Paper Code : 1001C M302215016 Hindi Form Number : CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME (Academic Session : 2015 - 2016) ENTHUSIAST COURSE PHASE - II TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016 Test Pattern : AIPMT Test Type : MAJOR TEST DATE : 27 - 01 - 2016 TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS Important Instructions / Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so 1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them. 2. 3. 4. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720. 3 180 720 Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge. 5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing. 6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful. 1 7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted. OMR 8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited. Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Paper code and Your Form No. Correction Paper code Form No. [email protected] mail Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016 Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005 +91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING 1. An object is in equilibrium under four concurrent forces in the directions as shown in the figure. Magnitudes of F1 and F2 are 1. F1 F1 4N 30º 60º 60º 8N F2 4 20 N, N 3 3 (2) 20 4 N, N 3 3 (3) 8N, 4N (4) 4N, 8N A uniform rod of length 1 m is bent at its mid-point to make 90º angle. The distance of the centre of mass from the centre of the rod is :- (1) 2. 4 20 N, N 3 3 (2) A 4. O2 C C O1 O1 90º B (1) 36.1 cm (2) 25.2 cm (3) 17.7 cm (4) zero A Carnot's engine whose sink is at a temperature of 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of the source be increased so as to increase the efficiency to 60% ? (1) 250 K (2) 275 K (3) 300 K (4) 325 K A transistor is used as an amplifier in CB mode with a load resistance of 5k the current gain of amplifier is 0.98 and the input resistance is 70 , The voltage gain and power gain respectively are :(1) 70, 68.6 (2) 80, 75.6 (3) 60, 66.6 (4) 90, 96.6 1001CM302215016 20 4 N, N 3 3 (3) 8N, 4N (4) 4N, 8N 1 90º :- 90º 3. 8N 30º F2 2. 4N 30º 30º (1) F F2 1 : A (1) 36.1 cm (3) 17.7 cm 3. B (2) 25.2 cm (4) zero 300 K , 40% 60% ? (1) 250 K (3) 300 K 4. O2 (2) 275 K (4) 325 K 5k 0.98 70 : (1) 70, 68.6 (2) 80, 75.6 (3) 60, 66.6 (4) 90, 96.6 H-1/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 5. With a potentiometer null point were obtained at 140 cm and 180 cm for cells of emf 1.1 V and one unknown X volt. Unknown emf is:(1)1.1 V 6. (2) 1.8 V (3) 2.4 V (4) 1.41 V A horizontal force F is applied to a frictionless pulley of mass m2. The horizontal surface is smooth. Acceleration of the block of mass (m1) is m2 m1 7. 5. 1.1 V 140 cm X 180 cm (1)1.1 V (3) 2.4 V 6. (2) 1.8 V (4) 1.41 V F, m2 (m 1) :- F F (1) m 4m 2 1 2F (2) m 4m 2 1 F (1) m 4m 2 1 2F (2) m 4m 2 1 F (3) 4m m 2 1 2F (4) 4m m 2 1 F (3) 4m m 2 1 2F (4) 4m m 2 1 If the ratio of lengths, radii and young's modullii of steel and brass wires in the figure are, a, b and c respectively. Then the corresponding ratio of increase is their length would be :- 7. a, b c :- steel steel 5kg M 5kg M brass brass 5kg 2M 8. 9. F m2 m1 5kg 2M (1) 2a 2c b (2) 3a 2b2 c (1) 2a 2c b (2) 3a 2b2 c (3) 2ac b2 (4) 3c 3ab2 (3) 2ac b2 (4) 3c 3ab 2 A mass m is suspended from a weightless spring and it has time-period 'T'. The spring is now divided into four equal parts and the same mass is suspended from one of these parts. The now time period will be :(1) T (2) T/2 (3) 2T (4) T/4 A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration of acceptor atoms is ~ 1021 atoms/m3. Given that the intrinsic concentration of electron hole pair is ~ 1019/m3, the concentration of electrons in the specimen is :(1) 1017/m3 (2) 1015/m3 (3) 104/m3 (4) 102/m3 8. m 'T' (1) T 9. (2) T/2 (3) 2T (4) T/4 Al (Ge) (Acceptor) ~ 10 21 atoms/m 3 ~ 10 19/m 3 :- (1) 1017/m3 (2) 1015/m3 (3) 104/m3 (4) 102/m3 H-2/35 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 10. 11. A moving coil galvanometer of resistance 100 is used as an ammeter using a shunt resistance 0.1. The maximum deflection current in the galvanometer is 100µA. Find the minimum current in the circuit so that the ammeter shows maximum deflection. (1) 100.1 mA (2) 1000.1 mA (3) 10.01 mA (4) 1.01 mA A car starting from rest accelerates at the rate f through a distance s, then continues at constant speed for time t and then decelerates at the rate 10. 100µA (1) 100.1 mA (3) 10.01 mA 11. f 2 15 s :- is 15 s, then :- (3) s = 12. 13. 14. 15. (2) s = 1 2 ft 2 1 2 ft 6 (1) s = ft (4) none of these (3) s = When 106 smaller drops of a liquid are combined to form a new bigger drop, then its (1) density will decrease (2) density will increase (3) temperature will increase (4) temperature will decrease Find the amount of work required to be done to increase the temperature of one mole of an ideal gas by 30°C if it is expanding under the condition P V2/3 (1) 150 J (2) 100 J (3) 50 J (4) 200 J For a transistor, the current amplification factor is 0.8. The transistor is connected in common emitter configuration. The change in the collector current when the base current changes by 6 mA is :(1) 6 mA (2) 4.8 mA (3) 24 mA (4) 8 mA 12. In a series LCR circuit, resistance R = 10 and the impedance Z = 20. The phase difference between the current and the voltage is 15. (1) 30° 1001CM302215016 (2) 45° (3) 60° (2) 1000.1 mA (4) 1.01 mA f s t f to come to rest. If the total distance travelled 2 (1) s = ft 0.1 100 (4) 90° 13. 14. (2) s = 1 2 ft 2 1 2 ft 6 (4) 106 (1) (2) (3) (4) 30°C P V2/3 (1) 150 J (2) 100 J (3) 50 J (4) 200 J 0.8 6 mA :(1) 6 mA (2) 4.8 mA (3) 24 mA (4) 8 mA LCR R = 10 Z = 20 (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90° H-3/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 16. 17. Two balls are projected from the same point simultaneously. First ball is projected vertically upwards and the second ball at an angle of projection 60° to the ground level. Both the balls reach the ground simultaneously. The ratio of their velocities are : (1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2 (3) (4) 2 : 3 3 :2 16. (1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2 (3) A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of radius 2R about the earth. How much energy is required to transfer it to a circular orbit of radius 4R :- 17. 19. 20. (1) mgR 8 (2) (3) mgR 2 (4) None of these mgR 4 An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first overtone and another pipe P2 open at both ends vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P1 to that of P2 is :- 3 :2 (4) 2 : 3 m 2R 4R :(R = (R = Radius of earth) 18. 60° 18. (1) mgR 8 (2) mgR 4 (3) mgR 2 (4) None of these P1 P2 P1 P2 (1) 8/3 (2) 1/6 (1) 8/3 (2) 1/6 (3) 1/2 (4) 1/3 (3) 1/2 (4) 1/3 When a slow neutron is captured by a U235 nucleus, a fission results which releases 200 MeV of energy. If the output of a nuclear reactor is 1.6MW, what is the rate of nuclei (per sec) undergoing fission ? 19. U235 200 MeV 1.6 MW ( ) ? (1) 8 × 10–3 (2) 1 × 1013 (1) 8 × 10–3 (2) 1 × 1013 (3) 1 × 1025 (4) 5 × 1016 (3) 1 × 1025 (4) 5 × 1016 A radioactive element X decays into another stable element Y. Half life of X is 2hrs. Initially only X is present. After time t the ratio of atoms of X and Y is found to be 1 : 3, then t in hours is:(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 20. X Y X 2hrs X t X Y t (hr ) 1 : 3 (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 Filling Key H-4/35 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 21. The position of a particle moving along a straight line is given by x = 21. A (1–e–At) where B is constant B x= (1) linear momentum (2) moment of inertia (3) relative velocity (4) acceleration 23. If the radius of earth reduces by 4% and density remains same then escape velocity will(1) reduce by 2% (2) increase by 2% (3) reduce by 4% (4) increase by 4% Amplitude of electric field in EM wave is give as E0 = 300 V/m. Amplitude of magnetic field will be :–8 (1) 10 T –10 (3) 10 24. 25. 26. T (2) 10 (4) 10 –6 –7 A (1–e–At) B B A3 A > 0 B A3 and A > 0. The dimensions of is same as B 22. 22. 23. (1) (2) (3) (4) 4% (1) 2% (2) 2% (3) 4% (4) 4% E0 = 300 V/m :–8 (1) 10 T T (3) 10 T The radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 16 is 3 × 10–15 m. Then, the radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 128 will be :(1) 3 × 10–15 m (2) 6 × 10–15 m (3) 9 × 10–15 m (4) 24 × 10–15 m If two particles have equal de Broglie wavelength then they must have equal magnitude of :- –10 T (2) 10 (4) 10 –6 –7 T T 24. 16 –15 3 × 10 m 128 : (2) 6 × 10–15 (1) 3 × 10–15 (3) 9 × 10–15 (4) 24 × 10–15 25. :- (1) Speed (2) Kinetic energy (1) (2) (3) Momentum (4) Charge (3) (4) A a1 ˆi a 2 ˆj a 3 kˆ and B b1ˆi b2 ˆj b3 kˆ . If A is parallel to B , then which of the following is correct :- ˆ B ˆ 0 (2) A A a1 ˆi a 2 ˆj a 3 kˆ B b1ˆi b2 ˆj b3 kˆ . A B : (1) A B 0 ˆ B ˆ 0 (2) A a1 a 2 a 3 (3) b b b 1 2 3 a1 a 2 a 3 (3) b b b 1 2 3 (4) All of the above (4) (1) A B 0 1001CM302215016 26. H-5/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 27. If two rods of length L and 2L having coefficients of linear expansion and 2 respectively are connected so that total length becomes 3L, the average coefficient of linear expansion of the composition rod equals: 3 (1) 2 (3) 28. 5 3 27. 5 (2) 2 (1) 3 2 (2) (4) none of these (3) 5 3 (4) 28. One cannot see through fog, because :(1) Fog absorbs the light : (2) Light suffers total reflection at droplets (2) (3) Refractive index of the fog is infinity (3) (4) There is a uniform field E in X-direction. If the work done on moving a charge 0.2 C through a distance of 2 m along a line making an angle 60° with the X-axis is 4.0J, what is the value of E (1) 3 N/C (4) 20 N/C n B E, X- 0.2 C X- 60° 2 4.0 E (1) 3 N/C (2) 4 N/C (3) 5 N/C A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in four different orientations, I, II, III & IV. Arrange them in the decreasing order of potential energy :- I. 29. (2) 4 N/C (3) 5 N/C 30. 5 2 (1) (4) Light is scattered by the droplets 29. L 2L 2 3L II. B 30. (4) 20 N/C I, II, III IV : I. n B II. B n n n n III. B n III. IV. B B IV. B n (1) I > III > II > IV (1) I > III > II > IV (2) I > II > III > IV (2) I > II > III > IV (3) I > IV > II > III (3) I > IV > II > III (4) III > IV > I > II (4) III > IV > I > II Use stop, look and go method in reading the question H-6/35 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 31. A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r under centripetal force equal to 2 , where K is a constant. The total energy of r the particle is :- (2) (3) (4) 2 2 2r 2r 2r r Heat is flowing through two cylindrical rods of same material. The diameters of the rods are in the ratio 1 : 2 and their lengths are in the ratio 2 : 1. If the temperature difference between their ends is same, then the ratio of amounts of heat conducted through them per unit time will be : (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 8 The angular fringe width does not depend upon :(1) Wavelength () (2) Distance between slits (d) (3) Distance between slits and screen (D) (4) Ratio /d 31. (1) 32 33. 34. 35. The electric potential V is given as a function of distance x (metre) by V = (5x2 + 10x –9) volt. Value of electric field at x = 1m is (1) –20 V/m (2) 6 V/m (3) 11 V/m (4) –23 V/m Same current i = 2A is flowing in a wire frame as shown in figure. The frame is a combination of two equilateral triangles ACD and CDE of side 1m. It is placed in uniform magnetic field B = 4T acting perpendicular to the plane of frame. The magnitude of magnetic force acting on the frame is :- (1) 32 33. 36. 1001CM302215016 (2) 2r (3) 2r (4) r2 1 : 2 2 : 1 , : (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 8 : () (d) (D) /d (x) V = (5x2 + 10x –9) x=1 (1) (2) (3) (4) 34. 35. (1) –20 V/m (2) 6 V/m (3) 11 V/m (4) –23 V/m i = 2A ACD CDE 1m B = 4T :A × × × × × × D C × × × × × × × × × E× × × × × × × × (1) 24 N (2) Zero (3) 16 N (4) 8 N A mass of 2.9 kg is suspended from a string of length 50 cm and is at rest. Another body of mass 100 gm which is moving horizontally with a velocity of 150 m/sec strikes it. After striking the two bodies combine together. The tension in the string, when it makes an angle of 60º with the vertical, is :(1) 135.3 N (2) 165.5 N (3) 142.4 N (4) 90 N 2r 2 (1) 1 : 1 A × × × × × × D C × × × × × × × × × E× × × m r 2 r K :- 36. × × × × × (1) 24 N (2) (3) 16 N (4) 8 N 2.9 kg 50 cm 100 gm 150 m/sec 60º :(1) 135.3 N (2) 165.5 N (3) 142.4 N (4) 90 N H-7/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 37 38. A simple pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion with a time period T. If the length of the pendulum is increased by 21%, the increases in the time period of the pendulum of increased length is:(1) 10% (2) 21% (3) 30% (4) 50% When an unpolarised light of intensity I0 is incident on a polarising sheet, the intensity of the light which does not get transmitted is :(1) 39. 40. I0 2 37. 38. I0 4 (2) – e 41. × × × × × × (1) m L cos M (2) m L Mm (4) Mm mL cos mL cos mM I0 :- 39. I0 2 40. (4) I0 (1) 365 nm (2) 656 nm (3) 912 nm (4) 725 nm u x- y = 0 B B0 kˆ y- y- : – 41. u × × × × × × y × × × × × × × × × × × × × × × × × × × × × × × × (1) > u, y < 0 (2) = u, y > 0 (3) > u, y > 0 (4) = u, y < 0 M Q m P P L Q :(1) m L cos M (2) m L Mm (3) I0 4 (2) : P Q A (4) 50% e C M (3) 30% × × × × × × (1) > u, y < 0 (2) = u, y > 0 (3) > u, y > 0 (4) = u, y < 0 A block Q of mass M is placed on a horizontal frictionless surface AB and a body P of mass m is released on its frictionless slope. As P slides by a length L on this slope of inclination , the block Q would slide by a distance :- (3) H-8/35 u × × × × × × (2) 21% (3) of y-axis. The electron exits from the region after some time with the speed at co-ordinate y, then :y × × × × × × (1) 10% (1) (3) Zero (4) I0 The wavelength of the least energetic photon in the Balmer spectrum of hydrogen atom is :(1) 365 nm (2) 656 nm (3) 912 nm (4) 725 nm An electron moving with a speed u along the positive x-axis at y = 0 enters a region of uniform magnetic field B B0 kˆ which exists to the right × × × × × × T 21% : B (4) Mm mL cos C M P Q A B mL cos mM 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 42. 43. A cyclic process ABCA is shown in PT diagram. When presented on PV, it would 45. PV ABCA PT (1) (2) (1) (2) (3) (4) (3) (4) In young's double-slit experiment one of the slits is wider than other, so that amplitude of the light from one slit is double of that from other slit. If I m be the maximum intensity, the resultant intensity when they interfere at phase difference is given by :- Im (4 5cos ) (1) 9 44. 42. 43. I (2) m (1 2cos 2 ) 3 2 Im Im (1 4cos 2 ) (1 8cos 2 ) (3) (4) 5 2 9 2 Point charges +4q, –q and +4q are kept on the x-axis at point x = 0, x = a and x = 2a respectively, then (1) Only q is in stable equilibrium (2) None of the charges are in equilibrium (3) All the charge are in unstable equilibrium (4) All the charges are in stable equilibrium Two particles A and B of masses mA and mB respectively and having the same charge are moving in a plane. A uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of the particles are A and B respectively, and the trajectories are as shown in the figure. Then :- 44. 45. Im : (1) Im (4 5cos ) 9 (2) Im (1 2cos 2 ) 3 2 (3) Im (1 4cos 2 ) 5 2 (4) Im (1 8cos 2 ) 9 2 +4q, –q +4q x- x = 0, x = a x = 2a (1) –q (2) (3) (4) mA mB A B, A B :A A B B (1) mAA < mBB (1) mAA < mBB (2) mAA > mBB (2) mAA > mBB (3) mA < mB and A < B (3) mA < mB A < B (4) mA = mB and A = B (4) mA = mB A = B 1001CM302215016 H-9/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 46. 47. 40 milligram diatomic volatile substance (X2) is converted to vapour that displaced 4.92 mL of air at 1 atm and 300 K. Atomic weight of element X is nearly :(1) 400 (2) 240 (3) 200 (4) 100 Which graph represents correct order for boiling point of :(1) Ethane (2) Ethyl alcohol (3) Acetic Acid (1) B.P. (2) 1 (3) 50. 51. A Br2 3h (3) zero :(2) (1) (3) (3) 1 2 3 49. (2) 6h (4) 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 B.P. 3 : A Br2 (2) Na2 [Cd I4] (4) CH2 KMnO4 B A B :o- p- m- (hcp) : (1) (2) (3) (4) 50. 51. (1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 6 (4) 4 3p :(1) h 2 Which statement is wrong :(1) Marshell acid has no S–S bond (2) Cairo acid has one S–OH bond (3) : ratio is less for cairo acid than marshell acid (4) Both cairo & marshell acid are dibasic in nature. 2 (1) K3[Fe(CN)6] (3) Na2[Cu Cl4] CH B B.P. 3 (4) 1 48. 2 B.P. CH2 KMnO4 (2) 1 B.P. 3 B.P. 3 Compound A and B respectively are :(1) o-bromo styrene, benzoic acid (2) p-bromo styrene, benzaldehyde (3) m-bromo styrene, benzaldehyde (4) styrene dibromide, benzoic acid The coordination number of each sphere in (hcp) arrangement is :(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 6 (4) 4 The orbital angular momentum of 3p electron is:(1) 52. 2 Which compound is not coloured :(1) K3[Fe(CN)6] (2) Na2 [Cd I4] (3) Na2[Cu Cl4] (4) None of these CH 49. 2 47. (1) 1 (4) (X2) 40 1 300 K 4.92 ? X (1) 400 (2) 240 (3) 200 (4) 100 B.P. 3 B.P. 1 48. 2 46. 3h (3) 52. (2) 6h (4) 2 h 2 :S–S (1) (2) S–OH (3) : (4) Take it Easy and Make it Easy H-10/35 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 53. The number of isomers possible for square planer complex K2[PdClBr2(SCN)] is/are :(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6 53. K2[PdClBr2(SCN)] :(1) 2 (3) 4 O NH C O CH3 NH Br2 H/H2O NaNO2+HCl H2O A B C D H2O 54. C CH3 Br2 H/H2O NaNO2+HCl H2 O A B C D H2O 54. CH3 CH3 D ? Product D is ? NH2 NHCOCH3 Br (1) (2) (1) OH (3) CH3 CH3 OH N2Cl (3) CH3 55. Schottky defects occur mainly in ionic compounds where :(1) positive and negative ions are of different size (2) positive and negative ions are of same size (3) positive ions are small and negative ions are big (4) positive ions are big and negative ions are small 56. Consider the equation Z = PV . Which of the RT following statements is correct ? (1) When Z > 1, real gases are easier to compress than the ideal gas (2) When Z = 1, real gases get compressed easily (3) When Z > 1, real gases are difficult to compress (4) When Z >> 1, real gases are very easy to compress Aquaregia reacts with platinum to yield :(2) H2PtCl6 (1) Pt(NO3)4 (3) PtCl4 (4) PtCl2 Br Br (4) 1001CM302215016 (2) Br Br Br CH3 CH3 N2Cl NH2 NHCOCH3 Br Br CH3 57. (2) 3 (4) 6 (4) CH3 CH3 55. :(1) (2) (3) (4) 56. Z = PV : RT (1) Z > 1, 57. (2) Z = 1, (3) Z > 1, (4) Z >> 1, Pt :(1) Pt(NO3)4 (3) PtCl4 (2) H2PtCl6 (4) PtCl2 H-11/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 58. 59. The number of oxygen atoms bonded to one P-atom in P4O6 is :(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 Which is more reactive for nucleophilic substitution reaction :- 58. P4O6 P- :(1) 4 (3) 2 59. (2) 3 (4) 1 :- X X (2) (1) X X (2) (1) NO2 X X X O2N (3) 61. 62. 63. O2N (3) NO2 A solute forms a pentamer when dissolved in a solvent. The van't Hoff factor 'i' for the solute will be :(1) 0.2 (2) 0.8 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.6 The enthalpy change for the reaction, C2H6(g) 2C(g) + 6H(g) is X kJ. The bond energy of C–H bond is :(1) X 2 (2) (3) X 6 (4) data insufficient C CH B2H6 H2O2,OH X 60. CH3NH2 Y H2,Ni NO2 (1) 0.2 (3) 0.5 61. 62. 63. (2) 0.8 (4) 0.6 C2H6(g) 2C(g) + 6H(g) X C–H :- (1) X 2 (2) (3) X 6 (4) X 3 : (1) (2) (3) (4) :(1) Cl– (3) Br– 64. (2) I– (4) F– C CH B2H6 H2O2,OH X CH3NH2 Y H2,Ni (Y) :- The final product (Y) is :H H N (1) Ph N (2) Ph N (1) Ph H N (2) Ph H N (3) Ph N NO2 (4) OCH3 X 3 Smelting of iron in blast furnace not involves :(1) Reduction (2) Fusion (3) Decomposition (4) Sublimation Which one is most basic :(2) I– (1) Cl– (3) Br– (4) F– 64. X NO2 (4) OCH3 60. NO2 (4) Ph N (3) Ph N (4) Ph H-12/35 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 65. 66. 67. 68. Which statement about the composition of vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct ? Assume the temperature is constant at 25°C. Vapour pressure data (25°C) : Benzene 75 mm Hg Toluene 22 mm Hg (1) The vapour will contain higher percentage of benzene (2) The vapour will contain higher percentage of toluene (3) The vapour will contain equal amount of benzene and toluene (4) Not enough information is given to make a prediction Which of the following conditions regarding a chemical process ensures its spontaneity at all temperature ? (1) H > 0, G > 0 (2) H < 0, S > 0 (3) H < 0, S < 0 (4) H > 0, S < 0 Which halide has highest melting point :(1) NaCl (2) NaBr (3) NaF (4) NaI Which of the following compounds can be optically active? HC Cl H 1. H3C 3 H 3. C 70. (3) (4) 66. 67. ? (1) H > 0, G > 0 (2) H < 0, S > 0 (3) H < 0, S < 0 (4) H > 0, S < 0 :(1) NaCl (3) NaF 68. HC Cl H 1. H3C 3 69. C C CH 3 (1) 1 3 (2) 1 2 (3) 2 3 (4) 1, 2 3 O O H (2) H C (1) H O (4) C O H (2) H (3) temperature is given by the equation k Ae Ea / RT . Under what conditions is the rate constant k the smallest ? (1) High T and large Ea (2) High T and small Ea (3) Low T and large Ea (4) Low T and small Ea 70. C C H O O H CH3 H 2. H C H 3C The dependence of the rate constant for a reaction on 1001CM302215016 (2) NaBr (4) NaI H O C 22 mm Hg 3. O (3) C6H5CH3 C Select correct answer using the codes given : (1) 1 and 3 (2) 1 and 2 (3) 2 and 3 (4) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the following will give aldol condensation? C 75 mm Hg (2) C 6 H 5 CH 3 CH3 (1) C6H6 (1) C6H6 CH3 H 2. 1 : 1 C6H6 C6H5CH3 25°C (25°C) : H C H 3C 69. 65. (4) H k Ae Ea / RT (1) T Ea (2) T Ea (3) T Ea (4) T Ea H-13/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 71. 72. 73. When heated, ammonium carbamate decomposes as follows : NH4COONH2(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) At a certain temperature, the equilibrium pressure of the system is 0.318 atm. Kp for the reaction is: (1) 0.128 (2) 0.426 –3 (3) 4.76 × 10 (4) None of these Which salt not causes hardness in water :(2) CaCl2 (1) Mg(HCO3)2 (3) MgSO4 (4) MgCO3 H 3C CH Peroxide CH2 + HCl 71. 72. 73. Product, the intermediate of reaction is :(1) CH3 CH (2) CH3 CH3 CH 2 74. CH2 (3) CH3 CH CH3 (4) CH3 CH2 CH2 The product formed in the reaction is :- 74. : NH4COONH2(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) 0.318 Kp : (1) 0.128 (2) 0.426 (3) 4.76 × 10–3 (4) : (1) Mg(HCO3)2 (2) CaCl2 (3) MgSO4 (4) MgCO3 , : H 3C CH CH2 + HCl (1) CH3 CH (3) CH3 CH C OCH3 C (2) OH NaBH4 C O O CH2 (1) OH CH3 75. 76. 77. C O CH2 (3) O OH NaBH4 CH2 CH3 OH OH O OCH3 The activation energy of a certain reaction is 87 kJ mol–1. What is the ratio of the rate constants for this reaction when the temperature is decreased from 37°C to 15°C ? (1) 5/1 (2) 8.3/1 (3) 13/1 (4) 24/1 The enthalpy of neutralisation of four acids HA, HB, HC and HD with NaOH are –13, –12, –11, –10 kcal/mol. Which salt has maximum degree of hydrolysis ? (1) 1M NaA (2) 1M NaB (3) 1M NaC (4) 1M NaD Borax is prepared by treating colmenite with :(2) NaCl (1) NaNO3 (3) Na2CO3 (4) NaHCO3 H-14/35 OCH3 C (2) OH OH O (4) CH3 O CH2 (3) O CH 2 O O (1) OH CH2 (4) CH3 CH2 CH2 : O O (2) CH3 CH3 (4) 75. C OCH3 87 kJ mol–1 37°C 15°C (1) 5/1 (3) 13/1 76. 77. (2) 8.3/1 (4) 24/1 HA, HB, HC HD NaOH –13, –12, –11 –10 ? (1) 1M NaA (2) 1M NaB (3) 1M NaC (4) 1M NaD :(1) NaNO3 (3) Na2CO3 (2) NaCl (4) NaHCO3 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 OH O 78. Hg–O–C–CH3 2, H2O NaBH4 X X is :- 78. (2) (1) (2) (3) (4) 1 & 2 both (3) (4) 1 2 O 79. 79. OH 81. 82. 83. X :- Hg–O–C–CH3 2, H2O NaBH4 X (1) O 80. OH O OH Above conversion can be achieved by : (1) NH2-NH2/OH (2) Zn/Hg + Conc. HCl (3) LiAlH4 (4) NaBH4 An eletrolytic cell contains a solution of Ag2SO4 and has platinum electrodes. A current is passed until 1.6 g of O2 has been liberated at anode. The amount of silver deposited at cathode will be :(1) 108 g (2) 1.6 g (3) 0.8 g (4) 21.60 g For the redox reaction, + 2+ + CO2 + H2O MnO4– + C2O2– 4 + H Mn the correct coefficients of the reactants for the + balanced reaction are respectively MnO4–, C2O–2 4 ,H (1) 2, 5, 16 (2) 16, 3, 12 (3) 15, 16, 12 (4) 2, 16, 5 Which one is more stable :(1) Pb+4 (2) Ge+2 +4 (3) Sn (4) Ge+4 Which of the following alkenes will fallow Markownikoff rule ? (1) F 3C CH CH2 (2) Cl3C CH CH2 (3) O2N CH CH2 CH 3 (4) C CH3 1001CM302215016 CH 2 OH OH : (1) (2) (3) (4) 80. NH2-NH2/OH Zn/Hg + HCl LiAlH4 NaBH4 Ag2SO4 Pt 1.6 g O2 Ag (1) 108 g (3) 0.8 g 81. (2) 1.6 g (4) 21.60 g + 2+ MnO4– + C2O2– + CO2 + H2O 4 + H Mn – –2 + MnO4, C2O4 , H (1) 2, 5, 16 (3) 15, 16, 12 82. 83. (2) 16, 3, 12 (4) 2, 16, 5 :+4 (1) Pb (2) Ge+2 +4 (3) Sn (4) Ge+4 ? HCl (1) F 3C CH CH2 HCl (2) Cl3C CH CH2 HBr (3) O2N CH CH2 HBr CH 3 (4) C CH 2 HCl HCl HBr HBr CH3 H-15/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 84. 85. Biuret test is used for the detection of :(1) Sugar (2) Proteins (3) fats (4) starch In the process of electroplating, 'm' g of silver is deposited when 4 ampere of current flows 2 minutes. The amount (in g) of silver deposited by 6 ampere of current flowing for 40 seconds will be :(1) 4m 86. 87. m 2 (2) (3) 4m 3 :(2) (4) 'm' g Ag 4A 2 6A 40 Ag (1) (3) 85. (4) 3m Choose incorrect statement :(1) 1st ionisation potential Mg < S < P < F (2) Atomic radii Cl < Mg < P < Ca (3) Basic nature Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O (4) Acidic nature NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 Dry bleaching is done by :(2) SO2 (1) Cl2 (3) O3 (4) H2O2 H 84. (1) 4m 86. m 2 (2) (3) 4m 3 :1st Mg < S < P < F Cl < Mg < P < Ca Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 : (1) (2) (3) (4) 87. (2) SO2 (4) H2O2 (1) Cl2 (3) O3 H O N O N Br2 + Fe 88. H Z; Identify Z :- H O (1) H O H Br Br H O N N O N (2) Br O H O (1) Br Z; Z :- N (2) H Br2 + Fe 88. N N H O O N N Br (3) Br (4) (3) Br 89. 90. (4) 3m (4) Br Terelene is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and :(1) Benzoic acid (2) Phthalic acid (3) Salicylic acid (4) Terephthalic acid The extent of adsorption of a gas on a solid depends on :(1) nature of the gas (2) pressure of the gas (3) temperature of the gas (4) all are correct 89. 90. : (1) (2) (3) (4) :(1) (2) (3) (4) H-16/35 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 91. 92. Read the following term carefully :Pyrenoids, Algin, Carrageen, mannitol, Starch, Polysiphonia, Dictyota, Fucus, Pear shaped Zoospore, Oogamous, Volvox, Chlorophyll 'd', Fucoxanthin, ribbon shaped chloroplast, holdfast How many terms are related with brown algae ? (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 9 (4) 8 In the given figures of arthropods, which is/are an examples of gregarious pest :- 91. : 'd', (1) 10 92. (2) 12 (3) 9 (a) (a) (b) (c) 93. (b) (c) (d) Options (1) Only a (2) a and d (3) c and d (4) a and b Given below is the diagrammatic view of cell cycle indicating formation of two cells from one cell, with its part labelled from A to E. (1) a d (3) c 93. (2) a d (4) a b A E C E G0 G0 B D G2 e as Ph e as Ph M M G2 A A D Find out the wrong statement (1) In animal cell during "C" DNA replication begins in the nucleus and the centeriole duplication is also in the nucleus. (2) During "A" centriole move toward opposite pole of the cell (3) During "D" nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters (4) In animal "B" is achieved by the appearance of the furrow in the plasma membrane 1001CM302215016 (d) C E B (4) 8 (1) "C" DNA (2) "A" (3) "D" (4) "B" H-17/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 DNA is chemically and structurally more stable as compared to RNA due to :(a) Presence of thymine in place of uracil (b) Deoxyribose sugar (c) Double-stranded nature Options:(1) a only (2) b only (3) a and b only (4) a, b and c 95. To evolve pureline in animals which breeding method is required ? (1) Cross-breeding (2) In-breeding (3) Out-Crossing (4) Interspecific hybridisation 96. Flower that contain all four whorls called as :(1) Complete flower (2) Incomplete flower (3) Bisexual flower (4) Sterile 97. How are RFLPs detected :(1) By amplifying the DNA using PCR (2) By doing standard mendelian cross (3) By observing DNA of different lengths on a Nitrocellulose membrane. (4) By obserbing the chromosome under microscope 98. pBR322 is the first cloning vector constructed in 1977 by Boliver & Rodriguez. For how many restriction enzymes it posses recognition sites ? (1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 6 99. What is not true about tropics ? (1) More constant and predictable environment (2) More solar energy available (3) Had a long evolutionary time (4) Less seasonal variation not promote niche specialization 100. How many statements are correct ? (a) Pelvic girdle consists of 2 coxal bone. (b) Clavicle articulates with acromian process. (c) Scapula is present between 2nd and 8th ribs. (d) patella covers the knee dorsally (knee cap). (e) Decreased Oestrogen is responsible for osteoporosis. (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5 101. Panthera leo, Panthera pardus and Panthera tigris represent :(1) They are member of same species (2) They are species of different genus (3) They are different species of same genus (4) Panthera is a name of species while leo, pardus and tigris represent variety 94. H-18/35 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. RNA DNA :(a) (b) (c) :(1) a (2) b (3) a b (4) a, b c (1) (2) (3) (4) :(1) (2) (3) (4) RFLPs (1) PCR DNA (2) (3) Nitrocellulose DNA (4) pBR322 1977 (1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 6 (1) (2) (3) (4) 100. ? (a) 2 (b) (c) (d) (e) 99. (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5 101. Panthera leo, Panthera pardus Panthera tigris :(1) (2) (3) (4) Panthera leo, pardus tigris 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 102. Which of the following animal possess poison sting :(1) Bufo (2) Trygon (3) Chameleon (4) Hemidactylus 103. In human beings the membrane of the erythrocytes has approximately..........percent protein and...............percent lipids respectively (1) 40, 52 (2) 32, 40 (3) 52, 40 (4) 62, 32 102. 104. Find out the correct match from the following table 104. Column I (i) Column II Column III Polysaccharide Acid Insoluble Bio macro fraction molecule (ii) Lipid Acid soluble fraction Biomacro molecule (iii) Protein Acid insoluble Biomicro pool molecule (1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii) (3) (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iii) 105. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only. (a) Cross-breeding allows the desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined. (b) Honey is the food of high nutritive value and is used in the preparation of cosmetics and polishes of various kinds. (c) Pisciculture is an industry devoted to the catching processing or selling of fish, shellfish or other aquatic animals. (d) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior genes. Options : (1) Statement (b), (c) and (d) (2) Statement (a) and (d) (3) Statement (c) and (d) (4) Statement (a), (c) and (d) 106. Which one of the following act as organs of perennation to tide over condition unfavourable for growth ? (1) Under ground stem of potato (2) Under ground stem of turmeric (3) Under ground stem of zaminkand (4) All of the above 1001CM302215016 (1) (2) (3) (4) 103. (1) 40, 52 (3) 52, 40 I (i) (2) 32, 40 (4) 62, 32 II III (ii) (iii) (1) (i) (2) (i) (ii) (3) (iii) (4) (ii) (iii) (a-d) 105. :(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (b), (c) (d) (2) (a) (d) (d) (3) (c) (4) (a), (c) (d) 106. (1) (2) (3) (4) H-19/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 107. When lactose is present :(1) The repressor is able to bind to the operator (2) The repressor is unable to bind to the operator (3) Transcription of lac y, lac z and lac A genes occurs (4) Both (2) and (3) are correct 108. Biogas is the mixture of gases produced by the microbial activity. The type of gas produced depends upon :(1) Type of microbes (2) Type of organic substrate/waste (3) Size of digester (4) (1) & (2) both 109. Choose the correct match. (a) Co-evolution – Endoparasite & host (b) Mutualism – Relation of plants and BGA (c) Sexual deceit – Shown by opuntia plant (d) Connell's elegant field experiment – Competition Options :(1) Only a & b (2) Only b & c (3) Only c & d (4) a, b & d 110. Which of the following pair of essential elements are reversibly oxidised during redox reactions or electron transfer ? (1) Manganese and boron (2) Calcium and Potassium (3) Copper and Iron (4) Magnesium and Sulphur 107. (1) (repressor) (2) (repressor) 111. Choose the correct statement :- 111. (1) Bacterial flagella are made up of Basal body hook and filament (2) Single protective unit of bacteria is made up of only cell wall (3) Pili are longer than flagella (4) A plasmid always attached with genophore 112. Which of the following character is common for Columba, Calotes, Macropus and Ornithorhynchus :- 108. 109. 110. (3) lac y, lac z lac A (4) (2) (3) (1) (2) (3) Digester (4) (1) (2) (a) – (b) – BGA (c) – (d) – :(1) a b (2) b c (4) a, b d (3) c d (1) (2) (3) (4) :(1) (2) (3) (4) 112. :(1) (1) Homoiothermous (2) (2) Oviparous (3) (3) Oil gland at the base of tail (4) Development is direct (4) H-20/35 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 113. Which stage of mitosis is marked by alignment of chromosomes at the equatorial plate ? (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase 114. Upper one third of oesophagus contains :(1) Striped muscle layer (2) Skeletal muscle layer (3) Unstriated/Smooth muscle layer (4) Both (1) and (2) 115. The figure below show four stage (a, b, c, d) of human development. Select the option giving correct identification together with site of occurance ? 113. (1) (2) (3) (4) 114. :(1) (2) (3) / (4) (1) (2) 115. (a, b, c, d) ? (a) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d) Figure Developmental stage Site of occurrence (1) (a) Fertilised egg Isthmus part of fallopian tube (1) (a) (2) (b) Zygote End part of fallopian tube (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (3) (c) Morula Starting point of Fallopian tube (4) (d) Blastocyst Uterine cavity 116. Cell of tapetum possess :(1) Light cytoplasm, single nucleus (2) Light cytoplasm, many nucleus (3) Dense cytoplasm, many nucleus (4) Dense cytoplasm, single nucleus 1001CM302215016 116. :(1) (2) (3) (4) H-21/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 117. Which of the following crosses and resultant phenotypic ratios are mismatches :- (1) (2) (3) (4) Cross Phenotypic ratio Tt × Tt 3:1 tt × Tt 2:1 TtYy × ttyy 1:1:1:1 TtYy × TtYy 9:3:3:1 118. Injections of toxoid as vaccine is given to prevent:(1) Diphtheria (2) Small pox (3) Chicken pox (4) Chronic headache 119. Match the following. Column-I Type of interactions (a) (b) Proto Co-operation Commensalism Column-II Organism 117. (1) (2) (3) (4) Cross Phenotypic ratio Tt × Tt 3:1 tt × Tt 2:1 TtYy × ttyy 1:1:1:1 TtYy × TtYy 9:3:3:1 118. (1) (2) (3) (4) 119. -I (i) Penicillium & Staphyllococcus (a) (ii) Sea anemone and clawn fish (b) -II (i) (ii) (c) Amensalism (iii) Cuckoo and crow (c) (iii) (d) Parasitism (iv) Hermit crab and sea anemone (d) (iv) Options :(1) a-ii b-i c-iv d-iii (2) a-iii b-ii c-iv d-i (3) a-iv b-ii c-i d-iii (4) a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv 120. Which statement is not true for vernalisation ? (1) It affects quantity and quality of flowering (2) It promotes flowering through a period of low temperature (3) It prevents precocious reproductive development (4) Spring varieties of wheat require vernalisation 121. Choose the incorrect statement regarding basidiomycetes :(1) Asexual reproduction with the help of fragmentation. (2) Rust, smut and mushroom are related with this group. (3) Karyogamy and meiosis take place in the basidium (4) Commonly known forms are Agaricus, Aspergillus and Alternaria. H-22/35 :(1) (2) (3) (4) a-ii a-iii a-iv a-i b-i b-ii b-ii b-ii c-iv c-iv c-i c-iii d-iii d-i d-iii d-iv 120. (1) (2) (3) (4) 121. :(1) (2) (3) (4) 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 122. The quiescent centre concept was proposed by :(1) Schmidt (2) Nageli (3) Derman (4) Clowes 123. Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the which face of the golgi apparatus :(1) Trans face (2) Convex face (3) Maturing face (4) Vesicle fuse with lysosome 124. Which of the following shows correct pairing for salivary glands in man :(1) Parotid Wharton's duct; Submaxillary duct of Stensen; Sublingual duct of Rivinus (Quiescent centre) 122. :(2) (1) (3) (4) 123. : (1) (2) (3) (4) 124. :(1) (2) Parotid duct of Rivinus; Submaxillary duct of Stensen; Sublingual Wharton's duct (2) ; (3) Parotid duct of Rivinus; Submaxillary Wharton's duct; Sublingual duct of Stensen (3) ; ; (4) Parotid duct of Stensen; Submaxillary Wharton's duct; Sublingual duct of Rivinus (4) ; ; 125. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta ? It :(1) Facilitates removal of CO2 and waste material from embryo (2) Secrete oxytocin during parturition (3) Secrete estrogen & progesterone (4) Faciliates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo 126. Read the following statements– (A) Majority of plants use biotic agent for pollination (B) In water lily, pollination takes place by water (C) In papaya plant ovary have many ovule How many statement is/are correct :(1) A & B (2) A & C (3) B & C (4) A, B & C 127. Mendelian principles are :(1) Linkage segregation and independent assortment (2) Dominance, segregation and linkage (3) Dominance, segregation and independent assortment (4) Dominance, independent assortment linkage 125. :- (1) CO2 (2) (3) (4) 126. (A) (B) (C) : (1) A B (2) A C (3) B C (4) A, B C 127. (1) (2) (3) (4) 1001CM302215016 H-23/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 128. The toxin produced by tetanus germs affects:(1) Voluntary muscles (2) Involuntary muscles (3) Both voluntary and involuntary muscles (4) Jaw bones 129. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of ecological succession. Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represented ? 128. (1) (2) (3) (4) 129. (A, B, C) (A) (A) (B) (C) Options :(1) A - Marsh meadow stage (2) B - Scrub stage (3) C - Reed swamp stage (4) B - Marsh meadow stage 130. In lactic acid fermentation :(1) Triose phosphate is the electron donor, while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor (2) Triose phosphate is the electron donor, while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor (3) Pyruvic acid is the electron donor, while triose phosphate is the electron acceptor (4) Acetaldehyde is the electron donor, while triose phosphate is the electron acceptor H-24/35 (B) (C) :A - B - C - B - 130. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 131. (I) Fertilization (II) Liberation of spores (III) Prothallus formation (IV) Embryo formation Arrange the above events in a correct sequence in the life cycle of Pteridophytes :(1) II, III, I, IV (2) IV, III, II, I (3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, IV, III, II 132. The pulp of pear is crisp due to the presence of:(1) Fibers (2) Sclereids (3) Both of these (4) Silica 133. 'Marsupial mole' and kangaroo are the example of :(1) Divergent evolotion (2) Convergent evolotion (3) Adaptive Radiation (4) Both 1 and 3 134. Which of the following is incorrect regarding fresh water fish ? (1) They pass dilute Urine (2) Generally do not drink water (3) Ionocyte remove monovalent ions (4) All the above 135. In which stage of development the embryonic cells form the germinal layers by the movement? (1) Morula (2) Blastula (3) Gastrula (4) Zygote 136. Filiform apparatus is found in which part of Angiosperm ? (1) Funiculum (2) Antipodal (3) Egg cell (4) Synergid cell 137. Improved variety of wheat 'Sonalika' is developed by which method :(1) Introduction (2) Mutation breeding (3) Hybridisation (4) Tissue Culture 138. Cancer is :(1) A highly infectious disease caused by viruses (2) Formation of tumours due to the uncontrolled division of cells (3) Gradual degeneration of a tissue or organ (4) A non-communicable nutritional disorders 131. (I) (II) (III) (IV) :- (1) II, III, I, IV (3) I, II, III, IV (2) IV, III, II, I (4) I, IV, III, II 132. (1) (2) (Sclereids) (3) (4) 133. ' ' :(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 3 134. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 135. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 136. (1) (2) (3) (4) 137. ' ' :(2) (1) (3) (4) 138. (1) (2) (3) (4) Time Management is Life Management 1001CM302215016 H-25/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 139. Which one of the following option gives the correct categorisation of three examples according to the type of species (A, B, C) they give out :- B Critical link species A Key Stone Species C Endemic species (1) Meta sequioa Lion in forest Mycorrhizal in china valley fungi (2) Kangaroo in Australia Fig tree in Pollinator tropical forest insect (3) Kangaroo rat in desert Mycorrhizal fungi Meta sequoia in china valley (4) Lion in forest Kangaroo in Pollinator Australia insect 140. Identify the incorrect match : Column-I 139. (A, B, C) :A B C (1) (2) (3) (4) 140. -I Column-II -II (1) Phosphofructokinase Transferase (1) (2) Aldolase Lyase (2) (3) Citrate synthase Oxidoreductase (3) (4) Mutase Isomerase (4) 141. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a organism Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them :- B 141. A, B, C D : B A A C C D D A A B C D 1 Stigma Nucleus Cellulose Contractile vacuole 2 Eye spot Chloroplast Pellicle Flagella 3 Stigma Chloroplast Pectin Reservoir 4 Eye spot Nucleus Pellicle Contractile vacuole H-26/35 1 B 2 3 C D 4 (Resesvoir) 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 142. Collenchyma is a :(1) Photosynthetic tissue only (2) Water conducting tissue (3) Living, mechanical tissue (4) Dead, mechanical tissue 143. What is the main key concept of Darwinian theory of evolution :(A) Natural selection (B) Branching descent (C) Mutation (D) Genetic variation (1) A, C, D (2) A, B (3) A, B, C, D (4) A, D 144. Creatine is normally present in the urine of ? (1) Infants :142. (1) (2) (3) (4) 143. :(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) A, C, D (2) A, B (3) A, B, C, D (4) A, D 144. (1) (2) Lactating mother (2) (3) Pregnant female (3) 145. The corpus luteum is maintained for the first 8 weeks of pregnancy by :(1) HCG (2) LH (3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone 146. Choose the correct identification for given below plants respectively :- (4) 145. 8 : (1) HCG (2) LH (3) (4) 146. :- (1) Whorted phyllotaxy, Palmately compound leaf (2) Pinnately compound leaf, Whorled phyllotaxy (3) Palmately compound leaf, Whorled phyllotaxy (4) Alternate phyllotaxy, Palmately compound leaf 147. Breeding crop with higher levels of nutrients, to improve public health is called :(1) Organic farming (2) Biofortification (3) Bio informatics (4) Genetic enginering 148. Dilation of blood vessels, increase in fat synthesis, low blood sugar and inflammation of stomach are due to the consumption of :(1) Tobacco (2) Drug addiction (3) Alcohol (4) Tobacco and drug addiction 147. : (1) (2) (3) Bio informatics (4) 148. (1) (2) (3) (4) (4) All the above 1001CM302215016 (1) (2) (3) (4) H-27/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 149. Represents below the ecological pyramid, which one of the following condition could be an example of this pattern ? PC 21 PP 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. PC 4 Options :(1) Pryamid of number in grass land ecosystem (2) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem (3) Pyramid of number in aquatic ecosystem (4) Pyramid of energy in forest ecosystem If some solute is dissolved in pure water, the solution has fewer free water, reducing its : (1) DPD (2) Osmotic potential (3) Water potential (4) Both (2) and (3) How many of the following features are used as the basis of animal classification ? (i) Arrangement of cells (ii) Body symmetry (iii)Nature of coelom (iv)Patterns of digestive system (v) Patterns of circulatory system (vi)Patterns of reproductive system (1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six Carbonic anhydrase is found in :(1) RBC (2) WBC (3) Platelet (4) All of the above According to Hugo de Vries, what is the main cause of evolution :(1) Crossing over (2) Mutation (3) Natural selection (4) Mutation and isolation Which of the following statement is false? (1) Light induces dissociation of the retinal from opsin. (2) Action potential is generated in photoreceptor cells. (3) When red, green and blue cones are stimulated equally than sensation of white light is produced (4) Action potential is transmitted by optic nerve to visual cortex area of brain. H-28/35 149. 21 PP 4 :(1) (2) (3) (4) 150. (1) DPD (2) (3) (4) (2) (3) 151. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (1) (2) (3) (4) 152. :(1) RBC (3) Platelet (2) WBC (4) 153. :(1) (2) (3) (4) 154. ? (1) (2) (3) (4) 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 155. Read the following statements (A-D):(A) The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during fourth month. (B) SAHELI a new oral contrapceptive for the females (C) MTPs are considered relatively safe during the second trimester (D) The corpus luteum secretes large amount of estrogen which is essential for maintenance of the endometrium How many statement are incorrect in following? (A-D):155. (A) (B) (C) MTPs (D) (1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (1) 156. Which of the following is not true :(1) A holandric gene in humans is not expected to be phenotypically expressed in women (2) In Drosophila, the y-chromosome does not determine maleness but is necessary for fertility (3) Sex-linked recessive traits in human beings are always expected to be more frequent in males than in females (4) In honey bee, worker develop from unfertilized eggs 157. Pomato is an example of : (2) (3) 156. (1) (2) y- (3) (4) 157. (1) Somatic hybrid (1) (2) Somatic embryo (2) (3) Androgenic haploid (3) (4) Single cell protein (4) 158. Which is not related to tobacco addiction ? (1) Gastric and duodenal ulcer 158. ? (1) (2) Bronchitis (2) (3) Liver cirrhosis (3) (4) Emphysema (4) 159. Which of the following produce negative pressure in thoracic cavity ? (1) Exhalation (2) Contraction of diaphragm muscles (3) Relaxation of muscles between ribs (4) Contraction of muscles in wall of stomach 1001CM302215016 (4) 159. (1) (2) (3) (4) H-29/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 160. Diffusion is obvious in ___(A)___ but diffusion ____(B)____ rather than ____(C)___ is more likely. 160. ___(A)___ ____(B)____ ____(C)___ A B C Gases of solids in solids (1) Gases and (2) liquids in solids of solids (2) (3) Gases and liquids of solids in solids (3) (4) Gases in solids and liquids of solids and liquids (4) (1) 161. In the members of which phylum digestive system is incomplete :(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes (3) Arthropoda (4) Echinodermata 162. Wound healing cell is :(1) Fibroblast (2) Mast cell (3) Lymphocyte (4) Adipocyte 163. A process in which heritable variations enabling better survival are enabled to reproduce and leave greater number of progeny is called :- A B C (2) (3) (4) 162. :(1) (2) (3) (4) 163. : (2) (3) Founder effect (3) (4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) (3) due to it's greyish appearance (3) The cerebrum wraps around a structure called thalamus, which is major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling (1) (2) Natural selection (2) Corpus callosum is referred to as grey matter 161. (1) (1) Arachnoid is adhered to the brain tissue (1) Genetic drift 164. Which of the following statement is true ? ? 164. (1) (2) (3) (4) (4) Hypothalamus lies at the roof of the thalamus H-30/35 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 165. Match the column I with column II and select out correct option given below :- I II 165. :- P. A. Mustard P. A. Q. B. Primrose Q. B. R. C. China rose R. C. S. D. Sun flower S. D. (1) P = C, Q = B, R = A, S = D (2) P = C, Q = A, R = B, S = D (3) P = A, Q = C, R = D, S = B (4) P = D, Q = B, R = A, S = C 166. How many dominant characteristics are present in pea plant from given list :Round seed, Green seed colour, full pod shape, yellow pod colour, terminal flower position, white flower colour, (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4 167. In gel electrophoresis :(1) DNA fragments are arranged according to length on gel by applying electric field (2) DNA fragments are arranged according to charge (3) DNA fragments are treated by alkali solution (4) DNA fragments are denatured 168. In area or seasons of lesser solar radiations, smog formation is incomplete and the air is reffered to as :(1) Brown air (2) Grey air (3) Yellow air (4) Colourless air 1001CM302215016 (1) (2) (3) (4) P P P P = = = = C, Q = B, C, Q = A, A, Q = C, D, Q = B, R = A, S = D R = B, S = D R = D, S = B R = A, S = C 166. (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4 167. ? (1) DNA (2) DNA (3) DNA (4) DNA 168. : (1) (2) (3) (4) H-31/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 169. Which of the following valve possess only 2 cusps? (1) Valve on right AV foramen (2) Valve on left AV foramen (3) Valve on pulmonary arch (4) Valve on systemic aorta 170. Find out the correct match from the following table : Column-I (i) Z-scheme Column-II Located on inner side of (ii) Photosystem-I NADP-reductase thylakoid membrane + (iii) OEC Photolysis of H 2O H released into thylakoid lumen (iv) Calvin cycle Carboxylation 2 ATP required (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii) 171. Which of the following character is incorrect for given figure of an animal :- (1) Choanocytes or collar cells line the spongocoel and canal (2) Digestion is intracellular (3) Marine (4) Hermaphrodite 172. How many segmental ganglia are found in nervecord of cockroach ? (1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 9 (4) 8 173. Leaderberg replica experiment shows that nature always select the :(1) Genetic mutation (2) Pre existing advantageous mutation (3) Somatic mutation (4) None of the above H-32/35 -I Column-III Mobile electron carrier Plastocyanin ? 169. AV (1) (2) AV (3) (4) 170. -II -III (i) Z- (ii) -I NADP- (iii) OEC (iv) H+ 2 ATP (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii) 171. (1) (2) (3) (4) 172. (1) (2) (3) (4) 173. : (1) (2) (3) (4) 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 174. Mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generations is termed as? (1) In-breeding (2) Cross- breeding (3) Out-crossing (4) Inter specific hybridisation 175. Select out wrong match :(1) Valvate — Calotropis (2) Twisted — Gulmohur (3) Imbricate — Cassia (4) Vexillary — Bean 176. Gynandromorphism in certain flies are the result of :(1) Disjunction of x-chromosome (2) Repeated and sudden changes in both x and y chromosome (3) Abnormal division of chromosomes where by one of the x-choromosome gets lost (4) Failure of x and y chromosome to seperate during gamete formation 177. Statement–1 : Biolistics method of gene transfer is an example of direct gene transfer. Statement–2 : In biolistics method PBR322 is used. (1) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true; Statement–2 is not the correct explanation of Statement–1. (2) Statement–1 is false, Statement–2 is true. (3) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is false. (4) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true; Statement–2 is the correct explanation of Statement–1. 178. By vanishing of which type of forest for agriculture, the fertility of soil is reduced and does not support agriculture ? (1) Grass land (2) Tropical deciduous forest (3) Tropical rain forest (4) Temperate deciduous forest 179. Identify the parts labelled A, B and C respectively in given diagram and select the right option about correct sequence of them :A B C (1) Myosin, Troponin, Tropomyosin (2) Tropomyosin, Troponin, F-actin (3) F-actin, Troponin, Tropomyosin (4) Troponin, Tropomyosin, F-actin 1001CM302215016 174. 4-6 (1) (2) (3) (4) 175. : (1) — (2) — (3) — (4) — 176. (1) x- (2) x y (3) x- (4) x y 177. –1 : –2 : PBR322 (1) -1 -2 -2, -1 (2) -1 -2 (3) -1 -2 (4) -1 -2 -2, -1 178. (1) (2) (3) (4) 179. A, B C : A B C (1) (2) (3) (4) F- F- F- H-33/35 Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/27-01-2016 180. Enzyme which can catalyze both carboxylation and oxygenation of RuBP in the chloroplast is not found in : (1) Mesophyll cells of Sorghum (2) Bundle sheath cells of sugarcane (3) Mesophyll cells of Sedum (4) Mesophyll cells of wheat 180. RuBP (1) (2) (3) Sedum (4) Your moral duty is to prove that is Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016 H-34/35 1001CM302215016 Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-II/27-01-2016 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 1001CM302215016 H-35/35
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