Mr. A. Square’s Quantum Mechanics Part 1 Bound States in 1 Dimension The Game’s Afoot Primarily, the rest of this class is to solve the time independent Schroedinger Equation (TISE) for various potentials 1. What do we solve for? 2. Energy levels Why? Because we can measure energy most easily by studying emissions and absorptions 2) What type of potentials? We will start slow– with 1-dimensional potentials which have limited physicality i.e. not very realistic We then take a detour into the Quantum Theory of Angular Momentum Using these results, we then study 3dimensional motion and work our way up to the hydrogen atom…. Some of these potentials seem a little … dumb. While a particular potential may not seem realistic, they teach how to solve the harder, more realistic problems. We learn a number of tips and tricks. The Big Rules 1. 2. 3. 4. Potential Energy will depend on position, not time We will deal with relativity later. We will ensure that the wavefunction, y, and its first derivative with respect to position are continuous. y will have reasonable values at the extremes Mathematically, 1. V f ( x, y , z ) or equivalent 2. y a ( x ) y b ( x ) 3. d d y a ( x) y b ( x) dx dx y a ( x ) y b ( x ) 4. y ( ) and y ( ) Re-writing Schroedinger A more easily form of the Schroedinger equation is as follows: y ( x) V ( x)y ( x) Ey ( x) 2 2m x 2 2 y ( x) ( E V ( x))y ( x) 2 2m x 2y ( x) 2m 2 (V ( x) E )y ( x) 2 x 2 2 Infinite Square Well 0 a x a Potential Definition: V ( x) , otherwise In order to ensure that y is well behaved, we will let y 0 in the region where V= In the region from (-a, a) 2y ( x) 2m 2 (0 E )y ( x) 2 x 2mE Let k 2 2 2y ( x) k 2y ( x) 2 x 2y ( x) k 2y ( x) 0 (obviously sinusoidal function) 2 x y ( x) A cos( kx) B sin(kx) Apply Boundary conditions At x=-a, y must be zero in order to satisfy our continuity condition; also, at x=a. A cos(ka ) B sin( ka ) 0 A cos( ka ) B sin( ka) 0 or A cos(ka ) B sin( ka ) 0 A cos(ka ) B sin( ka ) 0 Add these two equations: 2 A cos ka 0 Subtract these two equations: 2 B sin ka 0 Even Solutions Assume A <>0, then B is zero 2 A cos ka 0 ka 3 5 , 2 2 , 2 These are called “even” functions since y(-x)=y(x) Odd Solutions Assume B <>0, then A is zero 2 A sin ka 0 2 4 6 ka , , 2 2 2 These are called “odd” functions since y(-x)=-y(x) Evenness or oddness has to do with “parity” Writing a general function for k n kn , n 1, 2,3, 2a then k n En , n 1, 2,3, 2 2m 8ma 2 2 2 2 2 Wavefunctions for Even and Odd n y even An cos x , n 1,3,5, 2a n y odd Bn sin x , n 2, 4,6, 2a Finding An and Bn a a y 2 dx 1 2 2 n x A cos a n 2a dx ? 1 1 2 sin x dx 2 x 4 sin(2 x) 1 1 2 cos x dx 2 x 4 sin(2 x) a 2 2 n x 2 A cos dx A na 1 a n 2a and a Bn2 a 1 1 An a and 1 Bn a Wavefunctions for Even and Odd 1 n y even cos x , n 1,3,5, a 2a 1 n y odd sin x , n 2, 4,6, a 2a Wavefunctions 0.2 N=1 N=2 N=3 0.15 0.1 0.05 0 -60 -40 -20 0 -0.05 -0.1 -0.15 -0.2 20 40 60 In the momentum representation 1 even (k ) FT (y even ( x)) 2 1 even (k ) 2 2 a e cos(kx) cos( 0 a 1 even (k ) n 2 ka 2 y even ( x)dx ikx n x ) dx 2a n 1 n sin ka sin ka n 2 2 ka 2 a 1 odd (k ) i n 2 ka 2 n 1 n sin ka sin ka n 2 2 ka 2 Matrix Elements of the Infinite Square Well The matrix elements of position, x, are of interest since they will determine the dipole selection rules. The matrix element is defined as m x n y m x y n dx This integral vanishes except for states of opposite parity It is convenient to specify that n is even parity m is odd parity Symbolically using the parity operator, n n , n 1,3,5... m m , m 2, 4, 6... so m x n 1 a m x n x x sin cos dx a a 2a 2a m n sin 2 4a m x n 2 m n 2 m n sin 2 2 m n Several Transitions 1 x 1 0 n x n 4a 8 2 x 1 2 1 x 2 9 4a 24 2 x 3 2 25 4a 40 2 x 5 2 441 4a 16 4 x 1 2 225 4a 48 4 x 3 2 49 If I write the wavefunctions as 0 0 1 0 0 0 2 and 4 0 1 0 0 Then I can write x as a m x n matrix 8 16 0 0 9 225 8 24 0 0 9 25 24 0 0 4a 25 xˆ 2 16 0 0 225 0 0 0 0 The momentum operator is derived in a similar manner but is imaginary and anti-symmetric 0 4 0 3 4 12 0 5 3 12 0 0 i 5 pˆ a 8 0 15 0 8 15 0 0 0 0 0 Finite Square The finite square well can be made more realistic by assuming the walls of the container are a finite height, Vo. V(x) V0 Region 2 Region 1 x= -a Region 3 x=a x The Schroedinger Equations 2y ( x) 2m Region 1: 2 (V0 E )y ( x), x a x 2 2y ( x) 2m Region 2: 2 (0 E )y ( x), a x a 2 x 2y ( x) 2m Region 3: 2 (V0 E )y ( x), x a 2 x 2mE Let 2 2 Let 2 2m(V0 E ) 2 Region 1: y 1 ( x) Aex Region 2: y 2 ( x) B cos( x) C sin( x) Region 3: y 3 ( x) Ae x The Boundary Conditions y1(-a)=y2(-a) y2(a)=y3(a) y1’(-a)=y2’(-a) y2’(a)=y3’(a) The only way to satisfy all four equations is to have either B or C vanish If C=0, then we have states of even parity Let 2 2mE 2 and 2 2m(V0 E ) Region 1: y 1 ( x) Ae x Region 2: y 2 ( x) B cos( x) Region 3: y 3 ( x) Ae x at x a B cos a Ae a B sin a Ae a Dividing these two: tan a 2 If C=0, then we have states of even parity Let 2 2mE and 2 2 Equation 1: 2 2 2m(V0 E ) 2 2mV0 2 Equation 2: tan a If these 2 equations could be solved simultaneously for and , then E could be found. Two options: Numerically (a computer) Graphically Even Parity Solutions 9 8 7 Each intersection represents a solution to the Schroedinger equation 6 1 k=6.8 K= 4.2 5 2 3 4 5 4 6 7 8 3 a b 2 c 1 0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Odd Parity Solutions 9 1 8 2 3 Each intersection represents a solution to the Schroedinger equation 4 7 5 6 6 7 8 a 5 b c 4 3 2 1 0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Inspecting these graphs Note that the ground state always has even parity (i.e. intersection at 0,0), no matter what value of Vo is assumed. The number of excited bound states increases with Vo (the radius of the circle) and the states of opposite parity are interleaved. If Vo becomes very large, the values of approach n/2a This asymptotic approach agrees which the quantization of energy in the infinite square well The Harmonic Oscillator It is useful in describing the vibrations of atoms that are bound in molecules; in nuclear physics, the 3-d version is the starting point of the nuclear shell model We will solve this problem in two different ways: Analytical (integrating as we have done before) Using Operators But first we need some definitions Angular frequency k m so 2 if k m 2 1 2 1 2 2 V kx m x 2 2 TISE for SHO y ( x) 2m 2 (V ( x) E )y ( x) 2 x 2y ( x) 2m 1 2 2 2 ( m x E )y ( x) 2 x 2 2y ( x) 2m 1 2 2 ( E m x )y ( x) 0 2 2 x 2 2y ( x) 2mE m 2 2 2 ( 2 2 x )y ( x) 0 2 x 2 More Definitions Let 2 m 2 2 2 and 2mE 2 so 2y ( x) 2mE m 2 2 2 ( 2 2 x )y ( x) 0 2 x 2y ( x) 2 2 ( x )y ( x) 0 2 x Change of Variables Let q x d d dx dq 2E 2y ( q) 2 ( q )y ( q) 0 2 q Let q>> A 2y (q) 2 q y (q) 0 2 q then A y (q) Ae q2 2 Be q2 2 However, y () y () 0 implies that B=0 so y (q) Ae q2 2 Constructing a trial solution Let y ( q) e q2 2 dy ( q) e dq q2 2 y ( q) e 2 q 2 H ( q) H '( q) qe q2 2 H '' qe q2 2 q2 2 H ( q) H e q2 2 H qe q2 2 q2 2 2 H ' q e H Adding terms Let q 2y ( q) q 2e q2 2 H ( q) so 2y ( q) 2 y ( q ) q y ( q) 2 q e q2 2 H '' qe q2 2 Obviously e H e q2 2 q2 2 H qe 0 so H '' 2qH ' 1 H 0 q2 2 H ' q 2e q2 2 H e q2 2 H q 2e q2 2 H 0 Sol’ns of H are a power series H a jq j j 0 H ' ja j q j 1 H '' j ( j 1)a j q j 2 so H '' 2qH ' 1 H 0 becomes j ( j 1)a q j 2 j 2 ja j q j 1 a j q j 0 Each of these sums must vanish separately. On the first term, I will shift everything by +2 so j ( j 1)a j q j 2 ( j 2)( j 1)a j 2 q j Now ( j 2)( j 1)a j2 2 ja j 1 a j 0 Finding aj’s ( j 2)( j 1)a j2 2 ja j 1 a j 0 For a given j , ( j 2)( j 1)a j 2 2 ja j 1 a j 0 a j2 1 2 j ( j 2)( j 1) aj Note: These equation connects terms of the same parity i.e 1,3,5 or 0,2,4 How to generate aj’s For odd parity i.e. q1,q3,q5, start with ao=0 and a1<>0 For even parity i.e. q0,q2,q4, start with ao<>0 and a1=0 We will learn an established procedure in a few pages Too POWERful! We have a problem, an infinite power series has an infinite value So we know that the series at large values must approximate exp(-q2/2) So we must truncate the power series (make it finite) The easiest way is to make aj+2 vanish This occurs when -1-2j=0 Making j equal to n 2n 1 2E 2n 1 1 E n 2 n 0,1, 2,3,... If 0 then no solution because j0 This is a big result, since you know from Modern Physics that we had to get this result. For a 3-d SHO, E=(n+3/2), 1/2 for each degree of freedom Summary so far: y e q2 2 H (q ) where H '' 2qH ' 1 H 0 H is a power series: H n an q n n and 1 E n 2 The solutions, Hn, to the differential equation are called “Hermite” polynomials. In the next few slides, we will learn how to generate them Method 1: Recursion Formula The current convention is that the coefficient for the n-th degree term of Hn is 2n E.g. For H5, the coefficient for q5 is 25 Also, recall for n=5, E=(5+1/2) or 11/2 At this eigenvalue, H= a1q+a3q3+a5q5 where a5=32 Previously, ( 1 2 j ) a j+2 aj ( j 1)( j 2) but 2n 1 a j+2 2(n j ) aj ( j 1)( j 2) or ( j 1)( j 2) aj a j+2 2(n j ) Method 1: Recursion Formula The current convention is that the coefficient for the nth degree term of Hn is 2n E.g. For H5, the coefficient for q5 is 25 Also, recall for n=5, E=(5+1/2) or 11/2 At this eigenvalue, H= a1q+a3q3+a5q5 where a5=32 In this case, j+2=5 and n=5, a j+2 32 ( j 1)( j 2) a j+2 2(n j ) (3 1)(3 2) a3 *32=-160 2(5 3) (1 1)(1 2) a1 *(-160)=120 2(5 1) aj H 5 32q 5 160q 3 120q Method 2: Formula of Rodriques n d q2 H n 1 e e n dq n q2 Method 3: Generating Function The generating function is a function of two variables, q and s, where s is an auxiliary function For Hermite polynomials, the generating function is S ( q, s ) e 2 qs s 2 To use this function, take the derivative n times and set s equal to 0 Method 4: Recurrance Relations Hn+1=2*q*Hn-2*n*Hn-1 We know that H0=1 and H1=2q Ideally suited for computers Also, the derivative with respect to q is H’n =2*n*Hn-1 Method 5: Table Look Up H0 q 1 H1 q 2 q H 2 q 4q 2 2 H 3 q 8q 3 12q H 4 q 16q 4 48q 2 12 H 5 q 32q 5 160q 3 120q H 6 q 64q 6 480q 4 720q 2 120 Other Methods Continued Fractions Schmidt Orthogonalization Integrals with Hermite Polynomials Recall m q x y n Cn H n ( q ) e q2 2 We know that y n*y n dq 1 - C 2 n e q2 H n2 dq 1 - d n q2 From Rodriques formula, H n (1) e e n dq we use 1 factor of H to subsitute this n 1=C 2 n e - q2 d n q2 (1) e e H n dq n dq n q2 q2 We know that the biggest term of Hn is 2nqn Hn~2nqn H’n~2n*n*qn-1 H’’n~2n*n*n-1*qn-2 Hn-’=2n*n!*qo=2n*n! Going back and using the n-th derivative First integrate this 1=C 2 n e q2 - d n q2 ( 1) e e H n dq n dq n q2 By parts for eight different times, 1=C 2 n e q2 - dn H n dq n dq d nH and 2n n ! n q 1=Cn2 2 n n ! e q dq Cn2 2 n n ! 2 - Cn 1 2n n ! 4 Now, we have everything Cn y (q) 1 2 n! n 4 1 2 n! 1 En (n ) 2 n 4 H n ( q )e q2 2 Transition Matrix Elements m q n CmCn H m q H n e Cj q2 dq 1 2 j j!4 Using the recurrance formula H n+1 2qH n 2nH n 1 H n 1 q2 m q n Cm Cn H m nH n 1 e dq 2 1 mq n n m ,n 1 n 1 m ,n 1 2 SHO via Operators (or via Algebra) While the analytical solution is one way to solve this problem, using operators 1. 2. Teaches us the operator method which will be required when we study the quantum theory of angular momentum as well as quantum field theory Gives us another tool in our toolbox for problem solving. Many Slides ago, Let q x d d dx dq 2E 2 y ( q) 2 ( q )y ( q) 0 2 q Which is good Schroedinger notation but what about Dirac? In Dirac notation, 2 2 ( q ) n 0 q 2 Where |n> is the nth state of the oscillator Even More Definitions, d dq Now, using the commutator, p i [q,p]=i Proof: where f (q) d d d d [q, p] qp pq i q q iq i q i dq dq dq dq [ q, p ] i [ q, p ] i and furthermore, d2 p 2 dq 2 A new way to TISE d 2 2 ( q ) n 0 dq 2 p q n 0 p q n n 2 2 2 2 This is TISE in operator form A necessary aside We can write; i i if [ , ] 0 2 2 Gosh, more definitions? Let q ip a 2 q ip † a 2 It turns out that Let 1 2 aa q p 2 i[q, p ] 2 but [ q, p] i † so 1 2 aa q p 2 1 2 1 2 † a a q p2 1 2 † Let’s solve for q2+p2 1 2 2 aa q p 1 2 1 2 † a a q p2 1 2 Adding these together, we get † a † a aa † q 2 p 2 Subtracting these , we get aa a a 1 † † A crazy form of TISE a a aa n † † n Theorem 8 a+ is called the “raising operator” Proof of Thm 8 ( p 2 q 2 ) n ( a †a aa † ) n ( p q )a n ( a aa aa a ) n 2 2 † † † † † Recall [a, a † ] 1 i.e. aa † a †a 1 aa † a †a 1 ( p 2 q 2 )a † n ( a †aa † a †a 1 a † ) n ( p q )a n ( a ( aa aa 1)) n 2 2 † † † † ( p 2 q 2 )a † n ( a † ( aa † a †a 1 1)) n ( p 2 q 2 )a † n (a † (aa † a † a 1 1)) n ( p 2 q 2 )a † n (a † (aa † a † a 2)) n p2 q2 ( p 2 q 2 )a † n (a † ( p 2 q 2 2)) n (a † ( p 2 q 2 ) n ) a † (2) n n ( p q )a n a ( 2) n ( 2)a n 2 2 † † but ( p 2 q 2 ) n 1 ( 2) n 1 Thus a† n n 1 † Theorem 9 a is called the “lowering operator” Proof of Thm 9 See “Proof of Thm 8” and put minus signs in the appropriate places a n 2 n q p 2 2 n 1 Theorem 10 1 Proof First: n n 0 n 0 a†a n 1 2 2 q p 1 2 1 2 2 n q p 1 n 0 2 so 1 1 0 2 1 QED Consequences We could start with state |n> and lower it until we reached a ground state i.e. a(a|n>)=(-4)|n> etc. Theorem 11 In the ground state, =1 Proof First: a 0 0 a†a 0 0 0 0 a†a 1 2 2 q p 1 2 1 o 1 0 0 2 o 1 Now, let’s find the wavefunction of the ground state (hint: it must agree with what we found earlier Hoexp(-q2/2) a 0 0 q ip 0 0 or q ip 0 0 2 d Use our definition of p=-i dq d q 0 0 dq d 0 q 0 (Let me go to S. notation) A is found by 0 dq normalizing the d y 0 qy 0 wavefunction and this is dq dy 0 y0 q dq y 0 A0e q2 2 exactly in agreement with the analytical method. Now other states, use a+ on |0> and raise, raise, raise d 1 A1 q e dq or q2 2 n d n An q e dq q2 2 An is found by normalization Calculating Transition Matrix Elements Let a † n AR n 1 a n AL n 1 where A R and A L are just normalization constants Since a † † a n a AR n 1 n aa † n AR2 n aa † n AR2 n a † a n AL2 Adding them, we get our old friend ( q 2 p 2 ) AR2 AL2 2n 1 AR2 AL2 1 Adding these relationships AR2 n 1 AL2 n So the matrices look like m a n n m ,n 1 m a † n n 1 m ,n 1 so 0 0 a 0 1 0 0 0 2 0 0 † 1 a 0 0 0 0 0 2 0 The matrices of q and p are a a† q 2 a† a pi 2 so 0 1 1 q 2 0 1 0 2 0 2 0 0 1 0 0 2 i 1 p 2 0 2 0 What about matrices of q2 and p2 ? 1 0 1 0 3 2 q 2 2 0 p 2 q 2 (2n 1) I 2 0 5 I 1 1 0 2 p 2 2 0 2 3 0 0 5 The Dirac Delta The Dirac delta, (x), is used to represent a point particle (x)=0 if x<>0 (x)= if x=0 But what keeps it finite, is the normalization ( x) dx 1 The Dirac Delta cont’d If it is at x=a (x-a)=0 if x<>a (x-a)= if x=a ( x a ) dx 1 f ( x) ( x a ) dx f (a ) TISE for the Dirac Delta Let V A ( x) y ( x) 2m 2 ( A ( x) E )y ( x) 2 x 2 y ( x) 2m 2 ( A ( x) E )y ( x) 0 2 x 2 Some Boundary Conditions X=0 Technically, this is infinitesimally thick. So the derivatives change from + to – in an infinitesimal distance At x=||, y=0 The big problem lies at x=0 It turns out that y is continuous But y’ is discontinuous We could integrate over a small space So the idea is to integrate from – to and then let go to zero X=- X=0 X=+ Mathematically Let y ' represent the discontinuity 2y 2m dx ) x ( y E dx ) x ( y ) x ( V dx lim 0 2 x 2 0 The differential integrates to the first derivative, the energy term goes to zero under limit condition V ( x)y ( x) dx 2mA 2y x 2 dx y ' so y ' 2mA 2 y (0) 2 y (0) Using an ansatz Let y ( x ) Ce x for x<0 x y ( x ) Ce for x>0 dy Ce x dx dy Ce x dx in the limit as goes to zero dy dy C C dx dx y ' C C 2 C at the origin, 2 C 2mA mA 2 2 y (0) 2 2mA m 2 A2 4 2 C Plugging y into the TISE Let y ( x ) Ce x for x<0 y ( x ) Ce x for x>0 d 2y 2Ce x 2 dx d 2y 2 x Ce dx 2 No matter which I choose 2y ( x ) 2m 2 ( A ( x ) E )y ( x ) 0 x 2 0 for x 0 2Ce x 2mE 2 In any case, 2 2mE 2 0 Ce x 0 2Ce x 2mE 2 Ce x Solving for E 2 2mE 2 0 Previously, 2 2 m A 4 m 2 A2 4 2 2mE mA2 E 2 2 2 0 Note that energy is a single value; based on the potential amplitude, A Find y For compactness, we write y ( x) Ce x y 2 ( x)dx 1 C2 1 C so y ( x) mA mA2 E 2 2 e mA 2 x mA The Uniform Force Field V(x)=G*x, x>0 V(x)=0, x<0 G is a positive constant equal to the gradient of the potential Function has several physical examples: An electric charge in an uniform field near an impermeable plate A tennis ball dropped down an elevator shaft (hence the name of the quantum bouncer) TISE Let V Gx y ( x ) 2m 2 (Gx E )y ( x ) 2 x 2 y ( x ) 2m 2 (Gx E )y ( x ) 0 2 x 2 A change of variables Let x z (x E G 3 E 3 2mG ) 2 G z 2mG 2 2mG d 2y 2mG 2 3 2 zy 0 3 2 2 dz d 2y zy 0 which is called Airy's function dz 2 2 dy dy dz 3 2mG dy 2 dx dz dx dz d 2y 3 2mG 2 dx 2 so 2 d 2y 2 dz 2y ( x) 2m 2 (Gx E )y ( x) 0 x 2 becomes 2mG 3 2 2 d y 2mG E 2 dz 2 G 2 3 z 2mE y 2 y 0 2mG 2 Airy’s Functions More about Airy y C Ai( z ) y (0) 0 For large z, Ai(z ) e z Now at x=0 (where the floor is), y =0 E at x=0, z=G 3 2mG 2 zo The root of the matter The “roots” of a function are the values where a function is equal to zero We solve the previous equation for E We set zo equal to the roots of the Airy function, n En nG 3 2mG 2 n Root 1 2.3381 2 4.08794 3 5.52055 4 6.7867 5 7.94413 6 9.02265 7 10.04017 8 11.00852 9 11.93601 10 12.82877 Graphically, General Features of 1-D bound states 1. 2. y vanishes at |x|= 1-d Bound states are non-degenerate By degenerate, 2 states have equal energy 3. 4. 5. 6. Wave functions for a 1-d bound state can be constructed so that it is real For a 1-d bound state, <p>=0 If H is symmetric, the wave functions are eigenfunctions of the parity operator The Schroedinger Equation can be converted into an integral equation. Proof of #2: Nondegeneracy of 1-d bound states Let 2 states (y 1 and y 2 ) have same energy E d 2y 1 2m 2 (V E )y 1 y 1 '' 2 dx d 2y 2 2m 2 (V E )y 2 y 2 '' 2 dx y 1 '' y 2 '' 2m ( V E ) 2 y1 y2 y 1 ''y 2 y 1y 2 '' 0 Add a zero, y 1 'y 2 'y 1 'y 2 ' y 1 ''y 2 y 1 'y 2 'y 1 'y 2 'y 1y 2 '' 0 (y 1 'y 2 ) ' (y 1y 2 ') ' 0 y 1 'y 2 y 1y 2 ' a constant, C As x goes to zero, so does the first derivative of both functions so C=0 y 1 'y 2 y 1y 2 ' 0 y1 ' y 2 ' y 1 D *y 2 these states merely differ y1 y 2 by a constant Proof of #3: Wavefunctions can be constructed to be real d 2y 2m 2 (V E )y y '' 2 dx d 2y * 2m * * ( V E ) y y '' 2 2 dx by proof of #2, y * Dy Since y y dx Dy y dx 1 D 1 - * - Proof of #4: <p>=0 dy dy p y dx y dx i - dx i - dx dy dy 2 p y dx y y dx i dx i i dx But y () 0 * dy p y dx p i dx so p 0 Proof of #5: Wavefunctions are eigenfunctions of parity operator y ( x ) y ( x ) where is the parity operator H 1 H since the Hamiltonian is symmetric and 1 2 1 H y E y 1 H y E y But the nondegeneracy rule means that y ky since E is the same for both y and y where k is some constant y 2 y k 2y 1 k 1 which are the only eigenvalues for parity Expansion on #6: If there is some value of x (say x=a) where both y (a) andy '(a) are known, then x y y ( x) y (a) xy '( x) 2m 2 V ( z ) E dz dy a a where y and z are dummy variables.
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