Analytic Number Theory Solutions Solution to Problem 1. We prove

Analytic Number Theory
Solutions
Solution to Problem 1. We prove the formula for Li(x) by the induction on k. By the
definition,
Li(x) =
Z
x
2
1
dt.
log t
R
R 0
We use the integration by parts f g 0 = f g
gf with f (t) = 1/ log t and g(t) = t to obtain
Z x
Z x
1
t x
1 1
x
2
dt =
+
· t dt =
+ I1 (x).
2
log
t
log
t
t
(log
t)
log
x
log
2
2
2
2
This implies the formula for k = 1. Now assume that the formula holds for k
1 and we
wish to prove it for k + 1. Again using the integration by parts with f (t) = 1/(log t)k+1 and
g(t) = t we have
Ik (x) =
t
(log t)k+1
x
2
Z
x
2
(k + 1)
x
· t dt =
t(log t)k+2
(log x)k+1
2
+ (k + 1)Ik+1 (x).
(log 2)k+1
Therefore,
Li(x) = Ck +
= Ck +
k 1
X
n=0
k 1
X
n=0
⇣
= Ck
k!
n!
x
+ k!Ik (x)
(log x)n+1
n!
⇣
x
x
+
k!
(log x)n+1
(log x)k+1
⌘
2
+
(k
+
1)I
(x)
k+1
(log 2)k+1
⌘ X
2
x
+
n!
+ (k + 1)!Ik+1 (x).
k+1
(log x)n+1
(log 2)
k
n=0
This finishes the proof of the formula by introducing the appropriate constant Ck+1 .
Since the function 1/(log t)2 is decreasing as t increases, we have
Z px
Z x
1
1
I1 (x) =
dt
+
dt
p (log t)2
2
(log
t)
2
x
p
p
1
1
 ( x 2)
+ (x
x)
2
(log 2)
(log x1/2 )2
p
x
4x

+
.
(log 2)2 (log x)2
Using the formula for Li(x) with k = 1 we have
Li(x) = C1 +
x
+ I1 (x).
log x
3
Then,
lim
x!1
Li(x)
C1 log x
I1 (x)
I1 (x)
= lim
+ lim 1 + lim
= 1 + lim
x!1
x!1 x/ log x
x!1 x/ log x
x/ log x x!1
x
However, by the above inequality
I1 (x)
 lim
x!1 x/ log x
x!1
lim
p
x
(log 2)2
x
log x
4x
(log x)2
x
x!1
log x
+ lim
= lim
x!1
log x
4
+ lim
=0
x(log 2)2 x!1 log x
Solution to Problem 2. We have
f1 (n)/f3 (n)
f1 (n)f4 (n)
f1 (n)
f4 (n)
= lim
= lim
· lim
= 1 · 1 = 1.
n!1 f2 (n)/f4 (n)
n!1 f2 (n)f3 (n)
n!1 f2 (n) n!1 f3 (n)
lim
and
lim
n!1
f1 (n) + f3 (n)
f1 (n) + f3 (n)
f4 (n)
f1 (n)/f3 (n) + 1
1+1
= lim
· lim
= lim
=
= 1.
f2 (n) + f4 (n) n!1 f2 (n) + f4 (n) n!1 f3 (n) n!1 f2 (n)/f4 (n) + 1
1+1
In the special case given, we have f1 (n)
lim
n!1
f3 (n) = n and f2 (n)
f1 (n)
f2 (n)
f4 (n) = 2n, thus,
f3 (n)
1
= 6= 1.
f4 (n)
2
Solution to Problem 3. Let us introduce the notation
G1 (N, M ) =
M
X
f1 (n),
G2 (N, M ) =
n=N
M
X
By the hypothesis, for every ✏ > 0 there is N0 such that for all n
f2 (n)(1
f2 (n).
n=N
N0 we have
✏)  f1 (n)  (1 + ✏)f2 (n).
This implies that F1 (N ) ! 1 if and only if F2 (N ) ! 1, when N ! 1. Also, summing up
these inequalities we conclude that for all M
(1
N0 we have
✏)G2 (N0 , M )  G1 (N0 , M )  (1 + ✏)G2 (N0 , M ).
4
Hence,
lim sup
M !1
F1 (M )
G1 (1, N0
= lim sup
F2 (M )
M !1 G2 (1, N0
G1 (1, N0
= lim sup
M !1
= lim sup
M !1
1) + G1 (N0 , M )
1) + G2 (N0 , M )
1)/G2 (N0 , M ) + G1 (N0 , M )/G2 (N0 , M )
G2 (1, N0 1)/G2 (N0 , M ) + 1
G1 (N0 , M )
G2 (N0 , M )
 1 + ✏.
Similarly, lim inf M !1
F1 (M )
F2 (M )
1
✏. As ✏ > 0 was arbitrary, we conclude that the limit exists
and is equal to +1.
Solution to Problem 4. a) the answer is no, for instance one can define
f (x) = g(x) + sin(eg(x) ) + sin(ex ).
Then, since g(x) is bounded from below fro x
1, then f (x) = O(g(x)) + O(1) + O(1) =
O(g(x)). On the other hand,
f 0 (x) = g 0 (x) + g 0 (x)eg(x) cos(eg(x) ) + ex cos(ex ).
Depending on whether g(x) = O(1) (and hence g 0 (x) ! 0 as x ! 1) or not, one can see that
f 0 (x) 6= O(g 0 (x)).
b) The answer is yes, since f (x)  Cg(x) implies that
Z X
Z X
Z
f (t) dt 
Cg(t) dt  C
2
2
X
g(t) dt.
2
Solution to Problem 5. By contradiction, assume that there is n0 such that for n
the di↵erences pn+1
n > n0 , pn+1
pn+1
pn
pn
1 + (pn
n0
pn are strictly increasing. Since the di↵erences are integers, then for
1 + (pn
pn
1)
pn
1 ).
2 + (pn
In particular, for large values of n > n0 we have
1
pn
2)
···
(n n0 ) + (pn0 +1
pn 0 )
(n n0 ) + 1.
Putting these together, we obtain
pn
pn 0 =
n
X1
i=n0
(pi+1
pi )
n
X1
(i
n0 + 1) =
i=n0
nX
n0
i=1
5
i=
(n
n0 ) 2 n n0
+
2
2
(n
n0 ) 2
.
2
By PNT we have ⇡(x) ⇠
x
log x .
For instance, for large values of x we must have ⇡(x)
pn
2 log pn .
Since, for large enough n, pn is large enough, we must have n = ⇡(pn )
On the other hand, for large enough x, we know that
must have
pn
log pn
2n
⇣ (n
p3/4
n
which is a contradiction.
x
log x
n0 )2 ⌘3/4
2
(n
x
2 log x .
x3/4 . Then, for large n we
n0 )3/2
23/4
,
Solution to Problem 6. By PNT
lim
x!1
⇡(x)
= 1.
x/ log x
In particular, we look at the limit along the sequence pn as n ! 1. By the definition
⇡(pn ) = n. Then,
lim
n!1
In other words,
pn
log pn
we have
n
= 1.
pn / log pn
⇠ n. Since log is a continuous function over the positive real numbers,
lim (log n
n!1
log pn + log(log pn )) = lim log
n!1
This implies that
⇣ log n
log n
= lim
n!1
n!1 log pn
lim
= 0 + 1 + 0 = 1.
⇣
⌘
n
= 0.
pn / log pn
log pn + log(log pn ) log pn log(log pn ) ⌘
+
+
log pn
log pn
log pn
To find the limit of the last ration in the above equation we may for instance use log(x)  x1/2 ,
that is, log(log pn )  (log pn )1/2 .
Finally,
⇣ n log n log p ⌘
n log n
n
= lim
⇥
n!1
n!1
pn
pn
log pn
⇣ n log p
log n ⌘
n
= lim
⇥
n!1
pn
log pn
n
log n
= lim
⇥ lim
n!1 pn / log pn
n!1 log pn
lim
=1⇥1=1
6
Solution to Problem 7. Let us define the sets
An = {d  n; d|n}, Bn = {d  2n
We have d(n) = #An and d(2n
1; d|2n
1) = #Bn . We claim that
1}.
(d) = 2d
1 maps An into Bn .
To see this, let n = dk, for some d 2 An . We have
2n
which implies 2d
1 = (2d )k
1|2n
1 = (2d
1) (2d )k
1
+ (2d )k
2
+ ··· + 1
: An ! Bn is one -to-one, we must have #An  #Bn .
1. Since,
Solution to Problem 8. Let N = [X].
Z X
S(t)F 0 (t) dt
1
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
N
X1 Z i+1
i=1
N
X1
i=1
N
X1
i=1
N
X1
i=1
N
X1
i=1
N
X2
S(t)F 0 (t) dt +
i
S(i)
Z
i+1
Z
X
S(t)F 0 (t) dt
N
0
F (t) dt + S(N )
i
S(i) F (i + 1)
S(i)F (i + 1)
S(i)F (i + 1)
Z
X
F 0 (t) dt
N
F (i) + S(N ) F (X)
N
X1
i=1
N
X2
F (N )
S(i)F (i) + S(N ) F (X)
F (N )
S(i + 1)F (i + 1) + S(N ) F (X)
F (N )
i=0
(S(i)
i=1
N
X2
i=1
N
X
i=1
N
X
S(i + 1))F (i + 1) + S(N
f (i + 1)F (i + 1) + S(N
f (i)F (i) + S(N
1)F (N )
1)F (N )
S(1)F (1) + S(N ) F (X)
S(1)F (1) + S(N
1)F (X) + f (N )F (X)
f (i)F (i) + S(X)F (X).
i=1
7
F (N )
1) + f (N ) F (X)
F (N )