David Skrovanek University of Pittsburgh A Case of the Frullani Theorem β β« 0 tanβ1 (ππ₯ ) β tanβ1 (π₯ ) ππ₯ π₯ Yipes! This looks wicked, however manageable. There is an easy way to evaluate this, using Frullaniβs Theorem, but that will come later. First let us see the unassuming solution to this devious integral. Think about what integrals look like when evaluated at their boundsβ¦ π (π) β π(π) right? That is somewhat reminiscent of the integrand of this problem. If we view this as the integral of something that was just previously integrated and evaluated at its bounds, it may be more manageable. β β« 0 β tanβ1 (ππ₯ ) β tanβ1 (π₯ ) tanβ1 (π₯π¦) π ] ππ₯ ππ₯ = β« [ π₯ π₯ 1 0 See it? Now this can be transformed into a double integral. β π =β« β« 0 1 1 ππ¦ ππ₯ 1 + π₯ 2π¦ 2 Taking advantage of Fubiniβs Theorem letβs us rewrite this as π β =β« β« 1 0 1 ππ₯ ππ¦ 1 + π₯ 2π¦ 2 π tanβ1 (π₯π¦) β ] ππ¦ =β« [ π¦ 0 1 π =β« 1 = π ππ¦ 2π¦ π ln π 2 If one could not come up with this trick on their own (I certainly couldnβt), use Frullaniβs Theorem, which states β β« 0 With arctan as the function, π (ππ₯ ) β π(ππ₯) π ππ₯ = [π (β) β π(0)] ln ( ) π₯ π David Skrovanek University of Pittsburgh β tanβ1 (ππ₯ ) β tanβ1 (π₯ ) π π β« ππ₯ = [ β 0] ln ( ) π₯ 2 1 0 = π ln π 2 Using that same idea, we can evaluate some integrals that may be a little less obvious. 1 β« 0 π₯β1 ππ₯ ln(π₯) Okay, so maybe this looks nothing like the general case of Frullaniβs Integral, but it can be adjusted. Consider this, β π βππ₯ β π βππ₯ β« ππ₯ π₯ 0 So this case is pretty obvious; it is simply equal to ln(π) β ln(π). πΏππ‘ π’ = π βπ₯ , ππ’ = βπ π₯ ππ₯ β ππ₯ = βππ’ π’ Notice how the bounds change too: 0 0 πβ1 1 πβ1 βππ’ π’π β π’π π’ β π’πβ1 π’ β π’πβ1 β« ( )=β« ππ’ = β« ππ’ = ln(π) β ln(π) π’ βln(π’) ln(π’) ln(π’) 1 1 0 Looking better yet? Getting back to the original problem, we observe that π₯ β 1 is the numerator of the derived expression above when π = 1 and π = 2. Thus, we can now see that 1 β« 0 A very special case indeed! π₯β1 ππ₯ = ln(2) ln(π₯)
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