Civics (Political Science) : Solved Paper
1. The theory of Natural Rights holds that—
(A) Rights are a divine creation
(B) Rights came from pre­civil society
(C) Rights were granted by the king
(D) Rights are granted by the Constitution
Ans : (B)
2. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The Marxist view of freedom is different from liberal individualist view of freedom.
Reason (R) : According to Marxist view, freedom is not something that an individual can enjoy in isolation.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
3. Who among the following supports the principle of natural inequality ?
(A) Polybius
(B) Cicero
(C) Rousseau
(D) Plato
Ans : (D)
4. The ideal of ‘positive liberty’ was first conceived by—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Hegel
(C) Green
(D) Laski
Ans : (C)
5. Match List­I with List­II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below—
List­I
(a) Justice is the interest of stronger.
(b) Justice is doing one’s own work which is in consonance with one’s own nature.
(c) Public utility is the sole origin of Justice.
(d) Justice means judicious distribution of primary goods.
List­II
1. Rawls
2. Thrasymachus
3. Plato
4. Hume
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (D)
6. The best adjustment of liberty and equality can be achieved in a regime of—
(A) Liberalism
(B) Socialism
(C) Democratic Socialism
(D) Idealism
Ans : (C)
7. “Political liberty without economic liberty is a myth.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) Aristotle
(B) T. H. Green
(C) J. S. Mill
(D) H. J. Laski
Ans : (D)
8. “The passion for equality made vain the hope for liberty.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) J. S. Mill
(B) Jeremy Bentham
(C) V. I. Lenin
(D) Lord Acton
Ans : (D)
9. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Justice is highest good of political life.
Reason (R) : Justice provides man his due and sets right wrongs either by compensation or by punishment.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
10. The liberal thinker who had put forward the theory of “Social Engineering” is—
(A) C. B. Macpherson
(B) Karl J. Popper
(C) John Rawls
(D) L. T. Hobhouse
Ans : (B)
11. By the materialistic interpretation of history Marx explains—
(A) The course of history remains unchanged
(B) The course of history is determined by the leaders of society
(C) The course of history is determined by the consciousness of men
(D) The course of history is determined by the mode of production
Ans : (D)
12. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Marx is the only writer whose works can be termed scientific.
Reason (R) : Where Marxism ends, Anarchism begins.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (B)
13. Who is the author of the famous book ‘History of Early Institutions’ ?
(A) Proudhan
(B) Maxey
(C) Machiavelli
(D) Sir Henry Maine
Ans : (D)
14. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Gandhi was against using the impure means.
Reason (R) : According to him, impure means do not help in achieving the ends.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
15. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, then whose decision is final ?
(A) President’s decision
(B) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court’s decision
(C) Auditor and Comptroller General of India’s decision
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha’s decision
Ans : (D)
16. Which of the following attributes of Gandhian theory of Non­ Violence are correct ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. It is not passivity.
2. Its basic principle is truth.
3. It is the weapon of the weak.
4. It is a means of mass participation.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)
17. Which of the following was not on the agenda of Non­cooperation Movement ?
(A) To boycott foreign goods
(B) To boycott law courts
(C) To defy the laws of the land
(D) To boycott elections under the Government of India Act, 1919
Ans : (C)
18. The alternative to socialism in Gandhian Philosophy is—
(A) Non­violence
(B) Trusteeship
(C) Panchayati Raj
(D) Truth
Ans : (B)
19. Which of the following books has not been written by Marx ?
(A) The Communist Manifesto
(B) Das Capital
(C) Wealth of the Nations
(D) The Critique of Political Economy
Ans : (C)
20. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : There is no stable party system in India.
Reason (R) : Indian political parties reflect the complexity of Indian society.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
21. Which one of the following is not a demerit of party system ?
(A) Parties fight for their own interest
(B) Party system destroys the individuality of man
(C) Parties produce unnatural divisions
(D) Parties harmonise the organs of Government
Ans : (D)
22. Which of the following statements are correct ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Pressure groups are different from Political parties.
2. Political parties and Pressure groups do not differ.
3. Pressure groups do not contest elections.
4. Pressure groups do not try to capture political power directly.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3, 2 and 4
Ans : (C)
23. Match List­I with List­II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below—
List­I
(a) Charles Mariam
(b) M. P. Follet
(c) Arthur Bentley
(d) A. Appadorai
List­II
1. The Process of Government
2. The Substance of Politics
3. The New State
4. New Aspect of Politics
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (D)
24. “Never has any one ruled on earth by basing his rule essentially other than the public opinion.” Who has made
this statement ?
(A) Jose Ortegag Gassel
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) Lord Bryce
(D) Morris Ginsberg
Ans : (A)
25. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Political parties are the lifeline of Modern Politics.
Reason (R) : Political Parties came into existence with the growth and development of representative institutions
and expansion of suffrage.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
26. Who among the following tried to establish co­relation between party system and electoral system ?
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) M. Duverger
(C) H. M. Finer
(D) Lord Bryce
Ans : (B)
27. Who describes the pressure groups as the Third House of the Legislature ?
(A) Lord Bryce
(B) H. M. Finer
(C) G. D. H. Cole
(D) Dicey
Ans : (B)
28. “The State in which all authority and powers are vested in a single centre, whose will and agents are legally
omnipotent over the whole area” is known as—
(A) Unitary Government
(B) Federal Government
(C) Parliamentary Government
(D) Presidential Government
Ans : (A)
29. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). In the
context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : A federal system invariably provides for an independent judiciary.
Reason (R) : It settles the disputes between the centre and the constituent units.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
30. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The growing strength of Central Government in a federal set­up is natural.
Reason (R) : Five factors contribute to the growth of a powerful centre in the federation, namely, war politics,
depression politics, Techno­politics, Grantsin­Aid politics and party politics.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
31. In Presidential Government, the President is—
(A) Independent of the Legislature
(B) Dependent on the Legislature
(C) Dependent on the Judiciary
(D) Bound by the advice of Council of Ministers
Ans : (A)
32. A Parliamentary Government cannot function without—
(A) Written Constitution
(B) Rigid Constitution
(C) Political Parties
(D) Independent Judiciary
Ans : (C)
33. Members of the Executive under Presidential System of Government—
(A) Are drawn both the Houses of Legislature
(B) Are taken from the popular House
(C) Are not members of either House of Legislature
(D) Become members of Legislature after their appointment as Ministers
Ans : (C)
34. Governments are classified as Parliamentary and Presidential on the basis of—
(A) Relations between the Centre and the States
(B) Relations between the Legislature and the Executive
(C) Relations between the Executive and the Judiciary
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)
35. Who has opined that, “The Constitution limits the arbitrary actions of the Government” ?
(A) Dicey
(B) Rousseau
(C) Garner
(D) Strong
Ans : (A)
36. “A State without a Constitution would not be a State, but a regime of anarchy.” This is stated by—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Bryce
(C) Jellineck
(D) Dicey
Ans : (C)
37. Which of the following is not a feature of Unitary System of the Government ?
(A) Administrative unity
(B) Administrative empowerment
(C) National unity
(D) A coordination between national unity and Local self administration
Ans : (B)
38. Who raised the demand for ‘Swarajya’ for the first time through his writings ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Ram Krishna Param Hans
(C) Swami Vivekanand
(D) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Ans : (D)
39. During Civil Disobedience Movement, soldiers of Garhwal Regiment refused to fire on demonstrators at—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Dehradun
(C) Nainital
(D) Peshawar
Ans : (D)
40. Commenting on the sudden suspension of the Non­Cooperation Movement in February 1922, who among the
following remarked—
“To sound the order of retreat just when public enthusiasm was reaching the boiling point was nothing short of a
national calamity” ?
(A) Motilal Nehru
(B) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) C. R. Das
(D) Mohammad Ali
Ans : (B)
41. Who wrote the book, ‘India Divided’ ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) M. A. Jinnah
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) Shyama Prasad Mukherji
Ans : (A)
42. Whose time has been described as the ‘Seedling time of Indian Nationalism’ ?
(A) Lord William Bentinck
(B) Lord Rippon
(C) Lord Lytton
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans : (C)
43. By whom was the ‘Objectives Resolution’ presented in the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) G. B. Pant
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans : (D)
44. Mahatma Gandhi’s first experience with mass movement in India was at—
(A) Champaran
(B) Bardoli
(C) Chauri­chaura
(D) Dandi
Ans : (A)
45. The Swadeshi Movement was launched—
(A) As a protest against the partition of Bengal in 1905
(B) Following division of Congress in 1907
(C) Following the Lucknow Session
(D) To mark the entry of Mahatma Gandhi in National Movement
Ans : (A)
46. Who among the following moderate leaders had been called, ‘a silver tongued orator’ ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(D) M. G. Ranade
Ans : (B)
47. Which one of the following proposed a three­tier polity for India ?
(A) Nehru Report
(B) Simon Commission Report
(C) Cripps Proposal
(D) Cabinet Mission Plan
Ans : (D)
48. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Smt. Annie Besant
(C) Smt. Kamla Nehru
(D) Smt. Indira Gandhi
Ans : (B)
49. When was Mahatma Gandhi President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) 1923
(B) 1924
(C) 1925
(D) 1926
Ans : (B)
50. Who described for the first time, the revolt of 1857 as “The First War of Indian Independence” ?
(A) V. D. Savarkar
(B) R. C. Majumdar
(C) Bipin Chandra
(D) Sir John Lawrence
Ans : (A)
51. What was the real objective behind the ‘Partition of Bengal’ ?
(A) Create a division among the ranks of Indian Nationalists
(B) Stop the tide of Nationalism in Bengal
(C) Build up separate Administrative units for better efficiency of administration
(D) Appease the large majority of Muslims
Ans : (C)
52. The place where Navy openly revolted in 1946 against British rule in India is—
(A) Bombay (Mumbai)
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Cochin
Ans : (A)
53. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 ended the British rule in India.
Reason (R) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 laid down a new constitution for India providing for every detail.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)
54. Who among the following is called, “The Prophet of Indian Nationalism and Father of modern India.” ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Swami Vivekanand
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans : (A)
55. Which of the following statements about the Vice­President of India are correct ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. He is the ex­officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. He must be member of the Rajya Sabha for his election as Vice­President.
3. He is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
4. If the President resigns or dies, the Vice President officiates as President for not more than six months.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (A)
56. Who of the following linked the Directive Principles with a cheque payable at the convenience of the Bank ?
(A) A. K. Aiyar
(B) H. Kunzru
(C) H. V. Kamath
(D) K. T. Shah
Ans : (D)
57. Who among the following was elected President of India with second preference votes ?
(A) Gyani Zail Singh
(B) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) V. V. Giri
Ans : (D)
58. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution put limi tation on Legislative powers of Parliament and
State Legislatures ?
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 245
(C) Article 246
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
59. Which prominent leader had opposed the Champaran Satyagrah of 1917 because it was led by Mahatma
Gandhi ?
(A) N. G. Ranga
(B) T. K. Madhavan
(C) Champak Raman Pillai
(D) E. M. S. Namboodiripad
Ans : (A)
60. Who among the following has the right to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament
without being a member of the Parliament ?
(A) Solicitor­General of India
(B) Attorney­General of India
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) Chief Justice of India
Ans : (B)
61. The guardianship of Indian Constitution is vested in—
(A) The President
(B) The Cabinet
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans : (D)
62. “India that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” The word ‘Union’ is derived from the Constitution of—
(A) U. S. A.
(B) Switzerland
(C) Canada
(D) Australia
Ans : (A)
63. The President of India can be removed from his office by—
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The Chief Election Commissioner
Ans : (B)
64. A Federal Court was established in India under the Act of—
(A) 1892
(B) 1909
(C) 1919
(D) 1935
Ans : (D)
65. The Article of the Indian Constitution which empowers the Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship is—
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 11
Ans : (D)
66. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for Ad­hoc Judges in the Supreme Court ?
(A) 124
(B) 125
(C) 126
(D) 127
Ans : (D)
67. Which of the following decides the disputes regarding the election of the President of India ?
(A) The Rajya Sabha
(B) The Lok Sabha
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The Chief Election Commissioner
Ans : (C)
68. Which of the following words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment
?
(A) Republic, Sovereign
(B) Secular, Democratic
(C) Secular, Socialist
(D) Democratic, Sovereign
Ans : (C)
69. While a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration—
1. The Speaker shall have right to speak.
2. He shall not preside.
3. He shall be entitled to vote only in the first instance.
4. He shall not be present in the House.
Select your answer from the codes—
(A) 2 and 4 are correct
(B) 1, 2, 3 are correct
(C) Only 1 is correct
(D) 2 and 3 are correct
Ans : (B)
70. Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related with—
(A) Anti­Defection Provisions
(B) Indian Languages
(C) Panchayati Raj
(D) Union List, State List and Concurrent List
Ans : (C)
71. In Indian Federation the division of power in three lists has been derived from—
(A) U. S. A.
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (C)
72. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The Prime Minister in the Indian Political system is very powerful.
Reason (R) : There is Parliamentary system of Government in India.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
73. Match List­I with List­II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List­I
(a) Poona Pact
(b) August Proposal
(c) Wardha Proposal
(d) Wavell Plan
List­II
1. 8 August 1940
2. 14 July 1942
3. 4 June 1945
4. 26 September 1932
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (B)
74. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) 71st
(B) 72nd
(C) 73rd
(D) 74th
Ans : (C)
75. Who among the following Congress members rejected the Mountbatten Plan ?
(A) J. B. Kripalani
(B) G. B. Pant
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (C)
76. In Which part of the Indian Constitution relations between the Union and the States have been mentioned ?
(A) Part X
(B) Part XI
(C) Part XIV
(D) Part XV
Ans : (B)
77. What is true about the Governor of a State ?
(A) He has no discretionary power
(B) Validity of his discretion can be questioned
(C) For his discretionary functions he is not responsible to the President
(D) High Court may inquire into the advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor
Ans : (C)
78. Which of the following States was the first to establish the Panchayat Raj Institutions ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) U. P.
Ans : (A)
79. The Constitutional Government means—
(A) Government according to the terms of the Constitution
(B) Government based on the rule of the law
(C) A Democratic Government
(D) All these
Ans : (D)
80. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the Parliament legislate on any subject in the State list ?
(A) Article 229
(B) Article 230
(C) Article 248
(D) Article 249
Ans : (D)
81. A constitutional reason to make the centre strong in India is—
(A) Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) Centralised Planning
(C) Zonal Councils
(D) Union List
Ans : (D)
82. One common point of agreement between Indian and U.S. Federalism is that—
(A) Residuary powers belong to the Centre
(B) Residuary powers belong to the States
(C) There is provision for concurrent jurisdiction in certain matters
(D) The Supreme Court is the arbiter in the event of conflict between the Centre and the States
Ans : (D)
83. Which one of the following qualifications is common to Presidential candidates in both India and the U. S. A.
?
(A) Citizenship
(B) Minimum age
(C) Residential requirement
(D) Eligibility to become member of the popular house of the legislature
Ans : (B)
84. Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India may be made by the President—
(A) According to his own judgement
(B) On the request of the Lok Sabha
(C) On the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(D) On the written advice of the Council of Ministers
Ans : (D)
85. The system of Judicial review is found in—
(A) Only in India
(B) Only in Britain
(C) Only in U.S.A.
(D) In both India and U.S.A.
Ans : (D)
86. Who has referred Indian Federation as ‘Paramount Federation’ ?
(A) C. H. Alexandrowicz
(B) M. P. Sharma
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) A. C. Banerjee
Ans : (C)
87. Dadabhai Naoroji has described his theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ in the book—
(A) Poverty and unBritish rule in India
(B) Exploitative nature of British Rule in India
(C) British Rule and its consequences
(D) Nature of British Colonial Rule
Ans : (A)
88. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) State is abstract but the government is concrete
(B) Society is wider than the State
(C) Government is the agent of the State
(D) Membership of the State is optional
Ans : (D)
89. “It is true that there is no State where there is no over­ruling force. But the exercise of force does not make a
State otherwise a pirate ship or the mutinous army would be a State.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) Fredrick Angels
(B) Robert MacIver
(C) H. J. Laski
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (D)
90. Which of the following thinkers does not regard territory as an essential element of the State ?
(A) Plato
(B) Locke
(C) Maotse Tung
(D) Seeley
Ans : (D)
91. Who among the following opines that ‘public service’ and not sovereignty is the essential characteristic of the
State ?
(A) Otto Von Gierke
(B) Leon Duguit
(C) Ernest Barker
(D) A. D. Lindsay
Ans : (B)
92. “The State is the product and manifestation of the irreconcilability of class antagonism.” Who holds the above
view ?
(A) Marx
(B) Lenin
(C) Bakunin
(D) Stalin
Ans : (A)
93. The word ‘Polis’ relates to—
(A) Police
(B) Civil Administration
(C) City State
(D) Public opinion
Ans : (C)
94. “Liberty is increased when sovereignty is put into the right hands.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) Friedman
(B) Hayek
(C) I. Berlin
(D) L. Strauss
Ans : (C)
95. Who among the following is, associated with ‘Civic­Sovereignty’ Theory ?
(A) John Devey
(B) John Strachy
(C) R. H. Tawney
(D) S. G. Hobson
Ans : (C)
96. Which one of the following ideologies considers political party as ‘a vanguard of the social class’ ?
(A) Idealism
(B) Individualism
(C) Fabianism
(D) Marxism
Ans : (D)
97. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The concept of sovereignty could not be developed during Middle Ages.
Reason (R) : The social system during the Middle Ages was decentralized and permeated by Christianity.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
98. Who among the following makes a distinction between society and state ?
(A) Pareto
(B) MacIver
(C) Bryce
(D) Charles Merriam
Ans : (B)
99. Which pair is not correctly matched ?
(A) George Sorel—Syndicalism
(B) Hegel—Individualism
(C) G.D.H. Cole—Guild socialism
(D) Laski—Pluralism
Ans : (B)
100. Who among the following was the first to propound the Pluralistic Theory of Sovereignty ?
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) Jean Bodin
(C) MacIver
(D) Otto Von Gierke
Ans : (D)
101. Identify the correct chronological sequence of the following political philosophers.
(A) Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau and Montesquieu
(B) Hobbes, Rousseau, Montesquieu and Locke
(C) Locke, Hobbes, Montesquieu and Rousseau
(D) Hobbes, Locke, Montesquieu and Rousseau
Ans : (D)
102. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : According to Monists, the sovereignty is supreme, absolute and unlimited.
Reason (R) : In every full­fledged or independent state, there is an ultimate authority, an authority from which
there is no appeal.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
103. Who defined sovereignty as the supreme authority which is independent of any other earthly authority ?
(A) Kelsen
(B) Willoughby
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Bentham
Ans : (C)
104. The form of oath of office for a Minister for the Union in India is enshrined in—
(A) First Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(B) Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(C) Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(D) Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
Ans : (C)
105. Match List­I with List­II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
List­I (Author)
(a) Robert Nozick
(b) D. L. Hobman
(c) Titmuss
(d) Alexander Entreaves
List­II (Book)
1. Essay on Welfare State
2. The Welfare State
3. Anarchy, State and Utopia
4. The Notion of the State
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (B)
106. Who among the following thinkers made the statement that, “Covenant without sword are but words and of
no strength to secure men at all.” ?
(A) Pufendorf
(B) Hobbes
(C) Locke
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (B)
107. Which theory advocates only ‘night watchman role’ of the State ?
(A) Welfare State Theory
(B) Liberal Theory
(C) Socialist Theory
(D) Idealist Theory
Ans : (B)
108. Who has said that a welfare state is “a state that provides for its citizens a wide range of social services” ?
(A) G.D.H. Cole
(B) H. J. Laski
(C) Abraham
(D) T. W. Kent
Ans : (D)
109. Who among the following has maintained that the modern liberal democratic state has become an industrial
state ?
(A) Galbraith
(B) MacPherson
(C) Keynes
(D) Roosevelt
Ans : (B)
110. Which one of the following ideologies aims at the spiritualisation of Politics ?
(A) Marxism
(B) Socialism
(C) Sarvodaya
(D) Pluralism
Ans : (C)
111. The term ‘Socialism’ was first used by—
(A) Robert Owen
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Lenin
(D) Bernstein
Ans : (A)
112. Which of the following thinkers is associated with Evolutionary Socialism ?
(A) Lenin
(B) Gramsci
(C) Bernstien
(D) Engels
Ans : (C)
113. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In
the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The ‘positive libralism’ assigns certain functions to the state to perform.
Reason (R) : It assigns state to promote the ‘social welfare’ of the society as a whole.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
114. The best exposition of Liberal concept of nature and functions of the state is found in the writings of—
(A) John Locke
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Bernard Bosanquet
(D) Norman Angel
Ans : (A)
115. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
(A) A welfare state has to be a socialist state
(B) A capitalist state can also be a welfare state
(C) A socialist state can be a liberal state
(D) A liberal state must control means of production
Ans : (B)
116. Regarding the functions of the state, who among the following has used the phrase, “to hinder the
hindrances” ?
(A) Mill
(B) Green
(C) Hobbes
(D) Hegel
Ans : (B)
117. Which theory holds that, “the right of the personality is the most important right of the man” ?
(A) The Theory of Natural Rights
(B) The Legal Theory of Rights
(C) The Historical Theory of Rights
(D) The Idealistic Theory of Rights
Ans : (D)
118. Hobbes gives individual the right to disobey the sovereign for—
(A) Self preservation
(B) Protection of Freedom
(C) Removing oppression
(D) Removing injustice
Ans : (A)
119. The credit for advocating the legal theory of right goes to—
(A) Austin
(B) Locke
(C) Barker
(D) Laski
Ans : (A)
120. Who has remarked that, “All restraint qua restraints is an evil … leaving people to themselves is always
better than controlling them” ?
(A) Green
(B) Mill
(C) Barker
(D) Popper
Ans : (B)