grass than short-necked giraffes so their necks grow longer
B. Natural variation in the population produces some longer and some shorter-necked giraffes and longer
necked giraffes can reach food more easily.
C. Some giraffes have acquired longer necks by stretching to reach food and passed that trait on.
D. Giraffes just started out with long necks and haven’t changed.
E. It just randomly happened over time.
102 One bean plant is illuminated with green light and another bean plant of similar size and leaf area is illuminated with
blue light. If all other conditions are identical, how will the photosynthetic rates of the plants most probably compare?
C) the plant under the blue light will carry on
photosynthesis at a greater rate than the one under the
green light.
D) the plant under the green light will carry on
B)photosynthesis will occur at the
photosynthesis at a greater rate than the one under the
same rate in both plants.
blue light.
A) Neither plant will carry on
photosynthesis
103. An organic compound formed is the dark reactions of photosynthesis is
A) glucose
B) oxygen
C) chlorophyll
D) water
104. The rate of photosynthesis carried on by plants living in a body of water depends chiefly upon the
A) number of decomposers in the water
B) amount of light that penetrates the water
C) amount of molecular oxygen in the water
D) None of the above
105. The most common food reserves in humans are fat and
A)DNA
B)hemoglobin
C)glycogen
D) maltose
106. Which word equation best represents the process of photosynthesis
A) glucose --> alcohol + carbon dioxide
C) carbon dioxide + water --> glucose + oxygen
B) maltose + water --> glucose + glucose D) glucose + oxygen --> carbon dioxide + water
107. Which answer specifically describes the process illustrated.
Water -- chlorophyll + light --> hydrogen + oxygen
A) fermentation reactions
B) carbon fixation reactions
C) dark reactions
D) photochemical reactions
108 For the given statement, choose the process that is best described by the statement.
Occurs in the stroma and produces Glucose.
A)aerobic respiration
B) plight reactions of photosynthesis
C) anaerobic respiration
D) carbon-fixation reactions of photosynthesis
109. Photosynthesis uses sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into
a. Oxygen only.
b. Sugars only.
c. ATP and oxygen.
d. Oxygen and sugars.
110 Which of the following is part of the overall reaction for photosynthesis?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Water
c. Light
d. All of the above
111.The stroma is the thick fluid within the inner membrane of a chloroplast that surrounds
a. Thylakoids.
b. Chloroplasts.
c. Plant cells.
d. All of the above
112.Most plants appear green because chlorophyll
a. Does not absorb green light.
b. Reflects violet light.
c. Absorbs green light.
d. None of the above
113. Where in the chloroplast is chlorophyll found?
a. In the stroma
b. In the thylakoid
c. In the ATP
d. In the glucose
114.Given that a plant is receiving the right amounts of air and water, which part of the leaf will actively photosynthesize?
a. Upper epidermis
b. Lower epidermis
c. Stomata
d. Mesophyll
115.What are the products of the light reactions?
a. Oxygen
b. ATP
c. NADPH
d. All of the above
116.Plants gather the sun’s energy with light-absorbing molecules called
a. Pigments.
b. Thylakoids.
c. Chloroplasts.
d. Glucose.
117.Which of the following is NOT a step in the light reactions?
a. Oxygen is created
b. Pigments in the first chloroplasts absorb light.
c. H+ ions build up and ATP is made.
d. ATP and NADPH are used to produce sugars.
118.A granum (singular for grana) is a
a. Stack of chloroplasts.
b. Stack of thylakoids.
c. Membrane enclosing a thylakoid.
d. Photosynthetic pigment molecule.
119.Which of the following is false?
a. A chloroplast contains stroma.
b. A thylakoid contains a granum.
c. A granum contains several thylakoids.
d. A thylakoid contains chlorophyll.
120. A student is collecting the gas given off from a plant in bright sunlight at a temperature of 27°C. The gas being
collected is probably
a. oxygen.
b. carbon dioxide.
c. ATP.
d. vaporized water.
121.Where in the leaf does ADP use energy to form ATP?
a. In the stroma
b. In the Calvin Cycle
c. In the thylakoid membranes
d. Only with the NADP molecules
122.How would global warming which results in increasing the levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere effect the
plant’s production of sugars?
a. More sugars will be produced.
b. Fewer sugars will be produced.
c. The same number of sugars will be produced but without carbon dioxide.
d. Carbon dioxide does not affect the production of sugars in plants.
123.Which region of the visible spectrum is not absorbed well by chlorophyll?
a. Blue
b. Violet
c. Green
d. Red
r
124.What is the first step in photosynthesis?
a. Pigments in the chlorophyll absorb light.
b. A water molecule is split, releasing oxygen.
c. Electrons move through the electron transport chain.
d. ATP synthase allows H+ ions to pass through the thylakoid membrane.
125.What is a product of the Calvin cycle?
a. Oxygen gas
b. ATP
c. Sugar
d. Carbon dioxide gas
126 Organisms, such as plants, that make their own food are called
a. autotrophs.
b. heterotrophs.
c. consumers.
d. pigments.
a.
b.
c.
d.
127
Organisms that cannot make their own food and must obtain energy from the foods they eat are called
autotrophs.
heterotrophs.
producers.
plants.
128 Cellular respiration uses oxygen to convert the chemical energy stored in organic molecules into
a. organic molecules.
b. ATP.
c. carbon dioxide.
d. water.
129 Energy is released from ATP when
a. a phosphate group is added.
b. adenine bonds to ribose.
c. ATP is exposed to sunlight.
d. a phosphate group is removed.
130.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?
a. glycolysis  fermentation  Krebs cycle
b. Krebs cycle  electron transport  glycolysis
c. glycolysis  Krebs cycle  electron transport
d. Krebs cycle  glycolysis electron transport
131
Which process is used to make bread rise?
a. lactic acid fermentation
b. glycolysis
c. alcoholic fermentation
d. the Krebs cycle
a.
b.
c.
d.
132.
How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis almost opposite processes?
Photosynthesis releases energy, and cellular respiration stores energy.
Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide, and cellular respiration produces it.
Photosynthesis uses oxygen, and cellular respiration produces it.
all of the above
133
Which of the following processes remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
a. Photosynthesis
b. Cell respiration
c. Deforestation
d. Lactic Acid Fermentation
. 134
Which of these is a product of cellular respiration?
a. oxygen
b. water
c. glucose
d. all of the above
135.
Cellular respiration is called an aerobic process when it requires
a. light.
b. exercise.
c. oxygen.
d. glucose.
136.
Which of these processes takes place in the cytoplasm of a cell?
a. glycolysis
b. electron transport
c. Krebs cycle
d. all of the above
137.
How is carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere?
a. Photosynthesis by autotrophs
b. Cellular respiration by heterotrophs.
c. Photosynthesis by autotrophs and heterotrophs
d. Cellular respiration by autotrophs and heterotrophs
138.
One cause of muscle soreness and fatigue is
a. alcoholic fermentation.
b. glycolysis.
c. lactic acid fermentation.
d. the Krebs cycle.
139.
Milk is converted to yogurt under certain conditions when the microorganisms in the milk produce acid.
Which of these processes would you expect to be key in the production of yogurt?
a.
b.
c.
d.
the Krebs cycle
photosynthesis
alcoholic fermentation
lactic acid fermentation
140 In which stage of anaerobic cellular respiration is the energy made?
a. Glycolysis
b. Krebs Cycle
c. Electron transport chain
d. Lactic acid fermentation
141 Cytokinesis occurs:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
After mitosis has been completed
During interphase
After anaphase
In between interphase and prophase
None of the above
142 Sister chromatids separate during:
a.
b.
c.
d.
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
143 What occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle?
a. the nucleus divides
b. the cytoplasm pinches inward
c. DNA replicates
d. chromatin condenses into chromosomes
e. none of the above
144 During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear membrane dissolve?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Metaphase
Prophase
Telophase
Anaphase
Cytokinesis
145) Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Anaphase
Metaphase
Telophase
Prophase
S
146) Which stage of mitosis is depicted in the diagram below?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Telophase
Metaphase
Telophase
Interphase
Prophase
147 The cytoplasm divides, and the cell contents are separated into two separate cells during ___.
a. Anaphase
b. Telophase
c. Metaphase
d. Cytokinesis
e. Prophase
Directions: Put the following statements in order from what occurs first to what occurs last.
A.
Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Prophase
148) ____
Chromatin condenses into chromosomes
149) ____
Chromatids are pulled to opposite poles
150) ____
DNA replicates
151) ____
Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
152) ____
Nuclear membrane develops making 2 nuclei
D. Telophase
153 When the cell divides to produce 2 haploid daughter cells, this process is known as:
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis I
C. Cytokinesis
D. Meiosis II
154) All of the following statements about making gametes are true EXCEPT:
A. Sperm cells are produced during meiosis
B. Four sperm cells are produced for each diploid cell.
C. Meiosis produces somatic cells
D. Meiosis produces gametes.
E. Interphase
155) Crossing over occurs during which phase of meiosis?
A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Metaphase II
156) The sex of a person depends on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
whether the unfertilized egg contains an X or Y chromosome
Whether the sperm that fertilizes the egg contains an X or Y chromosome
The genetic makeup of somatic cells found in the egg cell
The genetic makeup of somatic cells found in the sperm
157) A sperm cell of an alligator has 16 chromosomes. What is the total number of chromosomes normally present in a
stomach cell of this alligator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8
16
32
48
For # 158: The diagrams below represent the gametes and zygotes associated with two
separate fertilizations in a particular species.
158) The abnormal zygotes are most likely the result of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
mitosis
chromosome breakage
polyploidy
non -disjunction
The diagram below represents a life cycle. Use this diagram and your knowledge of the living environment to
answer questions 10 through 12 which follow.
159) At stage F, (2n) refers to the number of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chromosomes in gametes
Mitotic divisions that produce the embryo
Chromosomes in a body cell of an embryo
Days in the gestation period
160) Stage E is produced as a direct result of the process of :
A.
B.
C.
D.
menstruation
implantation
fertilization
gastrulation
161) The process indicated by P takes place in both the male and female.
A. anaphase
B. result of meiosis
C. result of mitosis
D. None of the above
162) When do sister chromatids separate during meiosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Metaphase I
Metaphase II
Anaphase I
Anaphase II
163) Which one of the following statements is NOT true about meiosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Meiosis occurs in reproductive cells
Meiosis results in four haploid daughter cells
In meiosis, chromosomes do not exchange genetic material
In meiosis, homologous pairs of chromosomes are pulled apart.
164) Which of the following is TRUE of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
A) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes.
B) There are 32 homologous pairs.
C) A gamete from this species has 8 chromosomes.
D) BOTH A and B
o
165) During meiosis, homologous chromosomes align along the metaphase plate during :
A) metaphase I.
B) metaphase II
C) anaphase I
D) Interphase.
M ATCHING: PART I
Choose the single best answer. Write your answer on the answer sheet. (1pt)
166) abbreviated as 2N
A. Meiosis
167) another name for body cells is
B. Haploid
168) abbreviated as N
C. sperm and egg
169) another name for gametes is
D. Diploid
170) Type of cell division involved in sex cell formation E. Somatic cell
171 Mendel concluded that traits are
a. not inherited by offspring.
b. inherited through the passing of factors from parents to offspring.
c. determined by dominant factors only.
d. determined by recessive factors only.
172.
In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. No F 1 plants were short. Short plants reappeared
in the F2 generation because
a. some of the F2 plants produced gametes that carried the allele for shortness.
b. the allele for shortness is dominant.
c. the allele for shortness and the allele for tallness segregated when the F 1 plants produced
gametes.
d. they inherited an allele for shortness from one parent and an allele for tallness from the
other parent.
T
t
T
TT
Tt
T
TT
Tt
T
=
tall
t
=
short
TT
Figure 10-1
173.
In the Punnett square shown in Figure 10-1, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting
from the cross?
a. About half are expected to be short.
b. All are expected to be short.
c. All are expected to be of medium height.
d. All are expected to be tall.
a.
b.
c.
d.
174.
Which of the following assort independently?
chromosomes
two genes on the same chromosome
multiple alleles
codominant alleles
RY
Ry
rY
ry
RY
RRYY
RRYy
RrYY
RrYy
Ry
RRYy
RRyy
RrYy
Rryy
RrYy
rY
RrYY
RrYy
rrYY
rrYy
ry
RrYy
Rryy
rrYy
rryy
Seed Shape
R – round
r – wrinkled
Seed Color
Y – yellow
y – green
Figure 10-2
a.
b.
c.
d.
175.
The Punnett square in Figure 10-2 shows that the gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color
assort independently.
are linked.
have the same alleles.
are always homozygous.
176.
A man and a woman who are both heterozygous for normal skin pigmentation (Aa) produce an albino
offspring (aa). Which of Mendel’s principles explain(s) why the offspring is albino?
a. dominance only
b. independent assortment only
c. dominance and segregation
d. segregation only
177.
When Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding purple-flowered plants with true-breeding white-flowered
plants, all the offspring were purple because
a. the allele for purple-flowered plants is recessive.
b. the allele for white-flowered plants is dominant.
c. the allele for purple-flowered plants is dominant.
d. they were true-breeding like their parents.
a.
b.
c.
d.
178.
If a pea plant has a recessive allele for green peas, it will produce
green peas if it also has a dominant allele for yellow peas.
both green peas and yellow peas if it also has a dominant allele for yellow peas.
green peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for yellow peas.
yellow peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for green peas.
a.
b.
c.
d.
179.
Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be
hybrid.
homozygous.
heterozygous.
dominant.
180.
In the P generation, a true-breeding tall plant (dominant) is crossed with a true-breeding short plant
(recessive). The probability that an F2 plant will be tall is
a. 50%.
b. 75%.
c. 25%.
d. 100%.
a.
b.
c.
d.
181.
In a pedigree, a shaded circle represents a
man who has the disease
woman who has the disease
man who is normal
woman who is normal
182 What happens during the process of translation?
a. Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b. The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c. Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
d. Copies of DNA molecules are made.
183 How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
.
184 What is produced during transcription?
a. RNA molecules
b. DNA molecules
c. RNA polymerase
d. proteins
185. During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the
a.
b.
c.
d.
codon on the tRNA only.
anticodon on the mRNA only.
anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached only.
codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached.
186. Genes contain instructions for assembling
a. purines.
b. nucleosomes.
c. proteins.
d. pyrimidines.
187. Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?
a. ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine
b. deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine
c. phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine
d. phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine
188. Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a. adenine.
b. uracil.
c. phosphate groups.
d. thymine.
189 Which type of RNA functions as a “blueprint” for protein synthesis?
a. rRNA
b. tRNA
c. mRNA
d. RNA polymerase
190. The first mRNA codon to specify an amino acid is always:
a. TAC
b. UAA
c. UAG
d. AUG
191 Which of the following processes occur in the cytoplasm of the cell?
a. DNA replication
b. RNA transcription
c. Translation
d. All of the above
192. According to the central dogma, the flow of information in a cell goes in which direction?
a. DNA > Protein > RNA
b. DNA > RNA > Protein
c. RNA > DNA > Protein
d. RNA > Protein > DNA
193. After an mRNA molecule is transcribed from a gene, portions called _______ are
removed and the remaining _______ are spliced together to produce an mRNA molecule
with a continuous coding sequence
a.
promoters …….. codons
b.
exons ……………introns
c.
introns ……………exons
d.
initiators ………….terminators
194. One similarity between DNA and messenger RNA molecules is that they both contain
a. the same sugar
b. genetic codes based on sequences of bases
c. a nitrogenous base known as uracil
d. double-stranded polymers
195.. Some events that take place during the synthesis of a specific protein are listed below.
a. Messenger RNA attaches to a ribosome.
b. DNA serves as a template for RNA production.
c. Transfer RNA bonds to a specific codon.
d. Amino acids are bonded together.
e. RNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
196. Which defines a codon?
a. a protein that begins transcription by breaking apart H bonds
b. a free-floating base that attaches to an open DNA strand
c. the genetic code word of three bases on mRNA that specify one amino acid
d. the strong bond between two complementary nitrogen bases
197) Producer
A) Cow
198) Heterotroph
B) feeding level
199) Detritus
C) Waste
200) Photosynthesis
D) Decomposer
201) Only eats plants
E) 1st to eat producers in a food chain
202) Interconnected food chains
AA) form of energy
203) Omnivore
BB) Population
204) Primary consumer
CC) Chemical bond
205) Organisms of the same species
DD) Plant
206) Community
EE) Herbivore
207) All ecosystems
AB) Food web
208) Breaks down dead organisms
AC) Eats both plants and animals
209) Holds molecules and compounds together
AD) Bunch of populations
210) Trophic level
AE) Biosphere
211) Heat
BC) Makes Oxygen
212 An insect walking on water is an example of which property of water?
a. adhesion
b. cohesion
c. capillary action
d. surface tension
213) The basic building blocks of matter (smallest unit of an element) are called:
a. atoms
b. molecules
c. protons
d. electrons
214)
The branch of biology dealing with interactions among organisms and between organisms and their environment
is called:
a. biology.
b. modeling.
c. recycling.
d. ecology.
215)
a.
b.
c.
d.
All of the members of a particular species that live in one area are called a(an)
biome.
population.
community.
ecosystem.
216)
a.
b.
c.
d.
autotrophs.
consumers.
herbivores.
omnivores.
217)
a.
b.
c.
d.
An organism that cannot make its own food is called a(an)
heterotroph.
chemoautotroph.
autotroph.
producer.
219
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following organisms does NOT require sunlight to live?
chemosynthetic bacteria( bacteria that get their energy from chemicals)
algae
trees
photosynthetic bacteria
218)
a.
b.
c.
d.
Green plants are
A snake that eats a frog that has eaten an insect that fed on a plant is part of which trophic level?
first-level producer.
first-level consumer.
second-level producer.
third-level consumer.
220)
Which of the following is NOT recycled in the biosphere?
a. water
b. nitrogen
c. carbon
d. energy
221)
a.
b.
c.
d.
plant life.
soil type.
rainfall.
temperature.
223)
a.
b.
c.
d.
Each of the following is an abiotic factor in the environment EXCEPT
Which is a biotic factor that affects the size of a population in a specific ecosystem?
average temperature of the ecosystem
type of soil in the ecosystem
number and kinds of predators in the ecosystem
concentration of oxygen in the ecosystem
224) What is the percentage decrease at all trophic levels in a food pyramid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1%
10%
50%
90%
225) Each of the following is a biotic factor in the environment EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
plant life.
soil type.
cougar.
elephant.
226) Only 10 percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the remaining
energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes, and the rest is
a.
b.
c.
d.
recycled
cycled back into the atmosphere
eaten by the next level
lost as heat.