SAT/ACT
®*
® **
Combo Sample Test
with Answers & Explanations
For more information on Kaplan’s College Admissions Programs,
go to www.kaptest.com/college or call 1-800-KAP-TEST.
*SAT is a registered trademark of the College Entrance Examination Board, which was not involved in the production of, and does not endorse, this product.
**ACT is a registered trademark of ACT, Inc.
Copyright ©2006 Kaplan, Inc.
All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by photostat, microfilm,
xerography, or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mechanical,
without the written permission of Kaplan, Inc.
Welcome to Kaplan’s SAT/ACT Combo Practice Test. Congratulations on taking this important
step toward gaining admission to the college of your choice. As you know, colleges use your
scores on tests like the SAT and ACT to make admission decisions. This practice test combines
representative parts of the SAT and the ACT. Your results will give you a sense of how you might
do on the actual tests.
Keep in mind that a full SAT is 3 hours and 45 minutes and a full ACT (with essay) is 3 hours and
25 minutes. This Combo Test sampler will take 90 minutes. At the end, we’ll guide you on how to
score your answers to calculate a percentage on each section.
Here’s what we did:
SAT
ACT
Actual Tests
Our Combo Test
1 Essay Prompt
Section 1: 1 Essay Prompt
1 35-question Writing Section
1 14-question Writing Section
Section 2: 10-question Writing Section
1 18-question Math Section
1 20-question Math Section
1 16-question Math Section
Section 3: 10-question Math Section
2 24-question Critical Reading Sections
1 19-question Critical Reading Section
Section 4: 10-question Critical Reading
Section
1 Experimental Section
None
1 75-question English Test
Section 5: 10-question English Test
1 60-question Math Test
Section 6: 10-question Math Test
1 40-question Reading Test
Section 7: 10-question Reading Test
1 40-question Science Test
Section 8: 10-question Science Test
1 30-minute Writing Test (Essay)
Section 1: 1 Prompt Essay
Before you begin—when to guess:
On the SAT:
• Each correct answer increases your raw score by 1 point.
• Each incorrect answer decreases your raw score by a fraction of a point (except for Grid-Ins).
1.
B
C
D
E
–
1
4
2.
B
C
D
E
–
3.
B
C
D
E
–
4.
B
C
D
E
–
1
4
1
4
1
4
5.
B
C
D
E
+1
If you guess randomly, the points you lose for incorrect answers will likely cancel out the points
you get for correct answers. However, if you can eliminate at least one wrong answer, your odds
of guessing correctly increase.
Bottom line: On the SAT, if you can eliminate at least one answer choice, it is in your best
interest to guess.
On the ACT:
• Each correct answer increases your raw score by 1 point.
• Incorrect answers do NOT decrease your raw score.
Bottom line: On the ACT, you should never leave an answer choice blank.
SECTION
1.
2
2.
3.
4.
# right in
Section 2
5.
6.
7.
8.
# wrong in
Section 2
9.
10.
SECTION
1.
3
2.
# right in
Section 3
# 1-4
3.
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# wrong in
Section 3
# 1-4
# right in
Section 3
# 5-10
8.
9.
SECTION
1.
4
2.
10.
3.
4.
5.
# right in
Section 4
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
# wrong in
Section 4
SECTION
1.
5
2.
3.
# right in
Section 5
4.
5.
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7.
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10.
SECTION
1.
6
2.
3.
# right in
Section 6
4.
5.
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10.
SECTION
1.
7
2.
3.
# right in
Section 7
4.
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10.
SECTION
1.
8
2.
3.
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9.
10.
# right in
Section 8
Section 1
1
ESSAY
Time—25 minutes
The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take
care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely.
Your essay must be written on the lined pages in this test booklet—on Test Day you will receive no other paper on which to
write. You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable
size. On the actual SAT, people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so
that what you are writing is legible to those readers.
Give yourself twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below. DO NOT WRITE ON ANOTHER TOPIC.
ON TEST DAY, AN OFF-TOPIC ESSAY WILL RECEIVE A SCORE OF ZERO.
Think carefully about the issue presented in the following quotation and the assignment below.
I would feel more optimistic about a bright future for man if he spent less time proving that he can outwit Nature
and more time tasting her sweetness and respecting her seniority.
E. B. White
Assignment: Does human progress depend upon a respect and appreciation for nature? Plan and write an essay in
which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from
your reading, studies, experiences, or observations.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
1
STOP
Section 2
Time—7
Minutes
Time—25
Minutes
10
Questions
Questions
2 2
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among
the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. Part of each sentence or the entire sentence
is underlined; beneath each sentence are five ways of phrasing the underlined material. Choice A repeats the original
phrasing; the other four choices are different. If you think the original phrasing produces a better sentence than any of
the alternatives, select choice A; if not, select one of the other choices.
In making your selection, follow the requirements of standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar,
choice of words, sentence construction, and punctuation. Your selection should result in the most effective
sentence—clear and precise—without awkwardness or ambiguity.
ANSWER:
EXAMPLE:
A
B
C
D
E
Every apple in the baskets are ripe and labeled according to the date it was picked.
(A) are ripe and labeled according to the date it was picked
(B) is ripe and labeled according to the date it was picked
(C) are ripe and labeled according to the date they were picked
(D) is ripe and labeled according to the date they were picked
(E) are ripe and labeled as to the date it was picked
1
3
Despite lackluster sales figures, each of the company’s
executives were rewarded with bonuses and stock
options because the stock kept rising.
(A) were rewarded with bonuses and stock options
because the stock kept
(B) was rewarded with bonuses and stock options
because the stock kept
(C) was rewarded with bonuses and stock options;
because the stock kept
(D) were rewarded with bonuses and stock options, the
stock kept
(E) was rewarded with bonuses and stock options; the
stock was keeping
2
(A) Desert, serving as an important trading post for
salt caravans crossing the continent
(B) Desert, serves as an important trading post for salt
caravans crossing the continent
(C) Desert, its importance for salt caravans crossing
the continent as a trading post
(D) Desert, and it served as an important trading post
for salt caravans crossing the continent
(E) Desert, serving as an important trading post, which
it served for salt caravans that crossed the
continent
Since the art exhibit opens on Tuesday and will run for
one week only, we had decided to order our tickets
well in advance.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Timbuktu, a Malian city that marks the western edge of
the Sahara Desert, serving as an important trading post
for salt caravans crossing the continent.
4
we had decided to order our tickets
we, having decided to order our tickets
we decided to order our tickets
we decide to order our tickets
we were deciding to order our tickets
One way students can raise their grade in English is
because of having written a feature article for the
school paper.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
because of having written
when they write
through their writing of
by their writing of
by writing
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2
Section 2
5
2 2
Herbert Hoover, like his predecessor Calvin Coolidge,
favored laissez-faire economic policies in response to
market shifts.
(A) Herbert Hoover, like his predecessor Calvin
Coolidge, favored laissez-faire economic
policies in response to market shifts.
(B) Herbert Hoover was like his predecessor Calvin
Coolidge in that he was known to be in favor of
laissez-faire economic policies in response to
market shifts.
(C) Herbert Hoover, like his predecessor Calvin
Coolidge, favored the same laissez-faire
economic policies that Coolidge did in response
to market shifts.
(D) Herbert Hoover’s preference, like that of his
predecessor Calvin Coolidge, was toward
laissez-faire economic policies in response to
market shifts.
(E) Much like his predecessor Calvin Coolidge,
favoring laissez-faire economic policies was the
response of Herbert Hoover to market shifts.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
3
Section 2
2 2
The following sentences test your ability to recognize grammar and usage errors. Each sentence contains either a single error
or no error at all. No sentence contains more than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. If the sentence contains an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. If the sentence is
correct, select choice E. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English.
EXAMPLE:
ANSWER:
Whenever one is driving late at night, you must take extra precautions against
A
B
C
falling asleep at the wheel. No error
D
E
A
B
C
D
E
6 According to a recent survey, residents of India
A
consume more tea than any other country. No error
B
C
D
E
7 Even after he achieves stardom, Bruce Springsteen
A
B
would occasionally surprise fans with unannounced
C
D
concerts in Asbury Park, NJ. No error
E
8 Niccolo Machiavelli’s The Discourses is considered by
A
statesmen and stateswomen as being the seminal work
B
concerning the need for the comprehensive study of
C
D
politics. No error
E
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
4
Section 2
2 2
Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an essay. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten.
Read the passage and select the best answer for each question that follows. Some questions are about particular sentences or
parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. Other questions ask you to consider organization
and development. In choosing answers, follow the conventions of standard written English.
9
Questions 9–10 are based on the following passage.
(1) The pianoforte, or piano, is one of the most
versatile musical instruments in the world. (2)
Surprisingly, when it was invented by Bartolomeo
Cristofori in the early eighteenth century, it did not
achieve immediate popularity. (3) Cristofori created
the piano to combine the robust sound of the
harpsichord with the dynamic control of the
clavichord. (4) However, this remained the dominant
keyboard instrument until Johann Sebastian Bach
began to champion the piano in 1750. (5)
Manufacturers then adapted the piano to produce ever
louder tones. (6) So that composers could make better
use of the piano’s unique trait: its ability to play both
piano (softly) and forte (loudly). (7) Soon the piano
had many devotees, including Mozart and Haydn, who
wrote sonatas and concerti to show off the piano’s
distinctive capabilities.
In context, which is the best way to deal with sentence
4 (reproduced below)?
However, this remained the dominant keyboard
instrument until Johann Sebastian Bach began to
champion the piano in 1750.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Delete it.
Switch it with sentence 3.
Change “However,” to “Even though.”
Change “this” to “the harpsichord.”
Change “began” to “begun.”
10 Which of the following is the best version of the
underlined portion of sentences 5 and 6 (reproduced
below)?
Manufacturers then adapted the piano to produce ever
louder tones. So that composers could make better use
of the piano’s unique trait: its ability to play both
piano (softly) and forte (loudly).
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
tones, because composers could use
tones; and composers could make better use of
tones, allowing composers to better use
tones to make better use for composers of
tones, and composers could make better use of
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
5
STOP
Section 3
3 3 3
Directions: This section contains two types of questions. You have 14 minutes to complete
both types. For questions 1–4, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices
given. Fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. You may use any available space
for scratchwork.
Time—14 Minutes
10 Questions
1. Calculator use is permitted.
Notes
2. All numbers used are real numbers.
3. Figures are provided for some problems. All figures are drawn to scale and lie in a plane UNLESS otherwise
indicated.
Reference Information
4. Unless otherwise specified, the domain of any function f is assumed to be the set of all real numbers x for
which f(x) is a real number.
1
c
a
h
b
1
A = bh
2
b
c2 = a2 + b2
2x
60˚
x s 45˚
2
s
r
r
30˚
3
x
45˚
s
Special Right Triangles
h
A = π r2
C = 2π r
V = π r2h
h
w
w
V = wh
A = w
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
A straight angle has a degree measure of 180.
Which of the following could be the value of y if
4y – 7y + 6y = 27 ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2
d°
e°
–9
–2
1
6
9
50°
c° a°
b°
110°
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
Which of the angles a°, b°, c°, d°, and e°, shown in the
figure above, is the greatest?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
a°
b°
c°
d°
e°
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
6
Section 3
3
3 3 3
If 5 is the average (arithmetic mean) of 3 and r, and 9
is the average of 7 and s, then what is the average of r
and s ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
5
7
9
15
23
y
1
O 1
4
x
Which of the following equations describes the graph
above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
y = 4 – x2
y = 4 + x2
y = (4 – x)2
y = (4 + x)2
y = –4x2
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7
Section 3
3 3 3
Directions: For Student-Produced Response questions 5–10, use the grids on the answer sheet page.
Each of the remaining 6 questions requires you to solve the problem and enter your answer by marking the ovals in the special
grid, as shown in the examples below. You may use any available space for scratchwork.
Answer: 1.25 or
or 5/4
Fraction
line
Write answer
in boxes.
Decimal
point
You may start your answers in any column,
space permitting. Columns not needed
should be left blank.
Grid in
result.
• Decimal Accuracy: Decimal answers must be entered
as accurately as possible. For example, if you obtain an
answer such as 0.1666. . ., you should record the result
as .166 or .167. Less accurate values such as .16 or
.17 are not acceptable.
• It is recommended, though not required, that you write
your answer in the boxes at the top of the columns.
However, you will receive credit only for darkening
the ovals correctly.
• Grid only one answer to a question, even though some
problems have more than one correct answer.
Acceptable ways to grid
= .1666. . .
• Darken no more than one oval in a column.
• No answers are negative.
• Mixed numbers cannot be gridded. For example: the
1
number 1 must be gridded as 1.25 or 5/4.
4
(If
11
is gridded, it will be interpreted as ,
4
1
not 1 )
4
5
6
Tom took 20 books out of the library in 1990, and 45
books out of the library in 1991. In 1990, Mary took 30
books out of the library. The next year the number of
books she took out increased by three times as much as
the number of books Tom took out did. How many
books did Mary take out in 1991 ?
(7 – 2)k + x
If = 3x, where x is equal to 5, what is the
3
value of k ?
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8
Section 3
3 3 3
9
Select an even
number, k.
If k is prime,
add 5.
If k is not prime,
add 3.
Divide the result
by 3.
7
Divide the result
by 3.
In the flowchart above, if the number k chosen in the
first step is 4, what number will be the result of the
third step?
10 The variables x and y represent numbers for which the
y
statements x – y > 500 and x = 0.375 are true. What is
the smallest integer that x can equal?
Q
T
10
14
S
P
8
The square root of a positive number is the same as the
original number divided by 35. What is the number?
18
U
R
In the figure above, ∆PQR and ∆STU are similar. If the
length of side P
R
is 42, what is the length of side P
Q
?
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
9
STOP
Section 4
Time—25
11 Minutes
10 Questions
1
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among
the choices given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
Because Roberta had not ------- her company through
the usual legal pathways, the Internal Revenue Service
considered her firm’s tax-exempt status to be a ------matter.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2
4 4 4 4
determined . . confirmed
verified . . contradictory
established . . disputable
undermined . . adverse
quantified . . specialized
The Legion of Honor is a chivalrous order founded by
the Emperor Napoleon Bonaparte and now ------deserving citizens of France by the president of the
nation.
(A) conscripted to (B) consigned to
(C) redeemed for (D) conferred upon
(E) divested of
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10
Section 4
4 4 4 4
The passages below are followed by questions based on their content; questions following a pair of related passages may
also be based on the relationship between the paired passages. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied
in the passages and in any introductory material that may be provided.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
3
Questions 3–4 are based on the following passage.
Questions 5–10 are based on the following passages.
The Bermuda Triangle is a 440,000-square mile
area of ocean bordered by Florida, Bermuda, and
Puerto Rico. Several ships and airplanes, including a
fleet of five U.S. bombers, have disappeared when
traveling through this triangle. Some blame a magnetic
field for the disappearances, maintaining that magnetic
forces cause fluctuations in compasses, and cause
pilots and captains to veer off course unwittingly. A
second explanation blames violent air currents for the
missing crafts; strong wind storms, this theory holds,
destroy the ships and sweep the wreckage away from
the scene, never to be found. Still others believe there
is a more sinister explanation for the disappearances,
claiming that an unknown force mysteriously
“kidnaps” the vessels. By this theory, the ships remain
trapped in the Triangle, never to return.
The significant extension of the human lifespan has
become a distinct possibility in light of recent medical
advances. This possibility goes beyond simply curing
common fatal diseases such as cancer or heart disease;
we may soon be able to extend our actual maximum
lifespan from its current limit of around 120 years, to
130 years, 140 years, or even beyond. Each of the
passages below discusses the potential benefits and
disadvantages of this possible extension.
Passage 1
Line
(5)
The author uses quotation marks around the word
“kidnaps” (line 15) in order to
(A) suggest that this is the theory with which the
author agrees
(B) emphasize the mysterious nature of this
explanation
(C) show that the word is being used figuratively
(D) compare this explanation to the wind current
theory
(E) lend credibility to the explanation by implying a
reference to another document
4
(10)
(15)
The explanation in lines 12–15 differs most significantly
from the others in that it
(20)
(A) pertains only to airplanes
(B) refers to a process that occurs in other parts of the
world
(C) is more widely accepted than the other theories
(D) is concerned with preventing future
disappearances
(E) does not refer to a scientific phenomenon
(25)
(30)
Extending the maximum human lifespan would
create serious societal and economic issues for an
already overpopulated world. Not only would it worsen
the already pressing problem of overpopulation, but it
would render the task of caring for an increasingly
elderly population nearly impossible. A huge part of our
nation’s budget, as well as equally large portions of the
budgets of most of the other nations in the world, is
devoted to providing medical care, prescription drugs,
and even physical assistance to the elderly. In fact,
many countries have recently cut their budgets for
senior health care because they already cannot afford it.
We can only imagine how much more it would cost if
everyone lived an additional 10 or 20 years.
The extension of the human lifespan also has the
possibility of expanding the current gulf between the
wealthy and poor into an unbridgeable chasm. One must
expect that when these life-extending treatments are
made available to the general public, they will be
extremely expensive and therefore only available to
people with the highest incomes. If the wealthy—who
already have a longer average lifespan than the poor—
have 10 or 20 more years to accumulate wealth, the gap
between the richest and poorest people in the world will
only widen.
Since extending the human lifespan has become a
distinct possibility, many scientists have repeatedly
reassured the public that extending the maximum
human lifespan would also extend the healthy lifespan
of humans, allowing us to work and stay healthy longer,
and would therefore cause no additional burden on the
health care systems of the world. They also claim that
many of the treatments currently being researched could
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
11
Section 4
(35)
4 4 4 4
5
be made available to all who wanted them. However,
this optimism may not be warranted. It still stands to
reason that a treatment as powerful and desirable as
one that extends the human lifespan could not possibly
reach all those who would desire to use it.
(A) the development of life-extending treatments
raises difficult ethical questions
(B) research into life-extending treatments should not
be continued
(C) life-extending treatments, when developed, should
be distributed free to everyone
(D) life-extending treatments will never actually be
produced because they are too complex
(E) the government should pass a law defining the
legality of life-extending treatments
Passage 2
(40)
(45)
(50)
(55)
(60)
(65)
(70)
(75)
The authors of both passages agree that
In light of all the opposition from the scientific
community and even the general public to the
possibility of extending the human lifespan, it would
be easy to assume that all research pertaining to the
subject should be immediately discontinued. However,
is the goal of extending human life necessarily a bad
one? We have already been extending the average
length of our lives by curing or diminishing many of
the diseases, such as measles or smallpox, that used to
kill many people early in life. I doubt many people
would argue that we should not have developed the
vaccines that prevent people from contracting those
diseases.
One common argument against the development of
life-extending therapies is that these treatments would
be only available to a relatively minute portion of the
population. While there are many difficult ethical
issues associated with expensive medical treatment, we
cannot simply quit researching a potential treatment
because of the costs associated with it. Many of our
current treatments for diseases such as cancer were
once extremely expensive but are now used all over the
world for effective treatment. In some cases, it takes a
long time for a particular treatment to become widely
available, but that doesn’t mean that it shouldn’t be
developed.
But even if it is ethical to develop life-extending
treatments, can the economies of the world even afford
them? If many people were living 10 or 20 years
longer than they currently do, would we have enough
money to pay for all of the costs associated with all of
these additional years of life? Until this point in
history, societies have always found ways to pay for
the expense created by new scientific discoveries.
Often, these discoveries come with benefits that help to
offset the cost; the same may be true with extending
human lives. If extending the maximum human
lifespan is something that many people desire, the
potential cost should not discourage us from pursuing
this goal.
6
The author of Passage 1 includes the statement “who
already…the poor” (lines 21–22) to emphasize that
(A) it is necessary that wealthy people live longer than
poor people
(B) extending the human lifespan will only widen the
gap in the distribution of wealth
(C) wealthy people need to give more money to
charity
(D) life-extending treatments will enable everyone to
have longer lives
(E) the cost of developing life-extending treatments
should be paid by wealthy people
7
In line 27, “distinct” most nearly means
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
8
separate
different
likely
remote
pleasing
The purpose of the sentence in lines 45–48 (“We
have…in life”) is to argue that
(A) dangerous diseases must be cured before science
should work to extend the human lifespan
(B) vaccines for potentially fatal diseases should not
be developed
(C) life-extending treatments, if developed, could take
the place of traditional vaccines
(D) the development of life-extending therapies may
cause people to be more susceptible to common
diseases
(E) developing life-extending treatments is similar to
curing fatal diseases
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
12
Section 4
9
4 4 4 4
In the questions at the beginning of the last paragraph
of Passage 2 (lines 65–70) the author suggests that
(A) the development of life-extending treatments will
be impossible due to their enormous costs
(B) the potential costs of extending the human lifespan
will not present a problem
(C) wealthy people will be the only ones who can
afford to pay for life–extending treatments
(D) the cost to society of life–extending treatments is a
larger problem than the cost to each individual
(E) more scientists are needed to work on the
development of life-extending treatments
10 Both authors agree that life-extending therapies
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
need to be regulated by governments
should not be researched
would initially be extremely expensive
have the potential to improve the quality of life
should be given free to all people
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
13
STOP
Section 5
5 5 5 5 5
ENGLISH TEST
6 Minutes — 10 Questions
the entire passage. For these questions, decide which choice
gives the most appropriate response to the given question.
For each question in the test, select the best choice, and
fill in the corresponding space on your answer sheet. You
may wish to read each passage through before you begin
to answer the questions associated with it. Most answers
cannot be determined without reading several sentences
around the phrases in question. Make sure to read far
enough ahead each time you choose an alternative.
Directions: In the following passage, certain words and
phrases have been underlined and numbered. You will
find alternatives for each underlined portion in the righthand column. Select the one that best expresses the idea,
that makes the statement acceptable in standard written
English, or that is phrased most consistently with the style
and tone of the entire passage. If you feel that the original
version is best, select “NO CHANGE.” You will also find
questions asking about a section of the passage or about
Passage I
Henrik Ibsen
The plays of Henrik Ibsen are generally thought to have
marked the origin and the beginning of modern drama.
1
1.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.
A. NO CHANGE
B. In his native Norway, Ibsen spent many years there
as a resident playwright,
C. As a resident playwright in his native Norway,
D. Ibsen spent many years as a resident playwright in
his native Norway,
3.
A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
therefore,
in fact,
however,
in 1862, seemed to foreshadow the prose plays he wrote in
4
the future. In it, he presents a non-idealized version of
4.
A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
writes
would have written
would write
marriage; a point of view which was quite uncommon for the
5
times.
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
marriage—a
marriage a
marriage. A
His having been a resident playwright in his native Norway,
2
Ibsen spent many years there, so perhaps it was natural that
2
his early plays, including The Vikings at Helgeland and The
Pretenders, were based on Norwegian history. Before he left
the Norwegian theater, meanwhile, his dramatic themes
3
began to change, and he began to explore the inner lives of
those whose personal philosophies were with convention at
NO CHANGE
original beginning
beginning origin
beginning
odds. One of his early verse plays, Love’s Comedy, written
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
14
Section 5
5 5 5 5 5
[1] Even today, Ibsen heroines are favorites of
actresses who find their strength and lack of convention
challenging to portray. [2] These plays reflect Ibsen’s interest
in the individual’s search for an authentic identity within the
strictures of society and are remarkable for their strong,
independent female lead characters. [3] Ibsen is best known
for the plays he wrote between 1877 and 1890, these include
6
A Doll’s House, Ghosts, and Hedda Gabler. [4] The most
6.
A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
these plays include
including
included
7.
A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
one movie critic, likening it to
which one critic likened to
who one critic likened to
children, was changed. 8
8.
Which of the following sequences of sentences makes
this paragraph most logical?
A. NO CHANGE
B. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5, 6
C. 3, 2, 4, 6, 5, 1
D. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6
In the years that were the later ones of Ibsen’s career, his
9
plays became more symbolic, and his characters turned their
9.
A.
B.
C.
D.
controversial of these was A Doll’s House,
one movie critic likened it to “dropping a bomb into
7
contemporary life.” [5] Ibsen reluctantly wrote an alternative
ending for the play, but the burgeoning feminist movement
took the original Nora as a spokeswoman for its cause. [6]
Some theaters actually refused to produce the play unless the
ending, in which Nora Helmer leaves her husband and
questions from society to their inner selves. Such works as
NO CHANGE
years that were later in
later of the years in
later years of
The Master Builder and When We Dead Awaken are thought
to reflect his own regret at having devoted his life to his
work, to the exclusion of close personal relationships.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
15
Section 5
5 5 5 5 5
Question 10 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.
10. Suppose the writer had been assigned to write an essay
on the development of modern drama. Would this essay
fulfill that assignment?
A. No, because it only discusses one playwright.
B. No, because Ibsen’s work preceded the
development of modern drama.
C. Yes, because Ibsen’s works are thought to mark the
beginning of modern drama.
D. Yes, because a number of Ibsen’s plays are
discussed.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
16
STOP
NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE
Section 6
6 6 6 6 6 6
MATHEMATICS TEST
10 Minutes—10 Questions
Note: Unless otherwise noted, all of the following should
be assumed.
Directions: Solve each of the following problems, select
the correct answer, and then fill in the corresponding
space on your answer sheet.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Don’t linger over problems that are too time-consuming. Do as many as you can, then come back to the others
in the time you have remaining.
Illustrative figures are not necessarily drawn to scale.
All geometric figures lie in a plane.
The term line indicates a straight line.
The term average indicates arithmetic mean.
The use of a calculator is permitted on this test. Though
you are allowed to use your calculator to solve any
questions you choose, some of the questions may be
most easily answered without the use of a calculator.
1.
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
Simone has $6.00 to spend on soda and lemonade. Soda
costs $1.00 per 2-liter bottle and lemonade costs $1.50
per 2-liter bottle. Which of the following could be the
number of bottles of lemonade she purchased if she used
all the money?
I. 0
II. 2
III. 3
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
I only
II only
I and II only
I and III only
I, II, and III
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
18
Section 6
2.
6 6 6 6 6 6
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
Last month, a clothing store sold a total of $48,000 of
merchandise. The pie chart below shows how much each
clothing category contributed to the total sales. In
dollars, what were the combined total sales of jeans and
khakis last month?
Accessories
5%
Sweaters
15%
Shirts
25%
Jeans
30%
Khakis
25%
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
3.
$7,000
$14,400
$21,600
$24,000
$26,400
Sides A
O
and D
O
of square AODE lie on the diagonals
of square ABCD, as shown below. If the area of square
ABCD is 64 square inches, what is the area of square
AODE, in square inches?
E
D
A
O
B
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
C
8
16
32
42
50.5
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
19
Section 6
4.
6 6 6 6 6 6
The sum of the measures of ∠X and ∠Y is 90° and the
sum of the measures of ∠Y and ∠Z is 90°. Which of the
following must be true about ∠X and ∠Z ?
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
∠X and ∠Z are congruent.
∠X and ∠Z form a right angle.
∠X and ∠Z form a straight line.
The degree measure of ∠X is less than the degree
measure of ∠Z.
E. The degree measure of ∠X is greater than the
degree measure of ∠Z.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
If the lines l and m, shown below, are parallel, which of
the following must be true?
l
d°
a°
e° b°
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
6.
c° f °
m
b° = d°
c° = d°
d° = e°
a° + f° = 180°
d° + e° = 180°
At 9 A.M. on Monday, a researcher measured the mass of
a sample of a certain radioactive element to be 1 gram.
The half-life of this element, or the time it takes for half
of a sample to decay, is known to be 4 hours. What does
the researcher expect the mass of the sample, in grams,
to be at 9 A.M. on Tuesday?
1
A. 64
1
B. 32
1
C. 9
1
D. 8
1
E. 2
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
20
Section 6
7.
D
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
In the figure below, D, E, F, G, H, and J are collinear
points. Point H bisects G
J. The sum of the lengths of
3
EF
and GH
is 15. The length of F
G
is the length of
4
H
J. If the length of D
E
is half the length of FG
, and the
length of DE
is 3, how long is EJ ?
F
E
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
8.
6 6 6 6 6 6
G
H
J
16
23
26.5
29
32
If you rolled a die, the probability of getting a 1 would
1
be . If you rolled a die 3 times, what would be the
6
probability of getting a 1 all 3 times?
1
A. 1,296
1
B.
216
1
C.
18
1
D.
6
1
E.
2
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
21
Section 6
6 6 6 6 6 6
9.
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
For a science fair project, Tristan took measurements of
the weight of his pet mouse as it grew from infancy to
adulthood. He found that the mouse’s weight increased
rapidly during its first few weeks of life, then increased
more slowly as the mouse approached adulthood. Which
of the following graphs could represent the relationship
Tristan found between time (t) and the mouse’s weight
(w) ?
A.
w
t
B.
w
t
C.
w
t
D.
w
t
E.
w
t
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
22
Section 6
6 6 6 6 6 6
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
10. Salma, Luis, and Veronica are siblings. Salma is half as
old as Veronica, and Veronica is 3 years younger than
Luis. If Luis is L years old, what is the sum of the three
children’s ages?
5
9
A. L – 2
2
5
3
B. L – 2
2
C. 2L – 3
1
9
D. L – 2
2
1
3
E. L – 2
2
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
23
STOP
Section 7
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
READING TEST
9 Minutes— 10 Questions
Directions: This test contains a passage followed by several questions.
After reading the passage, select the best answer to each question and
fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet. You are allowed to
refer to the passage while answering the questions.
Passage I
In no village in the Andes are the textiles more
40 ancient, more beautiful, or more valued than in Coroma,
HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the article
“Indians Win Back Sacred Art” by John Anner, which appeared
in The Progressive in January, 1993. Reprinted by permission
from The Progressive, www.progressive.org, 409 E Main St,
Madison, WI 53703.
Bolivia. Since before Columbus landed in the Americas,
the people of Coroma have hidden away their sacred
weavings, bringing them out only on November 1st, the
Day of the Dead, when the garments are ritually displayed
45 in an all-day celebration of the connection between the
world of the living and the universe of the deceased.
Unfortunately for the Coromans, the unsurpassed quality
and antiquity of their weavings make them highly valuable
on international markets—a fact that did not escape deal50 ers in South American art and antiquities.
“The spirits of our ancestors were lonely, and they
called to us,” is how Pio Cruz, an Amyra Indian from
Bolivia, explained his community's search for their
sacred ceremonial weavings. Cruz and his fellow vil5 lagers from the little town of Coroma, nestled high in the
Bolivian Andes, accomplished a rare feat in November.
After four years of struggle, they managed to recover the
sacred art they had lost to the North American art market.
According to Cristina Bubba, a social scientist who
has lived and worked in Coroma for more than ten years,
some of these dealers took advantage of the November
1st celebration to photograph the best weavings. Then
55 they took the photographs to Bolivian intermediaries,
instructing them to obtain the garments. Over the course
of five or six years, at least 200 of the finest and most precious weavings left Coroma for the United States, to make
their way onto the walls of collectors wealthy enough to
60 pay tens of thousands of dollars for each one. Several of the
Bolivian intermediaries have since been convicted of theft
and imprisoned, along with some of the Coromans who
were entrusted with the weavings’ care.
At the outset, the task seemed hopeless. How could
10 an impoverished village of 6,000 inhabitants—most of
whom do not speak Spanish, never mind English—hope
to force wealthy art collectors and dealers in the United
States to hand over goods for which they had paid high
prices? The Coromans managed to catalyze a network of
15 lawyers, anthropologists, Native American activists, U.S.
Customs officials, and the Bolivian government, to pressure the dealers and collectors into returning the weavings.
“It was an amazing case,” says Michael Ratner, a
lawyer at the Center for Constitutional Rights who
20 helped the Coromans get the weavings back. “I really
have to hand it to them. That they were able to do this
makes you believe that there really is another dimension,
a spirit world.” Indeed, the Coromans themselves say that
their achievement was due to the intervention of the
25 ancestral spirits who reside in the weavings and from the
help they got from Native spirits in North America.
Under the 1983 Cultural Property Implementation
65 Act, the United States Information Agency has the power
to declare that articles from a particular country or culture
cannot be legally imported into the United States. This ban
has to be requested by the country of origin before it can
take effect (a stipulation added after intense lobbying by
70 art dealers).
Currently there is a five-year ban on the importation
of Coroma textiles, which have been recognized as being
owned communally by the Indians and of “important historic, religious, and social significance in their daily lives,”
75 according to the USIA.
High in the Andean mountains of Bolivia, expert
Amyra weavers once produced woven garments with
vibrant colors and the texture of silk for the Inca nobles.
30 The Incas are long gone but, remarkably, some of the
weavings in use at that time remain. These ancient garments are worshipped in many parts of
the Andes; they are not only consulted as oracles and
venerated as encoding the history of the people, but are
35 believed to contain the souls of the ancestors. Carefully
preserved in bundles called q’epis, the weavings survived
the Spanish conquest and the brutal anti-Indian policies
of many Bolivian goverments.
But the ban was not yet in effect when many of the
Coroma weavings left Bolivia, so the Coroma Indians
negotiated a settlement to get back some, but not all, of
their weavings.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
24
Section 7
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
80
High-society collectors were jolted into handing
over a small number of the weavings when they
realized they might have to endure vociferous public
protests on the part of Native American activists. A San
Francisco art dealer was persuaded to turn over forty85 three weavings after Customs raided his home and warehouse.
“I hope this shows Native people that they can win,”
says Susan Lobo, a cultural anthropologist who played a
key role in the fight. “And I hope it sends a message to
90 collectors that it is wrong to buy items of veneration,
especially those in use by living cultures.”
5.
According to the passage, the Coroman’s weavings
were first produced:
A. before the Spanish conquest.
B. after Columbus landed in the Americas.
C. immediately before the formation of the Cultural
Property Implementation Act.
D. after the disappearance of the Incan people.
6.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the
Coroman weavings?
A. Their colors were often subdued and earthy.
B. They are usually kept hidden away.
C. They are among the most valuable textiles in the
region.
D. They are still used in the Coroman culture.
7.
The phrase “High-society collectors were jolted into
handing over a small number of the weavings” (lines
80–81) implies that:
A. the collectors did not realize the value of the weavings.
B. the collectors were pressured to return some of the
weavings.
C. physical punishment was used to force the collectors to return the weavings.
D. the weavings had such an emotional impact on the
collectors that they returned them.
8.
The passage suggests that the struggle to return the
Coromans’ weavings has proven to be:
A. a disappointing example of legal failings.
B. encouraging to art collectors interested in the work
of native peoples.
C. largely successful, but still incomplete.
D. a useful lesson to cultural anthropologists.
9.
The passage suggests that the Coromans believe that
their weavings were returned primarily because of:
A. the harsh stance that the Bolivian government has
taken against art exportation.
B. the diligent work of lawyers and activists.
C. the agency of spirits embodied within the weavings
themselves.
D. the efforts of the United States Information
Agency.
Meanwhile, in Coroma, “the people are very happy,”
says Bubba. “This thing in Coroma is the start of something new; it is going to open a new road.”
1.
The passage indicates that thze Amyra Indian’s weavings were once produced for which group of people?
A. Bolivian intermediaries
B. the villagers of Coroma
C. Inca nobles
D. Andean artisans
2.
In the first paragraph, the author attributes the success
of the attempt at retrieving Coroman weavings to the
assistance of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. ancestral and native spirits.
B. lawyers from the Center for Constitutional Rights.
C. Native American activists.
D. U.S. Customs officials.
3.
4.
As it is used in line 14, the word catalyze most nearly
means:
A. oppose a group of
B. increase the rate of
C. elicit the support of
D. systematically analyze
It is reasonable to infer that the weavings are valuable
to the Coromans primarily because:
A. they are used during the Day of the Dead celebration.
B. international collectors are willing to pay high
prices to obtain them.
C. they represent their ancestors’ struggles against the
anti-Indian Bolivian government.
D. they have a great degree of spiritual and cultural
significance.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
25
Section 7
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
10. The passage suggests that the Coromans’ weavings are:
I. made of a type of Bolivian cotton with
a silky texture.
II. the remnants of Incan ceremonial garb.
III. ancient artifacts once made by Amrya
Indians.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
26
STOP
NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE
Section 8
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
SCIENCE TEST
9 Minutes—10 Questions
Directions: This test contains two passages, each
followed by several questions. After reading each
passage, select the best answer to each question and
fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet.
You may refer to the passages while answering the
questions. You may NOT use a calculator on this test.
Passage I
Table 2
Zoologists hypothesized that the feeding habits of young
mice are affected by 3 factors: gender, ambient temperature,
and the proximity of other mice. To investigate 2 of these factors, the zoologists performed studies using a collection of
environmentally controlled and structurally identical enclosures (E1–E7). To eliminate the influence of gender, the zoologists used only male mice.
Average
Mouse
Average body length
Food
Enclosure population
weight gain increase
abundance
density
(g)
(mm)
E4
E5
E6
E7
Study 1
Enclosure E1 was maintained at 15°C, E2 at 25°C, and
E3 at 35°C, and each enclosure contained the same number of
male mice. The mice in E1 consumed the most food of the 3
groups during the study, while those in E3 consumed the
least.
Study 2
To measure the effects of changing temperatures, the
temperatures in enclosures E1 and E2 were varied between
15°C and 35°C over the course of a week. At all times during
the week, the temperatures of the 2 enclosures were equal to
each other. The mass of food, measured in grams (g), consumed by the mice in each enclosure each day appears in
Table 1.
Table 1
Enclosure
E1
E2
Mass of food (g) consumed
Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 Day 5 Day 6 Day 7
52
50
35
36
68
69
40
38
51
52
48
47
47
48
high
high
low
low
low
high
low
high
0.2
0.7
0.8
1.5
2
4
5
9
1.
According to Study 3, which of the following factors
results in mice with the largest average weight gain?
A. High population density and low food abundance
B. High population density and high food abundance
C. Low population density and low food abundance
D. Low population density and high food abundance
2.
The zoologists next tested an eighth enclosure and found
the average mouse body length increase to be 11 mm
after 7 days. According to this information and the results
of Studies 1, 2, and 3, which of the following conclusions
is most valid about the conditions in this enclosure?
A. Population density was low, food abundance was
high, and the temperature was above 25°C.
B. Population density was low, food abundance was
high, and the temperature was below 25°C.
C. Population density was high, food abundance was
low, and the temperature was above 25°C.
D. Population density was high, food abundance was
low, and the temperature was below 25°C.
Study 3
The population density of mice and the food abundance
were varied in enclosures E4–E7, which were all maintained
at 25°C. After 7 days, measurements of average mouse weight
gain (measured in grams) and increase in body length, measured
in millimeters (mm), were recorded and appear in Table 2.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
28
Section 8
3.
Which of the following most accurately reflects a
conclusion that can be drawn from the results of Studies
1 and 2 ?
A. Temperature has no effect on the feeding habits of
young mice.
B. The temperature in both enclosures during Day 2 of
Study 2 was closer to 15°C than the temperature on
any other day.
C. The temperature in both enclosures during Day 3 of
Study 2 was closer to 35°C than the temperature on
any other day.
D. The temperature in both enclosures during Day 3 of
Study 2 was closer to 15°C than the temperature on
any other day.
4.
Assume that wild mice live in a location where drought
has caused food abundance to fall significantly below
average for a season. Which of the following would be
the most likely effect on young male mice at this location
during this season?
A. Rate of weight gain would be above average.
B. Rate of weight gain would be below average.
C. Rate of body length increase would be above
average.
D. Rate of body length increase would be
approximately average.
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
5.
Zoologists observed a population of male mice for which
the average rate of mouse weight gain increased as food
abundance decreased. Which of the following
explanations would best account for this result and be
consistent with the results of Studies 1, 2, and 3 ?
A. The mouse population density was high.
B. The ambient temperature was higher than 35°C.
C. The mouse population density decreased as the food
abundance decreased.
D. The mouse population density increased as the food
abundance decreased.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
29
Section 8
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Passage II
Table 2
resistivity (Ω • cm)
Resistivity is a measure of how efficiently an electric
current passes through a material. In general, the resistivity
of a semiconductor decreases when some of the atoms of its
crystal lattice are replaced by atoms of a different element.
The dopant atoms (those introduced to the semiconductor
crystal) are classified into two categories, p-type and n-type.
Figure 1 shows the relationship between resistivity, measured in ohm-centimeters (Ω·cm), and dopant concentration,
measured in atoms per cubic centimeter (atoms/cm3), for silicon (Si, a semiconductor) at room temperature.
104
103
102
101
100
10–1
10–2
10–3
Dopant information
Concentration Temperature Mobility
Trial
Element Type
(K)
(cm2/V/s)
(atoms/cm3)
3
4
5
6
7
8
8.
Which of the following hypotheses about Si dopants at
room temperature is most strongly supported by the
results shown in Figure 1?
A. Si resistivity is higher for p-type dopants than for ntype dopants at a given dopant concentration.
B. Si resistivity is higher for n-type dopants than for ptype dopants at a given dopant concentration.
C. The higher the resistivity, the higher the electron
mobility.
D. The higher the resistivity, the lower the electron
mobility.
Figure 1
1
2
Dopant information
Concentration Si resistivity
Element Type
(Ω.cm)
(atoms/cm3)
Ga
As
p
n
8 x 1016
2 x 1015
0.3
2.7
13,400
5,200
1,300
5,300
2,900
900
Assume a scientist wishes to determine whether dopant
concentration affects Si electron mobility. Which of the
following pairs of trials in Table 2 should the scientist
compare?
A. Trials 3 and 4
B. Trials 4 and 6
C. Trials 5 and 6
D. Trials 5 and 8
Adapted from the Ioffe Physico-Technical Institute’s Electronic
Archive of New Semiconductor Materials; Characteristics and
Properties (http://www.ioffe.ru/SVA/NSM)
Trial
50
100
300
50
100
300
7.
concentration N (atoms/cm3)
Table 1
1.8 x 1016
1.8 x 1016
1.8 x 1016
1.3 x 1017
1.3 x 1017
1.3 x 1017
A comparison of Trials 3 and 4 suggests that which of
the following factors affects Si electron mobility?
A. Dopant type
B. Dopant concentration
C. Temperature
D. Resistivity
p
Room-temperature values for the resistivity of Si for two
specific dopants, gallium (Ga) and arsenide (As), are shown
in Table 1.
n
n
n
n
n
n
6.
n
10–4 12
10 1013 1014 1015 1016 1017 1018 1019 1020 1021
As
As
As
P
P
P
Mobility is a measure of the ability of an individual electron to move through a semiconductor, and it is closely related to resistivity and dopant concentration. Table 2 shows
values of Si electron mobility, measured in square centimeters per Volt per second (cm2/V/s), for arsenide and phosphorous (P) dopants, at different temperatures, measured in
Kelvin (K), and dopant concentrations.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
30
Section 8
9.
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Indium (In) acts as a p-type dopant in Si. According to
Figure 1 and Table 1, an In concentration of 8 × 1016
atoms/cm3 would yield a Si resistivity of approximately:
A. 0.1 Ω·cm.
B. 0.3 Ω·cm.
C. 2.7 Ω·cm.
D. larger than 2.7 Ω·cm.
10. Based on Table 2, approximately what would be the Si
electron mobility for a phosphorous dopant
concentration of 1.3 × 1017 at a temperature of 75 K?
A. 900 cm2/V/s
B. 2,900 cm2/V/s
C. 4,100 cm2/V/s
D. 5,300 cm2/V/s
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
31
STOP
SCORING YOUR TEST
SAT: On Test Day, for each section (Critical Reading, Math, and Writing), your score will
range from 200-800. Your total score is the sum of these three and can range from 600-2400.
ACT: On Test Day, for each Test (English, Math, Reading, and Science), your score will range
from 1-36. Your combined score is the average of these four, and also ranges from 1-36.
Your performance on the quizzes in this test is only a rough guide to your abilities and skills
and is in no way meant to predict your actual Test Day performance.
Step 1: Score Your SAT Essay
Self-score your essay using the following criteria. On the actual SAT, the essay accounts for
approximately 25% of your Writing scaled score.
6 Outstanding—Though it may have a few small errors, the essay is well organized and fully
developed with supporting examples. It displays consistent language facility, varied sentence
structure, and varied vocabulary.
5 Solid—Though it has occasional errors or lapses in quality, the essay is generally
organized and well developed with appropriate examples. It displays language facility,
syntactic variety, and varied vocabulary.
4 Adequate—Though it has some flaws, the essay is organized and adequately developed
and has some examples. It displays adequate but inconsistent language facility.
3 Limited—The essay does not adequately fulfill the writing assignment and has many flaws.
It has inadequate organization and development, along with many errors in grammar or
diction (or both). In general, the essay lacks variety.
2 Flawed—The essay demonstrates incompetence with one or more weaknesses. Ideas are
vague and thinly developed. It contains frequent errors in grammar and diction and almost no
variety.
1 Deficient—The essay demonstrates incompetence with serious flaws. It has no organization,
no development, and severe grammar and diction errors. The essay is so seriously flawed that
its basic meaning is obscured.
0 Off-Topic—The essay does not follow the assignment.
How did you rate your essay? If you did not get as high a score on the essay as you would
like and need, don’t worry-Kaplan has designed a writing course to help you correctly answer
grammar questions and write a strong essay under extreme time pressure.
Step 2: Compute Your Percent Correct
SAT: Check your answers against the Answers and Explanations on the preceding pages.
Count up the number of answers you got right and the number you got wrong for each section,
then enter your results in the table on the next page. Remember, do not count questions left
blank as wrong. Note: Grid-in questions do not have a wrong-answer penalty, so do not deduct
anything for wrong answers.
ACT: Check your answers against the Answers and Explanations on the preceding pages.
Count the number of answers you got right and enter your results in the table on the next page.
SAT
Section 2
Writing
ACT
Section 5
English
# Right
= % Correct
# Right
–1/4 # Wrong
= % Correct
_____
Section 3
Math
–1/4 • _____
= _____ • 10 = _____%
= _____ • 10 = _____% _____
Section 6
Math
# M-C Right
(Questions 1-4)
–1/4 # M-C
Wrong
_____
–1/4 • _____ + _____
+ # Grid
Ins Right
= % Correct
= _____ • 10 = _____% _____
Section 4
Critical Reading
# Right
_____
# Right
= % Correct
(Questions 5-10)
= _____ • 10 = _____%
Section 7
Reading
–1/4 # Wrong
–1/4 • _____
= % Correct
# Right
= _____ • 10 = _____% _____
= % Correct
= _____ • 10 = _____%
Section 8
Science
# Right
= % Correct
_____
= _____ • 10 = _____%
Step 3: Compare your Results
Compare your SAT Writing and ACT English scores. While these two tests are not identical
(SAT has three question types and ACT has one), you will get a sense whether you do much
better on one than the other. Count the number wrong you got on the SAT. Is this lowering
your score? Learning some Kaplan elimination strategies will help reduce the number of
wrong answers you have on Test Day.
Now compare your SAT Math and ACT Math. There are three main differences between these
two tests: the SAT has a wrong answer penalty, the SAT contains Grid-Ins, and the ACT
contains trigonometry questions. Compare your two % correct scores. Is one much higher than
the other? In Kaplan classes, we will teach you our proven math strategies, such as Picking
Numbers and Backsolving, to help you get the best possible math score on either test.
Now compare your SAT Critical Reading and ACT Reading scores. There are three main
differences between these two tests: the SAT contains both short and long passages whereas
the ACT has only long passages, the SAT includes sentence completion questions, and the
SAT has a wrong answer penalty. Compare your two % correct scores. Is your SAT score
much higher? Maybe you’re acing the sentence completions because of your great vocabulary.
Is your ACT score higher? Maybe the SAT wrong answer penalty is dragging you down. In
Kaplan classes, our carefully chosen teachers teach our proven methods and strategies to
raise your SAT Critical Reading and ACT Reading scores. We will also offer you a vast array of
resources, from practice tests to flashcards to online activities that will help improve your skills.
Now look at your Science score. No comparison here: Science is not tested on the SAT. If you
do well with science and scientific reasoning, then consider the ACT.
Explanations
Section 1 (SAT Writing—Essay)
section one
Grade 6 Essay
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
36
As humans, we can sometimes have an antagonistic relationship with the natural world. On
too many occasions, we look at nature as something that must be overcome or improved upon. We
have the tools and knowledge to alter our own environment, but we often do not have the foresight to
see how those alterations might affect the natural world in the long run. In order to avoid damaging or
even destroying the natural world, we must be cautious and thoughtful about the way we interact with
and use our natural resources.
Over the past ten years or so, there has been much discussion about pollution and global
warming. Most scientific evidence shows that air pollutants produced in mass quantities by humans
have been having a cumulative effect on the atmosphere. Air pollution has damaged the ozone layer, so
more sunlight reaches the Earth’s surface. The net effect of this is that the Earth’s average temperature is slowly increasing because of the irresponsible way humans have allowed pollution to increase.
Effects of global warming include raised sea levels (which can wipe out coastal areas), changing weather patterns (which can effect crop production), and warmer oceans (which contributes to the strength
of tropical storms and hurricanes). Thus, by not respecting the delicate balance of the Earth’s atmosphere, we have harmed ourselves.
Pollution is not the only area in which it becomes apparent that we must have respect for the
natural world. Through years of study, environmentalists have found that ecosystems have very delicate balances. Changing any part of the ecosystem can cause disastrous changes that are magnified
throughout the ecosystem. A famous example of this occurred in Australia. Originally, the country did
not have any rabbits. But some people imported a small group of rabbits that was released into the
countryside. Within a few years, the rabbit population was out of control. There was no natural predator of rabbits in Australia, so there was nothing to keep the population in check. As the rabbits reproduced exponentially, they ruined endless acres of vegetation by overgrazing; in addition, some other
native species were wiped out. To this day, Australia has a serious problem controlling the rabbit population. A workable and longterm solution has not been achieved in over 100 years of dealing with the
problem. If people had had more respect for the natural system, they might have thought that introducing a new species could cause serious problems.
All of this is not to suggest that we should step back from scientific and technological
advancements and allow ourselves to be at the mercy of nature’s whims. Instead, we must have
respect for the power of nature and always remember that we are a part of the natural world. We
must act responsibly as we progress and examine the potential effects of our advancement before we
put things into motion. Indeed, we must respect the natural world in the way that is suggested by the
often-used title Mother Earth.
Grader’s Comments: This essay provides a clear, direct answer to the prompt question, and
each paragraph provides support for this answer.
The essay is well organized, with an introduction, body paragraphs, and conclusion,
indicating that the writer took adequate time formulating a plan. Strong transitions are used to
connect ideas between and within paragraphs, making the essay flow smoothly.
The two body paragraphs present specific details to support the writer’s position. In
addition, the reasoning in the conclusion shows a fair amount of critical thought.
The writer exhibits strong vocabulary—such as “foresight,” “cumulative,” and “exponentially”—throughout the essay. In addition, the writer successfully uses a variety of sentence
structures. Although there are a few minor errors, none of the errors affects readability.
Human progress cannot happen without our respect for the natural world. No matter how
far we advance in science and technology we won’t be able to change the rules of the natural world.
This includes weather, earthquakes, and other natural disasters. How we treat the natural world will
have a lot to do with how much progress the human race can make for the next generations.
To start with, there is no way that people can stop the weather. An example of this are hurricanes. Over the past few years there has been a lot of hurricanes that have caused serious damage and killed people. They have the technology to track the storms and evacuate people ahead of
time, but they don’t have anything that can stop or move a hurricane. And even when we do know a
hurricane is coming it can be impossible to evacuate everyone in time. That’s what happened in New
Orleans with Katrina, and that storm left damage that will take years for them to recover from. So
no matter how advanced we are, mother nature always can be more powerful than us. That’s one reason that we need to respect the natural world. That means things like protecting wetlands and the
rainforest and thinking about the way we use resources.
We also need to respect the world because we need it to survive. The oxygen we breathe
comes from plants and trees, and the food that we eat comes from the earth. If we destroy to
many trees and forests then the quality of our air decreases. The quality of the soil affects the
quality of the food. So if there are pollutions in the soil, those pollutions get into the food that we
eat and make people sick. We’ve got aways to go with technology before we aren’t depending on the
quality of the earth’s soil, water, and air for our health and survival.
Finally, any kind of scientific progress needs to rely on the rules of the natural world. For
example the rules of gravity are a part of the equation of how planes and rockets fly. That’s just one
natural rule that we need to respect and work with. The whole human set of chromosomes was
recently mapped out. They will probably be able to make lots of cures for diseases based on this
knowledge but they must respect the genetic structure of humans. It would get too out of hand if
scientists started messing around with human genes, like with cloning or taking genes from other
animals.
All in all, there is no way to escape from the fact that humans have to respect nature. It is
something that in the end we can’t control. We can just find ways to work with or work around
nature, not conquer it. We should think of nature as our partner instead of like an enemy we need to
outwit
Grader’s Comments: The essay addresses the question in the prompt and generally
remains focused on this issue. The introduction and conclusion employ keywords from the
prompt. Organization in the essay is good, with a clear introduction, body paragraphs, and
conclusion, indicating a well-thought-out plan. Simple transitions are used to connect the
ideas between paragraphs.
Each body paragraph presents sound reasoning in support of the writer’s position,
with somewhat detailed examples.
In general, the writer uses simple words and sentence structures. There are several
distracting errors, including mistakes in subject–verb agreement and pronoun use. In addition, some language (such as “messing around with”) is too slangy for a formal essay.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
37
section one
Grade 4 Essay
section one
Grade 1 Essay
When I was in eighth grade (I think) we read a great story called To Build A Fire, it was about
this guy who was out hiking in the wilderness. I think he was a part of the gold rush. It was the dead of
winter and he was all by himself but he kept on going and going through the snow. He could of stopped
at any time to build a camp and a fire where he could safely spend the night, have something to eat,
and make the part of his trip the next morning, but he didn’t stop. He ignored all of the warning signs
of cold and tired because he was so stubborn. He wanted to get to his place that night. I think to get
money or make a deal or something. So by the time he finally stops and tries to make a fire because
he realizes he can’t make it there that night it’s too late. He can’t get the fire going because his fingers are so numb from the cold. He doesn’t have the energy left to keep walking so he dies from the
cold.
This story has always stuck with me. The man in the story should of listened to what his
instinct was telling him instead of to his pride. He should of stopped and build a fire much earlier. So
everybody could learn a lot from this story about how to respect nature more and why it’s important.
Grader’s Comments: This essay only partially addresses the prompt question, discussing
the need for humans to respect nature but failing to discuss how this is related to human
progress. The essay focuses more on a plot summary of the short story than on a response
to the question posed in the assignment.
Though the essay has a conclusion, there is no introduction to help the reader connect the summary of the story to the question in the Prompt. The essay provides several
details about the short story, but these details act mostly as plot summary instead of as support for the author’s position.
Although the errors in the essay do not obscure the writer’s meaning, several errors
are distracting (including run–on sentences, verb tense shifts, and the incorrect constructions
“could of” and “should of”).
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
38
1.
B
Strategic Advice: Don’t mistake the object of a preposition for the subject of a
verb.
Getting to the Answer: This is a common test maker trap. While the plural
“executives” is closer to the verb here, its subject is actually the singular “each.” (B),
(C), and (E) all change the verb to the singular “was,” but (C) misuses the
semicolon splice, which is only correct when used to combine independent clauses,
and (E) creates a grammatically incorrect sentence.
(D) does not address the error; additionally, it creates a run-on sentence.
2.
C
Strategic Advice: The past perfect verb tense is only correct to refer to an action
completed prior to another stated past action.
Getting to the Answer: Since this sentence does not mention an action completed
prior to the decision to order the tickets, the simple past tense “decided” is correct.
(B) creates a sentence fragment.
(D) and (E) introduce verb tenses that are inappropriate in context.
3.
B
Strategic Advice: The –ing verb form can never be the predicate verb in a
sentence.
Getting to the Answer: The sentence as written is a fragment. (B) adds the
necessary predicate verb.
(C) and (E) do not address the error.
(D) creates a grammatically incorrect sentence.
4.
E
Strategic Advice: The shortest answer choice will not always be correct, but it’s a
good place to start.
Getting to the Answer: All of the choices here but (E) are unnecessarily wordy.
5.
A
Strategic Advice: If all of the answer choices are longer than the original, make
sure any additions are necessary for logic or grammatical correctness.
Getting to the Answer: This sentence is correct as written. All of the other choices
are unnecessarily wordy.
6.
D
Strategic Advice: When a sentence presents a comparison, make sure that logical
items are being compared.
Getting to the Answer: As written, this sentence compares “residents of India” to
“any other country.” (D) should read “residents of any other country” or “those of any
other country.”
(A) is correct idiomatic usage.
(B) agrees with its plural subject, “residents.”
(C) correctly completes the idiomatic comparison “more…than.”
7.
B
Strategic Advice: Make sure verb tenses logically sequence events in a sentence.
Getting to the Answer: We know that this sentence is describing the past because
of the opening phrase; the present tense verb in (B) should be “achieved” or “had
achieved.”
(A) and (D) are correct idiomatic usage.
(C) properly uses an adverb to modify a verb phrase.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
39
section two
Section 2 (SAT Writing)
section two
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
40
8.
B
Strategic Advice: The verb form “considered” in this context requires the infinitive.
Getting to the Answer: (B) should read “to be.”
(A) agrees with its singular subject; although the title is plural, only one book is
mentioned.
(C) and (D) are idiomatically correct in contest.
9.
D
Strategic Advice: If a pronoun could logically refer to more than one antecedent
noun, the pronoun is ambiguous.
Getting to the Answer: Here, “this” could refer to “the harpsichord,” “the
clavichord,” or “the piano,” all of which are mentioned in the previous sentence.
Changing “this” to “the harpsichord” eliminates the ambiguity. None of the other
answer choices addresses the ambiguity error; additionally, switching sentences 3
and 4 interrupts the chronological flow of the essay; changing “However,” to “Even
though” creates a sentence fragment; and the verb form suggested in (E) is
incorrect without a helping verb.
10.
C
Strategic Advice: A “sentence” may have multiple nouns and verbs and still be a
fragment.
Getting to the Answer: Sentence 6, as written, is actually a fragment. (C)
combines the sentences to both eliminate the sentence fragment and properly
relate the two ideas.
(A) reverses the cause-and-effect relationship between the two sentences.
(B) misuses the semicolon splice, which is only correct when used to combine two
independent clauses.
(D) is awkward.
(E) loses the cause-and-effect relationship present in the original sentences.
1.
E
Strategic Advice: The first step in solving an equation is to get all the terms with
the variable on one side. Sometimes that’s already been done for you.
Getting to the Answer: Combine like terms and solve for the variable.
4y – 7y + 6y = 27
3y = 27
y=9
2.
E
Strategic Advice: Whenever you see intersecting lines, look for vertical and
supplementary angles.
Getting to the Answer: Find the measure of each angle marked in the figure.
The angles marked b° and 110° form a straight line, so they are supplementary and
b = 180 – 110 = 70.
The measure of angle a° can be found from the triangle in the figure: a + b + 50 =
180, so a = 180 – b – 50 = 180 – 70 – 50 = 60.
Angles a° and c° are supplementary, so c = 180 – a = 180 – 60 = 120.
Angles d° and 50° are vertical, so d = 50.
Angles e° and 50° are supplementary, so e = 180 – 50 = 130.
Therefore, angle e° is the greatest of these five angles.
3.
C
Strategic Advice: Whenever you see an average, you’ll need the three-part formula
sum of terms
average = . If you know any two parts of the three-part formula,
number of terms
you can find the third.
Getting to the Answer: First, solve for r:
3+r
5 = 2
10 = 3 + r
7=r
Next, solve for s:
7+s
9 = 2
18 = 7 + s
11 = s
Finally, find the average of r and s:
7 + 11
= 9
2
4.
A
Strategic Advice: When you need to match a graph on the coordinate plane with
an equation, test the equations by plugging in (x, y) points from the graph.
Getting to the Answer: Eliminate the equations that are not satisfied by the
coordinates of the points on the graph. Start with points that are easy to work with,
like (0, 4). For x = 0:
(A) y = 4 – 02 = 4. Keep it.
(B) y = 4 + 02 = 4. Keep it.
(C) y = (4 – 0)2 = 42 = 16 ≠ 4. Eliminate.
(D) y = (4 + 0)2 = 42 = 16 ≠ 4. Eliminate.
(E) y = –4(02) = 0 ≠ 4. Eliminate.
To choose between (A) and (B), consider the point (2, 0). For x = 2:
(A) y = 4 – 22 = 4 – 4 = 0. Keep it.
(B) y = 4 + 22 = 4 + 4 = 8. Eliminate.
The only answer choice that works for all the points on the graph is (A).
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
41
section three
Section 3 (SAT Math)
section three
5.
105
Strategic Advice: To avoid confusion, make sure you work systematically when you
translate a word problem from English to math.
Getting to the Answer: In 1990, Tom took out 20 books, and in 1991 he took out
45 books, so the number of books he took out increased by 25 from one year to the
next. The increase in the number of books Mary took out is three times that, or 25 ×
3 = 75. In 1990 Mary took out 30 books, so in 1991 she took out 30 + 75 = 105
books.
6.
7.
8.
8
Strategic Advice: Work methodically and follow PEMDAS.
Getting to the Answer: Begin by simplifying the expression in parentheses and
substituting 5 for x. Then, do the same thing to both sides of the equation until you
have isolated k.
(7 – 2)k + x
= 3x
3
5k + 5
= 15
3
5k + 5 = 45
5k = 40
k=8
7
2.33 or 3
Strategic Advice: A prime number has only itself and 1 as factors. The only even
prime number is 2.
Getting to the Answer: The number 4 is not a prime number, so follow the right
branch of the flowchart and add 3 to it to obtain 7. Dividing this value by 3 gives you
7
≈ 2.33.
3
98
or 32.6 or 32.7
3 Strategic Advice: In similar triangles, the ratios of the lengths of corresponding
sides are equal.
Getting to the Answer: Triangles ∆PQR and ∆STU are similar, so the measures of
their corresponding angles are equal. Since the figure is drawn to scale, you can tell
corresponds to PR
that ∠STU = ∠PQR and ∠SUT = ∠PRQ. You can tell that SU
and S
T
corresponds to P
Q
. The ratios of the lengths of these sides are equal.
SU
ST
= PR PQ
18
14
= 42 PQ
18PQ = 14(42)
18PQ = 588
588 98
≈ 32.7
PQ = = = 32.6
18
3
9.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
42
1225
Strategic Advice: This question is difficult because it expresses an equation in
English. Simply translate methodically from English into math, and then solve the
resulting equation.
Getting to the Answer: Translating the problem into math, you get:
x
x = .
35
Because x > 0, you can square both sides:
x2
x = .
1,225
1,225x = x2
Since you know x is not equal to zero, you can divide both sides by x:
1,225 = x.
Combo Test
43
801
Strategic Advice: When you have two unknowns, try to get one in terms of the
other to simplify the situation.
Getting to the Answer: Solve the equation for y in terms of x.
y
= 0.375
x
y = 0.375x
Substitute this value into the inequality and simplify.
x – y > 500
x – 0.375x > 500
0.625x > 500
x > 800
The least possible integer value of x is 801.
section three
10.
SAT/ACT
Section 4 (SAT Critical Reading)
C
Strategic Advice: Keywords and sentence structure point out cause-and-effect in
the sentence. Ask yourself how the blanks play out this relationship.
Getting to the Answer: Roberta did not go through the normal method of creating
her company, so the I.R.S. might consider her tax status a debatable matter.
(A) Determined does not make sense for the first blank, and confirmed is the
opposite of your prediction.
(B) Verified might work for the first blank, but contradictory doesn’t adequately
describe a debatable matter.
(C) This is correct; established works in context, and disputable nicely matches your
prediction.
(D) These words both have very negative meanings that do not make sense in the
sentence.
(E) While quantified might seem to go along with your prediction, a specialized
matter doesn’t necessarily relate to Roberta’s avoiding the usual legal pathways.
contradictory: opposing
disputable: questionable; debatable
undermined: damaged; destabilized
2.
D
Strategic Advice: Keywords can often provide a strong sense of charge for the
missing word.
Getting to the Answer: Your prediction should account for the positive charges of
“chivalrous” and “deserving.” Napoleon founded the Legion, and citizens today
receive it by having it bestowed upon them by the President.
(A) Don’t be misled by fancy vocabulary; it would not make sense to say the honor
is conscripted to citizens.
(B) Consigned does not have the correct connotation for this sentence.
(C) Redeemed for applies to turning something in, not earning or obtaining it.
(D) Conferred upon correctly describes how an honor is given to a recipient.
(E) Divested is opposite your prediction; you are looking for a word that describes
reward, not removal.
conscripted: drafted; compulsorily enrolled in military service
consigned: entrusted; given over to the care of another
conferred: bestowed; invested with
divested: deprived of rights or property; sold off
section four
1.
Bermuda Triangle
3.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
44
C
Strategic Advice: Remember that quotation marks can be used for dramatic and
rhetorical effect. Keep in mind the author’s overall purpose and perspective.
Getting to the Answer: The author is referring to the actions of an “unknown
force,” so you know “kidnap” isn’t to be taken literally. Quotation marks emphasize
this.
(A) Out of Scope; the author does not take a side on the issue.
(B) Misused Detail; the passage does describe the disappearances as “mysterious,”
but the quotation marks don’t relate directly to this description.
(C) This is correct; the quotation marks indicate a non-literal meaning for the word
that describes the mystery theory.
(D) Out of Scope/Distortion; the author doesn’t intend to compare the theories, and
this particular use of quotation marks wouldn’t relate this explanation to any of the
others.
(E) Distortion; the author never credits one explanation as more valid than any
other, and never suggests that the passage directly references any outside sources.
4.
E
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
45
Strategic Advice: Questions that ask you to compare details will often phrase
answer choices in more general language than does the passage itself. Elimination
can be a useful strategy if prediction proves difficult.
Getting to the Answer: Compare the three theories. The first refers to a magnetic
field that causes navigation equipment to malfunction. The second attributes the
losses to violent air currents. The third offers only that the disappearances are a
mystery; predict that the significant difference is the third theory’s lack of a scientific
or logical underpinning.
(A) Distortion; this part of the passage also mentions “vessels” and “ships.”
(B) Out of Scope; the author never mentions other parts of the world.
(C) Out of Scope; the author never states that either theory is more widely
accepted.
(D) Out of Scope; the passage does not discuss prevention.
(E) Correct; this matches your prediction and demonstrates the non-scientific nature
of the theory.
5.
A
Strategic Advice: Questions that ask for a point of agreement between two
passages are usually asking for a broad point, so looking back at your notes should
be research enough as you make a prediction.
Getting to the Answer: The two authors disagree on most points; however, they
both agree that extending the human lifespan could bring about several difficult
situations.
(A) This is correct; both authors discuss ethical questions surrounding the extension
of human life.
(B) Out of Scope; neither author calls for research to be discontinued; both simply
discuss its potential.
(C) Extreme; the first author has a problem with the potential cost of the treatments,
but does not go so far as to call for their free distribution.
(D) Out of Scope; neither author ever claims they will not be produced; on the
contrary, they both operate on the assumption that they will be.
(E) Out of Scope; neither author discusses government regulation of potential
treatments.
6.
B
Strategic Advice: Questions that ask about the purpose of a statement are often
asking how that statement reinforces a point the author is making, so refer back to
your notes to help you predict an answer.
Getting to the Answer: The statement quoted in the question reinforces the main
point of the second paragraph: life-extending treatments will increase the gap
between the wealthy and the poor. Look for the answer choice that best represents
this.
(A) Distortion; the author thinks that the difference in average lifespan would be a
negative consequence of its increase, certainly not a necessity.
(B) Matches your prediction almost word-for-word.
(C) Out of Scope; nowhere does the author mention giving money to charity.
(D) Distortion; the author thinks that the treatments will only be available to the
wealthy.
section four
Extending the Human Lifespan
(E) Out of Scope; the author never discusses who should pay the costs of
development.
C
Strategic Advice: Making a prediction for the meaning of the quoted word will help
you quickly discard wrong answer choices and avoid selecting a common definition
that wouldn’t work in context.
Getting to the Answer: The author says that life-extending treatments have
become a “distinct possibility,” meaning they have become much more immediate or
probable. Look for the answer choice that best matches this prediction.
(A) Distortion; separate is a primary meaning of “distinct” that is not appropriate
here.
(B) Distortion; different is another primary meaning of “distinct” that is not
appropriate here.
(C) This is correct; likely is a close match for immediate or probable; substituting
this back into the passage will confirm this.
(D) Opposite; the treatments have become more, not less, probable.
(E) Out of Scope; the author does not seem pleased about the possibility of these
treatments.
8.
E
Strategic Advice: Whenever a question refers to certain lines from the passage,
reread those lines before making a prediction. Remember that you may need to
research around the cited text to place it properly into context.
Getting to the Answer: The author claims that we have already been extending
the human lifespan, and uses the curing of once-deadly diseases as an example.
The cited sentence, therefore, makes extending the human lifespan seem similar to
something we already approve of. Look for the answer choice that correctly relates
these two concepts.
(A) Distortion; the author does not claim that we must finish curing diseases before
we can research extending our lifespan.
(B) Opposite; the author does believe that we should continue to develop vaccines.
(C) Out of Scope; the author never claims that life-extending treatments will take the
place of vaccines.
(D) Out of Scope; the author never discusses increased susceptibility to diseases.
(E) This is correct; the author compares life-extending treatments to vaccines to
make the former seem more palatable.
9.
D
Strategic Advice: Clues in a question stem, such as the word “suggests,” tell you
that you’ll need to make an inference. Remember not to stray too far from what’s
stated in the passage.
Getting to the Answer: By saying “but even if it is ethical,” the author puts aside
the question of the individual cost of life-extending treatments to discuss a more
pressing one: the cost to society. Which answer choice best reflects this
relationship?
(A) Out of Scope; the author does not think that the development of life-extending
treatments is impossible.
(B) Distortion; the author does believe that the costs will be problematic, but thinks
that this shouldn’t interfere with their development.
(C) Misused Detail; the author does believe this, but this is not what is being
discussed in the cited text.
(D) Correct; the author moves on to discuss societal costs because it is a bigger
problem.
(E) Out of Scope; the author never gives an opinion as to whether there are enough
scientists involved in the research.
section four
7.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
46
C
Strategic Advice: Using your notes can often help you quickly sort through
information and make a more general Detail question like this one much easier.
Getting to the Answer: Both authors agree on very little, but they do both mention
that life-extending therapies would likely be very expensive.
(A) Out of Scope; neither author expresses an opinion on government regulation.
(B) Extreme; the first author might agree with this statement, but the second one
certainly would not.
(C) Correct; both authors agree that therapies would initially cost a lot of money.
(D) Extreme; neither author actually expresses an opinion on the effect on quality of
life; length of life is the main topic of discussion.
(E) Out of Scope; neither author thinks the treatments should be given out for free.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
47
section four
10.
section five
Section 5 (ACT English)
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
48
1.
D
Strategic Advice: Check underlined selections for words with essentially the same
meanings.
Getting to the Answer: “Origin” and “beginning” mean the same thing; D eliminates
the redundancy.
B and C still contain redundant language.
2.
D
Strategic Advice: When a long selection is underlined, choose the clearest
revision.
Getting to the Answer: Of the choices, D is both clearest and most concise.
3.
D
Strategic Advice: Use context clues to find the answers to this type of question.
Getting to the Answer: Since this sentence tells us that Ibsen’s “dramatic themes
began to change,” we can infer that a contrast Connections word is needed. Only D
provides it.
A tells us that Ibsen’s historical themes and his changed ones occurred at the same
time, which is illogical.
B makes Ibsen’s new themes the result of the old ones, which is also illogical.
C denotes emphasis, which is inappropriate here.
4.
D
Strategic Advice: Use context clues to determine proper verb tense usage.
Getting to the Answer: “In the future” is your context clue here; a future tense verb
is needed. D is correct.
A and B are incorrect for an action that will happen in the future.
C indicates that the action discussed didn’t actually happen; we know from context
that this is incorrect.
5.
B
Strategic Advice: On the ACT, a dash will only be correct to indicate hesitation or a
break in thought or to set off explanatory elements within a sentence.
Getting to the Answer: Since “a point of view which was quite uncommon for the
times” explains Ibsen’s “non-idealized version of marriage,” the dash in B is correct.
A incorrectly places a semicolon between an independent and a dependent clause.
C eliminates the punctuation altogether, making the sentence difficult to understand.
The second sentence created by D is a fragment.
6.
C
Strategic Advice: The correct answer choice may not correct a run-on sentence the
way you expect it to.
Getting to the Answer: C makes the second clause subordinate, correcting the
run-on error.
B does not address the error.
D creates a grammatically incorrect sentence.
7.
C
Strategic Advice: Some answer choices will correct the original error but introduce
additional problems.
Getting to the Answer: As written, this sentence is a run-on. Both B and C address
the run-on, but B leaves the meaning of the second clause incomplete.
D does not address the error; additionally, it uses “who” to refer to a play.
C
Strategic Advice: The quickest way to solve a paragraph organization question is to SAT/ACT
Combo Test
first identify a logical topic sentence.
49
Getting to the Answer: A quick scan of the paragraph identifies sentence 3 as the
most logical topic sentence, since the paragraph concerns Ibsen’s best-known plays.
This eliminates A and B. Now identify the most logical concluding sentence for the
paragraph. (Hint: Since only 1 and 6 are possible, those are the only sentences
you’ll need to consider.) Putting sentence 6 last, as D suggests, tells us that Ibsen
rewrote the ending of A Doll’s House before discussing the problem some theaters
had with the play. C provides the most logical order to the sentences.
9.
D
Strategic Advice: If you don’t spot an error in grammar or usage, check for errors in
style.
Getting to the Answer: This selection is unnecessarily wordy. D is more concise,
while retaining all the meaning of the original sentence.
B and C are still unnecessarily wordy.
10.
A
Strategic Advice: Once you determine whether or not the passage satisfies the
conditions in the question stem, you can immediately eliminate two of the four
choices.
Getting to the Answer: This essay would not fulfill an assignment to write about
the development of modern drama because it only mentions a single playwright; A is
correct here.
B correctly indicates that the essay would not fulfill the assignment, but the reasoning contradicts the essay, which tells us that Ibsen’s plays marked the beginning of
modern drama.
C and D incorrectly indicate that the essay would fulfill the assignment.
section five
8.
Section 6 (ACT Math)
C
Strategic Advice: An easy way to solve Roman numeral questions is to use the
answer choices to evaluate each Roman numeral. Remember to start with the
numeral that appears most often in the answer choices.
Getting to the Answer: Set up an equation with s standing for the number of
bottles of soda and l standing for the number of bottles of lemonade. Since Simone
spent exactly $6.00, $1.00s + $1.50l = $6.00. Then plug in each possible value of l
and solve for s, which must be a whole number (since you can’t buy half a bottle of
soda).
I. $1.00s + $1.50(0) = $6.00
$1.00s = $6.00
s=6
Simone could buy 6 bottles of soda and 0 bottles of lemonade. This works, so
eliminate B.
II. $1.00s + $1.50(2) = $6.00
$1.00s + $3.00 = $6.00
$1.00s = $3.00
s=3
Simone could buy 3 bottles of soda and 2 bottles of lemonade. This works, so
eliminate A and D.
III. $1.00s + $1.50(3) = $6.00
$1.00s + $4.50 = $6.00
$1.00s = $1.50
s = 1.5
If Simone bought 3 bottles of lemonade, she would not be able to buy a whole
number of bottles of soda. This does not work, so C is correct.
2.
E
Strategic Advice: Charts and graphs usually contain more information than you
need, so make sure you answer the question that is asked.
Getting to the Answer: Jeans were 30% of the total sales and khakis were 25% of
the total sales, so combined they were 55% of the total sales. 55% of $48,000 is
0.55($48,000) = $26,400.
3.
C
Strategic Advice: Whenever you see multiple shapes in a figure, look for lengths or
angles that are part of more than one shape.
Getting to the Answer: The area of square ABCD is the length of a side squared
AB 2 = 64
AB = 8
The diagonals of a square divide it into two 45–45–90 triangles. The sides of a
, so AC and BD equal AB2
= 82
.
45–45–90 triangle are in the ratio x : x : x2
AC 82
, so AO equals = =
The center of square ABCD, O, is the midpoint of AC
2
2
. The area of square AODE is the length of a side squared, or AO2 = (42
)2 =
42
32.
section six
1.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
50
Another way to solve this problem is to notice that all the small triangles in the
figure are equal: ∆AOB = ∆BOC = ∆COD = ∆AOD = ∆ADE. Square ABCD consists
of 4 small triangles and square AODE consists of 2 small triangles. Therefore, the
64
area of AODE is half of the area of ABCD, or = 32. Thus, C is correct.
2
4.
A
Strategic Advice: Two angles are congruent if and only if their degree measures
are equal.
Getting to the Answer: You are given that ∠X + ∠Y = 90° and ∠Y + ∠Z = 90°.
Thus, ∠X = ∠Z = 90° − ∠Y. Since the measures of ∠X and ∠Z are equal, ∠X and
∠Z are congruent. A is correct.
5.
B
Strategic Advice: Don’t assume too much. Only the corresponding angles between
a transversal and the parallel lines must be equal. Remember, ACT diagrams are
not always drawn to scale.
Getting to the Answer: A, C, and E compare angles that are formed by different
transversals intersecting parallel lines, so these angles don’t have any necessary
relationship. Angle a° is formed by two transversals, so you don’t have any
information about what other angles it might equal. However, angles c° and d° are
both formed by the same transversal intersecting parallel lines, so they must be
equal. B is correct.
6.
A
Strategic Advice: Exponents are a short way to write a number multiplied by itself
several times.
Getting to the Answer: The time it takes for half of the sample to decay is 4 hours.
That means that if the mass of the sample is 1 gram at 9 A.M., then it will be half of
a gram after 4 hours, or at 1 P.M. Since at 9 A.M. on Tuesday 24 hours, or 6 4-hour
periods, will have passed since 9 A.M. on Monday, the mass of the sample at 9 A.M.
1 6
1
on Tuesday will be (1) = grams.
2
64
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
51
7.
D
Strategic Advice: Sometimes you will need to work backwards to find the answer.
Getting to the Answer: Write down what you know from the problem. Start with
the line segment you know the length of (D
E
), and figure out the lengths of other
segments from there.
DE = 3
1
DE = FG
2
2DE = FG
6 = FG
3
FG = HJ
4
4
FG = HJ
3
4
(6) = HJ
3
8 = HJ
H bisects G
J, so HJ = GH = 8
GH + EF = 15
8 + EF = 15
EF = 7
EJ = EF + FG + GH + HJ = 7 + 6 + 8 + 8 = 29
D is the correct answer. E is the length of the entire line segment. Don’t fall into this
trap.
section six
section six
8.
B
Strategic Advice: The probability of a series of independent events is the product
of the probabilities of all the events.
1
Getting to the Answer: Any time you roll a die, the probability of getting a 1 is .
6
Each roll is an independent event, so the probability of getting a 1 3 times if you roll
1 1 1
1
a die 3 times is = .
6 6 6 216
9.
A
Strategic Advice: A steep slope represents a fast rate of change, while a shallow
slope represents a slow rate of change.
Getting to the Answer: Look for a graph with a positive slope over the entire
domain. The slope should be steep when t is small and shallow when t is large. The
only graph that fits this description is A.
10.
A
Strategic Advice: When there are variables in the answer choices, you can pick
numbers to avoid complicated calculations or difficult translations.
Getting to the Answer: Say Luis is 9 years old, so L = 9. Veronica is 3 years
younger than Luis, so Veronica’s age is 9 – 3 = 6. Salma is half Veronica’s age, so
6
Salma’s age is = 3. The sum of the children’s ages is 9 + 6 + 3 = 18. Plug L = 9 into
2
the answer choices and look for one which equals 18.
5
9 45 9 36
A. (9) – = – = = 18
2
2
2
2
2
5
3 45 3 42
B. (9) – = – = = 21
2
2
2
2
2
C. 2(9) – 3 = 18 – 3 = 15
1
9 9 9
D. (9) – = – = 0
2
2 2 2
1
3 9 3 6
E. (9) – = – = = 3
2
2 2 2 2
The only choice that gives a sum of 18 when L = 9 is A.
To solve the problem algebraically, get each child’s age in terms of L. Luis is L years
old, Veronica is 3 years younger than Luis, or L – 3 years old, and Salma is half
L–3
Veronica’s age, or years old. Add the ages and simplify:
2
L – 3 2L 2L 6 L 3 5
9
L + L – 3 + = + – + – = L – .
2
2
2
2 2 2 2
2
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
52
Sacred Coroman Art
1.
C
Strategic Advice: Be sure to predict an answer choice for Detail questions like this
one. That way, you won’t get distracted by the wrong answer choices, which are
sure to include irrelevant details from the passage.
Getting to the Answer: This is a Detail question, so the answer should be directly
stated in the passage. Lines 32–33 state that the weavings were made for Inca
nobles, which matches C.
A Misused Detail; the Bolivian intermediaries are mentioned because they were
involved in the theft of weavings.
B Distortion; the Coromans now keep the weavings, but they were not originally
made for them.
D Out of Scope; although the makers or recipients of the weavings might be Andean
artisans, the passage never mentions them.
2.
A
Strategic Advice: Detail questions can be tricky, because the wrong answer
choices will include details that you will find in the passage. Focus on the relevant
text and use elimination on EXCEPT questions.
Getting to the Answer: Work through the first paragraph, eliminating answer
choices that correspond to citations to those involved in the effort. B, C, and D are
all cited. Only A remains, mentioned extensively throughout the passage but never
in the first paragraph.
3.
C
Strategic Advice: These kinds of questions are excellent opportunities to predict an
answer. Remember, questions like this often test non-standard usages of words, so
don’t be thrown off by what might seem like a standard definition in the answer
choices.
Getting to the Answer: From the context of lines 15–19, you can predict that the
word “catalyze” means hire or recruit. More specifically, the people being recruited
are from various places. This prediction best matches C.
A Opposite; the group was formed to aid in their effort.
B Distortion; this is a common definition for “catalyze” that doesn’t work in context.
D Distortion; this has nothing to do with the context of the question and isn’t a
possible meaning for “catalyze.”
4.
D
Strategic Advice: Inference questions like this one can be difficult, because the
information you need to answer the question can come from anywhere in the
passage. Use your notes to guide your research, and remember to make a strong
prediction before evaluating the answer choices.
Getting to the Answer: The passage indicates in lines 36–38 that the weavings are
consulted as oracles, and that they are thought to encode the history of the people
and contain the souls of ancient ancestors. Predict that the weavings are important
because of their cultural and spiritual significance, which matches D.
A Distortion; this might seem correct, because the weavings are used during this
celebration, but the passage does not suggest that this is the primary reason the
weavings are valuable.
B Distortion; that the collectors are willing to pay for the weavings is not why the
Coromans value them.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
53
section seven
Section 7 (ACT Reading)
section seven
C Distortion; though the passage states that the weavings survived the anti-Indian
Bolivian governments in the past, it does not suggest that this is a reason for their
value to the Coromans.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
54
5.
A
Strategic Advice: The answer to questions like this can be found in the passage,
but you may have to put a few pieces of information together to get to the correct
answer. Determine when the events mentioned in the answer choices happened
relative to the question, and the correct answer will be easy to find.
Getting to the Answer: The passage indicates in line 40 that the weavings survived
the Spanish conquest, so they must have been produced before then. This matches
A perfectly.
B Opposite; the passage indicates that the weavings existed before Columbus landed in the Americas (line 45).
C Opposite; the Cultural Property Implementation Act became law in 1983 (line 70),
and the weavings are much older than that.
D Opposite; the weavings were produced for Inca nobles (lines 32–33), so they must
have been produced before the Incas disappeared.
6.
A
Strategic Advice: You won’t be able to predict an answer on questions like this, so
be sure to pay attention to the specific details of the answer choices. You will be
able to find evidence in the passage to support all of the choices except for one,
which will leave you with the correct answer.
Getting to the Answer: All of the answer choices have supporting evidence from
the passage, except for A. Line 32 states that the colors of the weavings were
vibrant, which directly contradicts A, making it the correct answer choice.
B can be found in lines 45–47.
C is supported by lines 51–53.
D is supported by lines 47–51.
7.
B
Strategic Advice: You won’t able to find the correct answer to an inference question
directly in the passage, but it won’t be far off, either. Look at the context of the
referenced lines and predict an answer.
Getting to the Answer: A good prediction for this question is that the collectors
were made to return the weavings against their will; “jolted” in this context means
that they were pressured. This matches B.
A Out of Scope; the passage does not imply that the collectors were unaware of the
value of the weavings.
C Extreme; “jolted” does not imply physical punishment in this context.
D Distortion; the passage implies that outside influences made the collectors return
the weavings, not that the collectors returned them of their own accord.
8.
C
Strategic Advice: You may have to use evidence from several parts of the passage
to answer inference questions like this one. Be careful to find supporting evidence
for any predictions you make, and you will be certain to get the right answer.
Getting to the Answer: The passage suggests that the return of the weavings has
been a success. Lines 20 and 93–94 support the prediction that this has been successful. Lines 83–85, which says that “some, but not all, of their weavings” have been
returned, suggests that there are more weavings to be returned. This matches C.
A Opposite; the passage only mentions legal successes (lines 15–19), and never
suggests disappointment.
B Out of Scope; there is no evidence suggested that art collectors were encouraged
9.
C
Strategic Advice: Inference questions like this will try to throw you off with details
that come from the passage, but are either distorted or irrelevant to the question. Be
sure you pay attention to specific information from the passage as you make your
prediction.
Getting to the Answer: Many factors dealing with the return of the weavings are
cited in the passage, but lines 1–2 and lines 25–29 state that the Coromans themselves largely credit the ancestral spirits residing in the weavings themselves. This
makes a good prediction and matches C perfectly.
A Distortion; the passage does mention the involvement of the Bolivian government,
but never from the perspective of the Coromans.
B Misused Detail; although the passage suggests that lawyers and activists worked
on this case (lines 16 and 17), there is no evidence to suggest that the Coromans
attribute their work to the return of the weavings.
D Misused Detail; the USIA was involved, but the Coromans never credit this agency
for the return of the weavings.
10.
B
Strategic Advice: Predicting an answer is not an option with questions like this, so
you’ll have to examine the passage carefully for the information to find the correct
answer. Determine which statements have supporting evidence and which ones
don’t, and you’ll be able to pinpoint the right answer choice.
Getting to the Answer: Evaluate the Roman numerals in turn:
I. Distortion; although line 32 mentions that the weavings have “the texture of silk,”
nothing in the passage mentions what type of fabric is used to make the weavings.
II. Out of Scope; there is no mention of the weavings coming from ceremonial garb.
At this point you know that statement III must be true, because the other two are
false, and Roman numeral questions like this always have at least one true statement. The evidence for statement III can be found in the passage in lines 31–32.
Therefore, B must be the correct answer choice.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
55
section seven
by the return of the weavings.
D Out of Scope; though the passage mentions a cultural anthropologist (line 94),
there is no support for the idea that the return of the weavings has been a useful
lesson to anthropologists in general.
section eight
Section 8 (ACT Science)
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
56
1.
D
Strategic Advice: Some questions will simply ask you to extract data directly from a
figure.
Getting to the Answer: Look for the largest number in the “Average weight gain”
column, and find the conditions given in the same row. D is Perfect.
2.
B
Strategic Advice: Think about the results of each study separately before drawing
conclusions.
Getting to the Answer: The average body length increase in this eighth enclosure
exceeds that of any shown in Table 2. Temperature was not varied in Study 3,
though. The results of Study 1 suggest a lower temperature would result in
increased food consumption, making B correct. If this is not obvious, you can notice
that A, C, and D each contain elements that would result in decreased food consumption, making B the only possibility.
3.
D
Strategic Advice: Think about each study separately before integrating their results.
Getting to the Answer: The results of Study 1 suggest that, within the given
temperature range, the mice consume more when subjected to colder temperatures.
Looking at the daily food consumption alone should then be enough to determine
temperatures roughly. The highest food consumption indicates the lowest
temperature, as in D.
4.
B
Strategic Advice: Sometimes you are asked to apply the results of the given
experiment to other situations.
Getting to the Answer: Table 2 suggests that lower food abundance results in
slower growth, as in B.
5.
C
Strategic Advice: Apparent contradictions are usually accounted for by adjusting
one or two variables.
Getting to the Answer: The results of the three studies suggest that rate of weight
gain is affected by temperature, food abundance, and population density, but the
question only mentions a decrease in food abundance. A simultaneous decrease in
temperature and/or a decrease in population density would counteract the effects of
the decreasing food abundance. C is perfect.
6.
C
Strategic Advice: Infer only what MUST follow from the given data.
Getting to the Answer: Temperature is the only variable that differs between Trials
3 and 4, making C the correct choice. The other choices may indicate true relationships, but they are not suggested by Trials 3 and 4.
7.
D
Strategic Advice: Isolate one variable at a time to learn about the effects of each.
Getting to the Answer: Choose the trials with all variables the same except for
dopant concentration. This is the case for D only.
8.
A
Strategic Advice: Take your time with complicated graphs.
Getting to the Answer: While either C or D could be valid statements, neither is
supported by Figure 1. Careful inspection of the graph yields that for any dopant
concentration shown, the p-type values are greater than the n-type values, as in A.
B
Strategic Advice: Be careful to refer to the correct data.
SAT/ACT
Combo Test
Getting to the Answer: Figure 1 suggests that all p-type dopants yield the same
57
resistivity versus concentration relationship for Si. Therefore In would act exactly like
Ga at the same concentration. Once you realize that, you can just read the resistivity
value for Ga directly from Table 1.
10.
C
Strategic Advice: Use trends in the data to interpolate values in between those
given.
Getting to the Answer: 75 K is right in between 50 K and 100 K, the electron
mobilities for which are given in Table 2. Since Table 2 suggests that mobility varies
inversely with temperature, the correct mobility should lie between 2,900 and 5,300
cm2/V/s, as in C.
section eight
9.