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Clinical Supervisor Credential
Exam Questions Packet
Certification Exam
Exam No:
CT-1851
Exam Title:
Clinical Supervisor Credential (CSC) – Certification Exam
Objective:
Tests the Clinical Supervisor Credential (CSC) candidate knowledge and
skills related to the effect of the management role on managers, the
financial cost of addictive disorders, models of supervision, management
styles, faith-based modalities, and an historical perspective of the
supervisor role. Includes an examination of leadership in clinical
supervision, strategic planning tools, preventing sexual harassment,
transference and countertransference, and the development of competent
counselors. Includes an examination of professional and ethical standards
of case management, confidentiality of records, program description policy,
supervising recovering counselors, and policy and organizational design.
CE Credit / Hours: This Clinical Supervisor Credential (CSC) – Certification Exam also
qualifies for 16.0 hours Clinical Supervision Continuing Education (CE)
credit.
Exam Material:
Breining Research and Education Foundation (2010). The Clinical
Supervisor: Training Manual for Clinical Supervisor Competency in
the Addiction Treatment Setting. Sacramento, California: Breining
Institute.
Exam Questions:
Sixty (60) multiple-choice questions.
Answer Sheet:
The on-line Answer Sheet will automatically grade your exam, and a
Certificate of Completion will be automatically generated and sent to you by
e-mail upon your successfully answering 70% of the questions correctly
and completing your payment for the course.
Recommendation: Review the exam questions before you read the Exam Material. The Exam
Questions are based upon the information presented in the Exam Material.
You should choose the best answer based upon the information contained
within the Exam Material.
GOOD LUCK!
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These Exam Questions are based upon the information presented in the Exam Material. You
should choose the best answer based upon the information contained within the Exam Material.
Answers which are not consistent with the information provided within the Exam Material will be
marked incorrect. A score of at least 70% correct answers is required to pass the Exam and
receive Course credit. GOOD LUCK!
The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 1.1 – Effect of the Management Role on Managers: A Study
1. This chapter describes a research project designed to identify specific areas of
concern for substance abuse managers. The results included subject responses
to the question “How did being a counselor help you as a manager?” Which of
the following statements is accurate relating to those responses?
a. They greatly valued two skills – listening and understanding the pressures
of the job – developed as line staff.
b. They did not think that being a line counselor was much benefit to
understanding their new role as a manager.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Neither A nor B above.
2. This chapter describes a research project designed to identify specific areas of
concern for substance abuse managers. The results included subject responses
to the question “What is the most difficult ongoing part of your job—the part that
doesn’t seem to get better or easier no matter what you do?” Which of the
following statements is accurate relating to those responses?
a. The slight increase in compensation does not balance out with the
increased mental stresses of supervision.
b. Serving too many masters and feeling pulled in equally important
directions at the same time.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Neither A nor B above.
3. This chapter describes a research project designed to identify specific areas of
concern for substance abuse managers. The results included subject responses
to the question “What’s the most important thing you could have used as
information or guidance that could have better equipped your for your
management position overall?” Which of the following statements is accurate
relating to those responses?
a. Motivational interviewing skills.
b. Administrative skills such as contract negotiation, budget management,
data gathering, and program planning.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Neither A nor B above.
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The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 1.2 – Financial Cost of Addictive Disorders
4. Which of the following statements is NOT included in the “Productivity Loss”
section of this article?
a. Impaired productivity and loss of productivity is the loss of earnings due to
the absence of work and household tasks.
b. The costs incurred by impaired productivity are usually born by the
employers of the addicted individuals.
c. The costs incurred by impaired productivity are usually born by the
addicted individuals or their family members.
d. The prevalence of low work productivity from employees who are drug or
alcohol dependant is very high. Addiction leads to loss of pay and
increased unemployment as the individual suffering from addiction starts
showing withdrawal symptoms and stops working altogether.
5. Which of the following statements is included in the “Benefits of treatments for
addiction disorders” section of this article?
a. The benefits of treatments can be evaluated by considering two main
aspects, the effectiveness of the treatment and the cost effectiveness of
the treatment.
b. The effectiveness of treatment simply involves the abstinence from the
factors causing addiction.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Neither A nor B above.
6. Which of the following statements is NOT included in the “Prevention education
of addictive disorders” section of this article?
a. Prevention Education provides education, training and technical
assistance to individuals and communities to delay the onset of use,
reduce risk factors, and increase protective factors linked to substance
abuse and dependency.
b. Prevention education focuses on increasing knowledge perspective on
drugs, understanding the consequences of drug use, developing self
respect and esteem, developing skills for good communication,
interpersonal relationships, assertion and reducing anxiety, making aware
the influence of other people like film stars and celebrities, bringing an
ethical approach where the use of substance is bad and enhancing an
attitude of anti drug use.
c. The methods that are used in the prevention education are instructions on
the different substances and the consequences of their use, discussion on
the substances, audio video presentations, display of various substances
and their side effects, distributing posters, notices and pamphlets, group
problem solving through conducting group discussions. Individual and
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group psychotherapy is very useful in the prevention of addictive disorders
where the therapist and the client engage in a discussion on problems of
the client after using chemical substances.
d. Prevention education is the tertiary method of prevention most favored by
formal education providers such as high schools, colleges and trade
schools.
The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 2.1 – Models of Supervision: A Brief Overview
7. Supervision is an essential component of counselor development. The author of
this article states that the Center for Substance Abuse Treatment suggests that
supervision is necessary in the substance abuse treatment field for all of the
following reasons, except:
a. To maintain revenues adequate revenues in order to maintain an
appropriate level of care.
b. To improve client care.
c. Develop the professionalism of clinical personnel.
d. Impart and maintain ethical standards in the field.
8. The central idea of Developmental Models of supervision is which of the
following?
a. The supervisor moves back and forth between the role of counselor and
teacher depending on the needs of the supervisee
b. There is attention paid to awareness of self and others, motivation toward
the developmental process, and autonomy.
c. A beginning supervisee may rely on the supervisor for helping to
understand, diagnose, or explain client behavior, while an advanced
supervisee may be more independent and seek consultation when
necessary.
d. People continuously grow and develop while progressing through a
number of stages on the path towards clinical competence.
9. The Integrated Developmental Model (IDM), developed by Stoltenberg, McNeil,
and Delworth, is a well-known developmental model. This approach describes 3
different levels, which includes all of the following, except:
a. Counselors are just beginning and learning/practicing new theories. There
may be anxiety about being new, having a smaller set of skills or
knowledge, and being evaluated.
b. Counselors start to develop administrative skills, gain confidence in
conducting intake and assessment interviews, and begin making referrals
to the appropriate programs.
c. Counselors are more experienced but still receive consistent supervision.
They become more comfortable and begin to explore further.
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d. Counselors start to understand the ways in which their clients view the
world. They also attempt to figure out what information is important to
explore and focus on for each client.
10. The Discrimination Model presents different areas of focus for the trainees and
the roles that the supervisor adopts, which includes all of the following, except:
a. Intervention skills.
b. Interpersonal skills.
c. Conceptualization skills.
d. Personalization skills.
11. The Integrative Models:
a. Present the supervisor with an approach that focuses on the role and
relationship between him or herself and the trainee.
b. Work best when providing services to multi-ethnic client populations.
c. Are based upon the concept that the clinical surroundings (such as
reception area, counselor/client offices, group discussion rooms, etc.) are
designed together to create a total rehabilitative environment.
d. Combine two or more different approaches, which could include, for
example, paying attention to developmental levels within a social role
model.
The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 2.2 – Management Styles
12. This section identifies general personalities or types of employees that tend to be
present in care giving agencies. Of the following descriptions, which is indicative
of the Careerist?
a. These individuals are not motivated by work-related concerns. In general
they seek interesting work that is moderately challenging but that does not
demand too much from them. They also desire pleasant, friendly coworkers and supervisors.
b. These individuals want to do more in their daily work than provide help to
a given client. Their primary objective is to bring about some type of
institutional or social change that would better the lives of the people they
seek to help. These people seem to be concerned with social values and
wish to work with people who share their ideology and commitment to
social change.
c. To these individuals, the issues of career advancement and financial
success are less important than the intrinsic quality of their work.
Professional service and growth are also important to these service givers.
They wish to perform well, according to their own internal standards.
These individuals are the most individualistic.
d. Individuals in this group tend to seek success as it is conventionally
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defined. Prestige, responsibility, and financial security are important to this
individual. These individuals want to make a good impression on
colleagues, supervisors, and anyone else who might control their career
advancement.
13. This section identifies general personalities or types of employees that tend to be
present in care giving agencies. Of the following descriptions, which is indicative
of the Artisans?
a. These individuals are not motivated by work-related concerns. In general
they seek interesting work that is moderately challenging but that does not
demand too much from them. They also desire pleasant, friendly coworkers and supervisors.
b. These individuals want to do more in their daily work than provide help to
a given client. Their primary objective is to bring about some type of
institutional or social change that would better the lives of the people they
seek to help. These people seem to be concerned with social values and
wish to work with people who share their ideology and commitment to
social change.
c. To these individuals, the issues of career advancement and financial
success are less important than the intrinsic quality of their work.
Professional service and growth are also important to these service givers.
They wish to perform well, according to their own internal standards.
These individuals are the most individualistic.
d. Individuals in this group tend to seek success as it is conventionally
defined. Prestige, responsibility, and financial security are important to this
individual. These individuals want to make a good impression on
colleagues, supervisors, and anyone else who might control their career
advancement.
14. There are two general supervision styles described in this chapter. Which style
assumes that employees enjoy work, seek responsibility, and are capable of selfdirection?
a. Coercive Supervisor.
b. Autocratic Supervisor.
c. Participatory Management.
d. Walk-around Management.
15. Some of the characteristics of a “participatory supervisor” identified in this
chapter include all of the following, except?
a. Takes time and effort to listen.
b. Communicates that employees are valued.
c. Celebrates achievements.
d. Participates in subordinate activities outside of the work place.
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16. Approaches to delegation that can become the backbone of effective supervision
and development include all of the following except:
a. Delegate the whole task to one person.
b. Select the right person.
c. Delegate responsibility and authority.
d. Take the project back immediately if you are dissatisfied with the progress.
The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 2.3 – Faith-based Modalities
17. Every clinical supervisor who desires to have a fuller and deeper understanding
of the motivating forces inspired by their counselors’ worldviews must:
a. Continually profess his/her own view to the counselor in order to provide
appropriate leadership and guidance.
b. Discourage the worldview or religious beliefs of the counselor that are not
consistent with the school of the thought of the agency.
c. Sometimes be an advocate for a counselor holding a worldview not their
own and using competencies not their own.
d. None of the above.
18. All of the following components are included within the core competencies
contained within this article, except:
a. Be aware of the potential benefits of early intervention to the addicted
person, family system, and affected children.
b. Be intimately knowledgeable about the policy and procedures of the
treatment agency in order to provide the highest level of care.
c. Have a general knowledge of and, where possible, exposure to 12-step
programs including AA, NA, Al-Anon, Alateen, ACOA, CODA and other
groups derived from the original AA 12-step program, as well as to faith
based groups such as Overcomers Anonymous, Overcomers Outreach,
and Celebrate Recovery.
d. Be aware of your levels of expertise and when it is necessary to refer the
individual to another professional for medical or any other specialty
treatment beyond the faith based addiction counselor scope of practice.
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The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 2.4 – The Supervisor: An Historical Perspective
19. The author of this article suggests that the clinical supervisor’s principle role in
the addiction treatment milieu is:
a. To maintain revenues adequate revenues in order to maintain an
appropriate level of care.
b. To improve client care.
c. Develop the professionalism of clinical personnel.
d. To guide and support the direct service staff in providing quality
rehabilitation services to clients.
20. Treatment services are moving away from the paradigm of the client fitting to the
program and towards a new paradigm where the program fits itself to the needs
of the client. The old paradigm often required strict treatment compliance from
the client while the new paradigm:
a. Is viewing addiction as a chronic, relapsing disease that requires keeping
clients involved in on-going recovery using a system of care which utilizes
modalities chosen to meet the client where the client is at the time.
b. Involves use of evidence based approaches, service retention, constant
re-engagement and individualized treatment plans.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Neither A nor B above.
21. A common intervention used by the overwhelmed counselor is:
a. The use of excessive self-disclosure.
b. The use of force.
c. Lashing out against agency management.
d. None of the above.
22. Over-identification with the client can be seen as a form of counter-transference
where the counselor responds to the client as if the client is the counselor’s
former, addicted, self.
a. This can lead to the counselor assuming that what worked for them should
work for the client.
b. The counselor may become co-dependent with the client and focus more
on nurturing the client than helping the client challenge their dysfunctional
ways of thinking and acting.
c. The counselor may be preoccupied with the client liking them or with the
client being successful and validating them.
d. All of the above.
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The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 2.5 – Leadership in Clinical Supervision
23. This chapter identifies and describes a number of leadership theories. Which
theory examines the combination of intelligence and experience with stress as
the moderator and argues that although cognitive ability is a significant trait,
experience, intelligence, and other cognitive abilities are necessary for leadership
success, especially when decisions must be made under stress?
a. Great Man theory.
b. Trait theory.
c. Cognitive resource theory.
d. Behavioral theory.
24. This chapter identifies and describes a number of leadership theories. Which
theory assumes that leadership can be learned and focuses on the behavior of
the leader rather than their traits?
a. Great Man theory.
b. Trait theory.
c. Cognitive resource theory.
d. Behavioral theory.
25. The Managerial Grid, built on the behavioral approach, categorizes leaders by
the amount of emphasis they put on tasks versus people and concluded with five
leadership outcomes. Which of the following is described as “High concern for
task, low concern for people; the greatest attention is on the getting the work
done with very little significance given to the people.”
a. Impoverished management.
b. Authority-compliance
c. Middle-of-the-road management.
d. Team management.
26. The Managerial Grid, built on the behavioral approach, categorizes leaders by
the amount of emphasis they put on tasks versus people and concluded with five
leadership outcomes. Which of the following is described as “High concern for
both the people and the task results in tasks being completed through the
performance contributions by committed subordinates.”
a. Impoverished management.
b. Authority-compliance
c. Middle-of-the-road management.
d. Team management.
27. David Powell has developed ten principles, which he describes as the
"cornerstones of leadership." These include all of the following, except:
a. Push, prod and persuade your subordinates to do the right thing.
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b. Be fully accountable for your decisions.
c. Credit others with their contributions.
d. Defend and shield subordinates from unwarranted attack or reprimand.
The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 2.6 – Challenges of Clinical Supervision: A Case Study
28. This article suggests that the established aim of appropriate self-disclosure is to:
a. Build trust and to move the therapeutic relationship to deeper levels more
rapidly.
b. Provide an opportunity for the counselor work out his/her own issues in a
therapeutic environment.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Neither A nor B above.
The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 2.7 – Strategic Planning Tools
29. The planning that focuses on overall agency goals and direction and positions
the agency in the market it is trying to serve, is identified as:
a. Strategic planning.
b. Tactical planning.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Neither A nor B above.
30. The search for the best practices among competitors and non-competitors that
lead to their superior performance, is identified as:
a. Competitive intelligence.
b. Benchmarking.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Neither A nor B above.
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The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 2.8 – Preventing Sexual Harassment
31. The U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission provides that sexual
harassment is a form of sex discrimination that violates which of the following?
a. Common decency and manners.
b. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
c. Title IX of the California Code of Regulations.
d. Title X of the U.S. Code of Health and Human Services.
32. Sexual harassment can arise in several different types of relationships, including
which of the following?
a. Male-to-female.
b. Female-to-male.
c. Same-sex harassment.
d. All of the above.
33. The authors describe “sexual harassment” unwelcome conduct that can be all of
the following except:
a. Conduct that is sexual in nature and would offend a reasonable person
and used as a basis for making employment decisions.
b. Conduct that unreasonably interferes with an individual’s work
performance.
c. Conduct that can be considered offensive by an unreasonable person.
d. Conduct that creates an intimidating, hostile or offensive work
environment.
34. If unwelcome conduct of a sexual nature is sufficient to alter the victim's working
(counseling) conditions, whether intentional or not, it meets the definition of
sexual harassment. “Unwelcome conduct” includes which of the following
components?
a. Uninvited conduct.
b. Uninitiated conduct.
c. Unwanted conduct.
d. All of the above.
35. The standard used by the courts for assessing whether particular conduct
constitutes sexual harassment is whether a reasonable woman or man would
find it offensive. Which of the following statements is incorrect in making this
determination?
a. In determining whether conduct is offensive, the sensitivities of a
"reasonable person" are considered.
b. Some people are overly sensitive about sex, and these are the individuals
who set the standard of reasonableness.
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c. It is not a defense for a male to say that the conduct complained of would
not bother him if he were in the victim's shoes.
d. Someone does not have to suffer unduly before they can complain of
sexual harassment. The conduct need only be offensive to a reasonable
person.
36. The authors identify “quid pro quo sexual harassment” and “hostile environment
harassment.” Which of the following describes “hostile environment
harassment”?
a. Arises when employment decisions are based on whether or not an
employee gives in to sexual advances.
b. Requires the offer of payment or other direct compensation in order to
avoid the sexual harassment.
c. It does not require a counselor or person in power to trade benefits in
return for sex.
d. None of the above.
The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 3.1 – Counselor Development
37. This article suggests that the primary factor of success in treatment is:
a. The client’s motivation.
b. The counselor’s motivation.
c. The agency’s motivation.
d. The client’s family’s motivation.
38. Clients with substance abuse histories commonly have post-traumatic stress
disorder, abandonment, abuse and/or enmeshment issues prior to substance
abuse and during active addiction. It’s important for counselors to understand
the meaning of behaviors and attitudes arising from transference, in order to
positively intervene and assist the client in healing. Match the reason that the
identified behaviors arise with the following attitude or behavior: “excessive
seeking of external gratification, stimulation, and adrenalin charges”:
a. These are usually attempts to distract oneself from internal pain, and to fill
or cover up feelings of emptiness.
b. These are attempts to counter the feelings of past hurt and prevent future
harm.
c. These behaviors arise from the continuing fear and power of past harm
and internalized negative self-beliefs.
d. None of the above.
39. Clients with substance abuse histories commonly have post-traumatic stress
disorder, abandonment, abuse and/or enmeshment issues prior to substance
abuse and during active addiction. It’s important for counselors to understand
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the meaning of behaviors and attitudes arising from transference, in order to
positively intervene and assist the client in healing. Match the reason that the
identified behaviors arise with the following attitude or behavior: “dishonesty,
defiance, violence, over-controlling others, blame and entitlement”:
a. These are usually attempts to distract oneself from internal pain, and to fill
or cover up feelings of emptiness.
b. These are attempts to counter the feelings of past hurt and prevent future
harm.
c. These behaviors arise from the continuing fear and power of past harm
and internalized negative self-beliefs.
d. None of the above.
The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 3.2 – Transference and Countertransference
40. Transference is a term denoting attribution to the counselor via projection of
subjective unconscious emotions, ideas, and motivations. In essence, when
something about someone reminds the client of someone or something in the
clients past:
a. The counselor transfers emotional and psychological needs from the past
onto the client.
b. The client transfers emotional and psychological needs from the past into
the present.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Neither A nor B above.
41. When the counselor identifies with someone based on the fact that they remind
the counselor of someone from the past, the counselor’s experience is described
as which of the following?
a. Transference.
b. Countertransference.
c. Messed up.
d. Therapeutic.
42. Which of the following describes “accurate, empathetic understanding”?
a. Is the deep and genuine unconditional caring and acceptance of the client
as they are.
b. When the counselor understands the client’s experience and feelings as if
they were his/her own, without becoming lost in those feelings.
c. Exists in a continuum where inner experience matches the outer
expression of that experience. It is the ability to openly express negative
and positive attitudes about self.
d. Living vicariously through the client.
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The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 3.3 – Developing Competent Counselors
43. Signs of the counselor becoming over-involved with the client may include all of
the following, except?
a. Counselor taking time with the client to articulate clear client-counselor
boundaries.
b. Talk of overstepping boundaries.
c. Having strong emotional reactions when discussing the client’s case.
d. Providing supplementary assistance to the client at the expense of the rest
of the counselor’s caseload.
44. When is co-therapy with the supervisor most useful?
a. When a counselor and supervisor share similar personal issues that can
benefit from therapeutic intervention.
b. When a counselor reports being stuck with a client.
c. When a counselor is having difficulty addressing a particular issue with
clients.
d. When a counselor is having trouble utilizing a particular theoretical
framework during treatment.
45. If the counselor’s countertransference issues appear to necessitate more
attention than can be provided during individual or group supervision, many other
tools are available for continued exploration, development, and growth. Which of
the following describes the “case reflections” practice?
a. The counselor reviews the program rules and type of counseling/theory
practiced at the program.
b. The counselor speaks about countertransference and other clinical
concerns with his or her peers to develop an awareness of how they
would react to a similar issue differently.
c. The counselor writes down his or her personal reactions immediately
following a counseling session.
d. At the end of the day, the counselor writes about countertransference
issues that arose for him or her and attempts to explore these through
writing.
46. If the counselor’s countertransference issues appear to necessitate more
attention than can be provided during individual or group supervision, many other
tools are available for continued exploration, development, and growth. Which of
the following describes the “journaling” practice?
a. The counselor reviews the program rules and type of counseling/theory
practiced at the program.
b. The counselor speaks about countertransference and other clinical
concerns with his or her peers to develop an awareness of how they
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would react to a similar issue differently.
c. The counselor writes down his or her personal reactions immediately
following a counseling session.
d. At the end of the day, the counselor writes about countertransference
issues that arose for him or her and attempts to explore these through
writing.
The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 3.4 – Professional / Ethical Standards of Case Management
47. 42 Code of Federal Regulations Part 2 forbids disclosure of any treatment related
information to third parties unless specific provisions are met. Which of the
following are included?
a. To report a crime on an institution’s premises or against an institution’s
personnel.
b. To medical personnel in a medical emergency.
c. Both A and B above.
d. Neither A nor B above.
48. Which of the cases cited in the material provides that the therapist has a duty to
warn an intended victim and/or the police when the therapist determines that a
patient / client presents a danger of violence to another?
a. Berger v. Berger.
b. Roe v. Wade.
c. Tarasoff v. Regents of University of California.
d. Brown v. Board of Education.
49. A dual relationship is generally understood as having another relationship, often
known as a multiple relationship, with a client outside of the therapeutic
relationship. The author provided examples of dual relationships, which included
all of the following except:
a. Sexual relationship.
b. Bartering for services.
c. Accepting gifts from a client.
d. Driving a client to a doctor’s appointment.
50. The author shared “seven responsibilities” that, if put into practice, he suggested
would assist an individual in becoming an effective counselor in the addiction
treatment profession. Those “seven responsibilities” included all of the following
except:
a. Remember that the counselor is the expert on the client’s clinical
condition, not the client.
b. Foster an environment in which a motivated client may experience
change.
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c. Provide a therapeutic experience based on authenticity and truth.
d. Be fully present and engaged in the client session regardless of life’s
circumstances.
The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 3.5 – Program Description Policy
51. This chapter identifies “qualities of an effective control system” which suggests
that control standards must be reasonable and attainable. If they are too high or
unreasonable, they no longer motivate. This refers to which quality?
a. Accuracy.
b. Timeliness
c. Flexibility.
d. Reasonable criteria.
52. This chapter identifies “qualities of an effective control system” which suggests
that a control system that generates inaccurate information can result in a
manager’s failing to take action when it should or responding to a problem that
doesn’t exist. This refers to which quality?
a. Accuracy.
b. Timeliness
c. Flexibility.
d. Reasonable criteria.
The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 3.6 – Supervising Recovering Counselors
53. This chapter identifies “confrontation counseling” as:
a. Management having not communicated their concerns about employee
performance prior to a taking formal action, such as a write up or even a
termination.
b. Making the employee face the evidence of their performance or behavior
and requiring them to decide about their future.
c. Confronting the counselor on a regularly scheduled basis.
d. None of the above.
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54. This chapter identifies one of the primary complaints employees often have about
management, which is:
a. Management having not communicated their concerns about employee
performance prior to a taking formal action, such as a write up or even a
termination.
b. Making the employee face the evidence of their performance or behavior
and requiring them to decide about their future.
c. Confronting the counselor on a regularly scheduled basis.
d. None of the above.
55. This chapter advises that supervisors consider four factors when making the
decision to sit down with an employee and confront their poor work performance.
The factor that addresses “personal belief system” considers which of the
following?
a. Different managers or supervisors will have different expectations about
confrontational style, as well as have their own biases and beliefs. Is the
culture of the agency more supportive and nurturing, or does it tend to
focus more on efficiency and task completion?
b. Consider the agency policy and procedures, as well as laws and
regulations with which your agency must comply.
c. The confrontation process includes providing the employee with factual
material to move forward with after the meeting has concluded.
d. Consider whether you are having trouble with this employee’s
performance based on a personal preference or bias, or whether it is
based upon an objective problem.
56. This chapter advises that supervisors consider four factors when making the
decision to sit down with an employee and confront their poor work performance.
The factor that addresses “factual reference base” considers which of the
following?
a. Different managers or supervisors will have different expectations about
confrontational style, as well as have their own biases and beliefs. Is the
culture of the agency more supportive and nurturing, or does it tend to
focus more on efficiency and task completion?
b. Consider the agency policy and procedures, as well as laws and
regulations with which your agency must comply.
c. The confrontation process includes providing the employee with factual
material to move forward with after the meeting has concluded.
d. Consider whether you are having trouble with this employee’s
performance based on a personal preference or bias, or whether it is
based upon an objective problem.
57. This chapter addresses management responsibilities in giving performance
evaluations. “Assessment” is described as:
a. Supervisors support employee development when they assign employees
roles or tasks that challenge them and provide the opportunity to grow.
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Base decisions about assigning new tasks on your assessment of the
employee’s readiness to accept additional or new responsibility or
challenges.
b. Encourage your employees to focus on clear, specific, and attainable
career goals. Share your knowledge and experience with your employee.
c. Managers support employee career development when they inform an
employee about options for possible barriers to career movement.
d. Your job is to help the employee set career goals that are consistent with
their knowledge, experience and interests by providing feedback based on
your observations and assessment of their abilities, readiness and
potential.
58. This chapter addresses management responsibilities in giving performance
evaluations. “Guidance” is described as:
a. Supervisors support employee development when they assign employees
roles or tasks that challenge them and provide the opportunity to grow.
Base decisions about assigning new tasks on your assessment of the
employee’s readiness to accept additional or new responsibility or
challenges.
b. Encourage your employees to focus on clear, specific, and attainable
career goals. Share your knowledge and experience with your employee.
c. Managers support employee career development when they inform an
employee about options for possible barriers to career movement.
d. Your job is to help the employee set career goals that are consistent with
their knowledge, experience and interests by providing feedback based on
your observations and assessment of their abilities, readiness and
potential.
59. This chapter addresses management responsibilities in giving performance
evaluations. “Develop” is described as:
a. Supervisors support employee development when they assign employees
roles or tasks that challenge them and provide the opportunity to grow.
Base decisions about assigning new tasks on your assessment of the
employee’s readiness to accept additional or new responsibility or
challenges.
b. Encourage your employees to focus on clear, specific, and attainable
career goals. Share your knowledge and experience with your employee.
c. Managers support employee career development when they inform an
employee about options for possible barriers to career movement.
d. Your job is to help the employee set career goals that are consistent with
their knowledge, experience and interests by providing feedback based on
your observations and assessment of their abilities, readiness and
potential.
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The following questions are based upon the material contained in
Chapter 3.7 – Policy and Organizational Design
60. Organizational policies, procedures and rules are key areas to consider in the
development and evaluation of your program. “Policies”:
a. Are a series of interrelated steps that can be used to respond to a
structured problem.
b. Are explicit statements that tell managers what they can and cannot do.
c. Are general guidelines that establish parameters for making decisions.
d. None of the above.
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