BIOL 211 SI, Molly
Dr. Serb and Dr. Raich
Final Exam Review, Fall 2014
Draw the Alternation of Generations. Include ploidy levels.
Label the asterisked (*) parts of the cell. Include the function of each.
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Draw out the phylogenetic tree from Porifera to Deuterostomes. Include all clades and characteristics
between them.
Draw out the phylogenetic tree for all Deuterostomes. Include all clades and characteristics between
them.
Draw the phylogenetic tree for all plants. Include all clades and characteristics between them.
Draw the sexual and asexual life cycle of fungi.
Draw out the stages of Mitosis. Include the events that occur in each stage.
Draw out the stages of Meiosis I and Meiosis II. (Hint: It may be helpful to draw Meiosis II directly below
the corresponding stages of Meiosis I.)
Draw an example of each of the three types of species distribution.
Multiple Choice
Unit 1
1.) Which of the following is the best definition of a theory?
a. An educated guess.
b. A broad explanation for natural phenomena supported by lots of evidence.
c. An observation of the supernatural world.
d. A specific, known fact to support the phenomena of the natural world.
2.) What is metabolism?
a. A form of reproduction in protists.
b. The transformation of light into energy.
c. The chemical reactions carried out by cells.
d. The process of producing proteins.
3.) All the following are characteristics of all living organisms except:
a. Replication
b. Response to the environment
c. Information
d. Metabolism
e. Cells
f. All the above are characteristics
4.) Which of the following is the correct way to write a scientific name?
a. Canis Lupis
b. Canis Lupis
c. Canis lupis
d. Canis lupis
e. Canis Lupis
f. A and E
g. C and D
5.) An educated guess about an observation, creating a non-testable and non-falsifiable opinion is
better known as a hypothesis.
a. True
b. False
6.) The alternation of generations:
a. Produces a sporophyte from spores.
b. Contains a heterotrophic stage.
c. Does not occur in all living organisms.
d. Produces a gametophyte from gametes.
7.) A ____________ produces __________, while a ___________ produces ____________ through
the alternation of generations.
a. Gametophyte; spores; sporophyte; gametes
b. Gamete; gametophyte; sporophyte; spores
c. Gametophyte; gametes; spores; sporophyte
d. Gametophyte; gametes; sporophyte; spores
8.) An organism that carries and disperses a pathogenic organism to a host organism is a
a. Pathogen
b. Vector
c. Eukaryote
d. None of the above
9.) Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotes, but not eukaryotes?
a. They have DNA
b. They have mitochondria
c. They have ribosomes
d. They do not have organelles
10.) Using the phylogenetic tree below, which organism is more closely related to the Cheetah?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Asian leopard cat
African wild cat
Cougar
Bobcat
11.) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes both contain genomes, however prokaryotic genomes __________.
a. Are composed of half the amount of DNA as eukaryotic genomes.
b. Have twice the amount of proteins as eukaryotic genomes.
c. Are single, circular chromosomes.
d. Have DNA that is contained within a membrane-bound nucleus.
12.) Which of the following is a characteristic of all cells?
a. All cells have energy-producing mitochondria
b. All cells have ribosomes to create proteins
c. All cells have DNA contained within a nucleus
d. All cells contain all the above
13.) Multicellular organisms:
a. Contain cells that can specialize for individual functions
b. Can only grow to the size of an adult human
c. Obtain most of their oxygen through diffusion of the skin
d. All the above
14.) The Cell Theory contains three components. One of the components is:
a. All cells come from the pre-existing cells of the heart of the organism.
b. All organisms are composed of cells, but not the products of the cells.
c. Cells are the most basic units of life.
d. All the above are part of the Cell Theory.
15.) Primary producers are organisms that
a. Produce chemical energy by photosynthesis.
b. Are at the top of the food web.
c. Produce almost all the carbon dioxide that is fixed on Earth.
d. None of the above.
16.) Which of the following is true about a phylogenetic tree?
a. A phylogenetic tree only shows extinct, not extant organisms.
b. A phylogenetic tree is a hypothesis, not a fact.
c. A phylogenetic tree does not show descent through time.
d. All the above are true.
17.) The Endosymbiont Theory describes
a. How organelles appeared in eukaryotic cells from bacterial cells.
b. How mitochondria are descendants from photosynthetic bacteria.
c. How host cells contain two different sets of DNA.
d. All the above are described by the Endosymbiont Theory.
18.) When referring to metabolic diversity, which of the following is an advantage prokaryotes have
over eukaryotes?
a. Aerobic respiration
b. Decomposition
c. Nitrogen fixation
d. Photosynthesis
19.) Sexual reproduction results in
a. Offspring that are genetically identical to the parents, and therefore will survive just as
they did.
b. A greater rate of survival in a constant environment because they will only evolve to be
better adapted.
c. More offspring being produced compared to asexual reproduction.
d. A better chance of survival in an evolving environment.
20.) Haploid and diploid conditions alternate in ______ sexual life cycles, but alternation of
generations only applies to life cycles in which ____________________.
a. All; both stages are unicellular
b. All; both stages are multicellular
c. Some; one stage is multicellular and one stage is unicellular
d. Some; both stages are unicellular
Unit 2
21.) All animals are:
a. Radially symmetric
b. Coelomates
c. Heterotrophic
d. All the above
22.) On the phylogenetic tree, a body cavity appears at the same time as Bilaterians. Which of the
following is a true statement regarding body cavities?
a. True coelomates have tissue that lines only the ectoderm.
b. Pseudocoelomates are organisms that have a fluid-filled cavity that is completely lined
with tissue.
c. Acoelomates are organisms that are packed with tissue and therefore do not have a
cavity.
d. A and B only
23.) During what part of development does the difference between a protostome and a
deuterostome occur?
a. Cleavage
b. Blastocoel formation
c. Blastula formation
d. Gastrulation
24.) Sponges are considered animals, but they:
a. Have both radial and bilateral symmetry
b. Lack true tissues
c. Lack cells
d. Are autotrophs
25.) Cnidarians have a _______________ which is used for digestion, but only has one opening for
ingestion and excretion.
a. Gastrovascular cavity
b. Intestinal system
c. Stomach
d. Cephalopod
26.) Which is the intermediate host in the following diagram?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dog
Sheep
Human
B and C
27.) In a parasitic life cycle, reproduction occurs:
a. In the intermediate host.
b. In the final host.
c. Outside of the host’s body.
d. In both the intermediate and final hosts.
28.) All vertebrates have all the following characteristics except:
a. Vertebral column
b. Cranium
c. Jaws
d. All the above are characteristics of all vertebrates.
e. None of the above are characteristics of vertebrates.
29.) Annelids have segmented bodies that allows __________________.
a. Increased surface area for gas exchange.
b. Protection of the internal organs.
c. Specialization of the body parts.
d. Easy mobility.
30.) Which of the following traits occur on the phylogeny at the same time as bilateral symmetry?
I. cephalization
II. triploblastic
III. diploblastic
IV. gastrovascular cavity
V. coelomate
VI. complete digestive system
a. III, IV
b. II, IV, V
c. II, V, VI
d. I, III, IV
e. I, II, V
31.) The main characteristic of Ecdysozoans is:
a. The formation of a head.
b. The shedding of an exoskeleton.
c. Segmentation
d. The formation of a gastrovascular cavity.
32.) Why is it important that parasites produce a lot of offspring?
a. Because the parasites have a very short gestation period.
b. Because the likelihood that the offspring all survive and reach the final host is low.
c. Because the likelihood that the offspring all survive and reach the final host is high.
d. Because the parasites want to parasitize the host cell and kill it.
33.) Arthropods shed their chitin exoskeleton, while nematodes shed their collagen exoskeleton.
Which clade do these organisms belong to?
a. Cnidaria
b. Lophotrochozoa
c. Ecdysozoa
d. Deuterostomia
34.) During the development of chordates, all organisms have the following characteristics except:
a. Dorsal hollow nerve cord
b. Post-anal tail
c. Spinal column
d. Pharyngeal slits
35.) Which of the following organisms evolved first?
a. Fish
b. Birds
c. Turtles
d. Opossums
Unit 3
36.) Gymnosperms are more closely related to ____________.
a. Angiosperms
b. Vascular seedless plants
c. Bryophytes
d. Green algae
37.) When you’re out hunting for mushrooms on a damp, cool morning, you notice a fuzzy green
plant on the side of a tree. You know that this plant is a moss, and you are looking at the
___________.
a. Sporophyte
b. Gametophyte
c. Heterokaryotic stage
d. Zygote
38.) The plant most commonly known for its flowers is the:
a. Conifer
b. Fern
c. Bryophyte
d. Angiosperm
39.) Seedless, vascular plants may include which of the following?
a. Ferns
b. Moss
c. Liverworts
d. Gnetophytes
40.) Flowers are associated with ________, while seeds are associated with __________.
a. Fertilization; Pollination
b. Pollination; absorption
c. Fertilization; absorption
d. Pollination; fertilization
41.) The evolutionary influence of two unrelated species on each other is called:
a. Adaptation
b. Coevolution
c. Symbiosis
d. Microevolution
42.) A bee comes across this very aromatic plant and dips down to drink the nectar. The bee
accidentally falls into the pit. The only way out is to crawl through a tiny opening on the side of
the plant. As the bee is wedged in the opening, the plant clamps down and attaches a pollen
packet to the bee’s back. The plant is participating in
a. A pollination technique
b. A reproductive technique
c. A fertilization technique
d. A predation technique
43.) The gametophyte generation of plants produces _________ and is ___________.
a. Gametes; haploid
b. Gametes; diploid
c. Spores; haploid
d. Spores; diploid
44.) An endosperm is the product of _____________ which results in a ploidy level of ____.
a. Coevolution; 4N
b. Coevolution; 3N
c. Double fertilization; 4N
d. Double fertilization; 3N
45.) Vascular tissue in plants allows
a. The sperm to exit the plant in order to fertilize the egg.
b. Water and nutrients to flow throughout the plant.
c. Sunlight to enter the plant.
d. Pollinators to extract the pollen.
46.) The ________ are best known for their cones, whereas the ____________ are best known for
their flowers and fruits.
a. Angiosperms; gymnosperms
b. Bryophytes; angiosperms
c. Gymnosperms; angiosperms
d. Gymnosperms; bryophytes
47.) Which of the following are ways to study land plant evolution?
a. By using morphology
b. By using molecular phylogenies
c. By using the fossil record
d. All the above are ways to study land plant evolution
e. None of the above, these are ways to study a population
48.) Fruit arises from the __________.
a. Sepal
b. Anther
c. Ovary
d. Carpel
49.) Which of the following is not a type of ploidy level in fungi?
a. Haploid (N)
b. Diploid (2N)
c. Dikaryotic (N+N)
d. Polykaryotic (N+N+N)
50.) All fungi:
I.
Are autotrophs
II.
Have collagen cell walls
III.
Have nonmotile sperm
IV.
Are heterotrophs
V.
Have chitin cell walls
VI.
Have filamentous bodies
a.
b.
c.
d.
I, II, VI
II, III, V, VI
III, IV, V, VI
I, III, V, VI
51.) Which structure/stage is included in both the asexual and sexual life cycle of fungi?
a. Plasmogamy
b. Heterokayotic stage
c. Karyogamy
d. Spore-producing structure
52.) During the cell cycle of fungi, the heterokaryote fuses ______________ during ______________.
a. Nuclei; plasmogamy
b. Cytoplasm; plasmogamy
c. Nuclei; karyogamy
d. Cytoplasm; karyogamy
53.) A symbiotic relationship is important in the survival of many species. A good example of a
symbiotic relationship is a lichen, which involves
a. Fungi and bacteria
b. Archaea and bacteria
c. Fungi and green algae
d. Archaea and green algae
54.) Fungi are:
a. Plants
b. Animals
c. Both plants and animals
d. Neither plants nor animals
55.) Fungi are characterized by their:
a. Color
b. Reproductive structures
c. Functions
d. Location in the environment
56.) Just like prokaryotes are highly important for nitrogen fixation, what are fungi important for?
a. The carbon cycle
b. The oxygen revolution
c. Nitrogen fixation
d. Pollination
57.) What is the dominant ploidy level of fungi?
a. Haploid
b. Diploid
c. Heterokaryotic
d. None of the above
Unit 4
58.) Mitosis occurs ___________, but meiosis occurs __________.
a. In all cells except the gonads; outside the body.
b. In only the gonads; Everywhere else
c. In all cells except the gonads; only in the gonads
d. Outside the body; only in the gonads
59.) What percent of your DNA is paternal?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
e. 0%
60.) What is uncontrolled cell growth called?
a. Metastasis
b. Malignant
c. Benign
d. Cancer
61.) During which checkpoint of the cell cycle is the DNA checked for proper replication?
a. G1 phase
b. G2 phase
c. Metaphase
d. Telophase
62.) A cancer cell appears in the breast of a 29-year-old woman. At this stage, the tumor is malignant
and could move to the lymph nodes. What is the tumor doing when it moves to a different
location?
a. Radiating
b. Metastasizing
c. Dying
d. Lysing
63.) At the end of mitosis you end up with ____ daughter cells that are _________ to the parent cell.
a. 2; identical
b. 4; identical
c. 2; different
d. 4; different
64.) Mendel believed in evolution via ________. On the other hand, Darwin believed evolution
occurred through __________.
a. Genetics; reproduction
b. Genetics; selection
c. Selection; genetics
d. Selection; reproduction
65.) An allele that is recessive will express its trait:
a. even with a dominant allele present.
b. only if two dominant alleles are present.
c. only if another recessive allele is present.
d. never.
66.) If a homozygous red (R) plant is crossed with a homozygous white (r) plant, what ratio of the
plant population will be red compared to white?
a. 4:0
b. 3:1
c. 2:2
d. 1:3
67.) In a cross of pea plants, round (R) is dominant to wrinkled (r) and green (G) is dominant to
yellow (g). What is the percent of round, yellow pea plants in the F1 generation after crossing a
heterozygous round, yellow plant with a wrinkled, heterozygous green plant?
a. 0/16
b. 4/16
c. 8/16
d. 10/16
68.) Incomplete dominance occurs when two alleles do not independently separate. During this
cross, a red plant (R) and a white plant (r) create all pink plants. What would happen if you cross
a pink plant with a white plant?
a. You would get all pink plants
b. You would get half pink plants half white plants
c. You would get all white plants
d. You would get all red plants again
69.) Darwin proposed a Theory of Natural Selection that includes four postulates. Which of the
following are part of his postulates?
a. The individual organisms in a population are identical in all their traits.
b. Very few of the traits are heritable.
c. Many more offspring are produced than can survive.
d. The organisms that survive and reproduce are selected at random.
70.) Evolution is all of the following except:
a. A population process
b. A multiple generation process
c. A theory about the origin of life
d. Theory about how life changed after it was created
71.) What is the study of how populations change over time?
a. Microevolution
b. Population genetics
c. Population ecology
d. Coevolution
72.) Natural selection acts on the ________, while evolution acts on the ___________.
a. Individual; genetics
b. Genetics; population
c. Population; individual
d. Individual; population
73.) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, what does the q2 represent?
a. The homozygous dominant genotype
b. The heterozygous genotype
c. The homozygous recessive genotype
d. None of the above
74.) There are five factors that must be met in order to use the H-W equation. Which of the
following is not included in the criteria?
a. No migration
b. Very large population
c. No random mating
d. No mutations
75.) Genetic drift can:
a. Lose genetic variability in small populations.
b. Lead to “allele fixation.”
c. Change allele frequencies unpredictably.
d. All the above.
76.) What is it called when a population with large genetic variability suddenly dies off and the
genetic variability is drastically reduced?
a. Founder Effect
b. Stabilizing Selection
c. Bottleneck Effect
d. Balancing Selection
77.) Which type of natural selection warrants favoring the survival of two or more genotypes?
a. Directional Selection
b. Stabilizing Selection
c. Diversifying Selection
d. Balancing Selection
78.) Speciation is:
a. The evolution of existing species.
b. The origin of new species.
c. The coevolution of two species.
d. The origin of life.
79.) The ___________ barriers act prior to the formation of a zygote, preventing mating or
fertilization. The __________ barriers act after the formation of a zygote, preventing the zygote
from developing or reproducing.
a. Habitat; gamete
b. Post-zygotic; gamete
c. Pre-zygotic; habitat
d. Pre-zygotic; post-zygotic
80.) Which of the following is defined by the biological species concept?
a. The individuals cannot be between more than one population.
b. The individuals cannot have the change to interbreed in nature.
c. The offspring have to be viable.
d. The offspring have to be created outside of nature’s abilities.
81.) Which of the following are limitations of the Biological Species Concept?
a. Geography may keep species from having the chance to mate.
b. Cannot test in fossil species.
c. Does not apply to asexual reproducing species.
d. All the above.
Unit 5
82.) Ecology is the study of
a. The interactions between organisms and their environment.
b. How organisms evolve over time.
c. How the environment changes over time.
d. The genetic variations in a population.
83.) ___________ ecology focuses on the flow of energy and cycling of chemical elements among
organisms within a community, between populations, and with the environment.
a. Organismal
b. Ecosystem
c. Global
d. Population
84.) _____________ ecology has two sub disciplines: physiological and behavioral ecology.
a. Organismal
b. Population
c. Community
d. Global
85.) Which of the following is not a factor that affects the distribution of organisms?
a. Habitat selection
b. Biotic factors
c. Dispersal ability
d. Abiotic factors
e. All the above are factors
86.) An example of an abiotic factor includes all the following except:
a. Water
b. Other species
c. Temperature
d. Wind
87.) Which of the following is the most important factor in the distribution of organisms?
a. Temperature
b. Availability of light
c. Wind
d. Salinity and pH
e. Availability of water
88.) Which of the following is true?
a. Wind can diminish the temperature’s effect on species distribution.
b. Rainfall is not very important to species distribution.
c. Temperature can cause some organisms to inaccurately regulate body temperature.
d. All plants need the same amount of light radiation.
89.) How does solar radiation effect the temperature?
a. As solar radiation goes up, temperature goes up.
b. As solar radiation goes up, temperature goes down.
c. There is no correlation between solar radiation and temperature.
d. Solar radiation is dependent on the temperature.
90.) Select the correct pathway of air circulation.
a. Air heats, falls to the ground, creates rain
b. Air falls to the ground, heats at the ground, creates rain
c. Air heats at the ground, creates rain as it rises, cools as it falls
d. Air cools as it rises, creates rain, falls to the ground as it heats
91.) The climate is the prevailing weather pattern in a region. Which of the following is not a
component of climate?
a. Temperature
b. Precipitation
c. Salinity
d. Wind
e. Light
92.) A group of organisms of the same species that live in the same area at the same time is called a:
a. Species
b. Population
c. Community
d. Ecosystem
93.) What is a population of populations that are connected by migration?
a. Community
b. Metapopulation
c. Micropopulation
d. Ecosystem
94.) The smallest unit to evolve is the ____________.
a. Organism
b. Species
c. Population
d. Community
95.) Which of the following are population attributes?
a. Size
b. Density
c. Distribution
d. Sex ratios
e. All the above
f. None of the above
96.) Population size is defined as:
a. The geographic distribution of a species.
b. The number of individuals in a population.
c. The number of individuals per unit area.
d. How individuals within a population are spatially arranged.
97.) On a logistic growth model, as the population size becomes larger than the maximum holding
capacity, what will happen to the population?
a. It will increase
b. It will decrease
c. It will remain constant
98.) If a population of 100,000 ducks has a birth rate of 20% and a death rate of 10%, what will the
population be next year?
a. 90,000
b. 100,000
c. 110,000
d. 120,000
99.) All of the following are types of dispersion patterns, but which one is a positive interaction
among individuals?
a. Random dispersion
b. Clumped dispersion
c. Uniform dispersion
100.)
The study of factors that determine the size and structure of populations through time is
called ___________.
a. Ecology
b. Biology
c. Morphology
d. Demography
101.)
In order for a population to ___________, you must have births and immigration. In
order for a population to ___________ you must have mortality and emigration.
a. Remain the same; grow
b. Grow; decline
c. Decline; remain the same
d. Decline; grow
102.)
According the Survivorship Curve, when infant mortality is _______, individuals have
________ lifespans.
a. High; long
b. Low; long
c. Infant mortality is never correlated with lifespan duration.
103.)
If a life history pattern consists of living fast and dying young, which of the following
would occur?
a. Low maternal care
b. High juvenile mortality
c. Rapid growth and maturation
d. All the above
e. None of the above
104.)
a.
b.
c.
d.
Why do species compete with one another?
Resources are limited.
They want to provide for one another.
Resources are abundant, but species harm one another.
A and C
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is it called when an organism kills and consumes another organism?
Competition
Parasitism
Predation
Mimicry
a.
b.
c.
d.
A ____________ is all the populations that interact in a certain environment.
Species
Population
Community
Ecosystem
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following attribute to the community?
Species composition
Trophic structure
Species richness
Species abundance
All the above
105.)
106.)
107.)
108.)
There are four hypotheses that name factors that influence species richness. Out of the
four, which of the following states that more productivity should create more species?
a. Time
b. Space
c. Resource supply
d. Disturbances
109.)
When a cattle egret is sitting upon a cow, waiting for the cow to kick up grasshoppers,
the cow and the egret are participating in which kind of interaction?
a. Commensalism
b. Competition
c. Consumption
d. Mutualism
110.)
Consumption can be broken up into three different categories. Which of the following is
not one of those categories?
a. Predation
b. Herbivory
c. Parasitism
d. Mimicry
111.)
a.
b.
c.
d.
Aposematic mimicry involves:
A harmless species looking like a harmful species.
A harmful species looking like another harmful species.
A warning coloration.
A mating tactic.