Bloom's Taxonomy: How It Relates to College Exams

BLOOM’S TAXONOMY
IN COLLEGE EXAMS
What is the instructor looking for on an exam (besides the right answer)? One way of organizing and developing
our thinking skills so that we can devise better answers to exam questions is to be familiar with and use Bloom’s
Taxonomy. Sound scary? Well, it isn’t.
Benjamin Bloom and his colleagues suggested that our thinking abilities can be organized into a step-by-step
method of problem solving. These steps, like rungs on a ladder, will range from lower to higher levels of
thinking.
Instructors will begin asking questions at the lowest (easiest) level and work to the highest (hardest) level on
material that they have taught. The value placed on these questions will be based on how easy or hard the
question is. These steps or levels of difficulty tell the instructor how well the class understands the material.
HOW TO DO BETTER ON TESTS
HOWTO
TODO
DOBETTER
BETTERON
ONTESTS
TESTS
HOW
HOW TO DO BETTER ON TESTS
One way to earn better grades on tests, quizzes, and in class participation is to understand the levels of questions
that the instructor is asking:
______________________________________________________________________________
Knowledge
At the bottom of the ladder is the knowledge level, reflected in the skill of memorizing. Retaining information is
an important part of nearly every college course. Unfortunately, we can memorize information incorrectly.
We can memorize information without it’s making any sense to us. We don’t necessarily learn what we
memorize. Sometimes we can’t use a memorized term because we don’t remember what it means or the context
in which to use it.
Cramming for an exam is an example of just memorizing information. Your instructor will know that
meaningful learning depends on much more than memorized facts—you will be tested on how to use the
information, not just what the information is.
When instructors ask questions at the knowledge level, they want the student to recall or recognize facts,
terminology, problem-solving strategies, or rules.
Verbs used to write test questions at the knowledge level include the following:
define
state
recall
match
identify
when
select
outline
list
describe
what
recite
name
label
where, who
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Comprehension
The next level is comprehension. It emphasizes understanding the material that you are trying to learn. This is
the rung on the ladder where you say, “Oh, I get it!” or “I need that explained better.” Once you’ve found the
material that you need to read, your challenge is to read, interpret, and paraphrase what the author says, so that
you can use the information in your work. We want to understand what the author is thinking and be able to
discuss the material, as well as show our understanding of it.
Instructors make questions requiring some degree of understanding at this level. Test questions at this level will
require a student to translate (change the way the information is communicated), interpret (see relationships and
connections) and infer (draw conclusions from the information).
Examples of verbs at this level are:
compare
describe
explain
paraphrase
contrast
differentiate
extend
predict
convert
discriminate
illustrate
reorder
defend
distinguish
infer
summarize
derive (main idea)
estimate
interpret
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Application
The third level is application, or applying what you have learned in your coursework to different situations.
Here you will be more involved in learning as you link your new knowledge to your life (or your previous
knowledge). You might be able to identify an experience from your own life with that of a main character in a
short story assigned in your English class. Your ability to see a parallel between the character and yourself is an
example of application. Learning a new form of note-taking, and then beginning to use it in your classes is
another example of application.
An instructor hopes to have a student use previously learned information in order to solve a problem. Verbs that
an instructor might use are the following:
apply
demonstrate
prepare
transfer
change
employ
relate
use
choose
modify
select
develop
classify
compute
operate
organize
solve (only 1 is correct)
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Analysis
The fourth step on the ladder, analysis, requires you to take an example or problem and break it apart in
meaningful ways. Analysis is a basic requirement for critical thinking in any subject.
By breaking apart a case, you narrow it down to symptoms that can be linked to important concepts that you
learned in a course. An example might be in history class in which you look at assumptions and inferences in a
famous speech. Instructors want their students to identify logical errors to differentiate among facts, opinions,
assumptions, hypotheses, or conclusions. Questions at this level often require the student to draw relationships
among ideas.
Verbs that instructors use at this level are:
analyze
diagram
infer
relate
break down
determine
illustrate
separate out
conclude
differentiate
outline
subdivide
deduce
distinguish
point out
tell why
detect
identify cause or
reason
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Synthesis
The fifth level, synthesis, involves the combination of different ideas or different information in order to create a
new concept. Synthesizing requires you to survey your existing knowledge base (which is wider because of your
experiences in class) and to now create new combinations of these ideas. You will make creative solutions.
Instructors aren’t always looking for “the answer” at the synthesis level, because there can be more than one
correct answer. The key word here is often “original.” Verbs instructors writing synthesis questions might use
are:
categorize
formulate
combine
originate
compile
plan
compose
predict
construct
produce
create
propose
design
solve
develop
summarize
devise
synthesize
draw
write
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Evaluation
The sixth step is evaluation, which involves deciding how important or how good your evidence or facts are. In
many cases of evaluation, the instructor won’t give you information to make a decision. So part of critical
thinking is to make you own standards for making a decision. In evaluation, you must reach a conclusion using
appropriate material for judgment based on your own interpretation of evidence. An example might be to
evaluate whether a painting is aesthetically pleasing. Another example might be to decide whether a social
policy intended to provide adequate aid and assistance to poor people is accomplishing its mission.
Instructors want their students to form judgments about the value and worth of methods, ideas, people, or
products that have a specific purpose. They are looking for the student to state the basis for their judgments.
The verbs that instructors use for evaluation or judgment are:
appraise
judge
criticize
defend
conclude
validate
argue
justify
interpret
contrast
compare
support
Each step of the ladder is more challenging than the previous steps. Each step takes the student toward the more
difficult types of questions. Being able to anticipate what an instructor is looking for in an answer to his or her
question is an important step toward providing a satisfactory answer.
Bloomsburg University Student Support Services 1998
BLOOM’S TAXONOMY IN OBJECTIVE EXAMS
Following are four sample textbook passages followed by questions on each passage. The questions are written
at various levels of Bloom’s Taxonomy as described above.
*********
THE HEART
The heart is a cone-shaped, muscular organ about the size of a fist. It is located
between the lungs directly behind the breastbone and is tilted so that the pointed end (apex) is
directed to the left. The major portion of the heart, called the myocardium, consists largely
of cardiac muscle tissue. The heart lies within the pericardium, a thick, membranous sac that
contains a small quantity of lubricating liquid. The inner surface of the heart is lined with
endocardium, which consists of connective tissue and endothelial tissue.
Internally, a wall called the septum separates the heart into a right side and a left side.
The heart has two chambers: two upper, thin walled atria, and two lower, thick walled
ventricles. The atria are much smaller and weaker than the muscular ventricles, but they hold
the same volume of blood.
The blood enters the heart through the superior and inferior vena cava. These veins,
carrying deoxygenated blood (low in oxygen and high in carbon dioxide), enter the right
atrium of the heart. The right atrium sends blood through the atrioventricular valve to the
right ventricle. The valves in the heart function like doors that prevent the backward flow of
blood through the heart. The right ventricle pumps blood through the pulmonary semilunar
valve into the pulmonary arteries to the lungs. In the lungs, the blood exchanges carbon
dioxide for oxygen and then returns from the lungs to the left atrium. The left atrium sends
this freshly oxygenated blood through an atrioventricular valve to the left ventricle. The left
ventricle then pumps blood through the aortic semilunar valve, into the aorta (the largest
artery) and out to the rest of the body.
From this description, you can see that deoxygenated blood never mixes with
oxygenated blood and that blood must go through the lungs in order to pass from the right
side to the left side of the heart. In fact, the heart is a double pump because the right ventricle
sends blood to the lungs, as the left ventricle sends blood to the body. The left ventricle has
the harder job of pumping blood to the entire body, therefore, its walls are thicker than those
of the right ventricle.
From: Human Biology, 1998. WCB/McGraw-Hill, Boston, 5th edition.
The Heart
Questions
1.
Which blood vessel has the highest concentration of carbon dioxide?
a. pulmonary artery
b. pulmonary vein
c. aorta
d. renal vein
2.
In the human heart, semilunar valves are located
a. between chambers of the heart
b. at the entrance of veins into the heart
c. at the exit of arteries from the heart
d. in systemic veins
3.
In humans, the superior vena cava
a. carries blood to the right atrium
b. carries blood away from the right atrium
c. joins with the aorta
d. has a high blood pressure
4.
Oxygenated blood enters the heart at the
a. left atrium
b. left ventricle
c. right atrium
d. right ventricle
5.
The pulmonary semilunar valve prevents blood from entering the
a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. right ventricle
d. left ventricle
e. pulmonary trunk
6.
The heart is enclosed in the
a. myocardium
b. endocardial sac
c. pericardial sac
d. pleural cavity
7.
Which of these is NOT true of the heart?
a. It is a double pump
b. It helps maintain blood pressure
c. It helps make red blood cells
d. It is composed primarily of muscle
e. It has an inner lining of endothelium
8.
In general, values in the circulatory system
a. permit blood to circulate rapidly
b. prevent blood from moving too rapidly
c. prevent blood from flowing in the wrong direction
d. stop the circulation whenever necessary.
9.
Which of the following statements is false?
a. The myocardium is within the pericardium
b. The endocardium is outside the myocardium.
c. The pericardium is outside the endocardium.
d. The endothelial tissue is within the pericardium.
Chemical Equilibrium
In chemical equilibrium, a chemical reaction and its reverse are occurring at equal
rates. Theoretically, all chemical reactions are reversible--able to take place in either
direction and therefore to come to equilibrium. If and how chemical equilibrium is actually
established depends on a number of factors.
Heating limestone in masonry pits to produce lime for mortar was one of the first
manufacturing processes carried out by settlers in the U.S. colonies. The CO2 gas escapes
from an open pit and all of the calcium carbonate in the limestone can be converted to lime.
CaCO3 (s)

Calcium carbonate
(limestone)
CaO(s)
+
CO2(g)
Calcium oxide Carbon dioxide
(lime)
This reaction is reversible and establishes equilibrium if the gas cannot escape. When
some dry limestone is sealed in a closed container and heated, the decomposition of calcium
carbonate begins. As soon as CO2 accumulates in the container, the reverse reaction starts to
occur. Once the concentration of CO2 reaches a specific point, the system has reached
equilibrium.
CaCO3 (s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
If there aren't any changes in the reaction conditions (the pressure and the
temperature), the forward and reverse reactions continue to take place at the same rates and
the concentration of CO2 in the container remains the same.
Note that chemical equilibrium is dynamic--the CO2 concentration doesn't change, but
CO2 is constantly being produced and reacting to form CaCO3.
If the container is opened briefly to let some of the CO2 out and then sealed again, the
forward reaction will outpace the reverse reaction, and the CO2 concentration will increase
until equilibrium is again established. This type of change illustrates a very important
principle that applies to all systems at equilibrium: If a stress is applied to a system at
equilibrium, the system will adjust to relieve the stress. Known as Le Chatelier's principle
for the French scientist, Henri Le Chatelier, who first stated it in 1884, this principle means
that whatever the disruption, the reaction will shift in the direction that re-establishes
equilibrium. For a chemical reaction, the stresses might be adding or taking away a reactant
or product, changing the temperature or, in some cases, changing the pressure.
From: World of Chemistry,2nd Edition, By Joesten and Wood. Saunders College Publishing,
1996, ISBN 0-03-004463-4. Pages 229-230.
Chemical Equilibrium
Questions
1.
In the example given: CaCo3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g) what would you expect would
happen if heat is removed ( i.e. the reaction is cooled)?
a.
b.
c.
c.
Reaction will move forward.
Reaction will move in reverse.
No change in the reaction.
Can not determine from given information
2.5 In the following questions determine what will happen in the following reaction:
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
A. Move forward
C. No change
2.
3.
4.
5.
B. Move in reverse
D. Cannot determine
Decrease N2 concentration. (B)
Increase H2 concentration. (A)
Decrease NH3 concentration. (A)
Increase pressure. (A)
6.
In chemical equilibrium a reaction and its reverse
a. occur if one of the products is a gas and is allowed to escape.
b. only occur under high pressure and temperature conditions
c. are occurring at equal ratio.
d. can only occur in the production of limestone.
7.
The French scientist who first stated this principle of equilibrium was
a. LeCorBusies
b. Louis Pasteur
c. LeChatelier
d. Chevalier
8.
Complete the following statement according to the principle of chemical equilibrium:
If a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, _____.
a. no change will occur under normal conditions.
b. the system will adjust to relieve the stress.
c. a change in the reverse direction will occur if one product is a gas.
d. the quality of the products will be affected.
Price Elasticity of Demand
The law of demand tells us that consumers will buy more of a product when its price
declines and less when its price increases. But how much more or less will they buy? The
amount varies from product to product and over different price ranges for the same product. . .
.
The responsiveness (or sensitivity) of consumers to a price change is measured by the
product’s price elasticity of demand. For some products—for example, restaurant meals—
consumers are highly responsive to price changes. Modest price changes cause very large
changes in the quantity purchased. Economists say that the demand for such products if
relatively elastic or simply elastic.
For other products—for example, salt—consumers pay much less tattention to price
changes. Substantial price changes cause only small changes in the amount purchased. The
demand for such products is relatively inelastic or simply inelastic. (p. 356)
Determinants of Price Elasticity of Demand
Substitutability. Generally, the larger the number of substitute goods that are available,
the greater the elasticity of demand. . . (p. 362).
B. Proportion of Income. Other things equal, the higher the price of a good relative to
consumers’ incomes, the greater the price elasticity of demand. . . . (p. 362)
C. Luxuries versus Necessities. . . . Bread and electricity are generally regarded as
necessities; it is difficult to get along without them. A price increase will not significantly
reduce the amount of bread consumed or the amount of lighting and power used in a
household. . . . On the other hand, travel vacations and jewelry are luxuries which, by
definition, can be forgone. . (p. 362).
D. Time. Generally, product demand is more elastic the longer the time period under
consideration. Consumers often need time to adjust to changes in prices. For example,
when the price of a product rises, it takes time to find and experiment with other products
to see if they are acceptable. . . . Another consideration is product durability. Studies show
that “short-run” demand for gasoline is more inelastic. . . than is “long-run” demand. . . .
In the short run, people are “stuck” with their present cars and trucks, but with rising
gasoline prices, they eventually replace them with smaller, more fuel-efficient vehicles.
(362-363)
A.
From: Economics, 16th Edition, by McConnell and Brue. McGraw-Hill, 2005. Excerpts
from pages 356 to 363.
Price Elasticity of Demand
Questions
1
Response of consumers to price changes is measured by
a)
percent of price decline in the product
b)
percent of price increase in the product
c)
price elasticity of demand
d)
price elasticity of supply
2
If the demand for a product is inelastic,
a)
Small increases in price will cause considerable increase in the demand for
the product.
b)
Large increases in price will cause little increase in the demand for the
product.
c)
Small increases in price will cause considerable decrease in the demand for
the product.
d)
Large increases in price will cause little decrease in the demand for the
product.
3
The demand for insulin would be
a) Relatively elastic
b) Very elastic
c) Relatively inelastic
d) Very inelastic
4
In which case would the demand for a product likely be most elastic (Price increase
would affect purchase decision).
5
a)
b)
A Harley Davidson before 1960
A Harley Davidson today.
OR
c)
d)
The price of motor oil increases because of cutoff of MidEast oil
An increase in the price of Quaker State motor oil
e)
f)
A 10% increase in the price of chewing gum OR
A 5% increase in the price of yachts to cover a new luxury tax.
OR
In considering elasticity of demand of various products, on which product would the
government most likely levy a tax.
a)
Canned soda
b)
Gasoline
c)
Bathing suits
d)
NFL tickets
6
The price of butter goes up, so more people switch to margarine. Which of the
following is true?
a)
The price of butter is elastic because of substitutability
b)
The price of margarine is inelastic because of substitutability.
c)
The price of margarine will likely go up.
d)
The price of margarine will likely go down.
e)
Both a and c
f)
Both a and d
Know Your Blood Type
Although there are at least twelve well known blood type identification systems, the
ABO system and the Rh system are most often used to determine blood type.
ABO System is Common
Before the twentieth century, blood transfusions sometimes resulted in adverse
reactions or even death. A concerned Viennese physician, Karl Lansteiner, began to study the
matter by mixing different samples of blood and examining the effect under the microscope.
In the end, he and his associates determined that there are four major blood groups among
humans. They designated the types of blood as A, B, AB, and O (table 36.1). The types of
blood are dependent on whether A antigen and/or B antigen is present on red blood cells.
Type O blood has neither the A antigen nor the B antigen on red blood cells; the other types of
blood have one or both of the antigen(s) present. A (or B) is not an antigen to an individual
with blood type A, but it can be an antigen to a recipient with a different blood type.
Within the plasma of the individual, there are antibodies to the antigens that are not
present on the red blood cells. Therefore, for example, type A has an antibody called anti-B in
the plasma. Type AB blood has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies because both antigens are
on the red blood cells. This is reasonable because if these antibodies were present,
agglutination (L. agglutinin, glued together), or clumping of red blood cells, would occur.
For a recipient to receive blood from a donor, the recipient’s plasma must not have an
antibody that causes the donor’s cells to agglutinate. For this reason it is important to
determine each person’s blood type. Figure 36.15 demonstrates a way to use the antibodies
derived from plasma to determine blood type. If clumping occurs after a sample of blood is
exposed to anti-A or anti-B antibody, the person has that antigen on the red blood cells. In the
first example given, the individual’s blood sample does not react to either anti-A or anti-B
antibody; therefore, the blood type is O. The + and - are discussed in the next section.
From: Biology, Fifth Edition (customized for Bloomsburg University), by Sylvia S. Mader,
Wm. C. Brown Publishers, Dubuque, Iowa, 1996, ISBN 0-697-36676-6, p. 644.
Know Your Blood Type
Questions
1.
What is agglutination?
a) a protein produced by the body in response to the presence of an antigen.
b) a component of blood that is necessary in blood clotting.
c) clumping of red blood cells due to a reaction between antigens
d) a process where white blood cells engulf foreign substances.
2.
A person’s blood type is determined by the type of ______ present on red blood cells.
a) antibody
b) erythrocyte
c) anticoolon
d) antigen
3.
If a person has blood type A, the type/s of blood that person can receive during surgery
is/are?
a) type A only
b) type O only
c) type A or type O
d) type AB or type A
4.
One of the blood types is considered the universal donor because
a) the donor blood has both A and B antigens on its red blood cells
b) the donor blood has neither A antigen nor B antigen present on its red blood cells
c) the recipient of the blood always has red blood cells that have both A and B antigens
on his/her blood
d) the universal donor blood is Rh+
5.
One of the blood types is considered the universal recipient because
a) the donor blood has both A and B antigens on its red blood cells
b) the donor blood has neither A antigen nor B antigen present on its red blood cells
c) the recipient of the blood has red blood cells that have both A and B antigens on
his/her blood
d) the universal donor blood is Rh+
6.
The universal donor blood type is:
a) type A
b) type B
c) type AB
d) type O
7. The universal recipient blood type is:
e) type A
f) type B
g) type AB
h) type O
8.
If you needed elective surgery that would necessitate receiving blood, it would be best to
a) go to the blood bank at least two months before surgery and donate your own blood
to receive during surgery
b) send a family relative to the blood bank to donate blood you can receive during
surgery
c) use blood bank blood that has been tested after collection.
d) delay the surgery and investigate other treatments.