Appendix B Fundamental Theorems of Asset Pricing - Proofs B.1 B.1.1 Proof of the FFTAP The finite market model is arbitrage-free “if ” there exists an EMM Assume there exists at least an EMM, and choose one, say Q. Suppose that an arbitrage opportunity ↵ exists, then its discounted value process V ⇤ must satisfy V0⇤ = 0, VT⇤ 0 and EP [VT⇤ ] > 0. Since Q ⇠ P, the latter is equivalent to EQ [VT⇤ ] > 0. But we also know, by Lemma 3.27, that EQ [VT⇤ ] = V0⇤ = 0, hence a contradiction. So, we proved that if an equivalent martingale measure for S ⇤ exists, then the market is arbitrage-free. B.1.2 The finite market model is arbitrage-free “only if ” there exists an EMM Conversely, we assume that the market is arbitrage-free and we prove the existence of an EMM for S ⇤ , that is some probability measure Q ⇠ P, under which S ⇤ is a martingale. For this, by Proposition A.41, it is enough to prove 124 B.1 Proof of the FFTAP 125 that, for all bounded R-valued predictable processes , EQ [GT ( , S ⇤ i )] = 0 8i = 1, . . . , d where we recall that ⇤i GT ( , S ) = T X ⇤i t (S t S ⇤ it 1 ). t=1 But, by Lemma 3.23, that is equivalent to show that the discounted gain process of any self-financing trading strategy ↵ = (↵0 , ↵1 , . . . , ↵d ) at the terminal trading date has null expectation under Q, i.e. " T # X EQ [G⇤T (ˆ ↵)] = EQ ↵ ˆ t · (Ŝt⇤ Ŝt⇤ 1 ) = 0, t=1 where we denote ↵ ˆ := (↵1 , . . . , ↵d ) and Ŝ ⇤ := (S ⇤,1 , . . . , S ⇤,d ). Note that in a finite space of dimension N , we can identify both random variables and probability measures by vectors of RN . Denoted ⌦ = {!1 , . . . , !N }, we identify a R-valued random variable X on (⌦, F), X(!i ) = xi for i = 1, . . . , N , with the vector (x1 , . . . , xN ) of RN , and a probability measure Q on (⌦, F), Q({!i }) = qi for i = 1, . . . , N , with the vector (q1 , . . . , qN ) of RN . By Definition 3.28, the assumpion equates to V \ RN + = {0}, where N RN + := {x = (x1 , . . . , xN ) 2 R | x1 0, x2 0, . . . , xN 0}, V := {G⇤T (ˆ ↵) | ↵ ˆ Rd -valued F-predictable process}. We would like to (strictly) separate the disjoint convex sets V and RN + \ {0} by a hyperplane induced by a linear functional on RN , from which we can then construct an EMM. Unfortunately, the standard separation theorems do not directly apply. However, in finite dimension, we can overcome this difficulty by introducing a convex compact subset of RN + \ {0} and using a separation result obtained from the following lemma. 126 B. Fundamental Theorems of Asset Pricing - Proofs Lemma B.1. Let C be a convex closed subset of RN that does not contain the origin. Then, there exists an element ⇠ 2 C such that |⇠|2 x · ⇠ 8x 2 C. Proof. Since C is closed, it contains an element ⇠ such that |⇠| = dist(C, 0). Indeed, dist(C, 0) = inf{|x|, x 2 C}, which means there exists a bounded sequence {xn }n2N of elements of C such that |xn | ! dist(C, 0), with a sub- n!1 N sequence {xnk }k2N converging to a vector ⇠ of R such that |⇠| = dist(C, 0), i.e. |⇠| |x| for all x 2 C, and ⇠ 2 C because C is closed. Moreover, since C is convex, for all x 2 C and all t 2 [0, 1], ⇠ + t(x |⇠|2 |⇠ + t(x ⇠) 2 C, and so ⇠)|2 = |⇠|2 + 2t⇠ · (x Thus, for all t 2]0, 1], 0 2⇠ · (x ⇠) + t2 |x ⇠|2 . ⇠|2 , and going to the limit ⇠) + t|x for t converging to 0 from the right, we get ⇠ · (x ⇠) 0, which ends the proof. Corollary B.2. Let K be a convex compact subset of RN and V a vector subspace of RN such that K \ V = ;. Then, there exists an element ⇠ 2 RN such that x·⇠ =0 8x 2 V, Proof. We consider the set C = K y·⇠ >0 V := {y 8y 2 K. x|x 2 V, y 2 K}, which does not contain the origin, because K and V are disjoint. We would like to apply Lemma B.1, so we have to check if C is convex and closed. We can easily show that C is convex: for all x1 , x2 2 V, y1 , y2 2 K, for all t 2 [0, 1], t(y1 x1 ) + (1 t)(y2 x2 ) = (ty1 + (1 t)y2 ) (tx1 + (1 t)x2 ) , which is in C because both K and V (as any vector space) are convex. Moreover, we can prove that C is also closed: let {zn }n2N be a sequence of ele- ments of C converging to z 2 RN , for all n 2 N there must be two elements xn 2 V, yn 2 K such that zn = yn xn ; since K is compact, there is a subsequence {ynk }k2N converging to y 2 K; since a vector space is always B.1 Proof of the FFTAP closed, we also have xnk as well as zn !y 127 ! x 2 V, hence znk = ynk xnk n!1 x = z 2 C. n!1 !y n!1 x 2 C, Finally, by Lemma B.1, there exists ⇠ 2 C such that |⇠|2 (y x) · ⇠ = y · ⇠ Since this holds for all y·⇠ 2 |⇠| > 0. 2 R, y 2 K. (x · ⇠) 8x 2 V, 2 R, we necessarily have x · ⇠ = 0, hence also Now, we denote by K the convex hull of the set of random variables 1{!n } n2N , that is K := = ( ( N X n=1 µn 1{!n } µn 0 for n = 1, . . . , N, x = (x1 , . . . , xN ) 2 RN N X xn = 1 n=1 ) N X n=1 µn = 1 ) , which is a convex, compact subset of RN + . Since K \ V = ; and V is a vector space, we can apply Corollary B.2 and find an element ⇠ = (⇠1 , . . . , ⇠N ) 2 RN such that (i) ⇠ · x = 0 for all x 2 V; (ii) ⇠ · y > 0 for all y 2 K. Since the canonical base of RN is contained in K, we get that ⇠n = ⇠ · ✏n > 0 for all n = 1, . . . , N , i.e. ⇠ has strictly positive components. Thus, we can normalize ⇠ to obtain a probability measure equivalent to P. Precisely, we define a probability measure Q on (⌦, F) as associated to a vector (q1 , . . . , qN ) of RN , in the following way: Q({!n }) = qn , where PN n=1 qn qn := ⇠n ⇠n = PN > 0, |⇠| ⇠ n n=1 n = 1, . . . , N, = 1 for all n = 1, . . . , N . Then, Q is a probability measure equivalent to P; moreover, (i) translates into EQ [G⇤ (ˆ ↵)] = 0 for all Rd -valued predictable processes ↵ ˆ = (↵1 , . . . , ↵d ), which ends the proof of the FFTAP. 128 B. Fundamental Theorems of Asset Pricing - Proofs B.2 B.2.1 Proof of the SFTAP An arbitrage-free finite market model is complete “only if ” there is a unique EMM Assume that the market is arbitrage-free, i.e. satisfies NA, and complete. By contradiction, suppose that there are two di↵erent equivalent martingale measures for S ⇤ , Q1 , Q2 . Now, consider any event A 2 F and take the European contingent claim which takes value 1 on A and 0 otherwise, X = 1A . Since the market is complete, X is attainable, thus by Theorem 3.34 its arbitrage-free price at time 0 is unique and equal to EQ1 [1A ] = EQ2 [1A ]. Since A was arbitrarily chosen in F, the equation above translates into Q1 (A) = Q2 (A) 8A 2 F, therefore Q1 = Q2 , that is there cannot be two distinct EMMs for S ⇤ . B.2.2 An arbitrage-free finite market model is complete “if ” there is a unique EMM Assume that the equivalent martingale measure for S ⇤ , Q, is unique. By contradiction, suppose that the (arbitrage-free) market is not complete. As in the proof of the FFTAP, we identify random variables with vectors in RN . We denote by V := { V ⇤,↵ | ↵ self-financing strategy} the set of all discounted values of self-financing strategies, which is a vector space, and remark that the market is not complete if and only if V ( RN . Let us define a scalar product h·,·iQ in RN as follows: Q hX, Y iQ = E [XY ] = N X i=1 xi yi Q({!i }), B.2 Proof of the SFTAP 129 for all X = (x1 , . . . , xN ), Y = (y1 , . . . , yN ) 2 RN . Then, there exists a vector ⇠ 2 RN \ {0} orthogonal to V, i.e. such that h⇠, XiQ = EQ [⇠X] = 0 8X 2 V. In particular, as every constant belongs to V (it can be reached by taking initial investment equal to the final constant discounted value and ↵1 = . . . = ↵d = 0), by taking X = 1 we get EQ [⇠] = 0. Now, chosen arbitrarily as where k⇠k1 > 1, we define another probability measure Q ✓ ◆ ⇠i Q ({!i }) = 1 + Q({!i }), i = 1, . . . , N, k⇠k1 := max |⇠i |. If we can prove that Q is another EMM for S ⇤ , 1iN then we have a contradiction, as well as the end of the proof. First, Q is a probability measure, since Q (⌦) = = N X i=1 N X i=1 Q ({!i }) N 1 X Q({!i }) + ⇠i Q({!i }) k⇠k1 i=1 1 EQ [⇠] = 1. k⇠k1 Moreover, Q ⇠ P because, by definition, it assigns strictly positive proba=1+ bility to each elementary event. It remains to be proved that S ⇤ is a Q martingale. Again, by Proposition A.41, this is equivalent to prove that, for all bounded R-valued predictable processes , EQ [GT ( , S ⇤ i )] = 0 8i = 1, . . . , d. For all i = 1, . . . , d, we have EQ [GT ( , S ⇤ i )] = N X i=1 GT ( , S ⇤ i )Q({!i }) + = EQ [GT ( , S ⇤ i )] + N 1 X ⇠i GT ( , S ⇤ i )Q({!i }) k⇠k1 i=1 1 EQ [⇠GT ( , S ⇤ i )] k⇠k1 = EQ [GT ( , S ⇤ i )] = 0, since GT ( , S ⇤ i ) 2 V and Q is an EMM for S ⇤ .
© Copyright 2024 Paperzz