CPE 2012 - Mauritius Examinations Syndicate

CPE EXAMINATION REPORT 2012
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Mauritius Examinations Syndicate
CPE 2012
Subject Report History and Geography
April 2013
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CPE EXAMINATION REPORT 2012
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HISTORY & GEOGRAPHY
Subject Code No. 142
General Comments
The format of questions in the History & Geography paper was familiar to candidates
and the level was appropriate. The overall performance was satisfactory with a pass
rate of 78.26%.
A large number of candidates achieved higher grades (grades A +, A and B). The
standard of work of many of these candidates showed evidence of good learning.
It was pleasing to see that they had written about a range of relevant concepts and
ideas to answer open-ended questions. The answers of the best ones were clearly
written in complete sentences, showing good development of ideas and producing
excellent scripts.
In Section A, candidates of all abilities attempted well the questions which tested
knowledge of location, geographical features and historical facts such as:

items 2 and 7 in Question 1A; items 4, 5 and 8 in Question 1B;

sub-question 2.2, the fill-in-the-blanks question with a list of vocabulary words
to test basic colonial facts;

items 1 and 4 in Table 1 of Sub-question 2.4, showing a greater awareness of
volcanoes and earthquakes than other natural hazards.
In Section B, candidates across all abilities attempted successfully these questions:

part question 2(a) of Question 3 (naming one serious disease which affected
people in Mauritius in the 19th century)
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part question 4.1(a) of Question 4 (recognition of the ‘Central Ridge’ on Map 4
showing some geographical features in Rodrigues.

sub-question 4.2 on land use and changes in land use , in creative ways.
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However, surprisingly, they did not perform as expected on those questions testing
skills and understanding in Section A. It was quite common to see the average and
more able candidates scoring well in Section B questions but
losing
marks in
Section A questions testing basic skills and knowledge. For example, many could
not answer correctly three/four items in Question 1A testing map skills. Some had
completely overlooked the word ‘lowest’ in item 1, Question 1A. They almost
mechanically chose option C, Piton de la Petite Rivière Noire, the ‘highest’ mountain’
shown on Map 1. They also ignored completely the word ‘low’ and chose plateau
instead of plain in item 1, Question 1B. In Sub-question 2.1, they could not apply
reasoning to a simple map of a small island showing height of land (contour lines).
Most of them did not know that ‘Souillac’ is the name of the small port marked X on
Map 3 which was built during the French period (sub-question 2.3). This might be
due to a serious lack of practical mapwork and carelessness in reading accurately
such questions.
Map reading is essential for learning Geography. The fact that the more able and
‘brighter’ candidates could not answer items/questions testing these basic learning
skills is rather worrying. Is this mainly due to the fact that candidates devoted more
time to answering open-ended questions? If the development of map skills is
neglected, candidates will be at a disadvantage.
The following specific weaknesses were noted:

Inadequate competence in reading in English to understand a question: both
‘reading for meaning’ and ‘reading accuracy’
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Insufficient practice in working with pictures, tables, maps and diagrams
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Lack of observational skills and ability to communicate ideas related to
geographical and historical features, places and events
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Low level of participation in deep learning activities

Inadequate competence in writing about concepts learned in English
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In Section B, some specific questions proved to be quite challenging:

Giving a relevant historical explanation within a given chronological
framework. In Question 3, ‘introduction of steam’ is a relevant reason to
explain developments in the sugar industry in the 19th century but not in the
20th century; slavery was replaced in the 1830s by indentured labour on sugar
cane plantations during the period 1830-70

Understanding and writing about limestone rock formation in Rodrigues (part
question 4.1b);
Timelines are extremely helpful to develop
understanding of
chronological
frameworks. More emphasis should also be put on historical work based on maps,
table and picture comparison, role plays and class debates.
A large number of candidates have a tendency to give one-word or two words
answers to open-ended questions whereas they are expected to write sentences (
indicated by one or two lines in the question paper). This practice has a pedagogical
drawback since it will not encourage candidates’ to develop their writing skills. For
example, one-word answers such as ‘facilities’, ‘disease’, ‘services’, ‘pollution’,
‘infrastructure’, ‘erosion’, ‘environment’, ‘doctors’, and ‘hospitals’ should be avoided.
Instead, candidates should be encouraged to write to qualify their answers. There
are different levels of qualifying answers. For example, to explain the location of
market gardening in the areas shown in Map 4, the map of Rodrigues showing some
geographical features, candidates could be advised to write answers such as
‘alluvial soils have been deposited along river banks’’, ‘soils carried by rivers have
spread/accumulated on both sides of rivers’, ‘ flat land is found there’, ‘crops can be
grown because water can be obtained from rivers’
rather than merely ‘ soil
deposited’, ‘flat land’, or ‘land available’; ‘fertile soils’ rather than ‘good soils’.
Last but not least, candidates should re-read their answers carefully.
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Specific Comments
Section A
Question 1A
The 8 multiple choice items tested map skills on a map of Mauritius (or a map of
Rodrigues for candidates in Rodrigues) and on a map of the Indian Ocean (3 items).
Candidates attempted well items 2 and 7. They did not perform as expected on items
1, 3, 4, and 8.
Item 1 Some candidates confused ‘lowest’ with ‘highest’. Some probably did not
notice
Lion Mountain on Map 1. Option B, Lion Mountain, was the key
(correct answer).
Item 3 More than 1/3rd of candidates confused the direction of river flow West-East of
Rivière Sèche with the direction East-West. Direction of river flow is to be
worked out from source to mouth (i.e from land to sea).
Item 4 Some candidates chose FUEL instead of Belle Vue. Candidates may be
encouraged to link sugar mills to their regions (northern, southern, eastern
and western) when they have to locate and name them.
Item 8 Most candidates were not able to identify correctly port J, Calcutta (Kolkata).
In the future, they might do better if they trace the Map of India from the
school atlas, mark with dots to locate and write the names of the three ports
when they study the topic on ‘Indian Immigration in the 19th century’.
Question 1B
Question 1B tests knowledge and understanding of facts, terms and concepts.
Items 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8 were well answered. Items 1 and 2 testing basic concept
words related to physical environment proved to be somehow difficult to average
and weaker candidates.
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Item 1 Many average candidates chose ‘plateau’ instead of ‘plain’. The key word is
low.
Item 2 More than half of the number of candidates did not know that prevailing
winds blow almost throughout the year. Option D, ‘during the winter season
only’ was a strong distractor.
Question 2
This question carries 28 marks. It comprised four sub-questions testing various skills.
Candidates did particularly well in sub-question 2.2 and 2.4, that is, the Fill in the
Blanks format testing key vocabulary words in History and the word-association
format on the topic “ Natural Hazards”. They were much less successful on subquestions 2.1 and 2.3 testing map reading and interpretation skills.
Sub-question 1
It was based on map 3 showing a small island with two contour lines and three
places marked A, B and C. It carried six marks.
Part (a) tested the ability to identify and shade the area of land over 200m above
sea level. This skill was not acquired by nearly half of them.
Part (b) proved to be quite difficult. Most candidates chose place C, the highest place
instead of place A, the lowest place, as the place most likely to have the highest
temperature.
Part (c) was better answered. It required candidates to choose the place where
rainfall is the highest. They could easily relate highest rainfall with highest location.
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Sub-question 2
It carried 8 marks. Candidates had to fill in the blanks in sentences (a) to (e). They
had to choose from a list of vocabulary words from history topics. One example was
done for them. Many scored full marks. It provided real opportunities for weaker
candidates to show knowledge of common and key vocabulary words in History.
Sub-question 3
It was based on Map 4 showing the location small port X which the French built in
the district of Savanne. Candidates were asked to name small port X in part (a))
and to give a reason why it was built at the place shown on the map in part (b).
Part (a)
Most candidates were not able to name small port X, ‘Souillac’. Those
who knew the name could not always spell it correctly (e.g.‘Souyac’) as
if they had to devise their own spelling. Some candidates confused
Souillac with two other historical locations on the south-eastern coast
of Mauritius: Vieux Grand Port and Ferney in the district of Grand Port.
Part (b)
This was generally well answered by the most able candidates who
were able to give a correct historical reason.
Sub-question 4
Candidates were required to match correctly the names of five natural hazards, from
a list of six names, to their main characteristics, in Table 1. Two marks were given
for each correct answer.
They could easily match ‘volcano’ and ‘earthquake’ to their main characteristics.
Surprisingly, only about 60% of them could do so for the ‘cyclone’. The terms
‘tsunami’, ‘drought’ and ‘torrential rain’ were of average difficulty.
Performance might
have been affected both by
accuracy and reading to make meaning.
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problems of
reading
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Section B
Questions 3 and 4 assess higher order skills and levels of content. The level of
attainment of candidates in this section has not progressed much satisfactorily.
Question 3
Sub-question 1, structured into two parts, was set on the topic of ‘Developments in
the sugar industry’. Sub-question 2, structured into three parts, was set on ‘ Health
in Mauritius in the 19th century’. Candidates were more successful on the knowledge
parts than on the reasoning and interpretation parts.
Sub-question 1
Part (a) It carried six marks. It was based on diagram 5, a bar diagram showing area
under sugar cane cultivation in Mauritius in 1830, 1850 and 1870 respectively.
Candidates were required to give two reasons why the area under sugar cane
increased very much between 1830 and 1870. Few candidates scored full marks for
writing about two of these relevant ideas: a new source of labour from India, ‘more
land/forests cleared’, new technologies/machines to produce sugar, competitive
prices of sugar/ access to markets, ‘to produce/to export more sugar’, and
introduction of steam as a new source of energy. Examples of weaker answers were:
‘foreign currencies’, ‘good climate and fertile soils’, ‘labour’, ‘it was a cash crop’.
‘Centralisation’ was a wrong answer.
Part (b) It was based on the study of Table 2. Candidates had to think of one reason
why the 23 sugar mills in 1964 produced more sugar than the 39 sugar mills in 1937.
The most obvious reason was about ‘centralisation’. But, clearly, writing only that
‘smaller/small mills closed down’ was not a complete explanation and could only be
given
partial marks. The practice of writing two or even more answers when
required to give only one reason should be discouraged.
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Sub-question 2
It was based on the written stimulus “During the 19th century (British period),
diseases killed many people in Mauritius”. Parts (a) and (c) proved to be easier than
part (b) which tested the ability to give explanations.
Part (a):
This part question was quite easily answered. Examples of diseases
named were malaria and cholera. Unfortunately, some candidates
gave ‘scurvy’ which was not one serious disease in the 19th century.
Some others gave ‘surra’ disease, a cattle disease which severely
affected Mauritius at the beginning of the 20 th century. Candidates
should not be encouraged to write two/three answers such as ‘malaria’
and ‘chikungunya’. They are most likely to lose marks except if the two
or three answers are all correct!
Part (b):
It was encouraging to see that candidates of all abilities were trying to
write about at least one reason why diseases affected many people in
the 19th century. They were relatively few to earn the six marks for
writing two relevant answers about poor sanitation/no drainage and
canals in Port Louis, poorly ventilated/overcrowded houses/huts,
propagation of mosquitoes, lack of a safe and clean water facilities
and lack of medical facilities.
Part (c):
Candidates were more successful when they had to write about one
measure which was then taken to improve the health of the people.
However, the level of performance could have still been better had they
been able to avoid
writing one-word/two-word
answers such as
‘hospitals’, ‘clean water’, ‘give medicine’ and ‘health facilities’.
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Question 4
It comprised two sub-questions. Sub-question 1 was based on Map 4: Geographical
Features in Rodrigues. Sub-question 2 was set on the topic ‘land use and changes in
land use’. These two sub-questions tested mainly the skills of interpretation and
application of knowledge. Performance was better than on Question 3 testing
History.
Sub-question 1
It carried a total of eight marks. Part (b) proved to be rather difficult.
Part (a)
As expected, it proved to be very easy. However, it is noted with some
concern that a few high-achieving candidates forgot to answer this question in their
haste to answer the following two open-ended part questions.
Part (b)
Many candidates completely misunderstood the question. They wrote
about volcanic eruption/ash deposits/basalts or production of lime. Some of
the
‘more able’ candidates, again in their haste to write what they know probably out of
fear of forgetting, even wrote ‘white’ (instead of wind) blown sand. Others could not
be awarded full marks because they did not write that the wind blown sand has to
solidify to become limestone rock.
Part (c)
Candidates attempted more successfully this part. Relevant reasons
why the shaded areas are used for market gardening were : flat land was available
there, alluvial soils, fertile soils, nearness to supply of water/rivers, water available
for irrigation; location on/near river banks/ at river mouths. Full marks were also
given for those who extended their reasoning to the lower slopes of valleys/ areas
near rivers, that is parts of the shaded areas, which could be terraces for market
gardening.
Answers such as ‘good land/suitable land’, ‘there is a river’, ‘plants grow well there’,
‘lowlands’ were weaker answers which deserved only partial marks.
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Sub-question 2
It was based on Diagram 6 showing how land is used in an area of Mauritius and
carried a total of 12 marks. Performance on this sub-question was quite satisfactory.
Part (a)
The most important land use type in Section A1 was correctly named
by the average candidates. Many more candidates identified correctly and were able
to name the type of land use at place X in Section A2, ‘industrial land use’. The word
‘most’ was important to discriminate between ‘agricultural’ and ‘wasteland’.
Part (b)
Candidates were required to think about a reason for choosing the land
in Section A to build more houses. It was well attempted and discriminated well
among candidates. Some examples of creative answers were: ‘more land was
available’, ‘cost of land is cheaper’, ‘wasteland can easily be converted’, ‘the price of
sugar is decreasing and sugar cane can therefore be removed’ etc.
Two-word
answers given by weaker candidates were awarded a partial mark (e.g no forest, no
hills, no industries, no pollution, etc).
Part (c)
The land use in Section B1 is important for various purposes.
Candidates were asked to give two purposes for which it is important. This question
had inspired candidates beyond our imaginations and expectations. There were
clear and laudable attempts to answer in effective ways. A diversity of coherent
ideas were put forward on conservation/forestry purposes, protection against soil
erosion, re-afforestation, importance of trees/forests to keep air cool and fresh, to
maintain composition of air, preventing global warming, tourism and leisure, sites for
jogging and open air activities, promotion of healthy living and a pollution free
environment. Candidates who interpreted the question in a
conversion
rather than
development/land
conservation perpectives giving a reason for such
conversion/change in land use were also awarded full marks. Critical thinking and
divergent thinking in contexts are highly commendable and should always be
encouraged.
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