Test 1
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. The project ____ usually provides the direction and funding for the project.
a. planner
c. sponsor
b. coordinator
d. auditor
2. Project ____ work with the project sponsors, the project team, and the other people involved in a project to
meet project goals.
a. organizers
c. handlers
b. designers
d. managers
3. A project’s ____ addresses questions concerning what unique product, service or result should be delivered to
a customer or sponsor.
a. schedule
c. time-frame
b. scope
d. cost
4. Key elements of the project management framework include the project stakeholders, project management
____, project management tools and techniques, project success, and contribution of a portfolio of projects to
the success of the entire enterprise.
a. domain
c. vision
b. scope
d. knowledge areas
5. Project ____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project
successfully.
a. time
c. risk
b. communications
d. scope
6. Project ____ management, the ninth knowledge area, is an overarching function that affects and is affected by
all of the other knowledge areas.
a. human resource
c. integration
b. procurement
d. quality
7. Some popular ____-management tools and techniques include Gantt charts, project network diagrams, and
critical-path analysis.
a. quality
c. cost
b. time
d. scope
8. Project ____ may be defined as a test of whether a project has met scope, time, and cost goals.
a. depth
c. success
b. clarity
d. vision
9. Two important concepts that help projects meet enterprise goals are the use of programs and project ____
management.
a. waste
c. means
b. portfolio
d. promotion
10. Which of the following it the logical flow of any project?
a. Planning, Initiating, Executing, Montoring c. Initiating, Planning, Montoring and
and Controlling, Closing
Controlling, Executing, Closing
b. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Montoring d. Planning, Initiating, Executing, Montoring
and Controlling, Closing
and Controlling, Closing
11. A program ____ provides leadership and direction for the project managers heading the projects within the
program.
a. director
c. facilitator
____ 12.
____ 13.
____ 14.
____ 15.
____ 16.
____ 17.
____ 18.
____ 19.
____ 20.
____ 21.
____ 22.
____ 23.
____ 24.
____ 25.
b. organizer
d. manager
Individual projects often address ____ goals, whereas project portfolio management addresses strategic goals.
a. program
c. tactical
b. long-term
d. minor
By grouping projects into ____, organizations can better tie their projects to meeting strategic goals.
a. portfolios
c. suites
b. applications
d. collections
Project managers and their teams must develop knowledge and skills in all ____ project management
knowledge areas.
a. five
c. eleven
b. nine
d. fifteen
____ management is a soft skill required to achieve high performance on projects.
a. Scope
c. Conflict
b. Time
d. Cost
An organization should consider only projects with a ____ NPV if financial value is a key criterion for project
selection.
a. positive
c. zero
b. negative
d. well-defined
Projects involve five project management process groups: initiating, planning, ____, monitoring and
controlling, and closing.
a. delivering
c. maintaining
b. designing
d. executing
____ processes include devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project meets its
scope, time, and cost goals as well as organizational needs.
a. Initiating
c. Securing
b. Planning
d. Protecting
A ____ is a product or service produced or provided as part of a project.
a. process
c. deliverable
b. result
d. requirement
Based on the PMBOK® Guide, 2004, there are ____ total processes in project management.
a. 7
c. 25
b. 9
d. 44
Most time and money is normally spent on ____ because that is where the project’s products and/or services
(for example, the buildings for a construction project, the training courses for a training project, and so on) are
produced.
a. monitoring
c. controlling
b. executing
d. planning
The PMBOK Guide® is a ____ that describes best practices for what should be done to manage a project.
a. rule book
c. protocol
b. standard
d. secondary authority
After a project is approved, senior managers should meet to determine the ____, time, and cost constraints for
the project.
a. range
c. vision
b. scope
d. boundary
It often makes sense to break large projects down into two or more smaller ____.
a. projects
c. portfolios
b. programs
d. enterprises
One of the main tasks normally involved in project initiation is to identify and understand project ____.
____ 26.
____ 27.
____ 28.
____ 29.
____ 30.
____ 31.
____ 32.
____ 33.
____ 34.
____ 35.
____ 36.
____ 37.
a. shareholders
c. critics
b. stakeholders
d. analysts
It is helpful to create a ____, or initial, scope statement during project initiation so that the entire project team
can start important discussions and work related to the project scope.
a. tentative
c. preliminary
b. provisional
d. categorical
The main purpose of project planning is to guide project ____.
a. initiation
c. review
b. execution
d. evaluation
Planning includes tasks related to each of the ____ project management knowledge areas.
a. 4
c. 9
b. 5
d. 16
The PMBOK® Guide lists at least ____ documents that project teams can produce as part of project planning.
a. 50
c. 100
b. 75
d. 125
Project ____ management involves coordinating all the project management knowledge areas throughout a
project’s life span.
a. union
c. unification
b. synthesis
d. integration
Project management ____ facilitate communication among stakeholders and provide a baseline for progress
measurement and project control.
a. charters
c. contracts
b. plans
d. compacts
The main planning tasks performed as part of project scope management include scope planning, scope
definition, and ____.
a. scope evaluation
c. creating the WBS
b. scope reduction
d. scope expansion
The main output of scope planning is a ____ management plan, which is a document that includes
descriptions of how the team will prepare the scope statement, create the WBS, verify completion of the
project deliverables, and control requests for changes to the project scope.
a. scope
c. program
b. project
d. portfolio
The project team develops a preliminary scope statement during project ____.
a. review
c. orientation
b. initiation
d. development
Scope statements should include, at a minimum, a description of the project, including its overall objectives
and justification; detailed descriptions of all project ____; characteristics and requirements of products and
services produced as part of the project; and project success criteria.
a. stakeholders
c. meetings
b. volunteers
d. deliverables
To define the ____ of the project accurately, it is very important to ensure consistency between the project
charter, scope statement, WBS, Gantt chart, and related documents.
a. scope
c. vision
b. charter
d. parameters
The project manager should work with his or her team and ____ to determine the level of detail needed in the
WBS dictionary.
a. client
c. auditor
b. customer
d. sponsor
____ 38. Performance in meeting project scope goals is based on the scope ____.
a. definition
c. baseline
b. revision
d. statement
____ 39. The project team begins to develop a ____ by first clearly defining all the activities it needs to perform.
a. charter
c. scope
b. schedule
d. work flow diagram
____ 40. Activity ____ provide schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors,
logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions
related to the activity.
a. features
c. properties
b. characteristics
d. attributes
____ 41. After defining project activities, the next step in project time management is activity ____.
a. organization
c. segmenting
b. sequencing
d. ordering
____ 42. There are ____ basic reasons for creating dependencies among project activities.
a. three
c. five
b. four
d. six
____ 43. ____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project.
a. Embedded
c. Mandatory
b. Absolute
d. Compulsory
____ 44. ____ dependencies involve relationships between project and nonproject activities.
a. Internal
c. Ancillary
b. External
d. Miscellaneous
____ 45. In the context of a network diagram, a ____ is simply the starting and ending point of an activity.
a. cell
c. source
b. vertex
d. node
____ 46. In an AOA network diagram, ____ occur when two or more activities follow a single node.
a. drives
c. bursts
b. flares
d. runs
____ 47. In an AOA network diagram, a(n) ____ occurs when two or more nodes precede a single node.
a. merge
c. union
b. join
d. intersection
____ 48. ____ includes the actual amount of time spent working on an activity plus elapsed time.
a. Extension
c. Period
b. Duration
d. Length
____ 49. A three-point estimate is an estimate that includes a(n) ____, most likely, and pessimistic estimate, such as
three weeks, four weeks, and five weeks, respectively.
a. optimistic
c. remote
b. unusual
d. conditional
____ 50. Duration estimates are provided as a ____ number, such as four weeks; as a range, such as three to five
weeks; or as a three-point estimate.
a. continuous
c. fractional
b. random
d. discrete
____ 51. What is the PERT weighted average based on an optimistic estimate of 6 days, a most likely estimate of 8
days, and a pessimistic time of 12 days?
a. 6
c. 11
b. 8
d. 12
____ 52. ____ development uses the results of all the preceding project time management processes to determine the
start and end dates of project activities and of the entire project.
a. Task
c. Work Package
b. Schedule
d. Activity
____ 53. A(n) ____ path for a project is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can
be completed.
a. integral
c. critical
b. incidental
d. vital
____ 54. Slack or ____ is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying a succeeding activity or the
project finish date.
a. leeway
c. redundancy
b. float
d. space
____ 55. ____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule
compression for the least incremental cost.
a. Crashing
c. Compacting
b. Deflating
d. Minimizing
____ 56. The main disadvantage of ____ is that it can end up lengthening the project schedule, because starting some
tasks too soon often increases project risk and results in rework.
a. reviewing
c. extending
b. crashing
d. fast tracking
____ 57. Project ____ management includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project
within an approved budget.
a. control
c. cost
b. delivery
d. outlays
____ 58. Cost ____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual tasks over time to establish a baseline for
measuring performance.
a. estimating
c. allowance
b. account
d. budgeting
____ 59. ____ estimates, also called top-down estimates, use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis
for estimating the cost of the current project.
a. Homologous
c. Sequential
b. Analogous
d. Parallel
____ 60. ____ estimates involve estimating individual activities and summing them to get a project total.
a. Bottom-up
c. Ad hoc
b. Provisional
d. Temporary
____ 61. A cost baseline is a(n) ____ budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance.
a. incidental
c. time-phased
b. basic
d. incremental
____ 62. Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was
undertaken.
a. integration
c. portfolio
b. quality
d. performance
____ 63. ____ to requirements means that the project’s processes and products meet written specifications.
a. Voluntary adherence
c. Conformance
b. Management
d. Fidelity
____ 64. If a project’s stakeholders are not satisfied with the quality of the project management or the resulting
products, the project team will need to adjust ____, time, and cost to satisfy stakeholder needs and
expectations.
a. range
c. vision
____ 65.
____ 66.
____ 67.
____ 68.
____ 69.
____ 70.
b. breadth
d. scope
Examples of common ____ used by organizations include failure rates of products produced, availability of
goods and services, and customer satisfaction ratings.
a. metrics
c. requirements
b. analytics
d. guidelines
Two important metrics related to the Just-In-Time Training project include the ____ and course evaluation
ratings.
a. rate of attrition
c. overall attendance
b. survey response rate
d. quantity of lesson modules
A project ____ chart is a graphic representation of how authority and responsibility is distributed within the
project.
a. organizational
c. stakeholder
b. planning
d. management
Which of the following is another name for an Ishikawa diagram?
a. Bell Curve
c. Accountability
b. Cause and Effect Diagram
d. Pareto Diagram
The acronym CPPC stands for:
a. Cost Plus Percentage of Control
c. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
b. Cost Plus Percentage of Contract
d. Cost Plus Plus Cost
During a project Earned Value Analysis is performed and gives the following results:
EV: 523,000; PV: 623,000; AC: 643,000.
____ 71.
____ 72.
____ 73.
____ 74.
____ 75.
____ 76.
____ 77.
Which results are correct?
a. CV: +120,000; SV: +100,000
c. CV: -100,000; SV: -120,000
b. CV: +100,000; SV: +120,000
d. CV: -120,000; SV: -100,000
A(n) ____ management plan describes when and how people will be added to and removed from a project.
a. exchange
c. staffing
b. labor
d. human resource
Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information.
a. information
c. data
b. communications
d. media
PMI defines a project ____ as an uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project
objectives.
a. hazard
c. risk
b. danger
d. challenge
There are ____ important dimensions of risk events.
a. two
c. four
b. three
d. five
____ are indicators or symptoms of actual risk events.
a. Signals
c. Triggers
b. Flags
d. Monitors
____ contracts reduce the risk of incurring higher costs than expected.
a. Variable-price
c. Oral
b. Bid
d. Fixed-price
Project ____ management includes acquiring or procuring goods and services for a project from outside the
organization.
a. logistics
c. acquisition
____ 78.
____ 79.
____ 80.
____ 81.
____ 82.
____ 83.
____ 84.
____ 85.
b. procurement
d. supply
Suppose that the purchase price for a piece of equipment is $12,000, with operational costs of $400 per day. If
the same equipment can be leased for $800 per day (inclusive of operational costs), after how many days will
the lease cost equal the purchase cost?
a. 10
c. 30
b. 15
d. 60
Suppose that the purchase price for a piece of equipment is $16,000, and incurs operational costs of $800 per
day. If the same equipment can be leased for $1000 per day and you need the equipment for ____ days, it
would be more economical to purchase the equipment.
a. 30
c. 60
b. 40
d. 100
Suppose that the purchase price for a piece of equipment is $10,000, and incurs operational costs of $300 per
day. If the same equipment can be leased for $500 per day and you need the equipment for ____ days, it
would be more economical to lease the equipment.
a. 30
c. 80
b. 60
d. 100
Which of the following topics could you expect to find in a procurement management plan?
a. methodology for risk management
b. guidelines on types of contracts to be used in different situations
c. budget and schedule estimates for risk-related activities
d. risk categories
Three broad categories of contracts are fixed price, or lump sum; ____; and time and material.
a. cost intensive
c. cost reducing
b. cost averse
d. cost reimbursable
A ____ contract has the least amount of risk for the buyer.
a. firm -fixed price
c. soft-fixed-price
b. fixed-price incentive
d. contingent-fixed
A(n) ____ is a document in which sellers describe what they will do to meet the requirements of a buyer.
a. proposal
c. schedule
b. charter
d. draft
A Request for ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers.
a. Proposal
c. Quote
b. Price
d. Cost
Test 1
Answer Section
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