TM
Path to success KOTA (RAJASTHAN )
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
(NTSE-2016) STAGE -1
BIHAR STATE : SAT
Date: 08/11/2015
SOLUTIONS
Max. Marks: 100
1.
Time allowed: 90 mins
Which of the following is carried by waves from one place to another ?
(1) mass
(2) velocity
(3) wavelength
(4) energy
Ans. (4)
Sol. Energy is carried by waves from one place to another.
2.
A stone is dropped from the top of a tower. Its velocity after it has fallen 20 m is (take g = 10m/s 2)
(1) –10 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) – 20 m/s
(4) 20 m/s
Ans. (3)
Sol. u = 0
h = 20 m ; g = 10 m/s2
v2 = u2 + 2gh
= 0 + 2 × 10 × 20 = 400 = –20 m/s (Negative sign indicates downward direction)
3.
For an incident ray directed towards centre of curvature of a spherical mirror, the reflected ray (1) retraces its path
(2) passes through focus
(3) passes hrough pole
(4) becomes parallel to the principal axis
Ans. (1)
Sol. The reflected ray retraces its path, when it is directed towards centre of curvature.
4.
Wavelength of violet colour is
(1) 7900 Aº
(2) 6000 Aº
(3) 5800 Aº
(4) 4000 Aº
Ans. (4)
Sol. Wavelength of violet colour is 4000 Å.
5.
A convex lens of suitable focal length can correct man's eye problem of
(1) Short sightedness
(2) Long sightedness
(3) Presbyopia
(4) Astigmatism
Ans. (2)
Sol. Convex lens of suitable focal length can correct man's eye problem of long sightedness.
6.
In the sun four hydrogen nuclei combine to form a helium nucleus and the amount of energy released is (1) 13 MeV
(2) 26 MeV
(3) 39 MeV
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
Sol. Using relation E = Dmc2 , the energy released is found to be 26 MeV.
7.
Which is the energy within nucleon ?
(mass 1.66 × 10–27 Kg)
(1) 934 MeV
(2) 944 MeV
(3) 954 MeV
Ans. (1)
Sol. E = mc2
= 16.6 × 10–27 × 3 × 108 × 3 × 108
= 934 MeV.
1
(4) None of these
8.
If the length of a simple pendulum is increased to 2 times its value then its time period will be (1) halved
(2) doubled
(3) becomes
2 times
(4) reduces by
2
Ans. (3)
Sol. T = 2p
T = 2p
9.
Ans.
Sol.
10.
Ans.
Sol.
11.
Ans.
Sol.
12.
l
g
2l
= 2p 2
g
l
=
g
2 T..
What is the direction of induced current in the loop when the current i in the straight wire is (a) increasing (b) steadyloop
i
(1) (a) clockwise (b) zero
(2) (a) anticlockwise (b) clockwise
(3) (a) clockwise (b) anticlockwise
(4) (a) anticlockwise (b) zero
(1)
Using Lenz law, the direction of induced current in the loop, when the current i in the straight will increasing is
clockwise and zero when the current is steady.
Out of two bulbs 50 W – 220 V and 100 W –220 V, which one will glow brighter
(a) When connected in series
(b) When connected in parallel
(1) (a) 100 W, (b) 50 W
(2) (a) 50W, (b) 100 W
(3) (a) both will glow similar (b) 100 W
(4) none of the above
(2)
In series, 50 W bulb will glow brighter because it has a large resistance while current in both is same.
In parallel, 100 W bulb will glow brighter because large amount of current flows through it.
A man can hear a sound of frequency
(1) 1Hz
(2) 1000 Hz
(3) 200 KHz
(4) 5 MHz
(2)
Hearing range is 20 Hz – 20,000 Hz
In an experiment on finding equivalent resistance of two resistors in series, four students draw up circuits - which one
is correct ?
+ –
A
+ –
V
(1) –
A
+
R1
R2
B
K
(2)
+ –
V
–
R1
R2
V
B K
+
(3) –
A
+
R1
+ –
V
R2
B
K
(4) –
A
+
R1
R2
B
K
Ans. (3)
Sol. All the component are properly connected.
13. An ammeter can read current upto 5 A and it has twenty divisions between the mark 0 and mark 2A on its scale.
The least count of the ammeter is
(1) 0.02 A
(2) 0.01 A
(3) 0.2 A
(4) 0.1 A
Ans. (4)
Sol. Least count = Minimum value which the instrument can measure accuractely.
For the given ammeter the least count =
2
= 0.1 A
20
2
14.
Which the following expression is correct for root mean square speed ?
(1)
3RT
M
(2)
3p
D
(3)
3pV
M
(4) All of these
Ans. (4)
Sol. Root mean square speed – The square root of the average value of square of the velocities of all gas molecules is
called as root mean square velocity.
15.
Vrms =
V12 + V22 + V32 + ...Vn2
N
Vrms =
3RT
M
or Vrms =
3pV
M
3p
D
or Vrms =
Which of the following is heavy water ?
(1) H3O+
+
(2) D2O
(3) H(H2O) 4
(4) (H2O)n
Ans. (2)
Sol. Formula of heavy water is D2O.
16.
CH3
|
CH3—C—CH3 is known as :
|
CH3
(1) Neopentane
(2) n-pentane
(3) 3, 3-diemthyl propane (4) 2-propane
Ans. (1)
Sol.
CH3
CH3
|
|
H3C—C—CH3 is known as neopentane as it contains CH3—C— group and five carbon atoms.
|
|
CH3
CH3
17.
Which of the following is incorrect ?
(1) K p =
1
(RT)– Dn
Kc
RT ö
(2) K p = K c æç
÷
è Dn ø
(3) Kp = Kc(RT)Dn
(4) Kc =
(3) Li, Mg
(4) S, Al
Ans. (1, 2)
Sol. As correct explanation is Kp = Kc (RT)Dn
So incorrect statement will be
Kp =
1
RT ö
(RT)–Dn and K p = K c æç
÷
Kc
è Dn ø
But = Kc =
18.
Kp
(RT)Dn
is correct.
Which of the following will show diagonal relationship
(1) Na, Mg
(2) B, Si
Ans. (2, 3)
Sol. Both pair B, Si & Li, Mg shows diagonal relationship.
3
Kp
(RT)Dn
19.
The compound which shows keto-enol tautomerism is
(1) C6H5CHO
(2) CH3COCH3
(3) CH3COOC2H5
(4) CH3COCH2COOC2H5
Ans. (2, 4)
Sol.
CH3—C—CH2
|| |
O H
Keto
CH3—C=CH2
|
OH
enol
CH3—C—CH—C—OC2H5
|| |
||
O H
O
CH3—C=CH—C—OC2H5
|
||
OH
O
Keto
enol
Both the compounds have active hydrogen so they can show keto enol isomerism.
20.
Van der Waals equation having term "a" has the unit
(1) JK–1mol–1
(2) atm L–2 mol2
(C) atm L2 mol–2
(4) atm–1 L2 mol–2
Ans. (3)
Sol. Unit of "a" in Vander Waal's equation is atm L2 mol–2.
21.
Which of the following has electronic configuration ls22s22p6 ?
(1) K+
(2) Mg2+
(3) Be2+
(4) Ar
(3) alkane
(4) aromatic compound
Ans. (2)
Sol. Mg2+ has 10 electrons.
22.
Baeyer Reagent is used to identify
(1) alkene
(2) phosgene
Ans. (1)
Sol. KMnO4 is a Baeyer reagent it become colourless during the reaction with alkenes and alkynes.
23.
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) V a p
(2) pVR = T
(3) pV = NKT
(4) N = n/NA
(K = Boltzmann constant)
(NA = Avogadro constant)
Ans. (3)
Sol. According to ideal gas equation
pV = nRT
It means p µ V is wrong statement
pVR = T is also wrong statement
but Þ pV = NKT is correct
And n =
24.
N
is correct explanation, so N = n × N A is correct.
NA
Methane is obtained when
(1) sodium acetate is heated with soda lime
(2) methyl iodide is reduced
(3) Al4C3 is reacted with water
(4) All of the above
Ans. (4)
Sol. Methane can be obtained from all the given preparation methods.
25.
Benzene on nitration and sulfonation respectively gives
(1) NO2 and SO3
(3) NO+ and SO2
(2) NO2 and SO2
Ans. NA
Sol. As after the reaction the product will be Ph.NO2 & Ph.SO3H.
4
and SO3
(4) NO+
2
26.
Ans.
Sol.
27.
Ans.
Sol.
28.
Ans.
Sol.
29.
Ans.
Sol.
30.
Ans.
Sol.
31.
Ans.
Sol.
32.
Ans.
Sol.
33.
Ans.
Sol.
34.
Ans.
Sol.
35.
Ans.
Sol.
36.
Ans.
Sol.
Which is the strongest base in the following ?
(1) NH4OH
(2) NaOH
(3) Mg
(4) Cu(OH)2
(2)
NaOH is a strongest base.
The forelimbs of frog , lizard, bird and man have same evolutionary relationship. They are ;
(1) Missing Links
(2) Arms relationship
(3) Analogous organs
(4) Homologous
(4)
The forelimbs of reptiles, frog, lizard, bird and humans are homologous organs.
Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in different trophic levels is known as :
(1) Biological concentration
(2) Bio-deposition
(3) Biological magnification
(4) Biological impaction
(3)
Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in different trophic levels is known as Biological magnification.
Various colours of flowers and fruits in plants are due to the presence of
(1) Leucoplast
(2) Chromoplast
(3) Coloured pigments in cytoplasm
(4) Protoplast
(2)
Chromoplasts are red yellow and orange in colour and are found in petals of flowers and in fruits.
Vermiform appendix in human is a
(1) analogous organ
(2) homologous organ
(3) vestigial organ
(4) excretory organ
(3)
Vermiform appendix in human is a vestigial organ.
What is the scientific name of 'Man' ?
(1) Adam Adam
(2) Canis familiaris
(3) Adam domesticus
(4) Homosapiens
(4)
Homosapiens is the scientific name of man.
Nucleosome present in eukaryotic cell is
(1) part of nucleus
(2) part of chromosomes (3) part of nucleolus
(4) part of ribosomes
(2)
Chromatin fibre has a chain of repeating units called nucleosomes.
Involuntary actions like blood pressure salivation and vomiting are controlled by this part of hind brain (1) Medals
(2) CerebelIum
(3) Medulla
(4) Cerebrum
(3)
Medulla oblongata, controls the involuntary actions like blood pressure, salivation and vomiting.
What is the common product of photosynthesis and respiration ?
(1) Oxygen
(2) ADP
(3) CO2
(4) ATP
(4)
ATP is the common product of both photosynthesis and respiration.
In asexual reproduction, fertilization takes place
(1) inside ovary
(2) outside ovary
(3) both 1 & 2
(4) none
(4)
Production of offsprings by a single parent without the formation and fusion of gametes is called asexual reproduction.
Hence NO fertilization occurs.
The carbohydrate present in blood groups is
(1) sucrose
(2) maltose
(3) fucose
(4) arbinose
(3)
Fucose is the carbohydrate which is present in the blood groups.
5
37.
One of the following is responsible for world's natural gas reserve (1) Anaerobic Bacteria
(2) Archae Bacteria
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) None
Ans. (2)
Sol. Anaerobic – Archaebacteria (Methanogens) are responsible for world's natural gas reserve. Since Anaerobic bacteria
can also be Eubacteria which are different from archaebacteria.
38.
One of the following juices secreted in the body of man does not contain any enzyme :
(1) Gastric Juice
(2) Saliva
(3) Bile Juice
(4) Pancreatic Juice
Ans. (3)
Sol. Bile juice is a non-enzymatic digestive juice which helps in emulsification of fats.
39.
If a cell has twice as much DNA as in the normal functional cell, it shows that ?
(1) cell has completed division
(2) cell is preparing to divide
(3) cell is preparing to die
(4) cell is preparing to modify
Ans. (2)
Sol. If a cell has twice as much DNA as in the normal functional cell, it shows that cell is preparing to divide.
40.
When one consumes contaminated water containing germs & microorganisms, it causes one of the following
diseases (1) Diphtheria
(2) Tuberculosis
(3) Diarrhea
(4) Plague
Ans. (3)
Sol. Contaminated water containing germs and micro organisms causes Diarrhea.
41.
Two fair dice are rolled together. The probability that the difference of numbers appearing is 1 will be
(1)
5
6
(2)
7
36
(3)
5
18
(4)
7
14
Ans. (3)
Sol. Total number of outcomes = 36
Possible outcomes when the difference of numbers
appearing is 1 = {(1,2); (2,1);(2,3);(3,2);(3,4);(4,3);(4,5);(5,4);(5,6);(6,5)}
Number of favourable outcomes = 10
Probability =
42.
10
5
=
.
36 18
If a, b are roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 and a + k , b + k are roots of px2 + qx + r = 0 then
(1)
p2
a2
(2) 1
(3)
a2
p2
Ans. (3)
Sol. ax2 + bx +c = 0
a+b=
ab =
-b
a
...(1)
c
a
...(2)
px2 + qx + r = 0
a+k+b+k=
-q
p
6
(4) 0
b 2 - 4ac
= ..........
q 2 - 4pr
a +b + 2k =
-q
p
(a + k) (b + k) =
...(3)
r
p
ab + (a + b) k + k2 =
r
p
...(4)
From (1) and (3)
–
–q
b
+ 2k =
p
a
K=
1 æ b – qö
ç
÷
2 è a pø
...(5)
From (4) and (5)
2
r
æ - bö 1 æ b q ö 1 æ b q ö
c
+ çè ø÷ × çè - ÷ø + ç - ÷ =
a
p
a
2 a p
4 è a pø
2
q 2 2bq ö
r
c 1 b2
1 bq 1 æ b
+
–
+ ç 2
=
2
÷
2 +
p
ap ø p
a 2 a
2 ap 4 è a
bq
bq
r
q2
c 1 b2
b2
–
+
+
+
=
2 –
2
2
2ap
2ap p
4p
a 2 a
4a
r q2
c b2
–
= – 2
p 4p
a 4a 2
4pr - q 2
b 2 - 4ac 4a 2 a 2
4ac - b 2
=
= 2
=
=
2
4p
q 2 - 4rp
4p
p
4a 2
43.
y
x
3 and xy = 1 then 2 + x + 2 – y = ......
If x = 2 +
(1)
(2)
2
(3) 1
3
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
Sol. x = 2 +
3
xy = 1
y=
1
1
=
=2– 3
x 2+ 3
x
+
2+ x
y
2– y
=
=
2+ 3
2+ 2+ 3
+
2– 3
2 – 2– 3
=
2(2 + 3)
2+ 4 + 2 3
+
2(2 – 3)
2– 4 – 2 3
2(2 + 3)
2(2 – 3)
2(2 + 3)
2(2 - 3)
+
=
+
2+ 3 +1
2– 3 –1
3+ 3
3– 3
=
é (2 + 3)(3 - 3) + (2 - 3)(3 + 3) ù
ú
2 ê
9-3
ë
û
=
é6 - 2 3 + 3 3 - 3 + 6 + 2 3 - 3 3 - 3ù
ú =
2 ê
6
ë
û
7
2
If a(x +1)2 + b(x2 – 3x – 2) + (x + 1) = 0 be an identify then the number of values of pair (a, b) is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) infinite
Ans. (1)
Sol. a(x2 +2x + 1) + b(x2 – 3x – 2) + (x + 1) = 0
(a + b) x2 + (2a – 3b + 1)x + a – 2b + 1 = 0
for identify
a+b=0
...(1)
2a – 3b + 1 = 0
...(2)
a – 2b + 1= 0
...(3)
From (1) and (2)
44.
2a – 3b + 1= 0
2a + 2b = 0
– –
–5b + 1 = 0
b=
1
5
from (1) a = –
1
5
from (3)
–
1 2
– +1 = 0
5 5
–
3
+1 = 0
5
2
=0
5
not possible
Hence, it is not and identity for any pair (a,b), so answer is 0 .
45. In an A.P. the second and fifth terms are respectively (x – y) and (x + y) then thrice the first term is
(1) 3x – y
(2) 3x – 2y
(3) 3x – 4y
(4) 3x – 5y
Ans. (4)
Sol. Let a be the first term and d be the common difference
a+d=x–y
...(1)
a + 4d = x + y
...(2)
–3d = – 2y
Substracting (1) from (2)
3d = 2y
d=
2
y
3
from (1)
a=x–y–
=x–
2
y
3
5
y
3
3a = 3x – 5y
8
46.
If i2 = – 1 then
i592 + i590 + i588 + i586 + i584
– 3 = .....
i582 + i580 + i578 + i576 + i574
(1) – 2
Ans. (2)
Sol. i2 = –1 Þ i4 = 1
(2) – 4
(3) 0
(4) None of these
i592 + i590 + i588 + i586 + i584
–3
i582 + i580 + i578 + i576 + i574
=
47.
Ans.
Sol.
48.
Ans.
Sol.
49.
Ans.
Sol.
(i4 )148 + (i4 )147 .i 2 + (i4 )147 + (i 4 )146 .i2 + (i4 )146
1-1+1–1+1
–3=–1–3=–4
4 145 2
4 145
4 144 2
4 144
4 143 2 –3 =
(i ) i + (i ) + (i ) i + (i ) + (i ) i
–1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1
The length of sides of a triangle are integers and its perimeter is 14. How many such distinct triangles are possible?
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3
(3)
Perimeter of triangle = 14
Let the sides be a, b, c
a + b + c = 14 (a, b, c are integers)
For a, b,c to be integer possible cases are
5,5,4 ; 6,4,4 ; 6,5,3 ; 6,6,2
Thus, number of such distinct triangles = 4
The median of a series is 10. Two additional observations 7 and 20 are added to the series. The new median will be
:
(1) 9
(2) 20
(3) 7
(4) 10
(4)
Median = 10
Additional observations = 7 and 20
Since one observation is less than 10 and other in greater than 10, median remains same i.e. 10
The mean income of 50 persons was calculated as Rs. 169. Later it was found that one figure was wrongly taken as
134 instead of the correct value 143. The correct mean should be
(1) Rs. 168
(2) Rs. 169.18
(3) Rs. 168.92
(4) Rs. 168.18
(2)
Sum of income of 50 persons
= 169
50
Sum = 169 × 50 = 8450
Correct mean =
8450 - 134 + 143
= 169.18
50
50.
An additional value 15 is included in a series of 11 values and the mean remains unchanged. The mean of the series
was
(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
Sol. Let initial mean is x.
sum
=x
11
Now
11x + 15
=x
12
Þ 11x + 15 = 12 x Þ x = 15
9
51.
If sinq1 + sinq2 + sinq3 = 3 then cosq1 + cosq2 + cosq3 = ............
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
Ans. (4)
Sol. sinq1 + sinq2 + sinq3 = 3
...(1)
since, maximum value of sinq is 1
Hence, from (1)
q1 = q2 = q3 = 90°
cosq1 + cosq2 + cosq3 = = 0 + 0 + 0 = 0
52.
If cosec A + cot A =
(1)
(4) 0
11
then tan A = .....
2
21
22
(2)
15
16
(3)
44
117
(4)
117
43
Ans. (3)
Sol. cosec A + cot A =
11
2
We know that
cosec2 A – cot2A = 1
(cosec A + cot A) (cosec A – cot A) = 1
11
.cosec A – cot A = 1
2
2
11
11
cosec A + cot A =
2
–
–
–
cosecA – cot A =
–2cot A =
–cot A =
4 - 121
22
-117
44
44
117
53. If x = secq – tanq, y = cosecq + cotq, then xy + 1 = .............
(1) x + y
(2) x – y
(3) 2x + y
Ans. (4)
Sol. x = secq – tanq
y = cosecq +cotq
xy + 1= (secq –tanq) (cosecq + cotq) + 1
tanA =
= secq cosecq + secq cotq – tanq cosecq – tanq cotq + 1
=
1
1
1
+
–
–1 + 1
sin q cos q
sinq cos q
sin 2 q + cos 2 q
+ cosecq – secq
sin q cos q
= tanq +cotq + cosecq – secq = (cosec q + cotq) – (secq – tanq) = y – x
10
(4) y – x
54.
In D ABC, ÐC = 90°, AB = c, BC = a, CA = b and b2 = ac then cos B = _______.
(1)
1
2
5 -1
2
(2)
5 -1
4
(3)
(4)
1
4
Ans. (2)
Sol. b2 + a2 = c2
ac + a2 = c2
a2 + ac – c2 = 0
a=
A
-c ± c 2 + 4c 2
2
b
C
-c ± 5 c
a=
2
c
a
B
a -1 ± 5
=
c
2
cosB =
55.
5 -1
2
P divides the join of A(-l, 1) and B(5, 7) internally in the ratio K:l. If coordinates of P satisfy x + y = 4 then K
=..........
(1)
2
3
(2)
1
2
(3)
4
3
(4) 1
Ans. (2)
Sol.
A
(–1,1)
k:1
P
B
(5,7)
by section formula
æ 5k - 1 7k + 1ö
,
P çè
÷
k +1 k +1 ø
Given line
x+y=4
5k - 1
7k + 1
+
=4
k +1
k +1
5k – 1 + 7k + 1 = 4k + 4
Bk = 4
k=
56.
1
2
æ 1 ö
DOAB is equilateral, are co-ordinates of O and A are (0, 0) and çè 1,
÷ then the coordinates of B are
3ø
æ 2 ö
,0÷
(1) çè
3 ø
æ 1 ö
(2) çè 1,
÷
3ø
æ 1 ö
(3) çè 0,
÷
3ø
Ans. (4)
11
1 ö
æ
(4) çè 1, –
÷
3ø
Sol. OA =
1+
2
1
=
3
3
...(1)
1 ö
æ
(x - 1)2 + ç y ÷
è
3ø
AB =
2
...(2)
OB = x 2 + y 2
O
...(3)
Q OA = AB = OB
from (1) and (3)
2
= x2 + y2
3
A
1,
4
x2 + y 2 =
3
From (1) and (2)
...(4)
2
1 ö
æ
4
(x –1)2 + ç y ÷ =3
è
3ø
x2 + 1 – 2x + y2 +
2
4
y=
3
3
2x –
x–
1 2
4
–
y=
3
3
3
y
2
=
3 3
2 + 3y
3
From (4)
x=
2
æ 2 + 3y ö
4
ç
÷ + y2 =
3
è
ø
3
4 + 3y2 + 4 3 y + 9y2 = 12
12y2 + 4 3 y – 8 = 0
3y2 +
3y–2=0
3y2 + 2 3 y – 3 y –2 = 0
3 y ( 3 +2) – ( 3 y + 2) = 0
( 3 y – 1) ( 3 y + 2) = 0
y=
x=
1
-2
,y=
3
3
2 + 3.
= 1,
æ 1 ö
çè 1,
÷,
3ø
3
æ -2 ö
1
2+ 3ç
è 3 ÷ø
3 , x=
3
=0
æ -2 ö
çè 0,
÷
3ø
12
1
3
1
(0,0)
B (x,y)
57.
The points (–a, –b), (o, o), (a, b) and (a 2, ab)are
(1) Collinear
(2) Vertices of a rectangle
(3) Vertices of a parallelogram
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
Sol. Area of D formed by (– a, –b), (0, 0), (a b)
=
1
1
[–a (0 – b) + a (– b –0)] =
[ab – ab] = 0
2
2
Hence, (– a, – b) ; (0, 0); (a, b) are collinear
Area of D formed by (0, 0) ; (a, b) ; (a2, ab)
=
1
1 2
[a(ab –0) + a2 (0 – b)] =
(a b – a2b) = 0
2
2
Hence, (0, 0) ; (a, b); (a2, ab) are collinear.
Thus , the given points are collinear.
58.
A cylindrical vessel is 32 cm. high and has 18 cm. as radius of base. It is filled with sand and then emptied on
ground. A conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm. then radius of its base is
(1) 12 cm.
(2) 24 cm.
(3) 36 cm
(4) 48 cm
Ans. (3)
Sol. Vol. of cylindrical vessel = p 182 × 32
Let radius of base of cone be r
According to question
Volume of cylinder = Volume of cone
p182 × 32 =
r2 =
1 2
pr 24
3
18 2 ´ 32 ´ 3
24
r = 18 × 2 = 36 cm
59.
In a DABC, ÐA = 90° and AB = AC . Its orthocentre is
(1) inside the triangle
(2) outside the triangle
(3) on the line AB
(4) the point A
Ans. (4)
B
Sol.
A
C
In a right angled triangle, orthocentre lie on the vertex where right angle lie i.e. vertex A
60.
In DABC, the internal bisector of ÐA meets BC at D. If AB = 4, AC = 3 and ÐA = 60°, then AD =........
(1) 2 3
(2)
12 3
7
(3)
Ans. (2)
13
15 3
7
(4)
6 3
7
Sol. Area of triangle ABC
=
1
× 4 × 3 sin 60°
2
=6
3
=3 3
2
...(1)
Area of DABD =
1
× 4 × AD sin 30° = AD
2
...(2)
Area of DADC =
1
3
× 3 × AD sin 30° = AD
2
4
...(3)
From (1) (2) and (3)
3 3 = AD +
3 3 =
AD =
61.
Ans.
Sol.
62.
Ans.
Sol.
63.
Ans.
Sol.
64.
Ans.
Sol.
65.
Ans.
Sol.
66.
Ans.
Sol.
3
AD
4
7
AD
4
12
7
3
The Gateway of India was built in Bombay in
(1) 1927
(2) 1928
(3) 1929
(4) 1924
(4)
The foundation stone for the Gateway of India was laid on 31 March 1911. The final design of George Wittet
was sanctioned in 1914 and the construction of the monument was completed in 1924.
Swami Dayanand Saraswati started the Arya Samaj to reform Hinduism in
(1) 1856
(2) 1857
(3) 1858
(4) 1875
(4)
Arya Samaj was formally established in Bombay at 10 April 1875 by Dayanand Saraswati.
Who built the city of Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh) ?
(1) Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
(2) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(3) Alauddin Khilji
(4) Sikandar Lodi
(1)
Mohammed Quli Qutub Shah of the Qutub Shahi dynasty built the city of Hyderabad.
Who started Qawwali ?
(1) Muhammad Iqbal
(2) Bismillah Khan
(3) Khizr Khan
(4) Amir Khusrau
(4)
Amir Khusrau is regarded as the "Father of Qawwali" (a devotional music form of the Sufis)
Palaeolithic means:
(1) New Stone Age
(2) Middle Stone Age
(3) Old Stone Age
(4) Ancient Stone Age
(3)
The term "Paleolithic" was coined by archaeologist John Lubbock in 1865. It derives from Greek: palaios,
"old"; and lithos, "stone", meaning "old age of the stone" or "Old Stone Age."
Ganga joined the Yamuna at
(1) Kashmir
(2) Varanasi
(3) Haridwar
(4) Delhi
()
Bonus to be alloted
Ganga joins Yamuna at Allahabad which is not mentioned in any of the options.
14
67.
Who was Alexander Cunningham ?
(1) Historian
(2) Archaeologist
(3) Traveller
(4) Geographer
Ans. (2)
Sol. Sir Alexander Cunningham KCIE CSI (23 January 1814 – 28 November 1893) was a British army engineer
with the Bengal Engineer Group who later took an interest in the history and archaeology of India which led
to his appointment in 1861 to the newly created position of archaeological surveyor to the government of
India.
68.
Indus site Mehrgarh was situated in
(1) Gujarat
(2) Baluchistan
(3) Afghanistan
(4) Taxshila
Ans. (2)
Sol. Mehrgarh is a Neolithic (7000-3200 BC) site on the Kachi plain of Baluchistan, Pakistan.
69.
Lothal is situated in
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Pakistan
(4) Gujarat
Ans. (4)
Sol. Lothal is situated near the village of Saragwala in the Dholka Taluka of Ahmedabad district of Gujrat.
70.
Samaveda means:
(1) The Book of knowledge
(2) The Book of Music
(3) The Book of Nature
(4) The Book of Religion
Ans. (2)
Sol. The word Sama means sweet songs or hymns. Since Sama Veda consists of such hymns, it is referred to as
the Book of Music.
71.
The capital of Kuru was
(1) Mathura
(2) Taxshila
(3) Hastinapur
(4) Shravasti
Ans. (3)
Sol. Indraprastha and Hastinapur (now known as Delhi the capital of India) was Kuru’s capital.
72.
Assertion (A) : Petrochemical industries are established near oil refinery centres.
Reason (R) : The byproducts from the oil refineries act as byproducts for the petrochemical industry.
Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (1)
Sol. Petrochemical industries are established near oil refinery centres.The byproducts from the oil refineries act as
byproducts for the petrochemical industry.
73.
Assertion (A) : Laterite is highly leached soil.
Reason (R) : Laterite is found on relatively higher altitude.
Find the right answer from the given alternatives.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (3)
Sol. Laterite is a soil and rock type rich in iron and aluminium, and is commonly found on reliefs of gentle crests
and plateaus which prevents erosion of the surface cover.
15
74.
Ans.
Sol.
75.
Ans.
Sol.
76.
Assertion (A) : Natural ports are found more in numbers on the Western Coast of India.
Reason (R) : Western Coast is an example of a submerged coast.
Find the right answer from the given alternatives.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(1)
Natural ports are found more in numbers on the Western Coast of India. Western Coast is an example of a
submerged coast.
Assertion (A) : River Narmada and River Tapti have estuary at their mouths.
Reason (R) : S.W. Monsoon brings heavy downpour on the coast.
Find the right answer from the given alternatives.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2)
River Narmada and Rover Tapti have estuary at their mouths. S.W. Monsoon brings does not heavy downpour
on the coast.
Match the thermal power stations indicated on the map of India (I, II, III & IV) with their respective names -
II
III
IV
I
Ans.
Sol.
77.
Ans.
Sol.
(A) Tuticorin
(B) Kolkata
(C) Talcher
(D) Trombay
(1)
I B II C III A IV D
(2)
II A I D IV B III C
(3)
III D II B I A
IV C
(4)
IV A III B II C I D
(3)
Trombay is in Maharashtra.
Kolkata is on the eastern coast.
Tuticorin is located on the southern coast.
Talcher is on the eastern coast.
After West Bengal which state in India has second place in terms of mangrove forest (1) Andaman Nicobar Island
(2) Gujarat
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Odisha
(4)
Bhitarkanika Mangroves is India's second largest forest, located in the state of Odisha.
16
78.
Laterite soil develops under which kind of favorable geographical conditions (1) High temperature, high rainfall
(2) High temperature, average rainfall
(3) Average temperature, high rainfall
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
Sol. Laterite soil develops under high temperature and high rainfall.
79.
Which part of India has undergone Green Revolution (1) Northern mountainous region
(2) Central India
(3) North Western plain
(4) Deccan region
Ans. (3)
Sol. The green revolution was confined to only a few north- western states, it seems to have gradually extended to many
other parts of the country.
80. Presence of phosphorus weakens which of the following metal (1) Iron
(2) Lead
(3) Copper
(4) Gold
Ans. (1)
Sol. Phosphorus weakens iron.
81. Largest producer of Jute in India is (1) Bihar
(2) West Bengal
(3) Odisha
(4) Punjab
Ans. (2)
Sol. This fertile geographic region is shared by both Bangladesh and India (West Bengal).
82.
Ankleshwar is famous for the production of which Mineral :
(1) Coal
(2) Petroleum
(3) Mica
Ans. (2)
Sol. Ankaleshwar in India is known for the production of Petroleum.
83. When was Tashkent Agreement concluded ?
(1) 1962
(2) 1964
(3) 1966
(4) Manganese
(4) 1968
Ans. (3)
Sol. The Tashkent Declaration of 10 January 1966 was a peace agreement between India and Pakistan after the IndoPakistani War of 1965.
84.
Who is the chairman of National Development Council ?
(1) President
(2) Vice President
(3) Prime Minister
Ans. (3)
(4) Chief Justice
Sol. The National Development Council is presided over by the Prime Minister of India.
85. Who had given'the slogan'of "Jai Jawan Jai Kisan"?
(1) Rajiv Gandhi
(2) Lal Bahadur Shastri (3) Indira Gandhi
(4) Morarji Desai
Ans. (2)
Sol. Jai Jawan Jai Kisan (English: "Hail the Soldier, Hail the Farmer") was a slogan given to India by the Prime Minister
of India Lal Bahadur Shastri in 1965 at a public gathering at Ramlila Maidan, Delhi. Soon after Shastri took over
the prime ministership of India after Nehru's death, India was attacked by Pakistan.
86. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC ?
(1) Pakistan
(2) India
(3) Nepal
(4) Thailand
Ans. (4)
Sol. The member states are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
87.
Who was the First Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(1) Annie Besant
(2) Sarojini Naidu
(3) Indira Gandhi
Ans. (1)
(4) Sonia Gandhi
Sol. Annie Besant was the first woman President of Indian National Congress. She presided over the 1917 Calcutta
session of the Indian National Congress.
17
88.
Telugu Desam Party is a regional party of which state ?
(1) Punjab
(2) Assam
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (4)
Sol. 'Telugu Land and People's Party', is a regional political party, ... Its mass base is primarily in the southern state of
Andhra Pradesh in India.
89.
Who was the first Education Minister of India ?
(1) B R. Ambedkar
(2) K. M. Munshi
(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(4) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Ans. (4)
Sol. 'Maulana Abul Kalam Azad served as the Minister of Education (the first education minister in independent India)
in Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru's cabinet from 1947 to 1958. He died of a stroke on February 22, 1958.
90.
When was the First Five Year Plan started in India ?
(1) 1951
(2) 1956
(3) 1961
(4) 1965
Ans. (1)
Sol. The first Indian Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru presented the first five-year plan to the Parliament of India on
December 8, 1951.
91.
Which of the following is not a state ?
(1) Assam
(2) Manipur
(3) Delhi
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
Sol. Delhi is a Union Territory.
92.
Who was the Second President of India ?
(1) Zakir Hussain
(2)Radhakrishnan
(3) Shankar Dayal Sharma
(4) R. Venkataraman
Ans. (2)
Sol. Dr. S Radhakrishnan served as the first Vice President of India (1952-1962) and the second President of India (19621967).
93.
Who is the Father of Green Revolution in India ?
(1) M. S. Swaminathan
(2) U. R. Rao
(3) Kurien
(4) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans. (1)
Sol. Swaminathan is known as "Indian Father of Green Revolution" for his leadership and success in introducing and
further developing high-yielding varieties of wheat in India.
94.
Planning Commission was set up in the year :
(1) 1951
(2) 1950
(3) 1971
(4) 1991
Ans. (2)
Sol. After India achieved Independence, a formal model of planning was adopted, and accordingly the Planning
Commission, reporting directly to the Prime Minister of India, was established on 15 March 1950, with Prime
Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as the Chairman.
18
95.
The concept of Vicious Circle of Poverty was given by :
(1) Adam Smith
(2) T. R. Malthus
(3) Karl Marx
(4) Ragnar Nurkse
Ans. (1)
Sol. The original idea behind this was put forward by Adam Smith.
96.
The currency of Russia is :
(1) Dollar
(2) Pound
(3) Rouble
(4) Riyal
Ans. (3)
Sol. The Russian Ruble is the currency of Russia.
97.
The central bank of India is :
(1) State Bank of India
(2) NABARD
(3) Reserve Bank of India
(4) Central Bank of India
Ans. (3)
Sol. RBI is the central bank of India.
98.
Jawahar Rojgar Yojana was started in the year :
(1) 1951
(2) 1961
(3) 1989
(4) 1991
Ans. (3)
Sol. By merging the two erstwhile wage employment programme – National Rural Employment programme (NREP) and
Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY) was started with
effect from April, 1, 1989 on 80:20 cost sharing basis between the centre and the States.
99.
W.T.O. was started in the year :
(1) 1981
(2) 1991
(3) 1995
(4) 2001
Ans. (3)
Sol. The World Trade Organization is an intergovernmental organization which regulates international trade which was
started on 1st January 1995.
100. Government of India enacted Consumer Protection Act in the year :
(1) 1948
(2) 1955
(3) 1986
(4) 1991
Ans. (3)
Sol. Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted in 1986
19