Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization 6 1. Using the notation from the text, answer the following questions. You may assume that net labor income from abroad is zero, there are no capital gains on external wealth, and there are no unilateral transfers. a. Express the change in external wealth (W0) at the end of period 0 as a function of the economy’s trade balance (TB), the real interest rate (a constant, r*), and initial external wealth (W1). Answer: The total amount added to (or subtracted from) external wealth is equal to the trade balance plus interest earned on external wealth from the previous period: W0 TB0 r*W1. b. Using (a), write an expression for the stock of external wealth at the end of period 0 (W0). This should be written as a function of the economy’s trade balance (TB0), the real interest rate, and initial external wealth (W1). Answer: Rewriting the previous expression, solving for W0: W0 W0 W1 TB0 r*W1 W0 TB0 (1 r*)W1 c. Using (a) and (b), write an expression for the stock of external wealth at the end of period 1 (W1).This should be written as a function of the economy’s trade balance (TB) each period, the real interest rate, and initial external wealth (W1). Answer: From (a), we know that the change in wealth in period 1 is equal to the trade balance in period 1 plus interest earned on external wealth from period 0: W1 TB1 r*W0 Rewriting this expression to solve for W1: W1 TB1 (1 r*)W0 Plugging in the expression from (b) for W0: W1 TB1 (1 r*)[TB0 (1 r*)W1] W1 TB1 (1 r*)TB0 (1 r*)2W1 S-43 S-44 Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization d. Using your answers from (a), (b), and (c), write an expression for the stock of external wealth at the end of period 2 (W2). This should be written as a function of the economy’s trade balance (TB) each period, the real interest rate, and initial external wealth (W1). Answer: Using the same method from (c) to solve for W2: W2 TB2 r*W1 W2 TB2 (1 r*)W1 W2 TB2 (1 r*)[TB1 (1 r*)TB0 (1 r*)2W1] W2 TB2 (1 r*)TB1 (1 r*)2TB0 (1 r*)3W1 e. Suppose we require that W2 equal 0. Write down the condition that the three trade balances (in periods 0, 1, and 2) must satisfy. Arrange the terms in present value form. Answer: If W2 0, then TB2 (1 r*)TB1 (1 r*)2TB0 (1 r*)3W1 0 (1 r*)3W1 TB2 (1 r*)TB1 (1 r*)2TB0 In present value terms: TB1 TB2 (1 r*)W1 TB0 2 (1 r*) (1 r*) 2. Using the assumptions and answers from the previous question, complete the following: a. Write an expression for the future value of the stock of external wealth in period N (WN).This should be written as a function of the economy’s trade balance (TB) each period, the real interest rate r*, and initial external wealth. Answer: The future value of external wealth in period N is the sum of the trade balance in each period (compounded by the interest earned or paid) plus compounded interest earned on initial external wealth: WN TBN (1 r*)TBN1 (1 r*)2TBN2 . . . (1 r*)N TB0 (1 r*)N1W1 b. Using the answer from (a), write an expression for present value of the stock of external wealth in period N (WN). Answer: In present value terms, divide both sides of the previous expression by (1 r*)N: WN TB1 TB2 TBN TB0 2 . . . (1 r*)W1 N (1 r*) (1 r*) (1 r*) (1 r*)N c. The “no Ponzi game” conditions force the present value of WN to tend to 0 as N gets large. Explain why this implies that the economy’s initial external wealth is equal to the present value of future trade deficits. Answer: The “no Ponzi game” condition means that the county cannot have negative or positive external wealth as N gets large (in the limit, N → ): WN 0 lim N→ (1 r*)N Therefore, we can rewrite the expression from (b), imposing this condition: TB1 TB2 TBN (1 r*)W1 TB0 2 . . . (1 r*) (1 r*) (1 r*)N Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization Therefore, the country’s initial external wealth, W0 (1 r*)W1, is equal to the present value of the country’s future trade deficits. d. How would the expressions in (a) and (b) change if the economy had net labor income (positive or negative) to or from abroad or net unilateral transfers? Explain briefly. Answer: Net labor income to or from abroad would affect the stock of external wealth each period through changing the NFIA from NFIA r*W0 (with only capital) to NFIA r*K0 net labor income from abroad, in which K denotes initial capital held abroad. Assume that labor abroad, Lx is paid a world wage, w*: W0 TB0 r*K1 w*L0 NUT The country can effectively finance trade deficits through both capital income (as in the standard model) and labor income from abroad. Similarly, if the country receives net unilateral transfers, this would also add to the country’s initial wealth. 3. In this question assume all dollar units are real dollars in billions, so $150 means $150 billion. It is year 0. Argentina thinks it can find $150 of domestic investment projects with an MPK of 10% (each $1 invested pays off $0.10 in every later year). Argentina invests $84 in year 0 by borrowing $84 from the rest of the world at a world real interest rate r* of 5%. There is no further borrowing or investment after this. Use the standard assumptions: Assume initial external wealth W (W in year 1) is 0. Assume G 0 always; and assume I 0 except in year 0. Also, assume NUT KA 0 and that there is no net labor income so that NFIA r*W. The projects start to pay off in year 1 and continue to pay off all years thereafter. Interest is paid in perpetuity, in year 1 and every year thereafter. In addition, assume that if the projects are not done, then GDP Q C $200 in all years, so that PV(Q) PV(C) 200 200/0.05 4,200. a. Should Argentina fund the $84 worth of projects? Explain your answer. Answer: Yes. The criterion for undertaking an investment project is: Q r* K Because MPK 10% r* ( 5%), the country will benefit from the investment project. b. Why might Argentina be able to borrow only $84 and not $150? Answer: Argentina may face borrowing limits. Because 150 units of output accounts for three fourths of the country’s total production, lenders might be unwilling to lend this much, even for a productive investment project (e.g., a sudden stop). c. From this point forward, assume the projects totaling $84 are funded and completed in year 0. If the MPK is 10%, what is the total payoff from the projects in future years? Answer: The project will result in an 8.4 increase in Q each period ( MPK K 0.10 84). d. Assume this is added to the $200 of GDP in all years starting in year 1. In dollars, what is Argentina’s Q GDP in year 0, year 1, and later years? Answer: Q0 200, Q 208.4 in subsequent years. S-45 S-46 Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization e. At year 0, what is the new PV(Q) in dollars? Hint: To simplify, calculate the value of the increment in PV(Q) due to the extra output in later years. Answer: The present value of output is: f. Q 208.4 PV(Q) Q0 200 4,368 r* 0.05 At year 0, what is the new PV(I) in dollars? Therefore, what does the LRBC say is the new PV(C) in dollars? Answer: The present value of investment is: PV(I) K 84 Using the LRBC, we can calculate the present value of consumption: PV(C) PV(Q) PV(I) 4,368 84 4,284 g. Assume that Argentina is consumption smoothing. What is the percent change in PV(C)? What is the new level of C in all years? Is Argentina better off? Answer: The percent change in the present value of consumption (compared with the case with no investment project) is 2% ( 84 / 4,200). The new level of consumption in all years is: C PV(C) C r* C 4,284 C → C 204 0.05 Yes, Argentina is better off because consumption increases from 200 to 204 in every period. h. For the year the projects go ahead, year 0, explain Argentina’s balance of payments as follows: State the levels of CA, TB, NFIA, and FA. Answer: In year 0, the values are as follows: TB = Q C I 200 204 84 88 NFIA 0 CA 88 FA 88 (from the balance of payments, CA FA KA and KA 0 by assumption in this question) i. What happens in later years? State the levels of CA, TB, NFIA, and FA in year 1 and every later year. Answer: In subsequent years, the values are as follows: TB Q C I 208.4 204 0 4.4 NFIA 4.4 ( r* K 0.05 88) CA 0 FA 4. Continuing from the previous question, we now consider Argentina’s external wealth position. a. What is Argentina’s external wealth W in year 0 and later? Suppose Argentina has a one-year debt (i.e., not a perpetual loan) that must be rolled over every year. After a few years, in year N, the world interest rate rises to 15%. Can Argentina stick to its original plan? What are the interest payments due on the debt if r* 15%? If I G 0, what must Argentina do to meet those payments? Answer: Argentina borrows $88 in year 0, so its external wealth is $88 in year 0 and thereafter. The interest payments needed to service its debt rise from $4.4 to $13.2 ( 0.15 88). The only way that Argentina can make these payments is through reducing consumption. Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization b. Suppose Argentina decides to unilaterally default on its debt. Why might Argentina do this? State the levels of CA, TB, NFIA, and FA in year N and all subsequent years. What happens to the Argentine level of C in this case? Answer: If Argentina defaults on this debt, NFIA 0 because external wealth rises to 0.This means Argentina no longer needs to run a trade surplus, so its consumption can increase by the $4.4 that was previously paid on its debt. TB NFIA CA FA 0 and C $208.4. c. When the default occurs, what is the change in Argentina’s external wealth, W? What happens to the rest of the world’s (ROW’s) external wealth? Answer: External wealth rises to 0.The rest of the world experiences an $88 decrease in wealth. d. External wealth data for Argentina and ROW are recorded in the net international investment position account. Is this change in wealth recorded as a financial flow, a price effect, or an exchange rate effect? Answer: In the net international investment position, this is recorded as a financial flow. 5. Using production function and MPK diagrams, answer the following questions. For simplicity, assume there are two countries: a poor country (with low living standards) and a rich country (with high living standards). a. Assuming that poor and rich countries have the same production function, illustrate how the poor country will converge with the rich country. Describe how this mechanism works. Answer: See the following figure. q A qR B qP kP and qP rise until qP ⫽ qR. kP kR k MPK B MPKP Because MPKP ⬎ MPKR, capital flows into P. A MPKR kP kR k S-47 S-48 Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization We know that living standards are measured by output per capita—this is directly correlated with output per worker (denoted q on the diagram) and income per worker. Therefore, according to the benchmark model (in which we assume the same production functions in both countries), the reason the rich country is rich is simple: it saves more and therefore has more capital per worker (denoted k on the diagram) and therefore more output per worker. This is shown by the two points A (rich country) and B (poor country). According to the benchmark model, the gap in living standards should not persist. Because the marginal product of capital is higher in the poor country, it will attract capital from abroad, converging to the level of output per capita and output per worker observed in the rich country. Over time, countries will converge to the same living standards. b. In the data, countries with low living standards have capital-to-worker ratios that are too high to be consistent with the model used in (a). Describe and illustrate how we can modify the model used in (a) to be consistent with the data. Answer: See the following figure. q A qR D q 2P qP B C kP and qP rise, but qP ⬍ qR. k dataP kP k 2P kR k MPK B MPKP MPKdataP C A MPKR D kP k dataP k 2P kR k Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization In the two graphs on the previous page, we observe a gap in living standards (qR versus qP) that is inconsistent with the gap in capital to worker ratios (kR versus kP). Specifically, the poor countries are saving a lot more than that implied by the model (once we’ve pinned down the parameters and A). This is shown by point C in the figure.The way we can address this gap is to assume the two countries have different production functions—specifically, they have different productivity levels, A (see [a]). From the diagram that follows, we see that this implies poorer countries will not completely converge with their richer counterparts. With lower productivity levels, these countries will achieve a point at which MPK r* at a lower level of capital per worker; therefore, they will have a lower output per worker. We see the poor country converges to point D, at which the marginal products are equal, but the poor country has a lower level of capital (and output) per worker. c. Given your assumptions from (b), what does this suggest about the ability of poor countries to converge with rich countries? What do we expect to happen to the gap between rich and poor countries over time? Explain. Answer: With lower productivity levels, these countries will achieve a point where MPK r* at a lower level of capital per worker; therefore, they will have a lower output per worker. The gap will persist as long as the productivity levels differ. Using the model from (b), explain and illustrate how convergence works in the following cases. d. The poor country has a marginal product of capital that is higher than that of the rich country. Answer: See figure for (b). Since the poor country's MPK is higher, capital flows into the poor country, raising its living standards. S-49 S-50 Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization e. The marginal products in each country are equal. Then, the poor country experiences an increase in human capital through government funding of education. Answer: See the following diagrams. This implies an increase in productivity level. The gap between the living standards will be reduced because the poor country is able to maintain a higher capital-to-worker ratio. q A qR E q 2P D qP kP and qP rise with increase in AP. kP k 2P kR k MPK MPKP rises as AP increases. E r* A D kP k 2P kR k Solutions f. ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization The marginal products in each country are equal. Then, the poor country experiences political instability such that investors require a risk premium to invest in the poor country. Answer: See the following diagrams.This implies that investors require r* RP MPKR to invest in the poor country. To pay the higher return to capital, MPKP must decrease.To pay the higher return to capital, MPKP must increase, which means that kp must decrease. q A qR D qP q 2P E kP and qP fall with a rise in risk premium. k 2P kP kR k MPK Because MPKP ⫽ r* ⫹ RP, kP falls. r* ⫹ RP E A r* D k 2P kP kR k S-51 S-52 Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization 6. Assume that Brazil and the United States have different production functions q f(k) where q is output per worker and k is capital per worker. Let q Ak1/3.You are told that relative to the U.S. 1, Brazil has an output per worker of 0.32 and capital per worker of 0.24. Can A be the same in Brazil as in the United States? If not, calculate the level of A for Brazil. What is Brazil’s MPK relative to the United States? Answer: We can calculate the implied ratio of productivity levels ABrazil/AUS. Let P denote Brazil (the poor country) and R denote the United States (the rich country). Note the ratio of the marginal product of capital in each country is: 0.32 MPKP qP/qR 1.333 0.24 MPKR kP/kR Therefore, the ratio of the MPK in each country is 1.333. To find the difference in productivity levels, we assume the capital share 1/3, and substitute in the production functions: AP/AR AP kP/AR kR AP/AR MPKP qP/qR AP/AR 1.33 1 2/3 (kP/kR) kP/kR 0.386 MPKR kP/kR (0.24) AP/AR 0.51 Therefore, Brazil’s productivity level is 51% of that in the United States. We can see from the previous expression that it is not possible that Brazil’s productivity level is equal to that of the United States. Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization 7. Use production function and MPK diagrams to examine Turkey and the EU. Assume that Turkey and the EU have different production functions q f(k) where q is output per worker and k is capital per worker. Let q Ak1/3. Assume that the productivity level A in Turkey is lower than A in the EU. a. Draw a production function diagram (with output per worker, q, as a function of capital per worker, k) and MPK diagram (MPK versus k) for the EU. (Hint: Be sure to draw the two diagrams with the production function directly above the MPK diagram so that the level of capital per worker, k, is consistent on your two diagrams.) Answer: See the following diagram. b. For now, assume capital cannot flow freely in and out of Turkey. On the same diagrams, plot Turkish production function and MPK curves, assuming that the productivity level A in Turkey is half the EU level and that Turkish MPK exceeds EU MPK. Label the EU position in each chart EU and the label the Turkish position T1. Answer: See the following diagram. c. Assume capital can now flow freely between Turkey and the EU and the rest of the world and that EU is already at the point where MPK r*. Label r* on the vertical axis of the MPK diagram. Assume no risk premium. What will be Turkey’s capital per worker level k? Label this outcome point T2 in each diagram. Will Turkey converge to the EU level of q? Explain. Answer: See the following diagram. Turkey’s capital per worker will be equal to the levels in the EU once capital flows freely between the two regions. This is because Turkey’s high MPK will attract capital from abroad, increasing output per worker in Turkey.Yes, Turkey will converge to the EU level of q. S-53 S-54 Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization q A qEU T2 q 2T qT T1 kT and qT rise, but qT ⬍ qEU. kT k 2T kEU k MPK Capital flows into Turkey from EU, kT rises, and qT rises, but qT ⬍ qEU. MPKT T1 A r* ⫽ MPKR T2 kT k 2T kEU k 8. This question continues from the previous problem, focusing on how risk premiums explain the gaps in living standards across countries. a. Investors worry about the rule of law in Turkey and also about the potential for hyperinflation and other bad macroeconomic policies. Because of these worries, the initial gap between MPK in Turkey and r* is a risk premium, RP. Label RP on the vertical axis of the MPK diagram. Now where does Turkey end up in terms of k and q? Answer: Turkey will be forced to remain at a lower capital per worker (versus the EU) because the risk premium means MPKT RP r*. Turkey’s k and q will be lower than those in the EU. Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization q A qEU T2 qT q 3T T3 kT and qT fall with a rise in risk premium. k 3T kT kEU k MPK Because MPKT ⫽ r* ⫹ RP, kT falls. r* ⫹ RP T3 A r* T2 k 3T kT kEU k b. In light of (a), why might Turkey be keen to join the EU? Answer: If Turkey were to join the EU, it would be required to adopt policies that are in line with those used in international trade and finance in the EU. This would potentially allay investors’ concerns, reducing Turkey’s risk premium. Joining the EU gives Turkey the opportunity to signal a credible move towards “good” policy. c. Some EU countries are keen to exclude Turkey from the EU. What might be the economic arguments for that position? Answer: The countries in the EU most likely to be opposed to Turkey’s entrance into the EU (based on economic arguments) would be those that are relatively poor. It is possible that when Turkey enters the EU, it would attract some of the capital that would have been bound for the EU’s relatively poorer members. Although these countries might not be as poor as Turkey, they will now have to compete with Turkey for capital (now that Turkey would not be required to pay a risk premium). 9. In this chapter, we saw that financial market integration is necessary for countries to smooth consumption through borrowing and lending. Consider two economies: the Czech Republic and France. For each of the following shocks, explain how and to what extent each country can trade capital to better smooth consumption. a. The Czech Republic and France each experience an EU-wide recession. Answer: This is an example of a common shock. The Czech Republic and France would be unable to use diversification to eliminate the volatility in capital income created by this negative shock. Both countries would seek to borrow. S-55 S-56 Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization b. A strike in France leads to a reduction in French income. Answer: This is an idiosyncratic shock to France’s output (from a reduction in labor production). France can buffer the effects on income through diversifying. In this case, France experiences a decline in output (from the labor stoppage), but still continues to enjoy relatively high capital income from its portfolio investment in the Czech Republic. This income can finance France’s GNE. Likewise, the Czech Republic’s output is relatively high (compared with France), so its GNI GNE, with the difference flowing to France in the form of capital income. c. Floods destroy a portion of the Czech capital stock, lowering Czech income. Answer: This is a negative idiosyncratic shock to the Czech Republic. The Czech Republic continues to earn income from its capital investments in France, buffering its total income against the shock. In this case, capital income flows from France to the Czech Republic. 10. Assume that a country produces an output Q of 50 every year. The world interest rate is 10%. Consumption C is 50 every year, and I G 0.There is an unexpected drop in output in year 0, so output falls to 39 and is then expected to return to 50 in every future year. If the country desires to smooth consumption, how much should it borrow in period 0? What will the new level of consumption be from then on? Answer: There is a one-time decrease in output of 11 units. Therefore, the present value of consumption is: 50 PV(C) PV(Q) PV(G) 39 539 0.10 To determine the level of consumption each period, we know that the countrywants to maintain a given level of consumption: C PV(C) C r* C 539 C → C 49 0.10 Note that for every 10 units borrowed, consumption is reduced by one unit, as NFIA 0.10 10 in subsequent periods.Therefore, C 49 in period 0 and thereafter. Alternatively, the change in consumption can be calculated using the following: r* 0.10 C Q (11) 1 1 r* 1 0.10 Consumption decreases by one unit, to C 49. 11. Assume that a country produces an output Q of 50 every year.The world interest rate is 10%. Consumption C is 50 every year, and I G 0. There is an unexpected war in year 0, which costs 11 units and is predicted to last one year. If the country desires to smooth consumption, how much should it borrow in period 0? What will the new level of consumption be from then on? The country wakes up in year 1 and discovers that the war is still going on and will eat up another 11 units of expenditure in year 1. If the country still desires to smooth consumption looking forward from year 1, how much should it borrow in period 1? What will be the new level of consumption from then on? Answer: If the war is temporary, the increase in G should be financed through borrowing (e.g., running a current account deficit). To determine how much the country should borrow, we first must calculate the change in the present value of consumption. The present value of government spending is equal to 11, as this is a one-time increase in government spending. Therefore, the present value of consumption is: Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization 50 PV(C) PV(Q) PV(G) 50 11 539 0.10 To determine the level of consumption each period, we know that the country wants to maintain a given level of consumption: C PV(C) C r* C 539 C → C 49 0.10 If the government needs to borrow again, then we can use the same approach to find consumption each period. Note that for every 10 units borrowed, consumption is reduced by one unit, as NFIA 0.10 10 in subsequent periods. Therefore, in period 0, C 49. Thereafter, when the government needs another 11 units, beginning in period 1, C 48 (as NFIA increases by one additional unit). 12. Consider a world of two countries, Highland (H) and Lowland (L). Each country has an average output of 9 and desires to smooth consumption. All income takes the form of capital income and is fully consumed each period. a. Initially there are two states of the world, Pestilence (P) and Flood (F). Each happens with 50% probability. Pestilence affects Highland and lowers the output there to 8, leaving Lowland unaffected with an output of 10. Flood affects Lowland and lowers the output there to 8, leaving Highland unaffected with an output of 10. Devise a table with two rows corresponding to each state (rows marked P, F). In three columns, show income to three portfolios: the portfolio of 100% H capital, the portfolio of 100% L capital, and the portfolio of 50% H 50% L capital. Answer: See the following table. State P F 100% L Capital 10 8 100% H Capital 50-50 portfolio 8 10 9 9 b. Two more states of world appear: Armageddon (A) and Utopia (U). Each happens with 50% probability but is uncorrelated with the P-F state. Armageddon affects both countries equally and lowers income in each country by a further 4 units, whatever the P-F state. Utopia leaves each country unaffected. Devise a table with four rows corresponding to each state (rows marked PA, PU, FA, FU). In three columns, show income to three portfolios: the portfolio of 100% H capital, the portfolio of 100% L capital, and the portfolio of 50% H 50% L capital. Answer: See the following table. State PU FU PA PA 100% L Capital 10 8 6 4 100% H Capital 8 10 4 6 50-50 portfolio 9 9 5 5 c. Compare your answers to (a) and (b) and consider the optimal portfolio choices. Does diversification eliminate consumption risk in each case? Explain. Answer: In (a), Lowland and Highland are each able to eliminate exposure to risk through investing equally in capital at home and abroad. This is because all shocks in this part are idiosyncratic and are negatively correlated. In (b), the S-57 S-58 Solutions ■ Chapter 6 Balance of Payments I: The Gains from Financial Globalization countries are able to reduce some of the volatility in capital income through diversification, but not completely. This is because both countries are subject to common shocks (Armageddon) that cannot be diversified away. This state uniformly reduces capital income in both countries.
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