PAT
Pass-world Admission Test
The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of three sections.
The total time allotted is 120 minutes.
Section 1:
Section 2:
Section 3:
QUANTITATIVE REASONING [40 questions / 60 minutes]
CRITICAL REASONING [10 questions / 15 minutes]
VERBAL REASONING [50 questions / 45 minutes]
Right answer:
+3 points
Wrong answer: -1 point
No answer:
0 point
SECTION 1: QUANTITATIVE REASONING
Please answer the 40 following questions in 60 minutes
For each question, only one answer is correct.
1
1. Calculus and problem solving
1. A is a number divisible by 6 different positive integers that are greater than 1 and smaller
than 11. Which of the following numbers could equal A?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
60
20
30
40
2. Albert has twice the number of flowers that Robert has, and one-third the number of
flowers that Gerard has.
How many flowers could the three have together?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
55
50
45
40
3. If X, Y, and Z are positive integers and 4X = 2Y = 8Z, which of the following must be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
X x Y x Z = 18
X–Z+Y=9
Y>Z>X
(X + Y + Z)2 = 121
4. If X = 2/3 and Y = 3/5 then (X – Y)/(X + Y) =?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1/15
1/19
1/30
1/8
5. Which of the following is the greatest?
0.00003
0.0007
0.0008
(B)
0.0005
(A)
2
0.007
0.0008
0.006
(D)
0.0005
6. The amount of money (in dollars) which the owner of a used car must pay for insurance
is equal to the number obtained by multiplying the length of the car (in cm) by the number
of car doors, divided by the age of the car (in years). If we know how much Mark paid for
his car insurance, which of the following additional information regarding Mark’s car would
enable us to determine how old his car is?
(C)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The length of the car
The number obtained by multiplying the number of doors by the length of the car
The sum of number of doors and the length of the car
None of the above
7. In the quadrilateral ABCD, DC = DA and DE = 5. What is the area of this quadrilateral?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20
22,5
25
27,5
8. A cyclist traveling toward Paris at a speed of 20 mph (miles per hour) left Rouen at 14:00.
Another cyclist traveling towards Paris at a speed of 25 mph left Rouen at 14:30. At what
time will the second cyclist catch up with the first cyclist?
(A) 16:00
(B) 16:15
(C) 16:30
(D) 16:45
9. One fifth of water in a pool evaporates each night. At the beginning of the night, the pool
was full, and at the end of the day, 8,000 liters of water had to be added to fill it up again.
How much water does the pool hold (in m3)?
(A) 16
(B) 20
(C) 32
(D) 40
10. Given: J, K and L are consecutive integers, 0 < J < K < L
What does the expression
(L  K)
x(L  J) equal?
(K  J)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) -1
(D) -2
3
4
11. If S and T are consecutive positive integers, the sum S + T + S 3 + T3 is always:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Odd
Even
Divisible by 3
None of the above answers is correct
12. Jonas is 10 cm shorter than Tamar. Ali and Bai are 2 or more cm taller than Jonas and 3
or more cm shorter than Tamar.
What is the greatest possible difference between Ali and Bai’s heights (in cm)?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 4
13. What is the ration between the volume of the shaded object and the volume of the cube
in the figure knowing that AB = BC?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1/2
2/3
3/5
3/4
14. If M = 12 and P = 20 then 53 x (P/M)-1 + (P – M)2 =?
(A) 139
(B) 130
(C) 128
(D) 125
15. The area of a circle is 16 cm2 greater than the area of a square whose side is 3 cm long.
What is the radius of the circle (in cm)?
(A)
5

5
(B)

5
(C)

(D)
5

5
16. 25 adults and children went to a restaurant for a lunch. The cost of the lunch is $11.95 for
adults and $3.95 for children. If the total bill was $266.75, how many adults attended the
lunch?
(A) 4
(B) 46
(C) 21
(D) 11
17. In a French B-School, 65% of the total number of students watches the news on television,
40% read a newspaper and 25% both read a newspaper and watch the news on
television. What percentage of the students does not watch the news on television and
do not read newspaper?
(A) 0%
(B) 10%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%
18. If water from a hose fills a pool at the rate of Y cubic meters per hour, and the volume of
the pool is P cubic meters, how many hours will it take to fill the pool?
(A) Y x P
(A) Y/P
(B) P/Y
(C) 1/(Y x P)
19. The average (arithmetic mean) of 40 numbers is 900. When one number is discarded,
the average of the remaining numbers becomes 40. What is the discarded number?
(A) 32,880
(B) 34,440
(C) 1,800
(D) 900
20. Andrew starts a new job, with a goal of doubling his old average commission of $400. He
takes a 10% commission, making commissions of $100, $200, $250, $700 and $1000 on
his first 5 sales. If Andrew made two sales on the last day of the week, how much would
Andrew have had to sell in order to meet his goal?
(A) $14,800
(B) $22,500
(C) $28,800
(D) $33,500
21. 3 workers can fill a tank in 4, 5, or 6 minutes, respectively. How many tanks all 3 workers
working together can fill in 3 minutes?
(A) 1/3
(B) 13/40
(C) 19/30
(D) 37/60
6
7
22. Anna is 4 times as old as Brandon. In 6 years, Brandon will be twice as old as Charlie. If,
4 years from now, Anna will be 36 years old, how old will Charlie be in 6 years?
(A) 12
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 9
23. There are 3 tennis clubs in town: club A, club B and club C. Club A has 300 members,
club B has 400, and club C has 450. 30 people belong to both clubs A and B, 40 to both
clubs A and C, and 50 to both clubs B and C. 20 people are members of all 3 clubs. How many
people belong to at least 1 tennis club in town?
(A) 500
(B) 700
(C) 850
(D) 1050
24. A theatre earned €15,000 in ticket revenue by selling 180 tickets. There are two types of
tickets: type A and type B. They sold 25% more type B tickets than type A tickets. If the
revenue from type A tickets represents a third of total ticket revenue, what is the price of
a type B ticket?
(A) €100
(B) €115
(C) €125
(D) €140
25. P and Q are prime numbers, 2 < Q < P.
Which of the following is true?
(A) P.Q is a prime number
(B) P – Q is an even number
(C) P + Q is an odd number
(D) P/Q is an integer
26. Which of the following cannot be the total number of points of intersection created by 3
line segments that lie in the same plane?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
27. Lee travels from Paris to Fontainebleau and back 4 times a week. The distance between
Paris and Fontainebleau is 60 km. The fuel tank in Lee’s car holds 20 liters of fuel, and
each liter of fuel is sufficient for travelling 8 km.
Lee uses _____ tank(s) of fuel per week.
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 4
8
28. Each day, the workers in a certain factory can order one lunch, which costs 5 Euros, 11
Euros, or 17 Euros. During a certain month, Jackie ordered an equal number of lunches
at each price.
Which of the following statements is necessarily true with regard to the total amount (in
Euros) that she paid for her lunches that month?
(A) It is evenly divisible by 5
(B) It is evenly divisible by 6
(C) It is evenly divisible by 11
(D) It is evenly divisible by 17
29. If a building J feet high casts a shadow G feet long, then, at the same time of a day, a
tree P feet high will cast a shadow how many feet long?
(A) GP/J
(B) GJ/P
(C) P/GJ
(D) J/PG
30. Z, X and Y are integers.
(Z – 1)(X+Y) – (1 – Z)(Y – X) =?
(A) 2Y(Z – 1)
(B) Z2 – 1
(C) Y2 – X2
(D) 0
9
2. Data sufficiency
Directions: Each of the following Data Sufficiency problems contains a question followed by two
statements, numbered (1) and (2). You need not solve the problem; rather you must decide
whether the information given is sufficient to solve the problem.
The correct answer to a question is:
(A) If statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient;
(B) If statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question but statement (1) alone is not
sufficient;
(C) If the two statements TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER
statement ALONE is sufficient;
(D) If EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question;
(E) If the two statements TAKEN TOGETHER are still NOT sufficient to answer the question.
31. If H is a nonzero integer, what is the value of H?
(1) –8H – 14 > –28
(2) –2.5H –1.5 < H + 1
32. How long would it take five typists to type 30 words if all five typists type at the same
speed?
(1) 3 typists can type 8 words in 20 seconds.
(2) One typist can type 4 words in 30 seconds.
33. Is A.B.C < 0
(1) A3 x B2 x C < 0
(2) C3 x B x A < 0
34. If A, B, and C are digits, is A+B+C a multiple of 2 3?
(A digit is one of the integers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9)
(1) The three digit number ABC is a multiple of 2 3
(2) A x B x C is a multiple of 23
35. What was Mr. Durand income in 2011?
(1) His total income for 2009, 2010 and 2011 was €130,400.
(2) He made 20% more in 2010 than he did in 2009.
36. What is X - Y - Z?
(1) X – Z = Y
(2) X – Y = 2
10
37. It takes 4 hours to travel from Paris to Lyon and back to Paris. How long will it take to
travel from Paris to Lyon?
(1) It takes 25% more time to travel from Paris to Lyon than it does to travel from Lyon to
Paris.
(2) Auxerre city is midway between Paris and Lyon, and it takes 2 hours to travel from
Paris to Auxerre city and back to Paris.
38. Mark and Nancy can each perform a certain task in m hours and n hours, respectively. Is
m < n?
(1) Twice the time it would take both Mark and Nancy to perform the task together, each
working at their respective constant rates, is less than n.
(2) Twice the time it would take both Mark and Nancy to perform the task together, each
working at their respective constant rates, is greater than m.
39. On the xy-coordinate plane, what is the area of a right triangle, one side of which is defined
by the points (2,3) and (-4,0)?
(1) The triangle’s sides cross the xy-axis at exactly two points altogether.
(2) The y-coordinate of the third vertex of the triangle is zero.
40. What is the three-digit integer ABC?
(1) ABC + 1 equals 49 x 7
(2) C, A and B are consecutive digits and A+B+C = 9
STOP!
You may check your work on this section only.
Do not go on the next section until you are told to do so.
11
PAT 2015
Pass-world Admission Test
The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of three sections.
The total time allotted is 120 minutes.
Section 1:
Section 2:
Section 3:
QUANTITATIVE REASONING [40 questions / 60 minutes]
CRITICAL REASONING [10 questions / 15 minutes]
VERBAL REASONING [50 questions / 45 minutes]
Right answer:
+3 points
Wrong answer: -1 point
No answer:
0 point
SECTION 2: CRITICAL REASONING
Please answer the 10 following questions in 15 minutes
For each question, only one answer is correct.
12
1. Questions 41-44 refer to the following text and the accompanying figure:
“PASS-PASS” is a game played by a single player.
The player has 16 tiles. One of the 8 letters A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H appears on each file. Each letter
appears on exactly two tiles, so that the player actually has 8 pairs of identical tiles.
At the start of each game, the tiles are laid out in 7 adjacent stacks in the following manner:
The player sees only those letters on the tiles at the top of the stacks, and has no information
about the other tiles. The object of the PASS-PASS game is to remove all of the tiles. One or two
tiles may be removed during each move according to the following rules:
A. When the tiles at the top of two of the stacks have the same letter - these two tiles may
be removed, and removing only one of them is forbidden.
B. When the letters G or H are on a tile at the top of a stack, and cannot be removed
according to rule A - they can be removed alone.
If no legitimate move can be made, i.e. a move in accordance with the rules, the game ends.
Note: Each question refers to a different game, in which the tiles are in a different order.
41. At a certain stage in the game, the stacks look like this:
Which letter must have appeared on the tile that was on top of stack 4 at the start
of the game?
(A) E
(B) D
(C) G
(D) F
13
42. At the start of the game the stacks look like this:
After several moves, the stacks look like this:
Which letter appeared on the tile that was in the middle of stack 3 at the start of the
game?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A
F
H
G
43. At a certain stage in the game the stacks look like this:
Which of the following sentences must be correct?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The letter on the tile at the bottom of stack 2 is A or F
The letter on the tile at the bottom of stack 3 is G
No further moves can be made at the stage of the game described above
Another 4 moves are needed in order to remove all of tiles
44. At a certain stage in the game the stacks look like this:
Which of the following letters, if it appears on the tile at the bottom of stack 5, will
necessarily prevent the possibility of removing all the tiles?
14
(A) H
(B) F
2. Critical reasoning
(C) B
(D) None of the above.
45. Statement A: There are no horses that speak Spanish
Statement B: Anyone who does not speak Spanish is a horse
Conclusion: If Alejandro speaks Spanish, it means he is not a horse
The conclusion follows:
(A) From statement A, and not from statement B
(B) From statement B, and not from statement A
(C) From each statement separately
(D) Only from the two statements taken together
46. Professor Klingbeil, a physician at a neighborhood clinic, wished to test the
hypothesis that shift workers living in the neighborhood suffer from sleep
problems more than other residents in the neighborhood. To do so, she decided to
investigate whether the proportion of shift workers among clinic patients with sleep
problems was higher than their proportion among the neighborhood’s residents.
Her colleague, Professor Bond, claimed that there were many shift workers in the
neighborhood who did not know that they could avail themselves of the clinic’s
services.
Assuming that Professor Bond is right, if the study were to show that the
proportion of shift workers among clinic patients with sleep problems is _____ the
proportion of shift workers among the neighborhood’s residents, the study results
would _____ Professor Klingbeil’s hypothesis.
(A) Equal to / weaken
(B) Lower than / support
(C) Higher than / weaken
(D) Equal to / support
47. Taken together, the following four statements regarding the sisters Fatou and
Rachel contain a contradiction.
Which statement could be omitted, and the contradiction still retained?
(A) Rachel likes to sing “Rolling Along”
(B) There is only song that Fatou likes sing
(C) There is no song that Judy likes to sing and that Fatou does not like to sing
(D) Only one of the sisters likes to sing “Rolling Along”
15
48. Five rooms are connected by an intercom in such a way that –
- Room C has a direct connection to room B and room A.
- Room D has a direct connection to room B and room E.
- There are no other direct connections between rooms.
Assuming that a connection is always made in the shortest possible way, which of
the following messages will pass through the greatest number of rooms?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A message from room C to room D
A message from room A to room D
A message from room B to room A
A message from room E to room B
49. Given: There are drivers and they are all artists.
What additional data is sufficient to infer the conclusion: “All drivers love
shopping”?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Some of those who love shopping are artists
All of those who love shopping are artists
There is no artist who does not love shopping
There is no one who loves shopping who is not an artist
50. A study revealed that:
A. All yellow flowers wither quickly and have a nice smell
B. All flowers that are not yellow like sunshine and grow only in coastal cities
Based on this study, which of the following is impossible?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A flower that does not wither quickly and does not like sunshine
A flower that is not yellow and withers quickly
A yellow flower that has a nice smell and does not like sunshine
A flower that does not wither quickly and likes sunshine
STOP!
You may check your work on this section only.
Do not go on the next section until you are told to do so.
16
PAT 2015
Pass-world Admission Test
The PAT contains a total of 100 questions and consists of three sections.
The total time allotted is 120 minutes.
Section 1:
Section 2:
Section 3:
QUANTITATIVE REASONING [40 questions / 60 minutes]
CRITICAL REASONING [10 questions / 15 minutes]
VERBAL REASONING [50 questions / 45 minutes]
Right answer:
+3 points
Wrong answer: -1 point
No answer:
0 point
SECTION 3: VERBAL REASONING
Please answer the 50 following questions in 45 minutes
For each question, only one answer is correct.
17
1. Reading comprehension
First text:
The Preppers
Paul Harris in The Observer, Sunday 14 February 2010
[1] Tess Pennington, 33, is a mother of three children, and lives in the sprawling outskirts of
Houston, Texas. But she is not taking the happy safety of her suburban existence lightly. Like a
growing army of fellow Americans, Pennington is learning how to grow her own food, has stored
emergency rations in her home and is taking courses on treating sickness with medicinal herbs.
"I feel safe and more secure. I have taken personal responsibility for the safety of myself and of
my family," Pennington said. "We have decided to be prepared. There are all kinds of disasters
that can happen, natural and man-made."
[2] Pennington is a "prepper", a growing social movement that has been dubbed Survivalism Lite.
Preppers believe that it is better to be safe than sorry and that preparing for disaster – be it a
hurricane or the end of civilisation – makes sense. Unlike the 1990s survivalists, preppers come
from all backgrounds and live all over America. They are just as likely to be found in a suburb or
downtown loft as a remote ranch in the mountains. Prepping networks, which have sprung up all
over the country in the past few years, provide advice on how to prepare food reserves, how to
grow crops in your garden, how to hunt and how to defend yourself. There are prepping books,
online shops, radio shows, countless blogs, prepping courses and prepping conferences.
[3] John Milandred runs a website called Pioneer Living, which is one of the main forums for
discussing prepping. It provides a range of advice for those who just want to store extra food in
case of a power cut, to those who want to embrace the "off the grid" lifestyle of America's western
pioneers. "We get inquiries from people from all walks of life. We had a principal from a school
asking us to talk to their children. We have doctors and firemen and lawyers," he said. Milandred
lives in Oklahoma and, should society collapse around him, he is well placed to flourish. Indeed,
he might not notice that much. His house has a hand-dug well that gives him fresh water. He
grows his own food. He has built an oven that needs neither gas nor electricity. He can hunt for
meat. "If something happened, it really would not affect us," he said.
[4] There are several reasons for the rise of prepping. The first is that, in the post-9/11 world, mass
terror attacks have become a fear for many Americans. At a time when US diplomacy is focused
on preventing Iran getting nuclear weapons and terror experts continue to warn of "dirty bombs"
on American soil, it is no surprise that many Americans feel threatened. Added to that paranoia
has come the recession. Suddenly, millions of Americans have been losing their jobs and their
homes, reinforcing a feeling that society is not as stable as it once seemed. Hollywood has caught
on. A succession of films, such as 2015, The Road, The Book of Eli and Legion, have tapped into
an American Zeitgeist that is worried about the end of civilisation. […] Even government officials
have accepted that the financial crisis posed a threat to social order. In recent testimony before
Congress, treasury secretary Tim Geithner admitted that top-level talks had been held on whether
the US could enforce law and order in the wake of a collapse of the financial system. Certainly,
Tom Martin agrees. He runs the American Preppers Network, which helps provide a wide range
of resources. Martin, a truck driver who lives in Idaho, believes that more and more people will
become preppers. "Millions of people now have the mindset that they want to be prepared for
something, but don't know what to call it," he said.
18
[5] That rings true with Pennington. In the 1990s, survivalism was the province of anti-government
militiamen or loners in the woods. But preppers are more concerned with stocking up on food and
water and relearning skills so that they can fend for themselves. To that end, Pennington has set
up a website called Ready Nutrition, which teaches basic food skills to prepare for a time when
prepackaged goods at a supermarket might not be available: "Prepping is not taboo, like
survivalism.
There is no negative connotation to it. We are not rednecks. In many ways, our ancestors were
preppers. So were the Native Americans. It is just going back to being able to look after yourself."
Questions (51 to 65):
51. The word ‘dubbed’ in paragraph [2] could best be replaced by:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Baptized.
Exalted.
Trademarked.
Acclaimed.
52. The rise of prepping in the U.S. is linked to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The spread of religious feeling.
A general feeling of insecurity.
Ecological concerns.
The economic recession.
53. Prepping teaches people to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Resist government propaganda.
Get a better job.
Have a simple life
Be self-sufficient.
54. Prepping is a movement that aims to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Bring about the end of civilization.
Escape civilization.
Be ready for the end of civilization.
Prepare people to the apocalypse.
55. Preppers tend to come from:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
All over the U.S.
The suburbs.
Remote parts of the country.
Inner cities.
19
56. The U.S. government:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Would like to eradicate prepping.
Is encouraging the prepping movement.
Shares some of the concerns of preppers.
Will end up fostering the prepping movement.
57. Prepping is considered by many Americans as:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A threat to social order.
A politically divisive movement.
A chance for the U.S.
A business opportunity.
58. Unlike preppers, the survivalists of the 1990’s:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Were considered to be anti-social.
Were considered to be harmless.
Were mainly from middle-class backgrounds.
Were actively engaged in politics.
59. According to preppers, native Americans are:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Victims of human rights abuses.
The original preppers.
Social parasites.
Me-too preppers.
60. Tess Pennington, a mother of 3 children:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Is learning about alternative medicine.
Refuses to use modern medicine.
Is suspicious of doctors.
Believes in soft medicine.
61. The opposite of the word ‘countless’ in paragraph [2] is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Myriad.
Limited.
Estimated.
Uncounted.
62. The word ‘collapse’ in paragraph [3] could best be replaced by:
(A) Override.
20
(B) Build up.
(C) Increase.
(D) Break down.
21
63. The word ‘mindset’ in paragraph [4] could best be replaced by:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Disbelief.
Bravery.
Mentality.
Interest.
64. The word ‘rednecks’ in paragraph [5] refers to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Indians.
Hamish’s.
Countrymen.
Farmers.
65. ‘Loners in the woods’ in paragraph [5] refer to:
(A) People who avoid or do not actively seek human interaction or prefer to be alone.
(B) A group of aquatic birds found in many parts of North America and northern Eurasia.
(C) People who manifest skepticism about the possibility of knowing any mindindependent thing.
(D) People who decided to settle down in the forest.
Second text:
The constitutional plan of the United Nations (UN) was based on three political assumptions. First,
the great powers acting together would deal with any threat to peace and security, regardless of
its source. Second, their combined wisdom and power would suffice to cope with such threats,
without resorting to war. Third, no such threats would come from any of the great powers
themselves. These assumptions have not withstood the test of reality. The great powers have not
succeeded in acting together when their conflicting interests have been involved.
This is tantamount to saying that they could act together only under rare and unusual
circumstances, and that the main threat to world peace and security comes from the great powers
themselves. Thus the constitutional plan of the UN charter has been invalidated by the political
realities of the post-war world.
The dynamic changes in the relationship between constitutional aims and political reality have
turned the United Nations into something other than what it was originally intended to be. Three
distinct phases can be discerned in this transformation. The first decade of the organization’s
existence saw the decline of the Security Council and the rise of the General Assembly. The
second decade was characterized by the increasing prominence of the Secretary General, who
serves as the agent of the Security Council and the General Assembly. The constitutional crisis
that marked the beginning of the UN’s third decade clearly revealed a decline in the authority of
the General Assembly and the Secretary General, and as a result, the Security Council began to
assert its constitutional authority.
22
Questions (66-70)
66. Which of the following statements is not a political assumption on which the UN’s
constitutional plan was based?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The great powers would deal with every threat to peace and security
The great powers would act together irrespective of the threat to themselves
The powers would be able to cope with the threats without resorting to war
None of the powers would themselves threaten world peace and security
67. The word “Thus” (line 9) elates to the way in which the:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
UN’s constitutional plan was established
Great powers acted in the post-war world
Great power broke UN laws
Unusual circumstances brought about a threat to world peace
68. Which of the following sentences best sentences best expresses the main idea of
the first paragraph?
(A) The contradiction between constitutional aims and political reality turned the United
Nations into something other than what was intended
(B) The constitutional plan of the United Nations was predicated on three political
assumptions
(C) The main threat to world peace and security came from the great powers
themselves
(D) When the great powers work together, they can cope with any threat to world peace
69. In line 13, “this transformation” refers to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The decline of the Security Council and the rise of the General Assembly
The narrowing of the gap between constitutional aims and political reality
Planned changes in authority that occurred in three stages
Changes that took place within the United Nations
70. Which of the following statements follows directly from the passage?
(A) The political reality of the post-war world was the result of the failure of the
constitutional plan of the UN charter
(B) The contradiction between constitutional aims and political reality was caused by
dynamic changes in the UN
(C) The constitutional plan of the UN charter did not withstand the test of time due to the
post-war political reality
(D) The dynamic changes in the relationship between aims and reality were caused by
the UN developing into something other than what it was intended to be
23
2. Sentence completions
Questions (71-75)
Complete each sentence, using the response that is most appropriate.
71. A well-known philosopher once said: “man can think only by means of words”.
_____ the researcher Alta would _____ this statement, because he said in his later
years that he had _____ thinking in this work, _____ visual imagery.
(A) It is doubtful whether / have had reservations about / made little use of verbal / relying
mainly on
(B) Presumably / not have agreed with / made extensive use of verbal / and had not relied
at all on
(C) It is doubtful whether / have agreed with / made extensive use of nonverbal / as well
as
(D) Presumably / have agreed with / refrained from using verbal / relying mainly on
72. Colette, an author, once said. “_____ at times when my peace of mind is disturbed
by everyday concerns”. Unlike her, I find that my productivity actually _____ when
_____ , because then _____ .
(A) I do most of my writing / reaches its peak / my life is peaceful / there is nothing that
inspires me to write
(B) I am unable to write anything / hits a low point / things are peaceful / I simply have
nothing to write about
(C) My writing pace is best / hits a low point / my life is in chaos / every little incident gives
me a reason to write
(D) I have difficulty writing / reaches its peak / nothing disturbs my calm / everyday
experiences inspire me to write
73. Dora has been known to lash out at public figures of questionable integrity. It is
therefore likely that if she had _____ that Green _____ involved in the corruption
scandal that occurred during his term of office, she presumably would not have
_____ her _____ opinion of him.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Known / was not / retracted / negative
Known / was cleared of all suspicion of being / adhered to / positive
Known / was / maintained / positive
Not known / was cleared of all suspicion of being / adhered to / negative
74. Benzema and Tata are political rivals. _____ they have _____ positions regarding
the new law. During the discussion held in the plenary session, Benzema’s
warnings about the dangers inherent in the law were met with cries of _____ by
Tata, who even presented _____ the law.
(A) However / similar / derision / additional arguments in support of
(B) It is therefore not surprising that / opposing / derision / arguments against
(C) Nevertheless / similar / approval / additional arguments against
24
(D) It is therefore not surprising that / opposing / approval / additional arguments in
support of
25
75. The employment situation of professional musicians in Georgia _____ the
government _____ its support of the country’s music industry, _____ market forces
determine the musicians’ professional fate. This is because Georgian audiences
are _____ to pay out of their own pockets to hear live concerts.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Was good even before / decided to renew / and not let / willing
Would have been difficult had / not decided to renew / and let / not willing
Would have been difficult had / decided to withdraw / and let / willing
Would have been good even had / decided to withdraw / that is, not to let / willing
3. Grammar & vocabulary
Questions (76-85)
76. ... waiting to hear the results.
(A)
(A)
(B)
(C)
Everyone was
All was
Everyone were
All will have
77. There is ... evidence to support the claim.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Little of
Few
A few
Some
78. Do you know the date ... we have to turn in the assignment?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Which
To which
By which
When
79. The police came to the conclusion that there isn’t enough evidence to ... her. That’s
why they eventually released her.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Prosecute
Procure
Protest
Proceed
80. I drank some ... coffee.
26
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Good very Venezuelan
Venezuelan very good
Very good Venezuelan
Very Venezuelan good
81. When he saw Aurelia ... the room, he pushed his way ... the crowd of people to get
to her.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Over / Through
Across / Across
Over / Along
Across / Through
82. You returned the money, ...?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Hadn’t you
Shouldn’t you
Won’t you
Didn’t you
83. The millionaire donated 63 ... dollars to the earthquake relief fund.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Millions of
Millions
Million
Million of
84. Ten of us were taken ill ... a party we were at in Moscow. I felt ill ... a couple of days,
but was fine after that.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
For / During
For / For
During / During
During / For
85. If ... my passport, I’ll be in trouble.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
I lose
I’ll lose
I lost
I would lose
27
3. Restatements
For each of the 5 following questions, select the answer that best expresses the meaning of
the original sentence (here, in bold type)
86. Throughout history there have been many different notions about which types of
behavior constitute insanity.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Different types of insanity have always been part of people’s behavior.
Throughout history, certain types of behavior have always been considered insane.
People have a long history of insanity, which has not always been well understood.
There have always been different ideas about what can be considered insane.
87. Many scientific discoveries are attributed to famous scientists who, in the majority
of cases, merely completed a process that was already developing, and which,
sooner or later, would have been completed by others.
(A) People often credit famous scientists, who in most cases were only completing a
process already begun, with discoveries that would eventually have been made by
others.
(B) In the majority of cases, even famous scientists attribute their discoveries to
processes that were begun, but not necessarily completed by others.
(C) Sooner or later, the discoveries made by famous scientists are recognized as being
the result of a long process of development usually begun, and sometimes even
completed, by others.
(D) In most cases, scientists become famous for making a particular discovery, rather
than for completing work on processes that were begun and developed by others.
88. Many nations are involved in improving public education.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Nations should work together on the issue of public education.
The purpose of public education is to improve the nation.
Improving public education is something many nations are working towards.
Public education is necessary for the improvement of many nations.
89. Most people want more than they can afford to buy.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Most people can afford to buy more than they really need.
In order to buy the things they want, people need money.
People buy many things, but cannot pay for all of them.
Most people do not have enough money to buy everything they want.
28
90. The rise in popularity of the English novel was largely due to the success of two
nineteenth-century novelists: Dickens and Hardy.
(A) Two nineteenth-century English authors, Dickens and Hardy, were successful at
writing novels only because of their popularity.
(B) During the nineteenth century, two English novelists, Dickens and Hardy, gained
popularity because of their novels.
(C) It was mostly because of Dickens and Hardy, two writers in the nineteenth century
that the English novel gained popularity.
(D) The rising of the English novel helped increase the popularity of two nineteenthcentury writers: Dickens and Hardy.
4. Analogies
Each of the following questions contains a pair of words in bold type.
Find the relationship between the meanings of these two words, and then choose from among the
possible answers the one in which the relationship between the two words is most similar to the
relationship you have found.
Please note that the order of the words in each pair is significant.
91. DEPORTATION : DEPORTEE
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CORONATION : KING
DECLARATION : ANNOUNCER
RECUPERATION : PATIENT
CONVICTION : INNOCENT
92. CURIOSITY : TO KNOW
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
FLAVOUR : TO TASTE
LONGING : TO BE REUNITED
FLATTERY : TO FAWN
THIRST : TO GIVE A DRINK
93. SHARPEN : KNIFE
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
UNRAVEL : KNITTING NEEDLE
ROLL OUT : ROLLING PIN
UNCORK : CORK
INFLATE : TIRE
94. BOW : QUIVER
(A) GARDEN : VASE
29
(B) STRAW : FEEDING TROUGH
(C) VESSEL : POTTER’S WHEEL
(D) QUILL PEN : INKWELL
95. EDUCATED : EDUCATION
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
WEALTHY : MONEY
SYMBOLIC : SYMBOL
HEDONIST : PLEASURE
LIAR : LIE
96. CRUEL : COMPASSION
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SENSITIVE : INSULT
SUSPICIOUS : TRUST
CONSERVATIVE : INNOVATION
INDEPENDENT : HELP
97. TO EXHAUST : BECAME WEARY
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
TO DECEIVE : WAS MISLED
TO HUMILIATE : WAS ENNOBLED
TO LEAVE : SET OUT
TO BE ASHAMED : WAS RIDICULED
98. EQUIPPING ONESELF : PREPARATION
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
BAKING : FRYING
WASHING : CLEANING
SOWING : HARVEST
FALLING ASLEEP : SLEEP
99. WAS COOKED : WAS BURNT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
100.
WAS WATERED : FRYING
WAS PURSUED : WAS CAUGHT
WAS APPOINTED : WAS DISMISSED
WAS STRETCHED : SNAPPED
FORCED : CHOOSE
(A) SERRATED : CUT
(B) ACCESSIBLE : REACH
(C) FASTENED : MOVE
30
(D) CAUTIONS : RISK
31
Pass-world Admission Test
PLEASE WRITE IN CAPITALS
Family Name:
First Name:
Date of Birth:
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$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$
$$ / $$ / $$$$
DD MM YYYY IMPORTANT: If you wish to CHANGE your first (initial) answer, please DO NOT scratch it out; rather mark your
second (replacement) answer on the second line. If you provide a second answer, it is ONLY this replacement
answer that will be marked, not your initial answer. Please write with a BLACK PEN
A B C D
!!!!
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Second answer  ! ! + ! !
If you want to cancel your answer: CROSS al l the boxes  + + + + +
How to answer: cross the box: +
Do not redraw boxes: Incorrect:
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Do not make any marks on the bar code.
adm13 2012 PAT - TEST •5•
SECTION 1
Your Answer
1
A
Your Answer
2
A
Your Answer
3
A
Your Answer
4
A
Your Answer
5
A
Your Answer
6
A
Your Answer
7
A
Your Answer
8
A
Your Answer
9
A
Your Answer
10
A
Your Answer
11
A
Your Answer
12
A
Your Answer
13
A
Your Answer
14
A
Your Answer
15
A
Your Answer
16
A
Your Answer
17
A
Your Answer
18
A
Your Answer
19
A
Your Answer
20
A
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
D
Your Answer
21
D
Your Answer
22
D
Your Answer
23
D
Your Answer
24
D
Your Answer
25
D
Your Answer
26
D
Your Answer
27
D
Your Answer
28
D
Your Answer
29
D
Your Answer
30
D
Your Answer
31
D
Your Answer
32
D
Your Answer
33
D
Your Answer
34
D
Your Answer
35
D
Your Answer
36
D
Your Answer
37
D
Your Answer
38
D
Your Answer
39
D
Your Answer
40
SECTION 2
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
D
Your Answer
41
A
D
Your Answer
42
A
D
Your Answer
43
A
D
Your Answer
44
A
D
Your Answer
45
A
D
Your Answer
46
A
D
Your Answer
47
A
D
Your Answer
48
A
D
Your Answer
49
A
D
Your Answer
50
A
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
SECTION 3
D
Your Answer
81
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
82
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
83
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
84
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
85
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
86
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
87
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
88
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
89
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
90
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
91
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
92
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
93
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
94
A
B
C
D
D
Your Answer
95
A
B
C
D
E
Your Answer
96
A
B
C
D
E
Your Answer
97
A
B
C
D
E
Your Answer
98
A
B
C
D
E
Your Answer
99
A
B
C
D
E
Your Answer
100
A
B
C
D
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
D
Your Answer
51
A
D
Your Answer
52
A
D
Your Answer
53
A
D
Your Answer
54
A
D
Your Answer
55
A
D
Your Answer
56
A
D
Your Answer
57
A
D
Your Answer
58
A
D
Your Answer
59
A
D
Your Answer
60
A
E
Your Answer
61
A
E
Your Answer
62
A
E
Your Answer
63
A
E
Your Answer
64
A
E
Your Answer
65
A
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
D
Your Answer
66
D
Your Answer
67
D
Your Answer
68
D
Your Answer
69
D
Your Answer
70
D
Your Answer
71
D
Your Answer
72
D
Your Answer
73
D
Your Answer
74
D
Your Answer
75
D
Your Answer
76
D
Your Answer
77
D
Your Answer
78
D
Your Answer
79
D
Your Answer
80
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C