OG CR
OG-1.
Questions 1–3 refer to the passage
Ecoefficiency (measures to minimize
above.
environmental impact through the reduction or
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
elimination of waste from production processes)
(A) explain why a particular business strategy
has become a goal for companies worldwide,
has been less successful than was once
with many realizing significant cost savings
anticipated
from such innovations. Peter Senge and Goran
(B) propose an alternative to a particular
Carstedt see this development as laudable but
business strategy that has inadvertently caused
suggest that simply adopting ecoefficiency
ecological damage
innovations could actually worsen nvironmental
(C) present a concern about the possible
stresses in the future.【TS】 Such innovations
consequences of pursuing a particular business
reduce production waste but do not alter the
strategy
number of products manufactured nor the
(D) make a case for applying a particular
waste generated from their use and discard;
business strategy on a larger scale than is
indeed, most companies invest in ecoefficiency
currently practiced
improvements in order to increase profits and
(E) suggest several possible outcomes of
growth. Moreover, there is no guarantee that
companies’ failure to understand the economic
increased economic growth from ecoefficiency
impact of a particular business strategy
will come in similarly ecoefficient ways, since in
today’s global markets, greater profits may be
2. The passage mentions which of the following
turned into investment capital that could easily
as a possible consequence of companies’
be reinvested in old-style eco-inefficient
realization of greater profits through
industries. Even a vastly more ecoefficient
ecoefficiency?
industrial system could, were it to grow much
(A) The companies may be able to sell a
larger, generate more total waste and destroy
greater number of products by lowering prices.
more habitat and species than would a smaller,
(B) The companies may be better able to
less ecoefficient economy. Senge and Carstedt
attract investment capital in the global market.
argue that to preserve the global environment
(C) The profits may be reinvested to increase
and sustain economic growth, businesses must
economic growth through ecoefficiency.
develop a new systemic approach that reduces
(D) The profits may be used as investment
total material use and total accumulated waste.
capital for industries that are not ecoefficient.
Focusing exclusively on ecoefficiency, which
(E) The profits may encourage companies to
offers a compelling business case according to
make further innovations in reducing
established thinking, may distract companies
production waste.
from pursuing radically different products and
business models.
3. The passage implies that which of the
following is a possible consequence of a
company’s adoption of innovations that
increase its ecoefficiency?
(A) Company profits resulting from such
innovations may be reinvested in that company
with no guarantee that the company will
continue to make further improvements in
ecoefficiency.
(B) Company growth fostered by cost savings
from such innovations may allow that company
to manufacture a greater number of products
that will be used and discarded, thus worsening
environmental stress.
(C) A company that fails to realize significant
cost savings from such innovations may have
little incentive to continue to minimize the
environmental impact of its production
processes.
(D) A company that comes to depend on such
innovations to increase its profits and growth
may be vulnerable in the global market to
competition from old-style eco-inefficient
industries.
(E) A company that meets its ecoefficiency
goals is unlikely to invest its increased profits in
the development of new and innovative
ecoefficiency measures.
OG-2.
Questions 4–8 refer to the passage
A recent study has provided clues to
above.
predator-prey dynamics in the late Pleistocene
4. The primary purpose of the passage is to
era. Researchers compared the number of
(A) present several explanations for a
tooth fractures in present-day carnivores with
well-known fact
tooth fractures in carnivores that lived 36,000
(B) suggest alternative methods for resolving a
to 10,000 years ago and that were preserved in
debate
the Rancho La Brea tar pits in Los Angeles. The
(C) argue in favor of a controversial theory
breakage frequencies in the extinct species
(D) question the methodology used in a study
were strikingly higher than those in the
(E) discuss the implications of a research
present-day species.
finding
In considering possible explanations for this
finding, the researchers dismissed emographic
5. According to the passage, compared with
bias because older individuals were not
Pleistocene carnivores in other areas,
overrepresented in the fossil samples. They
Pleistocene carnivores in the La Brea area
rejected preservational bias because a total
(A) included the same species, in
absence of breakage in two extinct species
approximately the same proportions
demonstrated that the fractures were not the
(B) had a similar frequency of tooth fractures
result of abrasion within the pits.
(C) populated the La Brea area more densely
They ruled out local bias because breakage
(D) consumed their prey more thoroughly
data obtained from other Pleistocene sites were
(E) found it harder to obtain sufficient prey
similar to the La Brea data. The explanation
they consider most plausible is behavioral
6. According to the passage, the researchers
differences between extinct and present-day
believe that the high frequency of tooth
carnivores—in particular, more contact
breakage in carnivores found at La Brea was
between the teeth of predators and the bones
caused primarily by
of prey due to more thorough consumption of
(A) the aging process in individual carnivores
carcasses by the extinct species.
(B) contact between the fossils in the pits
Such thorough carcass consumption implies to
(C) poor preservation of the fossils after they
the researchers either that prey availability was
were removed from the pits
low, at least seasonally, or that there was
(D) the impact of carnivores’ teeth against the
intense competition over kills and a high rate of
bones of their prey
carcass theft due to relatively high predator
(E) the impact of carnivores’ teeth against the
densities.
bones of other carnivores during fights over
kills
7. The researchers’ conclusion concerning the
absence of demographic bias would be most
seriously undermined if it were found that
(A) the older an individual carnivore is, the
more likely it is to have a large number of tooth
fractures
(B) the average age at death of a present-day
carnivore is greater than was the average age
at death of a Pleistocene carnivore
(C) in Pleistocene carnivore species, older
individuals consumed carcasses as thoroughly
as did younger individuals
(D) the methods used to determine animals’
ages in fossil samples tend to misidentify many
older individuals as younger individuals
(E) data concerning the ages of fossil samples
cannot provide reliable information about
behavioral differences between extinct
carnivores and present-day carnivores
8. According to the passage, if the researchers
had NOT found that two extinct carnivore
species were free of tooth breakage, the
researchers would have concluded that
(A) the difference in breakage frequencies
could have been the result of damage to the
fossil remains in the La Brea pits
(B) the fossils in other Pleistocene sites could
have higher breakage frequencies than do the
fossils in the La Brea pits
(C) Pleistocene carnivore species probably
behaved very similarly to one another with
respect to consumption of carcasses
(D) all Pleistocene carnivore species differed
behaviorally from present-day carnivore
species
(E) predator densities during the Pleistocene
era were extremely high
OG-3
Questions 9–11 refer to the passage
Archaeology as a profession faces two major
above.
problems. First, it is the poorest of the poor.
9. The primary purpose of the passage is to
Only paltry sums are available for excavating
propose
and even less is available for publishing the
(A) an alternative to museum display of
results and preserving the sites once excavated.
artifacts
Yet archaeologists deal with priceless objects
(B) a way to curb illegal digging while
every day. Second, there is the problem of
benefiting the archaeological profession
illegal excavation, resulting in museum-quality
(C) a way to distinguish artifacts with scientific
pieces being sold to the highest bidder.
value from those that have no such value
I would like to make an outrageous suggestion
(D) the governmental regulation of
that would at one stroke provide funds for
archaeological sites
archaeology and reduce the amount of illegal
(E) a new system for cataloging duplicate
digging. I would propose that scientific
artifacts
archaeological expeditions and governmental
authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open
10. The author implies that all of the following
market. Such sales would provide substantial
statements about duplicate artifacts are true
funds for the excavation and preservation of
EXCEPT
archaeological sites and the publication of
(A) a market for such artifacts already exists
results. At the same time, they would break the
(B) such artifacts seldom have scientific value
illegal excavator’s grip on the market, thereby
(C) there is likely to be a continuing supply of
decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal
such artifacts
activities.
(D) museums are well supplied with examples
You might object that professionals excavate to
of such artifacts
acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover,
(E) such artifacts frequently exceed in quality
ancient artifacts are part of our global cultural
those already cataloged in museum collections
heritage, which should be available for all to
appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder. I
11. Which of the following is mentioned in the
agree. Sell nothing that has unique artistic
passage as a disadvantage of storing artifacts
merit or scientific value. But, you might reply,
in museum basements?
everything that comes out of the ground has
(A) Museum officials rarely allow scholars
scientific value. Here we part company.
access to such artifacts.
Theoretically, you may be correct in claiming
(B) Space that could be better used for display
that every artifact has potential scientific value.
is taken up for storage.
Practically, you are wrong.
(C) Artifacts discovered in one excavation often
I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and
become separated from each other.
ancient lamps that are essentially duplicates of
(D) Such artifacts are often damaged by
one another. In one small excavation in Cyprus,
variations in temperature and humidity.
archaeologists recently uncovered 2,000
(E) Such artifacts often remain uncataloged
virtually indistinguishable small jugs in a single
and thus cannot be located once they are put in
courtyard. Even precious royal seal impressions
storage
known as l’melekh handles have been found in
abundance —more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basements of museums are simply not
large enough to store the artifacts that are
likely to be discovered in the future. There is
not enough money even to catalog the finds; as
a result, they cannot be found again and
become as inaccessible as if they had never
been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a
computer, sold artifacts could be more
accessible than are the pieces stored in bulging
museum basements. Prior to sale, each could
be photographed and the list of the purchasers
could be maintained on the computer. A
purchaser could even be required to agree to
return the piece if it should become needed for
scientific purposes.
It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal
digging would stop if artifacts were sold on the
open market. But the demand for the
clandestine product would be substantially
reduced. Who would want an unmarked pot
when another was available whose provenance
was known, and that was dated
stratigraphically by the professional
archaeologist who excavated it?
OG-4
Questions 12–17 refer to the passage
Traditionally, the first firm to commercialize a
above.
new technology has benefited from the unique
12. The passage is primarily concerned with
opportunity to shape product definitions,
which of the following?
forcing followers to adapt to a standard or
(A) Evaluating two competing technologies
invest in an unproven alternative. Today,
(B) Tracing the impact of a new technology by
however, the largest payoffs may go to
narrating a sequence of events
companies that lead in developing integrated
(C) Reinterpreting an event from contemporary
approaches for successful mass production and
business history
distribution.
(D) Illustrating a business strategy by means of
Producers of the Beta format for videocassette
a case history
recorders (VCRs), for example, were first to
(E) Proposing an innovative approach to
develop the VCR commercially in 1975, but
business planning
producers of the rival VHS (Video Home System)
format proved to be more successful at forming
13. According to the passage, today’s
strategic alliances with other producers and
successful firms, unlike successful firms in the
distributors to manufacture and market their
past, may earn the greatest profits by
VCR format. Seeking to maintain exclusive
(A) investing in research to produce cheaper
control over VCR distribution, Beta producers
versions of existing technology
were reluctant to form such alliances and
(B) being the first to market a competing
eventually lost ground to VHS in the
technology
competition for the global VCR market.
(C) adapting rapidly to a technological standard
Despite Beta’s substantial technological head
previously set by a competing firm
start and the fact that VHS was neither
(D) establishing technological leadership in
technically better nor cheaper than Beta,
order to shape product definitions in advance of
developers of VHS quickly turned a slight early
competing firms
lead in sales into a dominant position. Strategic
(E) emphasizing the development of methods
alignments with producers of prerecorded
for the mass production and distribution of a
tapes reinforced the VHS advantage. The
new technology
perception among consumers that prerecorded
tapes were more available in VHS format
14. According to the passage, consumers
further expanded VHS’s share of the market.
began to develop a preference for VCRs in the
By the end of the 1980s, Beta was no longer in
VHS format because they believed which of the
production.
following?
(A) VCRs in the VHS format were technically
better than competing format VCRs.
(B) VCRs in the VHS format were less expensive
than competing format VCRs.
(C) VHS was the first standard format for VCRs.
(D) VHS prerecorded videotapes were more
available than those in Beta format.
(E) VCRs in the Beta format would soon cease
to be produced.
15. The author implies that one way that VHS
producers won control over the VCR market
was by
(A) carefully restricting access to VCR
technology
(B) giving up a slight early lead in VCR sales in
order to improve long-term prospects
(C) retaining a strict monopoly on the
production of prerecorded videotapes
(D) sharing control of the marketing of VHS
format VCRs
(E) sacrificing technological superiority over
Beta format VCRs in order to remain
competitive in price
16. The alignment of producers of VHS format
VCRs with producers of prerecorded videotapes
is most similar to which of the following?
(A) The alignment of an automobile
manufacturer with another automobile
manufacturer to adopt a standard design for
automobile engines
(B) The alignment of an automobile
manufacturer with an automotive glass
company whereby the manufacturer agrees to
purchase automobile windshields only from
that one glass company
(C) The alignment of an automobile
manufacturer with a petroleum company to
ensure the widespread availability of the fuel
required by a new type of engine developed by
the manufacturer
(D) The alignment of an automobile
manufacturer with its dealers to adopt a plan to
improve automobile design
(E) The alignment of an automobile dealer with
an automobile rental chain to adopt a strategy
for an advertising campaign to promote a new
type of automobile
17. Which of the following best describes the
relation of the first paragraph to the passage as
a whole?
(A) It makes a general observation to be
exemplified.
(B) It outlines a process to be analyzed.
(C) It poses a question to be answered.
(D) It advances an argument to be disputed.
(E) It introduces conflicting arguments to be
reconciled.
OG-5
Questions 18–25 refer to the passage
In terrestrial environments, gravity places
above.
special demands on the cardiovascular systems
18. The passage provides information in
of animals. Gravitational pressure can cause
support of which of the following assertions?
blood to pool in the lower regions of the body,
(A) The disadvantages of an adaptation to a
making it difficult to circulate blood to critical
particular feature of an environment often
organs such as the brain. Terrestrial snakes, in
outweigh the advantages of such an
particular, exhibit adaptations that aid in
adaptation.
circulating blood against the force of gravity.
(B) An organism’s reaction to being placed in an
The problem confronting terrestrial snakes is
environment to which it is not well adapted can
best illustrated by what happens to sea snakes
sometimes illustrate the problems that have
when removed from their supportive medium.
been solved by the adaptations of organisms
Because the vertical pressure gradients within
indigenous to that environment.
the blood vessels are counteracted by similar
(C) The effectiveness of an organism’s
pressure gradients in the surrounding water,
adaptation to a particular feature of its
the distribution of blood throughout the body of
environment can only be evaluated by
sea snakes remains about the same regardless
examining the effectiveness with which
of their orientation in space, provided they
organisms of other species have adapted to a
remain in the ocean. When removed from the
similar feature of a different environment.
water and tilted at various angles with the head
(D) Organisms of the same species that inhabit
up, however, blood pressure at their midpoint
strikingly different environments will often
drops significantly, and at brain level falls to
adapt in remarkably similar ways to the few
zero.
features of those environments that are
That many terrestrial snakes in similar spatial
common.
orientations do not experience this kind of
(E) Different species of organisms living in the
circulatory failure suggests that certain
same environment will seldom adapt to
adaptations enable them to regulate blood
features of that environment in the same way.
pressure more effectively in those orientations.
One such adaptation is the closer proximity of
19. According to the passage, one reason that
the terrestrial snake’s heart to its head, which
the distribution of blood in the sea snake
helps to ensure circulation to the brain,
changes little while the creature remains in the
regardless of the snake’s orientation in space.
ocean is that
The heart of sea snakes can be located near
(A) the heart of the sea snake tends to be
the middle of the body, a position that
located near the center of its body
minimizes the work entailed in circulating blood
(B) pressure gradients in the water surrounding
to both extremities. In arboreal snakes,
the sea snake counter the effects of vertical
however, which dwell in trees and often assume
pressure gradients within its blood vessels
a vertical posture, the average distance from
(C) the sea snake assumes a vertical posture
the heart to the head can be as little as 15
less frequently than do the terrestrial and the
percent of overall body length. Such a location
arboreal snake
requires that blood circulated to the tail of the
(D) the sea snake often relies on waves of
snake travel a greater distance back to the
muscle contractions to help move blood from
heart, a problem solved by another adaptation.
the torso to the head
(E) the force of pressure gradients in the water
When climbing, arboreal snakes often pause
surrounding the sea snake exceeds that of
momentarily to wiggle their bodies, causing
vertical pressure gradients within its circulatory
waves of muscle contraction that advance from
system
the lower torso to the head. By compressing
the veins and forcing blood forward, these
20. It can be inferred from the passage that
contractions apparently improve the flow of
which of the following is true of species of
venous blood returning to the heart.
terrestrial snakes that often need to assume a
vertical posture?
(A) They are more likely to be susceptible to
circulatory failure in vertical postures than are
sea snakes.
(B) Their hearts are less likely to be located at
the midpoint of their bodies than is the case
with sea snakes.
(C) They cannot counteract the pooling of
blood in lower regions of their bodies as
effectively as sea snakes can.
(D) The blood pressure at their midpoint
decreases significantly when they are tilted
with their heads up.
(E) They are unable to rely on muscle
contractions to move venous blood from the
lower torso to the head.
21. The author describes the behavior of the
circulatory system of sea snakes when they are
removed from the ocean (see lines 17–20)
primarily in order to
(A) illustrate what would occur in the
circulatory system of terrestrial snakes without
adaptations that enable them to regulate their
blood pressure in vertical orientations
(B) explain why arboreal snakes in vertical
orientations must rely on muscle contractions
to restore blood pressure to the brain
(C) illustrate the effects of circulatory failure on
the behavior of arboreal snakes
(D) illustrate the superiority of the circulatory
system of the terrestrial snake to that of the
sea snake
(E) explain how changes in spatial orientation
can adversely affect the circulatory system of
snakes with hearts located in relatively close
proximity to their heads
22. It can be inferred from the passage that
which of the following is a true statement about
sea snakes?
(A) They frequently rely on waves of muscle
contractions from the lower torso to the head
to supplement the work of the heart.
(B) They cannot effectively regulate their blood
pressure when placed in seawater and tilted at
an angle with the head pointed downward.
(C) They are more likely to have a heart located
in close proximity to their heads than are
arboreal snakes.
(D) They become acutely vulnerable to the
effects of gravitational pressure on their
circulatory system when they are placed in a
terrestrial environment.
(E) Their cardiovascular system is not as
complicated as that of arboreal snakes.
23. The author suggests that which of the
following is a disadvantage that results from
the location of a snake’s heart in close
proximity to its head?
(A) A decrease in the efficiency with which the
snake regulates the fl ow of blood to the brain
(B) A decrease in the number of orientations in
space that a snake can assume without loss of
blood fl ow to the brain
(C) A decrease in blood pressure at the snake’s
midpoint when it is tilted at various angles with
its head up
(D) An increase in the tendency of blood to pool
at the snake’s head when the snake is tilted at
various angles with its head down
(E) An increase in the amount of effort required
to distribute blood to and from the snake’s tail
24. The primary purpose of the third paragraph
is to
(A) introduce a topic that is not discussed
earlier in the passage
(B) describe a more effi cient method of
achieving an effect discussed in the previous
paragraph
(C) draw a conclusion based on information
elaborated in the previous paragraph
(D) discuss two specifi c examples of
phenomena mentioned at the end of the
previous paragraph
(E) introduce evidence that undermines a view
reported earlier in the passage
25. In the passage, the author is primarily
concerned with doing which of the following?
(A) Explaining adaptations that enable the
terrestrial snake to cope with the effects of
gravitational pressure on its circulatory system
(B) Comparing the circulatory system of the sea
snake with that of the terrestrial snake
(C) Explaining why the circulatory system of the
terrestrial snake is different from that of the sea
snake
(D) Pointing out features of the terrestrial
snake’s cardiovascular system that make it
superior to that of the sea snake
(E) Explaining how the sea snake is able to
neutralize the effects of gravitational pressure
on its circulatory system
OG-6
Questions 26–30 refer to the passage
During the 1960s and 1970s, the primary
above.
economic development strategy of local
26. The primary purpose of the passage is to
governments in the United States was to attract
(A) advocate more effective strategies for
manufacturing industries. Unfortunately, this
encouraging the development of high
strategy was usually implemented at another
technology enterprises in the United States
community’s expense: many manufacturing
(B) contrast the incentives for economic
facilities were lured away from their moorings
development offered by local governments with
elsewhere through tax incentives and slick
those offered by the private sector
promotional efforts.
(C) acknowledge and counter adverse criticism
Through the transfer of jobs and related
of programs being used to stimulate local
revenues that resulted from this practice, one
economic development
town’s triumph could become another town’s
(D) define and explore promotional efforts used
tragedy.
by local governments to attract new industry
In the 1980s the strategy shifted from this
(E) review and evaluate strategies and
zero-sum game to one called “high-technology
programs that have been used to stimulate
development,” in which local governments
economic development
competed to attract newly formed
high-technology manufacturing firms. Although
27. The passage suggests which of the
this approach was preferable to victimizing
following about the majority of United States
other geographical areas by taking their jobs, it
manufacturing industries before the
also had its shortcomings: high-tech
high-technology development era of the
manufacturing firms employ only a specially
1980s?
trained fraction of the manufacturing workforce,
(A) They lost many of their most innovative
and there simply are not enough high-tech
personnel to small entrepreneurial enterprises.
firms to satisfy all geographic areas.
(B) They experienced a major decline in profits
Recently, local governments have increasingly
during the 1960s and 1970s.
come to recognize the advantages of yet a third
(C) They could provide real economic benefits
strategy: the promotion of homegrown small
to the areas in which they were located.
businesses. Small indigenous businesses are
(D) They employed workers who had no
created by a nearly ubiquitous resource, local
specialized skills.
entrepreneurs. With roots in their communities,
(E) They actively interfered with local
these individuals are less likely to be enticed
entrepreneurial ventures.
away by incentives offered by another
community.
28. The tone of the passage suggests that the
Indigenous industry and talent are kept at
author is most optimistic about the economic
home, creating an environment that both
development potential of which of the following
provides jobs and fosters further
groups?
entrepreneurship.
(A) Local governments
(B) High-technology promoters
(C) Local entrepreneurs
(D) Manufacturing industry managers
(E) Economic development strategists
29. The passage does NOT state which of the
following about local entrepreneurs?
(A) They are found nearly everywhere.
(B) They encourage further entrepreneurship.
(C) They attract out-of-town investors.
(D) They employ local workers.
(E) They are established in their communities.
30. The author of the passage mentions which
of the following as an advantage of
high-technology development?
(A) It encourages the modernization of existing
manufacturing facilities.
(B) It promotes healthy competition between
rival industries.
(C) It encourages the growth of related
industries.
(D) It takes full advantage of the existing
workforce.
(E) It does not advantage one local workforce
at the expense of another.
OG-7
Questions 31–35 refer to the passage
In 1988 services moved ahead of
above.
manufacturing as the main product of the
31. The author of the passage is primarily
United States economy. But what is meant by
concerned with
“services”?
(A) discussing research data underlying several
Some economists define a service as something
definitions
that is produced and consumed simultaneously,
(B) arguing for the adoption of a particular
for example, a haircut. The broader, classical
definition
definition is that a service is an intangible
(C) exploring definitions of a concept
something that cannot be touched or stored.
(D) comparing the advantages of several
Yet electric utilities can store energy, and
definitions
computer programmers save information
(E) clarifying some ambiguous definitions
electronically. Thus, the classical definition is
hard to sustain.
32. In comparing the United States
The United States government’s definition is
government’s definition of services with the
more practical: services are the residual
classical definition, the author suggests that
category that includes everything that is not
the classical definition is
agriculture or industry. Under this definition,
(A) more pragmatic
services include activities as diverse as
(B) more difficult to apply
engineering and driving a bus. However,
(C) less ambiguous
besides lacking a strong conceptual framework,
(D) more widely used
this definition fails to recognize the distinction
(E) more arbitrary
between service industries and service
occupations. It categorizes workers based on
33. The passage suggests which of the
their company’s final product rather than on the
following about service workers in the United
actual work the employees perform. Thus, the
States?
many service workers employed by
(A) The number of service workers may be
manufacturers— bookkeepers or janitors, for
underestimated by the definition of services
example—would fall under the industrial rather
used by the government.
than the services category. Such ambiguities
(B) There were fewer service workers than
reveal the arbitrariness of this definition and
agricultural workers before 1988.
suggest that, although practical for government
(C) The number of service workers was almost
purposes, it does not accurately reflect the
equal to the number of workers employed in
composition of the current United States
manufacturing until 1988.
economy.
(D) Most service workers are employed in
service occupations rather than in service
industries.
(E) Most service workers are employed in
occupations where they provide services that
do not fall under the classical definition of
services.
34. The author of the passage mentions which
of the following as one disadvantage of the
United States government’s definition of
services?
(A) It is less useful than the other definitions
mentioned in the passage.
(B) It is narrower in scope than the other
definitions mentioned in the passage.
(C) It is based on the final product produced
rather than on the type of work performed.
(D) It does not recognize the diversity of
occupations within the service industries.
(E) It misclassifies many workers who are
employed in service industries.
35. The author refers to “service workers
employed by manufacturers” (line 23) primarily
in order to point out
(A) a type of worker not covered by the United
States government’s system of classifying
occupations
(B) a flaw in the United States government’s
definition of services
(C) a factor that has influenced the growth of
the service economy in the United States
(D) a type of worker who is classified on the
basis of work performed rather than on the
basis of the company’s final product
(E) the diversity of the workers who are
referred to as service workers
OG-8
Questions 36–41 refer to the passage
Current feminist theory, in validating women’s
above.
own stories of their experience, has
36. The passage is primarily concerned with (A)
encouraged scholars of women’s history to
contrasting the benefits of one methodology
view the use of women’s oral narratives as the
with the benefits of another
methodology, next to the use of women’s
(B) describing the historical origins and
written autobiography, that brings historians
inherent drawbacks of a particular
closest to the “reality” of women’s lives. Such
methodology
narratives, unlike most standard histories,
(C) discussing the appeal of a particular
represent experience from the perspective of
methodology and some concerns about its use
women, affirm the importance of women’s
(D) showing that some historians’ adoption of a
contributions, and furnish present-day women
particular methodology has led to criticism of
with historical continuity that is essential to
recent historical scholarship
their identity, individually and collectively.
(E) analyzing the influence of current feminist
Scholars of women’s history should, however,
views on women’s interpretations of their
be as cautious about accepting oral narratives
experience
at face value as they already are about written
memories.
37. According to the passage, which of the
Oral narratives are no more likely than are
following shapes the oral narratives of women
written narratives to provide a disinterested
storytellers?
commentary on events or people. Moreover,
(A) The conventions for standard histories in
the stories people tell to explain themselves are
the culture in which a woman storyteller lives
shaped by narrative devices and storytelling
(B) The conventions of storytelling in the
conventions, as well as by other cultural and
culture in which a woman storyteller lives
historical factors, in ways that the storytellers
(C) A woman storyteller’s experience with
may be unaware of. The political rhetoric of a
distinctive traditions of storytelling developed
particular era, for example, may influence
by the women in her family of origin
women’s interpretations of the significance of
(D) The cultural expectations and experiences
their experience. Thus a woman who views the
of those who listen to oral narratives
Second World War as pivotal in increasing the
(E) A woman storyteller’s familiarity with the
social acceptance of women’s paid work
stories that members of other groups in her
outside the home may reach that conclusion
culture tell to explain themselves
partly and unwittingly because of wartime
rhetoric encouraging a positive view of
38. The author of the passage would be most
women’s participation in such work.
likely to
make which of the following recommendations
to
scholars of women’s history?
(A) They should take into account their own life
experiences when interpreting the oral
accounts
of women’s historical experiences.
(B) They should assume that the observations
made in women’s oral narratives are believed
by the intended audience of the story.
(C) They should treat skeptically observations
reported in oral narratives unless the
observations can be confirmed in standard
histories.
(D) They should consider the cultural and
historical context in which an oral narrative was
created before arriving at an interpretation of
such a narrative.
(E) They should rely on information gathered
from oral narratives only when equivalent
information is not available in standard
histories.
39. Which of the following best describes the
function of the last sentence of the passage?
(A) It describes an event that historians view as
crucial in recent women’s history.
(B) It provides an example of how political
rhetoric may influence the interpretations of
experience reported in women’s oral narratives.
(C) It provides an example of an oral narrative
that inaccurately describes women’s experience
during a particular historical period.
(D) It illustrates the point that some women are
more aware than others of the social forces
that shape their oral narratives.
(E) It identifies the historical conditions that led
to the social acceptance of women’s paid work
outside the home.
40. According to the passage, scholars of
women’s history should refrain from doing
which of the following?
(A) Relying on traditional historical sources
when women’s oral narratives are unavailable
(B) Focusing on the influence of political
rhetoric on women’s perceptions to the
exclusion of other equally important factors
(C) Attempting to discover the cultural and
historical factors that influence the stories
women tell
(D) Assuming that the conventions of women’s
written autobiographies are similar to the
conventions of women’s oral narratives
(E) Accepting women’s oral narratives less
critically than they accept women’s written
histories
41. According to the passage, each of the
following is a difference between women’s oral
narratives and most standard histories EXCEPT:
(A) Women’s oral histories validate the
significance of women’s achievements.
(B) Women’s oral histories depict experience
from the point of view of women.
(C) Women’s oral histories acknowledge the
influence of well-known women.
(D) Women’s oral histories present today’s
women with a sense of their historical
relationship to women of the past.
(E) Women’s oral histories are crucial to the
collective identity of today’s women.
OG-9
Questions 42–46 refer to the passage
In recent years, teachers of introductory
above.
courses in Asian American studies have been
42. The author of the passage is primarily
facing a dilemma nonexistent a few decades
concerned with doing which of the following?
ago, when hardly any texts in that field were
(A) Recommending a methodology
available. Today, excellent anthologies and
(B) Describing a course of study
other introductory texts exist, and books on
(C) Discussing a problem
individual Asian American nationality groups
(D) Evaluating a past course of action
and on general issues important for Asian
(E) Responding to a criticism
Americans are published almost weekly.
Even professors who are experts in the field
43. The “dilemma” mentioned in line 3 can best
find it difficult to decide which of these to
be characterized as being caused by the
assign to students; nonexperts who teach in
necessity to make a choice when faced with a
related areas and are looking for writings for
(A) lack of acceptable alternatives
and by Asian Americans to include in survey
(B) lack of strict standards for evaluating
courses are in an even worse position.
alternatives
A complicating factor has been the continuing
(C) preponderance of bad alternatives as
lack of specialized one-volume reference works
compared to good
on Asian Americans, such as biographical
(D) multitude of different alternatives
dictionaries or desktop encyclopedias. Such
(E) large number of alternatives that are nearly
works would enable students taking Asian
identical in content
American studies courses (and professors in
related fields) to look up basic information on
44. The passage suggests that the factor
Asian American individuals, institutions, history,
mentioned in lines 15–18 complicates
and culture without having to wade through
professors’ attempts to construct introductory
mountains of primary source material. In
reading lists for courses in Asian American
addition, given such works, Asian American
studies in which of the following ways?
studies professors might feel more free to
(A) By making it difficult for professors to
include more challenging Asian American
identify primary source material and to obtain
material in their introductory reading lists, since
standard information on Asian American history
good reference works allow students to acquire
and culture
on their own the background information
(B) By preventing professors from identifying
necessary to interpret difficult or unfamiliar
excellent anthologies and introductory texts in
material.
the field that are both recent and
understandable to students
(C) By preventing professors from adequately
evaluating the quality of the numerous texts
currently being published in the field
(D) By making it more necessary for professors
to select readings for their courses that are not
too challenging for students unfamiliar with
Asian American history and culture
(E) By making it more likely that the readings
professors assign to students in their courses
will be drawn solely from primary sources
45. The passage implies that which of the
following was true of introductory courses in
Asian American studies a few decades ago?
(A) The range of different textbooks that could
be assigned for such courses was extremely
limited.
(B) The texts assigned as readings in such
courses were often not very challenging for
students.
(C) Students often complained about the texts
assigned to them in such courses.
(D) Such courses were offered only at schools
whose libraries were rich in primary sources.
(E) Such courses were the only means then
available by which people in the United States
could acquire knowledge of the field.
46. According to the passage, the existence of
good one volume reference works about Asian
Americans could result in
(A) increased agreement among professors of
Asian American studies regarding the quality of
the sources available in their field
(B) an increase in the number of students
signing up for introductory courses in Asian
American studies
(C) increased accuracy in writings that concern
Asian American history and culture
(D) the use of introductory texts about Asian
American history and culture in courses outside
the field of Asian American studies
(E) the inclusion of a wider range of Asian
American material in introductory reading lists
in Asian American studies
OG-10
Questions 47–49 refer to the passage
In the seventeenth-century Florentine textile
above.
industry, women were employed primarily in
47. The passage suggests that combing and
low paying, low-skill jobs. To explain this
carding differ from weaving in that combing
segregation of labor by gender, economists
and carding were
have relied on the useful theory of human
(A) low-skill jobs performed primarily by
capital. According to this theory, investment in
women employees
human capital—the acquisition of difficult
(B) low-skill jobs that were not performed in
job-related skills—generally benefits individuals
the home
by making them eligible to engage in well-paid
(C) low-skill jobs performed by both male and
occupations. Women’s role as child bearers,
female employees
however, results in interruptions in their
(D) high-skill jobs performed outside the home
participation in the job market (as compared
(E) high-skill jobs performed by both male and
with men’s) and thus reduces their
female employees
opportunities to acquire training for highly
skilled work. In addition, the human capital
48. Which of the following, if true, would most
theory explains why there was a high
weaken the explanation provided by the human
concentration of women workers in certain
capital theory for women’s concentration in
low-skill jobs, such as weaving, but not in
certain occupations in seventeenth-century
others, such as combing or carding, by positing
Florence?
that because of their primary responsibility in
(A) Women were unlikely to work outside the
child rearing women took occupations that
home even in occupations whose hours were
could be carried out in the home.
flexible enough to allow women to
There were, however, differences in pay scales
accommodate domestic tasks as well as paid
that cannot be explained by the human capital
labor.
theory. For example, male construction workers
(B) Parents were less likely to teach
were paid significantly higher wages than
occupational skills to their daughters than they
female taffeta weavers. The wage difference
were to their sons.
between these two low-skill occupations stems
(C) Women’s participation in the Florentine paid
from the segregation of labor by gender:
labor force grew steadily throughout the
because a limited number of occupations were
sixteenth and seventeenth centuries.
open to women, there was a large supply of
(D) The vast majority of female weavers in the
workers in their fields, and this “overcrowding”
Florentine wool industry had children.
resulted in women receiving lower wages and
(E) Few women worked as weavers in the
men receiving higher wages.
Florentine silk industry, which was devoted to
making cloths that required a high degree of
skill to produce.
49. The author of the passage would be most
likely to describe the explanation provided by
the human capital theory for the high
concentration of women in certain occupations
in the seventeenth-century Florentine textile
industry as
(A) well founded though incomplete
(B) difficult to articulate
(C) plausible but poorly substantiated
(D) seriously flawed
(E) contrary to recent research
OG-11
Questions 50–56 refer to the passage
(This passage was adapted from an article
above.
written in 1992.)
50. The primary purpose of the passage is to
Some observers have attributed the dramatic
(A) present the results of statistical analyses
growth in temporary employment that occurred
and propose further studies
in the United States during the 1980s to
(B) explain a recent development and predict
increased participation in the workforce by
its eventual consequences
certain groups, such as first-time or reentering
(C) identify the reasons for a trend and
workers, who supposedly prefer such
recommend measures to address it
arrangements. However, statistical analyses
(D) outline several theories about a
reveal that demographic changes in the
phenomenon and advocate one of them
workforce did not correlate with variations in
(E) describe the potential consequences of
the total number of temporary workers.
implementing a new policy and argue in favor
Instead, these analyses suggest that factors
of that policy
affecting employers account for the rise in
temporary employment. One factor is product
51. According to the passage, which of the
demand: temporary employment is favored by
following is true of the “factors affecting
employers who are adapting to fluctuating
employers” that are mentioned in lines 10–19?
demand for products while at the same time
(A) Most experts cite them as having initiated
seeking to reduce overall labor costs. Another
the growth in temporary employment that
factor is labor’s reduced bargaining strength,
occurred during the 1980s.
which allows employers more control over the
(B) They may account for the increase in the
terms of employment. Given the analyses,
total number of temporary workers during the
which reveal that growth in temporary
1980s.
employment now far exceeds the level
(C) They were less important than
explainable by recent workforce entry rates of
demographic change in accounting for the
groups said to prefer temporary jobs, firms
increase of temporary employment during the
should be discouraged from creating excessive
1980s.
numbers of temporary positions. Government
(D) They included a sharp increase in the cost
policymakers should consider mandating
of labor during the 1980s.
benefit coverage for temporary employees,
(E) They are more difficult to account for than
promoting pay equity between temporary and
are other factors involved in the growth of
permanent workers, assisting labor unions in
temporary employment during the 1980s.
organizing temporary workers, and
encouraging firms to assign temporary jobs
52. The passage suggests which of the
primarily to employees who explicitly indicate
following about the use of temporary
that preference.
employment by firms during the 1980s?
(A) It enabled firms to deal with fluctuating
product demand far more efficiently than they
did before the 1980s.
(B) It increased as a result of increased
participation in the workforce by certain
demographic groups.
(C) It was discouraged by
government-mandated policies.
(D) It was a response to preferences indicated
by certain employees for more flexible working
arrangements.
(E) It increased partly as a result of workers’
reduced ability to control the terms of their
employment.
53. The passage suggests which of the
following about the workers who took
temporary jobs during the 1980s?
(A) Their jobs frequently led to permanent
positions within firms.
(B) They constituted a less demographically
diverse group than has been suggested.
(C) They were occasionally involved in actions
organized by labor unions.
(D) Their pay declined during the decade in
comparison with the pay of permanent
employees.
(E) They did not necessarily prefer temporary
employment to permanent employment.
54. The first sentence in the passage suggests
that the “observers” mentioned in line 1 would
be most likely to predict which of the following?
(A) That the number of new temporary
positions would decline as fewer workers who
preferred temporary employment entered the
workforce
(B) That the total number of temporary
positions would increase as fewer workers were
able to find permanent positions
(C) That employers would have less control
over the terms of workers’ employment as
workers increased their bargaining strength
(D) That more workers would be hired for
temporary positions as product demand
increased
(E) That the number of workers taking
temporary positions would increase as more
workers in any given demographic group
entered the workforce
55. In the context of the passage, the word
“excessive” (line 23) most closely corresponds
to which of the following phrases?
(A) Far more than can be justified by worker
preferences
(B) Far more than can be explained by
fluctuations in product demand
(C) Far more than can be beneficial to the
success of the firms themselves
(D) Far more than can be accounted for by an
expanding national economy
(E) Far more than can be attributed to
increases in the total number of people in the
workforce
56. The passage mentions each of the following
as an appropriate kind of governmental action
EXCEPT
(A) getting firms to offer temporary
employment primarily to a certain group of
people
(B) encouraging equitable pay for temporary
and permanent employees
(C) facilitating the organization of temporary
workers by labor unions
(D) establishing guidelines on the proportion of
temporary workers that firms should employ
(E) ensuring that temporary workers obtain
benefits from their employers
OG-12
Questions 57–63 refer to the passage
In Winters v. United States (1908), the
above.
Supreme Court held that the right to use waters
57. According to the passage, which of the
fl owing through or adjacent to the Fort
following was true of the treaty establishing the
Belknap Indian Reservation was reserved to
Fort Belknap Indian Reservation?
American Indians by the treaty establishing the
(A) It was challenged in the Supreme Court a
reservation. Although this treaty did not
number of times.
mention water rights, the Court ruled that the
(B) It was rescinded by the federal government,
federal government, when it created the
an action that gave rise to the Winters case.
reservation, intended to deal fairly with
(C) It cited American Indians’ traditional use of
American Indians by reserving for them the
the land’s resources.
waters without which their lands would have
(D) It failed to mention water rights to be
been useless. Later decisions, citing Winters,
enjoyed by the reservation’s inhabitants.
established that courts can fi nd federal rights
(E) It was modified by the Supreme Court in
to reserve water for particular purposes if (1)
Arizona v. California.
the land in question lies within an enclave
under exclusive federal jurisdiction, (2) the land
58. The passage suggests that, if the criteria
has been formally withdrawn from federal
discussed in lines 10–20 were the only criteria
public lands—i.e., withdrawn from the stock of
for establishing a reservation’s water rights,
federal lands available for private use under
which of the following would be true?
federal land use laws—and set aside or
(A) The water rights of the inhabitants of the
reserved, and (3) the circumstances reveal the
Fort Belknap Indian Reservation would not take
government intended to reserve water as well
precedence over those of other citizens.
as land when establishing the reservation.
(B) Reservations established before 1848 would
Some American Indian tribes have also
be judged to have no water rights.
established water rights through the courts
(C) There would be no legal basis for the water
based on their traditional diversion and use of
rights of the Rio Grande pueblos.
certain waters prior to the United States’
(D) Reservations other than American Indian
acquisition of sovereignty. For example, the Rio
reservations could not be created with reserved
Grande pueblos already existed when the
water rights.
United States acquired sovereignty over New
(E) Treaties establishing reservations would
Mexico in 1848. Although they at that time
have to mention water rights explicitly in order
became part of the United States, the pueblo
to reserve water for a particular purpose.
lands never formally constituted a part of
federal public lands; in any event, no treaty,
59. Which of the following most accurately
statute, or executive order has ever designated
summarizes the relationship between Arizona v.
or withdrawn the pueblos from public lands as
California in lines 38–42, and the criteria citing
American Indian reservations. This fact,
the Winters doctrine in lines 10–20?
however, has not barred application of the
(A) Arizona v. California abolishes these criteria
Winters doctrine. What constitutes an
and establishes a competing set of criteria for
American Indian reservation is a question of
applying the Winters doctrine.
practice, not of legal definition, and the pueblos
(B) Arizona v. California establishes that the
have always been treated as reservations by
Winters doctrine applies to a broader range of
the United States. This
situations than those defined by these criteria.
pragmatic approach is buttressed by Arizona v.
(C) Arizona v. California represents the sole
California (1963), wherein the Supreme Court
example of an exception to the criteria as they
indicated that the manner in which any type of
were set forth in the Winters doctrine.
federal reservation is created does not affect
(D) Arizona v. California does not refer to the
the application to it of the Winters doctrine.
Winters doctrine to justify water rights,
Therefore, the reserved water rights of Pueblo
whereas these criteria do rely on the Winters
Indians have priority over other citizens’ water
doctrine.
rights as of 1848, the year in which pueblos
(E) Arizona v. California applies the criteria
must be considered to have become
derived from the Winters doctrine only to
reservations.
federal lands other than American Indian
reservations.
60. The “pragmatic approach” mentioned in
lines 37–38 of the passage is best defined as
one that
(A) grants recognition to reservations that were
never formally established but that have
traditionally been treated as such
(B) determines the water rights of all citizens in
a particular region by examining the actual
history of water usage in that region
(C) gives federal courts the right to reserve
water along with land even when it is clear that
the government originally intended to reserve
only the land
(D) bases the decision to recognize the legal
rights of a group on the practical effect such a
recognition is likely to have on other citizens
(E) dictates that courts ignore precedents set
by such cases as Winters v. United States in
deciding what water rights belong to reserved
land
61. The author cites the fact that the Rio
Grande pueblos were never formally withdrawn
from public lands primarily in order to do which
of the following?
(A) Suggest why it might have been argued
that the Winters doctrine ought not to apply to
pueblo lands
(B) Imply that the United States never really
acquired sovereignty over pueblo lands
(C) Argue that the pueblo lands ought still to be
considered part of federal public lands
(D) Support the argument that the water rights
of citizens other than American Indians are
limited by the Winters doctrine
(E) Suggest that federal courts cannot claim
jurisdiction over cases disputing the traditional
diversion and use of water by Pueblo Indians
62. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) trace the development of laws establishing
American Indian reservations
(B) explain the legal bases for the water rights
of American Indian tribes
(C) question the legal criteria often used to
determine the water rights of American Indian
tribes
(D) discuss evidence establishing the earliest
date at which the federal government
recognized the water rights of American
Indians
(E) point out a legal distinction between
different types of American Indian reservations
63. The passage suggests that the legal rights
of citizens other than American Indians to the
use of water flowing into the Rio Grande
pueblos are
(A) guaranteed by the precedent set in Arizona
v. California
(B) abolished by the Winters doctrine
(C) deferred to the Pueblo Indians whenever
treaties explicitly require this
(D) guaranteed by federal land-use laws
(E) limited by the prior claims of the Pueblo
Indians
OG-13
Questions 64–69 refer to the passage
Many United States companies have,
above.
unfortunately, made the search for legal
64. The passage is chiefly concerned with
protection from import competition into a
(A) arguing against the increased
major line of work. Since 1980 the United
internationalization of United States
States International Trade Commission (ITC)
corporations
has received about 280 complaints alleging
(B) warning that the application of laws
damage from imports that benefit from
affecting trade frequently has unintended
subsidies by foreign governments.
consequences
Another 340 charge that foreign companies
(C) demonstrating that foreign-based firms
“dumped” their products in the United States at
receive more subsidies from their governments
“less than fair value.” Even when no unfair
than United States firms receive from the
practices are alleged, the simple claim that an
United States government
industry has been injured by imports is
(D) advocating the use of trade restrictions for
sufficient grounds to seek relief.
“dumped” products but not for other imports (E)
Contrary to the general impression, this quest
recommending a uniform method for handling
for import relief has hurt more companies than
claims of unfair trade practices
it has helped. As corporations begin to function
globally, they develop an intricate web of
65. It can be inferred from the passage that the
marketing, production, and research
minimal basis for a complaint to the
relationships. The complexity of these
International Trade Commission is which of the
relationships makes it unlikely that a system of
following?
import relief laws will meet the strategic needs
(A) A foreign competitor has received a subsidy
of all the units under the same parent company.
from a foreign government.
Internationalization increases the danger that
(B) A foreign competitor has substantially
foreign companies will use import relief laws
increased the volume of products shipped to
against the very companies the laws were
the United States.
designed to protect. Suppose a United States–
(C) A foreign competitor is selling products in
owned company establishes an overseas plant
the United States at less than fair market value.
to manufacture a product while its competitor
(D) The company requesting import relief has
makes the same product in the United States. If
been injured by the sale of imports in the
the competitor can prove injury from the
United States.
imports—and that the United States company
(E) The company requesting import relief has
received a subsidy from a foreign government
been barred from exporting products to the
to build its plant abroad—the United States
country of its foreign competitor.
company’s products will be uncompetitive in
the United States, since they would be subject
to duties.
66. The last paragraph performs which of the
Perhaps the most brazen case occurred when
following functions in the passage?
the ITC investigated allegations that Canadian
(A) It summarizes the discussion thus far and
companies were injuring the United States salt
suggests additional areas for research.
industry by dumping rock salt, used to de-ice
(B) It presents a recommendation based on the
roads.
evidence presented earlier.
The bizarre aspect of the complaint was that a
foreign conglomerate with United States
(C) It discusses an exceptional case in which
operations was crying for help against a United
the results expected by the author of the
States company with foreign operations. The
passage were not obtained.
“United States” company claiming injury was a
(D) It introduces an additional area of concern
subsidiary of a Dutch conglomerate, while the
not mentioned earlier.
“Canadian’’ companies included a subsidiary of
(E) It cites a specific case that illustrates a
a Chicago firm that was the second-largest
problem presented more generally in the
domestic producer of rock salt.
previous paragraph.
67. The passage warns of which of the
following dangers?
(A) Companies in the United States may receive
no protection from imports unless they actively
seek protection from import competition.
(B) Companies that seek legal protection from
import competition may incur legal costs that
far exceed any possible gain.
(C) Companies that are United States owned
but operate internationally may not be eligible
for protection from import competition under
the laws of the countries in which their plants
operate.
(D) Companies that are not United States
owned may seek legal protection from import
competition under United States import relief
laws.
(E) Companies in the United States that import
raw materials may have to pay duties on those
materials.
68. The passage suggests that which of the
following is most likely to be true of United
States trade laws?
(A) They will eliminate the practice of “dumping”
products in the United States.
(B) They will enable manufacturers in the
United States to compete more profitably
outside the United States.
(C) They will affect United States trade with
Canada more negatively than trade with other
nations.
(D) Those that help one unit within a parent
company will not necessarily help other units in
the company.
(E) Those that are applied to international
companies will accomplish their intended
result.
69. It can be inferred from the passage that the
author believes which of the following about
the complaint mentioned in the last paragraph?
(A) The ITC acted unfairly toward the
complainant in its investigation.
(B) The complaint violated the intent of import
relief laws.
(C) The response of the ITC to the complaint
provided suitable relief from unfair trade
practices to the complainant.
(D) The ITC did not have access to appropriate
information concerning the case.
(E) Each of the companies involved in the
complaint acted in its own best interest.
OG-14
Questions 70–75 refer to the passage
Milankovitch proposed in the early twentieth
above.
century that the ice ages were caused by
70. In the passage, the author is primarily
variations in the Earth’s orbit around the Sun.
interested in
For some time this theory was considered
(A) suggesting an alternative to an outdated
untestable, largely because there was no
research method
sufficiently precise chronology of the ice ages
(B) introducing a new research method that
with which the orbital variations could be
calls an accepted theory into question
matched.
(C) emphasizing the instability of data gathered
To establish such a chronology it is necessary to
from the application of a new scientific method
determine the relative amounts of land ice that
(D) presenting a theory and describing a new
existed at various times in the Earth’s past. A
method to test that theory
recent discovery makes such a determination
(E) initiating a debate about a widely accepted
possible: relative land-ice volume for a given
theory
period can be deduced from the ratio of two
oxygen isotopes, 16 and 18, found in ocean
71. The author of the passage would be most
sediments. Almost all the oxygen in water is
likely to agree with which of the following
oxygen 16, but a few molecules out of every
statements about the Milankovitch theory?
thousand incorporate the heavier isotope 18.
(A) It is the only possible explanation for the ice
When an ice age begins, the continental ice
ages.
sheets grow, steadily reducing the amount of
(B) It is too limited to provide a plausible
water evaporated from the ocean that will
explanation for the ice ages, despite recent
eventually return to it. Because heavier
research findings.
isotopes tend to be left behind when water
(C) It cannot be tested and confirmed until
evaporates from the ocean surfaces, the
further research on volcanic activity is done.
remaining ocean water becomes progressively
(D) It is one plausible explanation, though not
enriched in oxygen 18. The degree of
the only one, for the ice ages.
enrichment can be determined by analyzing
(E) It is not a plausible explanation for the ice
ocean sediments of the period, because these
ages, although it has opened up promising
sediments are composed of calcium carbonate
possibilities for future research.
shells of marine organisms, shells that were
constructed with oxygen atoms drawn from the
72. It can be inferred from the passage that the
surrounding ocean. The higher the ratio of
isotope record taken from ocean sediments
oxygen 18 to oxygen 16 in a sedimentary
would be less useful to researchers if which of
specimen, the more land ice there was when
the following were true?
the sediment was laid down.
(A) It indicated that lighter isotopes of oxygen
As an indicator of shifts in the Earth’s climate,
predominated at certain times.
the isotope record has two advantages. First, it
(B) It had far more gaps in its sequence than
is a global record: there is remarkably little
the record taken from rocks on land.
variation in isotope ratios in sedimentary
(C) It indicated that climate shifts did not occur
specimens taken from different continental
every 100,000 years.
locations. Second, it is a more continuous
(D) It indicated that the ratios of oxygen 16 and
record than that taken from rocks on land.
oxygen 18 in ocean water were not consistent
Because of these advantages, sedimentary
with those found in fresh water.
evidence can be dated with sufficient accuracy
(E) It stretched back for only a million years.
by radiometric methods to establish a precise
chronology of the ice ages. The dated isotope
73. According to the passage, which of the
record shows that the fluctuations in global ice
following is true of the ratios of oxygen isotopes
volume over the past several hundred thousand
in ocean sediments?
years have a pattern: an ice age occurs roughly
(A) They indicate that sediments found during
once every 100,000 years. These data have
an ice age contain more calcium carbonate
established a strong connection between
than sediments formed at other times.
variations in the Earth’s orbit and the periodicity
(B) They are less reliable than the evidence
of the ice ages.
from rocks on land in determining the volume
However, it is important to note that other
of land ice.
factors, such as volcanic particulates or
(C) They can be used to deduce the relative
variations in the amount of sunlight received by
volume of land ice that was present when the
the Earth, could potentially have affected the
sediment was laid down.
climate. The advantage of the Milankovitch
(D) They are more unpredictable during an ice
theory is that it is testable; changes in the
age than in other climatic conditions.
Earth’s orbit can be calculated and dated by
(E) They can be used to determine atmospheric
applying Newton’s laws of gravity to
conditions at various times in the past.
progressively earlier configurations of the
bodies in the solar system. Yet the lack of
74. It can be inferred from the passage that
information about other possible factors
precipitation formed from evaporated ocean
affecting global climate does not make them
water has
unimportant.
(A) the same isotopic ratio as ocean water
(B) less oxygen 18 than does ocean water
(C) less oxygen 18 than has the ice contained in
continental ice sheets
(D) a different isotopic composition than has
precipitation formed from water on land
(E) more oxygen 16 than has precipitation
formed from fresh water
75. It can be inferred from the passage that
calcium carbonate shells
(A) are not as susceptible to deterioration as
rocks
(B) are less common in sediments formed
during an ice age
(C) are found only in areas that were once
covered by land ice
(D) contain radioactive material that can be
used to determine a sediment’s isotopic
composition
(E) reflect the isotopic composition of the water
at the time the shells were formed
OG-15
Questions 76–81 refer to the passage
Two works published in 1984 demonstrate
above.
contrasting approaches to writing the history of
76. The primary purpose of the passage is to
United States women. Buel and Buel’s
(A) examine two sides of a historiographical
biography of Mary Fish (1736–1818) makes
debate
little effort to place her story in the context of
(B) call into question an author’s approach to a
recent historiography on women. Lebsock,
historiographical debate
meanwhile, attempts not only to write the
(C) examine one author’s approach to a
history of women in one southern community,
historiographical debate
but also to redirect two decades of
(D) discuss two authors’ works in relationship
historiographical debate as to whether women
to a historiographical debate
gained or lost status in the nineteenth century
(E) explain the prevalent perspective on a
as compared with the eighteenth century.
historiographical debate
Although both books offer the reader the
opportunity to assess this controversy
77. The author of the passage mentions the
regarding women’s status, only Lebsock’s deals
supervision of schools primarily in order to
with it directly. She examines several different
(A) remind readers of the role education played
aspects of women’s status, helping to refine
in the cultural changes of the nineteenth
and resolve the issues. She concludes that
century in the United States
while women gained autonomy in some areas,
(B) suggest an area in which ineteenth-century
especially in the private sphere, they lost it in
American women were relatively free to xercise
many aspects of the economic sphere. More
power
importantly, she shows that the debate itself
(C) provide an example of an occupation for
depends on frame of reference: in many
which accurate data about women’s
respects, women lost power in relation to men,
participation are difficult to obtain
for example, as certain jobs (delivering babies,
(D) speculate about which occupations were
supervising schools) were taken over by men.
considered suitable for United States women of
Yet women also gained power in comparison
the nineteenth century
with their previous status, owning a higher
(E) illustrate how the answers to questions
proportion of real estate, for example. In
about women’s status depend on particular
contrast, Buel and Buel’s biography provides
contexts
ample raw material for questioning the myth,
fostered by some historians, of a colonial
78. With which of the following
golden age in the eighteenth century but does
characterizations of Lebsock’s contribution to
not give the reader much guidance in analyzing
the controversy concerning women’s status in
the controversy over women’s status.
the nineteenth-century United States would the
author of the passage be most likely to agree?
(A) Lebsock has studied women from a
formerly neglected region and time period.
(B) Lebsock has demonstrated the importance
of frame of reference in answering questions
about women’s status.
(C) Lebsock has addressed the controversy by
using women’s current status as a frame of
reference.
(D) Lebsock has analyzed statistics about
occupations and property that were previously
ignored.
(E) Lebsock has applied recent istoriographical
methods to the biography of a nineteenth
century woman.
79. According to the passage, Lebsock’s work
differs from Buel and Buel’s work in that
Lebsock’s work
(A) uses a large number of primary sources
(B) ignores issues of women’s legal status
(C) refuses to take a position on women’s
status in the eighteenth century
(D) addresses larger historiographical issues
(E) fails to provide suffi cient material to
support its claims
80. The passage suggests that Lebsock
believes that compared to nineteenth-century
American women, eighteenth-century
American women were
(A) in many respects less powerful in relation to
men
(B) more likely to own real estate
(C) generally more economically independent
(D) more independent in conducting their
private lives
(E) less likely to work as school
superintendents
81. The passage suggests that Buel and Buel’s
biography of Mary Fish provides evidence for
which of the following views of women’s
history?
(A) Women have lost power in relation to men
since the colonial era.
(B) Women of the colonial era were not as likely
to be concerned with their status as were
women in the nineteenth century.
(C) The colonial era was not as favorable for
women as some historians have believed.
(D) Women had more economic autonomy in
the colonial era than in the nineteenth century.
(E) Women’s occupations were generally more
respected in the colonial era than in the
nineteenth century.
OG-16
Questions 82–90 refer to the passage
It was once believed that the brain was
above.
independent of metabolic processes occurring
82. Which of the following titles best
elsewhere in the body. In recent studies,
summarizes the contents of the passage?
however, we have discovered that the
(A) Neurotransmitters: Their Crucial Function in
production and release in brain neurons of the
Cellular Communication
neurotransmitter serotonin (neurotransmitters
(B) Diet and Survival: An Old Relationship
are compounds that neurons use to transmit
Reexamined
signals to other cells) depend directly on the
(C) The Blood Supply and the Brain: A
food that the body processes.
Reciprocal Dependence
Our first studies sought to determine whether
(D) Amino Acids and Neurotransmitters: The
the increase in serotonin observed in rats given
Connection between Serotonin Levels and
a large injection of the amino acid tryptophan
Tyrosine
might also occur after rats ate meals that
(E) The Effects of Food Intake on the
change tryptophan levels in the blood. We
Production and Release of Serotonin: Some
found that, immediately after the rats began to
Recent Findings
eat, parallel elevations occurred in blood
tryptophan, brain tryptophan, and brain
83. According to the passage, the speed with
serotonin levels. These findings suggested that
which tryptophan is provided to the brain cells
the production and release of serotonin in brain
of a rat varies with the
neurons were normally coupled with
(A) amount of protein present in a meal
blood-tryptophan increases. In later studies we
(B) concentration of serotonin in the brain
found that injecting insulin into a rat’s
before a meal
bloodstream also caused parallel elevations in
(C) concentration of leucine in the blood rather
blood and brain tryptophan levels and in
than with the concentration of tyrosine in the
serotonin levels. We then decided to see
blood after a meal
whether the secretion of the animal’s own
(D) concentration of tryptophan in the brain
insulin similarly affected serotonin production.
before a meal
We gave the rats a carbohydrate-containing
(E) number of serotonin-containing neurons
meal that we knew would elicit insulin secretion.
As we had hypothesized, the blood tryptophan
84. According to the passage, when the
level and the concentrations of tryptophan and
authors began their first studies, they were
of serotonin in the brain increased after the
aware that
meal.
(A) they would eventually need to design
Surprisingly, however, when we added a large
experiments that involved feeding rats high
amount of protein to the meal, brain
concentrations of protein
tryptophan and serotonin levels fell. Since
(B) tryptophan levels in the blood were difficult
protein contains tryptophan, why should it
to monitor with accuracy
depress brain tryptophan levels? The answer
(C) serotonin levels increased after rats were
lies in the mechanism that provides blood
fed meals rich in tryptophan
tryptophan to the brain cells. This same
(D) there were many neurotransmitters whose
mechanism also provides the brain cells with
production was dependent on metabolic
other amino acids found in protein, such as
processes elsewhere in the body
tyrosine and leucine. The consumption of
(E) serotonin levels increased after rats were
protein increases blood concentration of the
injected with a large amount of tryptophan
other amino acids much more, proportionately,
than it does that of tryptophan.
85. According to the passage, one reason that
The more protein is in a meal, the lower is the
the authors gave rats carbohydrates was to
ratio of the resulting blood-tryptophan
(A) depress the rats’ tryptophan levels
concentration to the concentration of
(B) prevent the rats from contracting diseases
competing amino acids, and the more slowly is
(C) cause the rats to produce insulin
tryptophan provided to the brain.
(D) demonstrate that insulin is the most
Thus the more protein in a meal, the less
important substance secreted by the body
serotonin subsequently produced and released.
(E) compare the effect of carbohydrates with
the effect of proteins
86. According to the passage, the more protein
a rat consumes, the lower will be the
(A) ratio of the rat’s blood-tryptophan
concentration to the amount of serotonin
produced and released in the rat’s brain
(B) ratio of the rat’s blood-tryptophan
concentration to the concentration in its blood
of the other amino acids contained in the
protein
(C) ratio of the rat’s blood-tyrosine
concentration to its blood-leucine concentration
(D) number of neurotransmitters of any kind
that the rat will produce and release
(E) number of amino acids the rat’s blood will
contain
87. The authors’ discussion of the “mechanism
that provides blood tryptophan to the brain
cells” (lines 34–35) is meant to
(A) stimulate further research studies
(B) summarize an area of scientific
investigation
(C) help explain why a particular research
finding was obtained
(D) provide supporting evidence for a
controversial scientific theory
(E) refute the conclusions of a previously
mentioned research study
88. According to the passage, an injection of
insulin was most similar in its effect on rats to
an injection of
(A) tyrosine
(B) leucine
(C) blood
(D) tryptophan
(E) protein
89. It can be inferred from the passage that
which of the following would be LEAST likely to
be a potential source of aid to a patient who
was not adequately producing and releasing
serotonin?
(A) Meals consisting almost exclusively of
protein
(B) Meals consisting almost exclusively of
carbohydrates
(C) Meals that would elicit insulin secretion
(D) Meals that had very low concentrations of
tyrosine
(E) Meals that had very low concentrations of
leucine
90. It can be inferred from the passage that the
authors initially held which of the following
hypotheses about what would happen when
they fed large amounts of protein to rats?
(A) The rats’ brain serotonin levels would not
decrease.
(B) The rats’ brain tryptophan levels would
decrease.
(C) The rats’ tyrosine levels would increase less
quickly than would their leucine levels.
(D) The rats would produce more insulin.
(E) The rats would produce neurotransmitters
other than serotonin.
OG-17
Questions 91–96 refer to the passage
In 1955 Maurice Duverger published The
above.
Political Role of Women, the first behavioralist,
91. The primary purpose of the passage is to
multinational comparison of women’s electoral
(A) evaluate a research study
participation ever to use election data and
(B) summarize the history of a research area
survey data together. His study analyzed
(C) report new research findings
women’s patterns of voting, political candidacy,
(D) reinterpret old research findings
and political activism in four European
(E) reconcile conflicting research findings
countries during the first half of the twentieth
92. According to the passage, Duverger’s study
century. Duverger’s research findings were that
was unique in 1955 in that it
women voted somewhat less frequently than
(A) included both election data and survey data
men (the difference narrowing the longer
(B) gathered data from sources never before
women had the vote) and were slightly more
used in political studies
conservative. Duverger’s work set an early
(C) included an analysis of historical processes
standard for the sensitive analysis of women’s
(D) examined the influence on voting behavior
electoral activities.
of the relationships between women and men
Moreover, to Duverger’s credit, he placed his
(E) analyzed not only voting and political
findings in the context of many of the historical
candidacy but also other political activities
processes that had shaped these activities.
However, since these contexts have changed
93. Which of the following characteristics of a
over time, Duverger’s approach has proved
country is most clearly an example of a factor
more durable than his actual findings. In
that Duverger, as described in the passage,
addition, Duverger’s discussion of his findings
failed to consider in his study?
was hampered by his failure to consider certain
(A) A large population
specific factors important to women’s electoral
(B) A predominantly Protestant population
participation at the time he collected his data:
(C) A predominantly urban population
the influence of political regimes, the effects of
(D) A one-party government
economic factors, and the ramifications of
(E) Location in the heart of Europe
political and social relations between women
and men. Given this failure, Duverger’s study
94. The author implies that Duverger’s actual
foreshadowed the enduring limitations of the
findings are
behavioralist approach to the multinational
(A) limited because they focus on only four
study of women’s political participation.
countries
(B) inaccurate in their description of the four
countries in the early 1950s
(C) out-of-date in that they are inapplicable in
the four countries today
(D) flawed because they are based on unsound
data
(E) biased by Duverger’s political beliefs
95. The passage implies that, in comparing four
European countries, Duverger found that the
voting rates of women and men were most
different in the country in which women
(A) were most politically active
(B) ran for office most often
(C) held the most conservative political views
(D) had the most egalitarian relations with men
(E) had possessed the right to vote for the
shortest time
96. The author implies that some behavioralist
research involving the multinational study of
women’s political participation that followed
Duverger’s study did which of the following?
(A) Ignored Duverger’s approach
(B) Suffered from faults similar to those in
Duverger’s study
(C) Focused on political activism
(D) Focused on the influences of political
regimes
(E) Focused on the political and social relations
between women and men
OG-18
Questions 97–102 refer to the passage
The majority of successful senior managers do
above.
not closely follow the classical rational model of
97. According to the passage, senior managers
first clarifying goals, assessing the problem,
use intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT
formulating options, estimating likelihoods of
to
success, making a decision, and only then
(A) speed up the creation of a solution to a
taking action to implement the decision. Rather,
problem
in their day-by-day tactical maneuvers, these
(B) identify a problem
senior executives rely on what is vaguely
(C) bring together disparate facts
termed “intuition” to manage a network of
(D) stipulate clear goals
interrelated problems that require them to deal
(E) evaluate possible solutions to a problem
with ambiguity, inconsistency, novelty, and
surprise; and to integrate action into the
98. The passage suggests which of the
process of thinking.
following about the “writers on management”
Generations of writers on management have
mentioned in line 12?
recognized that some practicing managers rely
(A) They have criticized managers for not
heavily on intuition. In general, however, such
following the classical rational model of
writers display a poor grasp of what intuition is.
decision analysis.
Some see it as the opposite of rationality;
(B) They have not based their analyses on a
others view it as an excuse for capriciousness.
sufficiently large sample of actual managers.
Isenberg’s recent research on the cognitive
(C) They have relied in drawing their
processes of senior managers reveals that
conclusions on what managers say rather than
managers’ intuition is neither of these. Rather,
on what managers do.
senior managers use intuition in at least five
(D) They have misunderstood how managers
distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense when
use intuition in making business decisions.
a problem exists. Second, managers rely on
(E) They have not acknowledged the role of
intuition to perform well-learned behavior
intuition in managerial practice.
patterns rapidly. This intuition is not arbitrary or
99. Which of the following best exemplifies “an
irrational, but is based on years of painstaking
‘Aha!’ experience” (line 30) as it is presented in
practice and hands-on experience that build
the passage?
skills. A third function of intuition is to
(A) A manager risks taking an action whose
synthesize isolated bits of data and practice
outcome is unpredictable to discover whether
into an integrated picture, often in an “Aha!”
the action changes the problem at hand.
experience. Fourth, some managers use
(B) A manager performs well-learned and
intuition as a check on the results of more
familiar behavior patterns in creative and
rational analysis. Most senior executives are
uncharacteristic ways to solve a problem.
familiar with the formal decision analysis
(C) A manager suddenly connects seemingly
models and tools, and those who use such
unrelated facts and experiences to create a
systematic methods for reaching decisions are
pattern relevant to the problem at hand.
occasionally leery of solutions suggested by
(D) A manager rapidly identifies the
these methods which run counter to their sense
methodology used to compile data yielded by
of the correct course of action. Finally,
systematic analysis.
managers can use intuition to bypass in-depth
analysis and move rapidly to engender a
plausible solution. Used in this way,
(E) A manager swiftly decides which of several
intuition is an almost instantaneous cognitive
sets of tactics to implement in order to deal
process in which a manager recognizes familiar
with the contingencies suggested by a problem.
patterns.
One of the implications of the intuitive style of
100. According to the passage, the classical
executive management is that “thinking” is
model of decision analysis includes all of the
inseparable from acting. Since managers often
following EXCEPT
“know” what is right before they can analyze
(A) evaluation of a problem
and explain it, they frequently act first and
(B) creation of possible solutions to a problem
explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied to
(C) establishment of clear goals to be reached
action in thinking/acting cycles, in which
by the decision
managers develop thoughts about their
(D) action undertaken in order to discover more
companies and organizations not by analyzing
information about a problem
a problematic situation and then acting, but by
(E) comparison of the probable effects of
acting and analyzing in close concert. Given the
different solutions to a problem
great uncertainty of many of the management
issues that they face, senior managers often
101. It can be inferred from the passage that
instigate a course of action simply to learn
which of the following would most probably be
more about an issue.
one major difference in behavior between
They then use the results of the action to
Manager X, who uses intuition to reach
develop a more complete understanding of the
decisions, and Manager Y, who uses only formal
issue. One implication of thinking/acting cycles
decision analysis?
is that action is often part of defining the
(A) Manager X analyzes first and then acts;
problem, not just of implementing the solution.
Manager Y does not.
(B) Manager X checks possible solutions to a
problem by systematic analysis; Manager Y
does not.
(C) Manager X takes action in order to arrive at
the solution to a problem; Manager Y does not.
(D) Manager Y draws on years of hands-on
experience in creating a solution to a problem;
Manager X does not.
(E) Manager Y depends on day-to-day tactical
maneuvering; Manager X does not.
102. The passage provides support for which of
the following statements?
(A) Managers who rely on intuition are more
successful than those who rely on formal
decision analysis.
(B) Managers cannot justify their intuitive
decisions.
(C) Managers’ intuition works contrary to their
rational and analytical skills.
(D) Logical analysis of a problem increases the
number of possible solutions.
(E) Intuition enables managers to employ their
practical experience more efficiently.
OG-19
Questions 103–107 refer to the passage
Frazier and Mosteller assert that medical
above.
research could be improved by a move toward
103. The passage is primarily concerned with
larger, simpler clinical trials of medical
(A) identifying two practices in medical
treatments.
research that may affect the accuracy of clinical
Currently, researchers collect far more
trials
background information on patients than is
(B) describing aspects of medical research that
strictly required for their trials—substantially
tend to drive up costs
more than hospitals collect—thereby escalating
(C) evaluating an analysis of certain
costs of data collection, storage, and analysis.
shortcomings of current medical research
Although limiting information collection could
practices
increase the risk that researchers will overlook
(D) describing proposed changes to the ways in
facts relevant to a study, Frazier and Mosteller
which clinical trials are conducted
contend that such risk, never entirely
(E) explaining how medical researchers have
eliminable from research, would still be small in
traditionally conducted clinical trials and how
most studies. Only in research on entirely new
such trials are likely to change
treatments are new and unexpected variables
likely to arise.
104. Which of the following can be inferred
Frazier and Mosteller propose not only that
from the passage about a study of the category
researchers limit data collection on individual
of patients referred to in lines 21–23?
patients but also that researchers enroll more
(A) Its findings might have limited applicability.
patients in clinical trials, thereby obtaining a
(B) It would be prohibitively expensive in its
more representative sample of the total
attempt to create ideal conditions.
population with the disease under study. Often
(C) It would be the best way to sample the total
researchers restrict study participation to
population of potential patients.
patients who have no ailments besides those
(D) It would allow researchers to limit
being studied. A treatment judged successful
information collection without increasing the
under these ideal conditions can then be
risk that important variables could be
evaluated under normal conditions. Broadening
overlooked.
the range of trial participants, Frazier and
(E) Its findings would be more accurate if it
Mosteller suggest, would enable researchers to
concerned treatments for a progressive disease
evaluate a treatment’s efficacy for diverse
than if it concerned treatments for a
patients under various conditions and to
nonprogressive disease
evaluate its effectiveness for different patient
subgroups. For example, the value of a
105. It can be inferred from the passage that a
treatment for a progressive disease may vary
study limited to patients like those mentioned
according to a patient’s stage of disease.
in lines 21–23 would have which of the
Patients’ ages may also affect a treatment’s
following advantages over the kind of study
efficacy.
proposed by Frazier and Mosteller?
(A) It would yield more data and its fi ndings
would be more accurate.
(B) It would cost less in the long term, though
it would be more expensive in its initial stages.
(C) It would limit the number of variables
researchers would need to consider when
evaluating the treatment under study.
(D) It would help researchers to identify
subgroups of patients with secondary
conditions that might also be treatable.
(E) It would enable researchers to assess the
value of an experimental treatment for the
average patient.
106. The author mentions patients’ ages (line
33) primarily in order to
(A) identify the most critical variable
differentiating subgroups of patients
(B) cast doubt on the advisability of
implementing Frazier and Mosteller’s proposals
about medical research
(C) indicate why progressive diseases may
require different treatments at different stages
(D) illustrate a point about the value of
enrolling a wide range of patients in clinical
trials
(E) substantiate an argument about the
problems inherent in enrolling large numbers of
patients in clinical trials
107. According to the passage, which of the
following describes a result of the way in which
researchers generally conduct clinical trials?
(A) They expend resources on the storage of
information likely to be irrelevant to the study
they are conducting.
(B) They sometimes compromise the accuracy
of their fi ndings by collecting and analyzing
more information than is strictly required for
their trials.
(C) They avoid the risk of overlooking variables
that might affect their fi ndings, even though
doing so raises their research costs.
(D) Because they attempt to analyze too much
information, they overlook facts that could
emerge as relevant to their studies.
(E) In order to approximate the conditions
typical of medical treatment, they base their
methods of information collection on those
used by hospitals.
OG-20
Questions 108–114 refer to the passage
According to a recent theory, Archean-age
above.
gold-quartz vein systems were formed more
108. The author is primarily concerned with
than two billion years ago from magmatic fluids
(A) advocating a return to an older
that originated from molten granite-like bodies
methodology
deep beneath the surface of the Earth. This
(B) explaining the importance of a recent
theory is contrary to the widely held view that
theory
the systems were deposited from metamorphic
(C) enumerating differences between two
fluids, that is, from fluids that formed during
widely used methods
the dehydration of wet sedimentary rocks.
(D) describing events leading to a discovery
The recently developed theory has
(E) challenging the assumptions on which a
considerable practical importance. Most of the
theory is based
gold deposits discovered during the original
gold rushes were exposed at the Earth’s
109. According to the passage, the widely held
surface and were found because they had shed
view of Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems
trails of alluvial gold that were easily traced by
is that such systems
simple prospecting methods. Although these
(A) were formed from metamorphic fluids
same methods still lead to an occasional
(B) originated in molten granite-like bodies
discovery, most deposits not yet discovered
(C) were formed from alluvial deposits
have gone undetected because they are buried
(D) generally have surface expression
and have no surface expression.
(E) are not discoverable through chemical tests
The challenge in exploration is therefore to
unravel the subsurface geology of an area and
110. The passage implies that which of the
pinpoint the position of buried minerals.
following steps would be the first performed by
Methods widely used today include analysis of
explorers who wish to maximize their chances
aerial images that yield a broad geological
of discovering gold?
overview; geophysical techniques that provide
(A) Surveying several sites known to have been
data on the magnetic, electrical, and
formed more than two billion years ago
mineralogical properties of the rocks being
(B) Limiting exploration to sites known to have
investigated; and sensitive chemical tests that
been formed from metamorphic fluid
are able to detect the subtle chemical halos
(C) Using an appropriate conceptual model to
that often envelop mineralization. However,
select a site for further exploration
none of these high-technology methods are of
(D) Using geophysical methods to analyze
any value if the sites to which they are applied
rocks over a broad area
have never mineralized, and to maximize the
(E) Limiting exploration to sites where alluvial
chances of discovery the explorer must
gold has previously been found
therefore pay particular attention to selecting
the ground formations most likely to be
111. Which of the following statements about
mineralized. Such ground selection relies to
discoveries of gold deposits is supported by
varying degrees on conceptual models, which
information in the passage?
take into account theoretical studies of relevant
(A) The number of gold discoveries made
factors.
annually has increased between the time of the
These models are constructed primarily from
original gold rushes and the present.
empirical observations of known mineral
(B) New discoveries of gold deposits are likely
deposits and from theories of ore-forming
to be the result of exploration techniques
processes.
designed to locate buried mineralization.
The explorer uses the models to identify those
(C) It is unlikely that newly discovered gold
geological features that are critical to the
deposits will ever yield as much as did those
formation of the mineralization being modeled,
deposits discovered during the original gold
and then tries to select areas for exploration
rushes.
that exhibit as many of the critical features as
(D) Modern explorers are divided on the
possible.
question of the utility of simple prospecting
methods as a source of new discoveries of gold
deposits.
(E) Models based on the theory that gold
originated from magmatic fluids have already
led to new discoveries of gold deposits.
112. It can be inferred from the passage that
which of the following is easiest to detect?
(A) A gold-quartz vein system originating in
magmatic fluids
(B) A gold-quartz vein system originating in
metamorphic fluids
(C) A gold deposit that is mixed with granite
(D) A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold
(E) A gold deposit that exhibits chemical halos
113. The theory mentioned in lines 1–5 relates
to the conceptual models discussed in the
passage in which of the following ways?
(A) It may furnish a valid account of
ore-forming processes, and, hence, can
support conceptual models that have great
practical significance.
(B) It suggests that certain geological
formations, long believed to be mineralized, are
in fact mineralized, thus confirming current
conceptual models.
(C) It suggests that there may not be enough
similarity across Archean-age gold-quartz vein
systems to warrant the formulation of
conceptual models.
(D) It corrects existing theories about the
chemical halos of gold deposits, and thus
provides a basis for correcting current
conceptual models.
(E) It suggests that simple prospecting
methods still have a higher success rate in the
discovery of gold deposits than do more
modern methods.
114. According to the passage, methods of
exploring for gold that are widely used today
are based on which of the following facts?
(A) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits
are still molten.
(B) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits
are exposed at the surface.
(C) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits
are buried and have no surface expression.
(D) Only one type of gold deposit warrants
exploration, since the other types of gold
deposits are found in regions difficult to reach.
(E) Only one type of gold deposit warrants
exploration, since the other types of gold
deposits are unlikely to yield concentrated
quantities of gold.
OG-21
Questions 115–119 refer to the passage
After evidence was obtained in the 1920s that
above.
the universe is expanding, it became
115. The passage is primarily concerned with
reasonable to ask: Will the universe continue to
(A) defending a controversial approach
expand indefinitely, or is there enough mass in
(B) criticizing an accepted view
it for the mutual attraction of its constituents to
(C) summarizing research findings
bring this expansion to a halt? It can be
(D) contrasting competing theories
calculated that the critical density of matter
(E) describing an innovative technique
needed to brake the expansion and “close” the
universe is equivalent to three hydrogen atoms
116. The authors’ study indicates that, in
per cubic meter. But the density of the
comparison with the outermost regions of a
observable universe—luminous matter in the
typical spiral galaxy, the region just outside the
form of galaxies—comes to only a fraction of
nucleus can be characterized as having
this. If the expansion of the universe is to stop,
(A) higher rotational velocity and higher
there must be enough invisible matter in the
luminosity
universe to exceed the luminous matter in
(B) lower rotational velocity and higher
density by a factor of roughly 70.
luminosity
Our contribution to the search for this “missing
(C) lower rotational velocity and lower
matter” has been to study the rotational
luminosity
velocity of galaxies at various distances from
(D) similar rotational velocity and higher
their center of rotation. It has been known for
luminosity
some time that outside the bright nucleus of a
(E) similar rotational velocity and similar
typical spiral galaxy luminosity falls off rapidly
luminosity
with distance from the center. If luminosity
were a true indicator of mass, most of the mass
117. The authors’ suggestion that “as much as
would be concentrated toward the center.
90 percent of the mass of the universe is not
Outside the nucleus the rotational velocity
radiating at any wavelength with enough
would decrease geometrically with distance
intensity to be detected on the Earth” (lines
from the center, in conformity with Kepler’s law.
34–37) would be most weakened if which of
Instead we have found that the rotational
the following were discovered to be true?
velocity in spiral galaxies either remains
(A) Spiral galaxies are less common than types
constant with increasing distance from the
of galaxies that contain little nonluminous
center or increases slightly. This unexpected
matter.
result indicates that the falloff in luminous mass
(B) Luminous and nonluminous matter are
with distance from the center is balanced by an
composed of the same basic elements.
increase in nonluminous mass.
(C) The bright nucleus of a typical spiral galaxy
Our findings suggest that as much as 90
also contains some nonluminous matter.
percent of the mass of the universe is not
(D) The density of the observable universe is
radiating at any wavelength with enough
greater than most previous estimates have
intensity to be detected on the Earth. Such dark
suggested.
matter could be in the form of extremely dim
(E) Some galaxies do not rotate or rotate too
stars of low mass, of large planets like Jupiter,
slowly for their rotational velocity to be
or of black holes, either small or massive. While
measured
it has not yet been determined whether this
mass is sufficient to close the universe, some
118. It can be inferred from information
physicists consider it significant that estimates
presented in the passage that if the density of
are converging on the critical value.
the universe were equivalent to significantly
less than three hydrogen atoms per cubic meter,
which of the following would be true as a
consequence?
(A) Luminosity would be a true indicator of
mass.
(B) Different regions in spiral galaxies would
rotate at the same velocity.
(C) The universe would continue to expand
indefinitely.
(D) The density of the invisible matter in the
universe would have to be more than 70 times
the density of the luminous matter.
(E) More of the invisible matter in spiral
galaxies would have to be located in their nuclei
than in their outer regions.
119. The authors propose all of the following as
possibly contributing to the “missing matter” in
spiral galaxies EXCEPT
(A) massive black holes
(B) small black holes
(C) small, dim stars
(D) massive stars
(E) large planets
OG-22
Questions 120–127 refer to the passage
Jon Clark’s study of the effect of the
above.
modernization of a telephone exchange on
120. The primary purpose of the passage is to
exchange maintenance work and workers is a
(A) advocate a more positive attitude toward
solid contribution to a debate that
technological change
encompasses two lively issues in the history
(B) discuss the implications for employees of
and sociology of technology: technological
the modernization of a telephone exchange
determinism and social constructivism.
(C) consider a successful challenge to the
Clark makes the point that the characteristics of
constructivist view of technological change
a technology have a decisive influence on job
(D) challenge the position of advocates of
skills and work organization. Put more strongly,
technological determinism
technology can be a primary determinant of
(E) suggest that the social causes of
social and managerial organization. Clark
technological change should be studied in real
believes this possibility has been obscured by
situations
the recent sociological fashion, exemplified by
Braverman’s analysis, that emphasizes the way
121. Which of the following statements about
machinery reflects social choices. For
the modernization of the telephone exchange is
Braverman, the shape of a technological
supported by information in the passage?
system is subordinate to the manager’s desire
(A) The new technology reduced the role of
to wrest control of the labor process from the
managers in labor negotiations.
workers. Technological change is construed as
(B) The modernization was implemented
the outcome of negotiations among interested
without the consent of the employees directly
parties who seek to incorporate their own
affected by it.
interests into the design and configuration of
(C) The modernization had an impact that went
the machinery. This position represents the
significantly beyond maintenance routines.
new mainstream called social constructivism.
(D) Some of the maintenance workers felt
The constructivists gain acceptance by
victimized by the new technology.
misrepresenting technological determinism:
(E) The modernization gave credence to the
technological determinists are supposed to
view of advocates of social constructivism.
believe, for example, that machinery imposes
appropriate forms of order on society. The
122. Which of the following most accurately
alternative to constructivism, in other words, is
describes Clark’s opinion of Braverman’s
to view technology as existing outside society,
position?
capable of directly influencing skills and work
(A) He respects its wide-ranging popularity.
organization.
(B) He disapproves of its misplaced emphasis
Clark refutes the extremes of the
on the infl uence of managers.
constructivists by both theoretical and empirical
(C) He admires the consideration it gives to the
arguments.
attitudes of the workers affected.
Theoretically he defines “technology” in terms
(D) He is concerned about its potential to
of relationships between social and technical
impede the implementation of new
variables.
technologies.
Attempts to reduce the meaning of technology
(E) He is sympathetic to its concern about the
to cold, hard metal are bound to fail, for
impact of modern technology on workers
machinery is just scrap unless it is organized
functionally and supported by appropriate
123. The information in the passage suggests
systems of operation and maintenance. At the
that which of the following statements from
empirical level Clark shows how a change at the
hypothetical sociological studies of change in
telephone exchange from
industry most clearly exemplifies the social
maintenance-intensive electromechanical
constructivists’ version of technological
switches to semi-electronic switching systems
determinism?
altered work tasks, skills, training opportunities,
(A) It is the available technology that
administration, and organization of workers.
determines workers’ skills, rather than workers’
Some changes Clark attributes to the particular
skills influencing the application of technology.
way management and labor unions negotiated
(B) All progress in industrial technology grows
the introduction of the technology, whereas
out of a continuing negotiation between
others are seen as arising from the capabilities
technological possibility and human need.
and nature of the technology itself.
(C) Some organizational change is caused by
Thus Clark helps answer the question: “When is
people; some is caused by computer chips.
social choice decisive and when are the
(D) Most major technological advances in
concrete characteristics of technology more
industry have been generated through research
important?”
and development.
(E) Some industrial technology eliminates jobs,
but educated workers can create whole new
skills areas by the adaptation of the technology.
124. The information in the passage suggests
that Clark believes that which of the following
would be true if social constructivism had not
gained widespread acceptance?
(A) Businesses would be more likely to
modernize without considering the social
consequences of their actions.
(B) There would be greater understanding of
the role played by technology in producing
social change.
(C) Businesses would be less likely to
understand the attitudes of employees affected
by modernization.
(D) Modernization would have occurred at a
slower rate.
(E) Technology would have played a greater
part in determining the role of business in
society.
125. According to the passage, constructivists
employed which of the following to promote
their argument?
(A) Empirical studies of business situations
involving technological change
(B) Citation of managers supportive of their
position
(C) Construction of hypothetical situations that
support their view
(D) Contrasts of their view with a misstatement
of an opposing view
(E) Descriptions of the breadth of impact of
technological change
126. The author of the passage uses the
expression “are supposed to” in line 27
primarily in order to
(A) suggest that a contention made by
constructivists regarding determinists is
inaccurate
(B) define the generally accepted position of
determinists regarding the implementation of
technology
(C) engage in speculation about the motivation
of determinists
(D) lend support to a comment critical of the
position of determinists
(E) contrast the historical position of
determinists with their position regarding the
exchange modernization
127. Which of the following statements about
Clark’s study of the telephone exchange can be
inferred from information in the passage?
(A) Clark’s reason for undertaking the study
was to undermine Braverman’s analysis of the
function of technology.
(B) Clark’s study suggests that the
implementation of technology should be
discussed in the context of conflict between
labor and management.
(C) Clark examined the impact of changes in
the technology of switching at the exchange in
terms of overall operations and organization.
(D) Clark concluded that the implementation of
new switching technology was equally
beneficial to management and labor.
(E) Clark’s analysis of the change in switching
systems applies only narrowly to the situation
at the particular exchange that he studied.
OG-23
Questions 128–133 refer to the passage
All the cells in a particular plant start out with
above.
the same complement of genes. How then can
128. According to the passage, the five
these cells differentiate and form structures as
well-known plant hormones are not useful in
different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits?
controlling the growth of crops because
The answer is that only a small subset of the
(A) it is not known exactly what functions the
genes in a particular kind of cell are expressed,
hormones perform
or turned on, at a given time. This is
(B) each hormone has various effects on plants
accomplished by a complex system of chemical
(C) none of the hormones can function without
messengers that in plants include hormones
the others
and other regulatory molecules.
(D) each hormone has different effects on
Five major hormones have been identified:
different kinds of plants
auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and
(E) each hormone works on only a small subset
gibberellin. Studies of plants have now
of a cell’s genes at any particular time
identified a new class of regulatory molecules
called oligosaccharins. Unlike the
129. The passage suggests that the place of
oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant
hypothalamic hormones in the hormonal
hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific;
hierarchies of animals is similar to the place of
that is, each has more than one effect on the
which of the following in plants?
growth and development of plants. The five
(A) Plant cell walls
have so many simultaneous effects that they
(B) The complement of genes in each plant cell
are not very useful in artificially controlling the
(C) A subset of a plant cell’s gene complement
growth of crops. Auxin, for instance, stimulates
(D) The five major hormones
the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to
(E) The oligosaccharins
grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits
the growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes
130. The passage suggests that which of the
the plant to develop a vascular system, to form
following is a function likely to be performed by
lateral roots, and to produce ethylene.
an oligosaccharin?
The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant
(A) To stimulate a particular plant cell to
hormones is somewhat analogous to that of
become part of a plant’s root system
certain hormones in animals. For example,
(B) To stimulate the walls of a particular cell to
hormones from the hypothalamus in the brain
produce other oligosaccharins
stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary
(C) To activate enzymes that release specific
gland to synthesize and release many different
chemical messengers from plant cell walls
hormones, one of which stimulates the release
(D) To duplicate the gene complement in a
of hormones from the adrenal cortex.
particular plant cell
These hormones have specific effects on target
(E) To produce multiple effects on a particular
organs all over the body. One hormone
subsystem of plant cells
stimulates the thyroid gland, for example,
another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth.
131. The author mentions specific effects that
In other words, there is a hierarchy of
auxin has on plant development in order to
hormones.
illustrate the
Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants.
(A) point that some of the effects of plant
Oligosaccharins are fragments of the cell wall
hormones can be harmful
released by enzymes: different enzymes
(B) way in which hormones are produced by
release different oligosaccharins. There are
plants
indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may
(C) hierarchical nature of the functioning of
actually function by activating the enzymes that
plant hormones
release these other, more specific chemical
(D) differences among the best-known plant
messengers from the cell wall.
hormones
(E) concept of pleiotropy as it is exhibited by
plant hormones
132. According to the passage, which of the
following best describes a function performed
by oligosaccharins?
(A) Regulating the daily functioning of a plant’s
cells
(B) Interacting with one another to produce
different chemicals
(C) Releasing specific chemical messengers
from a plant’s cell walls
(D) Producing the hormones that cause plant
cells to differentiate to perform different
functions
(E) Influencing the development of a plant’s
cells by controlling the expression of the cells’
genes
133. The passage suggests that, unlike the
pleiotropic hormones, oligosaccharins could be
used effectively to
(A) trace the passage of chemicals through the
walls of cells
(B) pinpoint functions of other plant hormones
(C) artificially control specific aspects of the
development of crops
(D) alter the complement of genes in the cells
of plants
(E) alter the effects of the five major hormones
on plant development
OG-24
Questions 134–139 refer to the passage
In the two decades between 1910 and 1930,
above.
more than ten percent of the black population
134. The author indicates explicitly that which
of the United States left the South, where the
of the following records has been a source of
preponderance of the black population had
information in her investigation?
been located, and migrated to northern states,
(A) United States Immigration Service reports
with the largest number moving, it is claimed,
from 1914 to 1930
between 1916 and 1918. It has been frequently
(B) Payrolls of southern manufacturing firms
assumed, but not proved, that the majority of
between 1910 and 1930
the migrants in what has come to be called the
(C) The volume of cotton exports between
Great Migration came from rural areas and
1898 and 1910
were motivated by two concurrent factors: the
(D) The federal census of 1910
collapse of the cotton industry following the
(E) Advertisements of labor recruiters
boll weevil infestation, which began in 1898,
appearing in southern newspapers after 1910
and increased demand in the North for labor
following the cessation of European
135. In the passage, the author anticipates
immigration caused by the outbreak of the First
which of the following as a possible objection to
World War in 1914. This assumption has led to
her argument?
the conclusion that the migrants’ subsequent
(A) It is uncertain how many people actually
lack of economic mobility in the North is tied to
migrated during the Great Migration.
rural background, a background that implies
(B) The eventual economic status of the Great
unfamiliarity with urban living and a lack of
Migration migrants has not been adequately
industrial skills.
traced.
But the question of who actually left the South
(C) It is not likely that people with steady jobs
has never been rigorously investigated.
would have reason to move to another area of
Although numerous investigations document
the country.
an exodus from rural southern areas to
(D) It is not true that the term “manufacturing
southern cities prior to the Great Migration, no
and mechanical pursuits” actually encompasses
one has considered whether the same migrants
the entire industrial sector.
then moved on to northern cities.
(E) Of the African American workers living in
In 1910 more than 600,000 black workers, or
southern cities, only those in a small number of
ten percent of the black workforce, reported
trades were threatened by obsolescence
themselves to be engaged in “manufacturing
and mechanical pursuits,” the federal census
136. According to the passage, which of the
category roughly encompassing the entire
following is true of wages in southern cities in
industrial sector. The Great Migration could
1910?
easily have been made up entirely of this group
(A) They were being pushed lower as a result
and their families. It is perhaps surprising to
of increased competition.
argue that an employed population could be
(B) They had begun to rise so that southern
enticed to move, but an explanation lies in the
industry could attract rural workers.
labor conditions then prevalent in the South.
(C) They had increased for skilled workers but
About thirty-five percent of the urban black
decreased for unskilled workers.
population in the South was engaged in skilled
(D) They had increased in large southern cities
trades. Some were from the old artisan class of
but decreased in small southern cities.
slavery—blacksmiths, masons,
(E) They had increased in newly developed
carpenters—which had had a monopoly of
industries but decreased in the older trades.
certain trades, but they were gradually being
pushed out by competition, mechanization, and
137. The author cites each of the following as
obsolescence. The remaining sixty-fi ve percent,
possible influences in an African American
more recently urbanized, worked in newly
worker’s decision to migrate north in the Great
developed industries—tobacco, lumber, coal
Migration EXCEPT
and iron manufacture, and railroads. Wages in
(A) wage levels in northern cities
the South, however, were low, and black
(B) labor recruiters
workers were aware, through labor recruiters
(C) competition from rural workers
and the black press, that they could earn more
(D) voting rights in northern states
even as unskilled workers in the North than
(E) the African American press
they could as artisans in the South. After the
boll weevil infestation, urban black workers
138. It can be inferred from the passage that
faced competition from the continuing influx of
the “easy conclusion” mentioned in line 58 is
both black and white rural workers, who were
based on which of the following assumptions?
driven to undercut the wages formerly paid for
(A) People who migrate from rural areas to
industrial jobs. Thus, a move north would be
large cities usually do so for economic reasons.
seen as advantageous to a group that was
(B) Most people who leave rural areas to take
already urbanized and steadily employed, and
jobs in cities return to rural areas as soon as it
the easy conclusion tying their subsequent
is financially possible for them to do so.
economic problems in the North to their rural
(C) People with rural backgrounds are less
background comes into question.
likely to succeed economically in cities than are
those with urban backgrounds.
(D) Most people who were once skilled workers
are not willing to work as unskilled workers.
(E) People who migrate from their birthplaces
to other regions of a country seldom undertake
a second migration.
139. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) support an alternative to an accepted
methodology
(B) present evidence that resolves a
contradiction
(C) introduce a recently discovered source of
information
(D) challenge a widely accepted explanation
(E) argue that a discarded