Name: ______________________ Class: _________________ Date: _________ ID: A Unit 1 Pretest True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. ____ 1. If a neutral atom contains 18 protons, it also contains 18 electrons. ____ 2. An ionic bond is formed when two atoms share electrons. ____ 3. Diffusion over large distances is slow and inefficient because it relies on random movement of molecules and ions. ____ 4. Stem cells are only of one type: embryonic. ____ 5. A gamete has one-half the number of chromosomes of a regular body cell. ____ 6. During meiosis, chromosome number is reduced through three rounds of cell division. ____ 7. During meiosis I, homologus chromosome pairs are separated when the centromeres split apart. ____ 8. Meiosis occurs during both sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction. Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 9. Which particle in the nucleus of an atom has a neutral charge? a. carbon c. neutron b. electron d. proton ____ 10. Which substance has at least one ionic bond? a. CH4 c. NaCl b. H2 O d. O2 ____ 11. A molecule of water (H2 O) has which bonds? a. 1 covalent bond c. 2 covalent bonds b. 1 ionic bond d. 2 ionic bonds 1 ____ 12. How does an enzyme influence a biological reaction? a. It increases the net energy difference between reactants and products. b. It decreases the activation energy necessary to initiate the chemical change. c. It increases the kinetic energy of reactants, thereby increasing their tendency to d. ____ collide. It decreases the kinetic energy of reactants, enabling them to undergo chemical change more easily. 13. A student set up four test tubes containing starch solution in which to perform starch digestion. Supplies included amylase (enzyme that digests starch) and an incubator. In which tube listed would starch digestion proceed most quickly? a. Tube 1: No amylase, room temperature (25ºC) b. Tube 2: No amylase, body temperature (37ºC) c. Tube 3: Amylase present, room temperature (25ºC) d. Tube 4: Amylase present, body temperature (37ºC) ____ 14. A hydrogen bond can form between a hydrogen atom of one molecule and which atom of another molecule? a. carbon b. hydrogen c. oxygen d. sodium ____ 15. Which property is responsible for the fact that water and oil do not mix? a. density c. phase b. mass d. polarity ____ 16. A single carbon atom can form a maximum of how many single covalent bonds? a. 2 c. 6 b. 4 d. 8 ____ 17. In humans and other multicelluar organisms, which substance plays a central role as an energy source? a. carbohydrate c. protein b. fat d. water ____ 18. Both Schwann and Virchow developed important theories about cells in the mid 1800s. Which best explains the reason these theories were made within a few years of each other? a. Hooke’s Micrographia inspired both theories. b. New microscopes provided better viewing of cells. c. Scientists invented the microscope in the mid 1800s. d. The electron microscope was used for the first time. 2 ____ 19. Which statement is true about bacterial cells? a. The cells are very large. c. They are eukaryotes. b. The cells have no nucleus. d. They have organelles. ____ 20. Which substance on the plasma membrane helps identify chemical signals from outside the cell? a. receptor proteins c. membrane protein b. cholesterol d. transport protein ____ 21. Which organelle converts sugars into energy? a. lysosome c. nucleus b. mitochondrion d. ribosome ____ 22. What is a major difference between facilitated diffusion and active transport? a. Active transport moves substances against the concentration gradient. b. Active transport uses proteins in the process. c. Facilitated diffusion moves molecules through the plasma membrane. d. Facilitated diffusion requires large amounts of energy. ____ 23. A plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution. What will happen to the plant cell? a. It will swell. c. It will stay the same. b. It will shrink. d. It will wilt. ____ 24. Algal cells are placed in an isotonic solution. Additional amounts of solutes are slowly added to the solution. What happens to the cells? a. They will begin to swell. b. They will burst. c. They will stay the same. d. They will shrink. ____ 25. What types of materials are expelled from cells during exocytosis? a. large molecules such as hormones b. positive and negative ions c. small molecules such as carbon dioxide d. water and glycerol ____ 26. By a. b. c. d. the end of prophase, each of the following has occurred except ____. tighter coiling of the chromosomes breaking down of the nuclear envelope disappearing of the nucleolus lining up of chromosomes in the cell 3 Figure 9-2 ____ 27. Which of the cells depicted in the line graph in Figure 9-2 are most likely cancerous? a. A c. C b. B d. D ____ 28. Why is the synthesis stage called this? a. because protein synthesis is taking place b. because DNA synthesis is taking place c. because it combines several smaller stages into one d. because the chromosomes come together ____ 29. A cell has 12 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after division? a. 4 c. 12 b. 6 d. 24 ____ 30. The cell cycle is regulated by a. cyclins b. enzymes c. hormones d. sugars 31. What is cancer caused by? a. cell-membrane damage b. metabolic poisoning c. mutation d. immune-system damage ____ ____ 32. If you were studying the causes of cancer, which topic might interest you? a. cyclin-dependent kinases c. spindle-fiber structure b. centromere structure d. cell membranes 4 Figure 9-4 ____ 33. Figure 9-4 illustrates which stage of mitosis? a. anaphase c. prophase b. metaphase d. telophase ____ 34. How is the alignment of chromosomes, shown in Figure 9-4, on the equatorial plate of the cell maintained? a. They are always located there, since that is where the nucleus was. b. Tension between opposite spindle fibers pulls them there. c. The pressure of the cytoplasm moves them there. d. The chromosomes are attracted to each other and meet there. ____ 35. Which of the phases of mitosis has the shortest duration? a. anaphase c. metaphase b. cytokinesis d. prophase ____ 36. The typical growth period of a cell occurs during which stage of the cell cycle? a. Gap 1 c. synthesis b. Gap 2 d. mitosis ____ 37. Colchicine is a chemical that when applied to a cell during mitosis can be used to “freeze” cells in metaphase by preventing the chromosomes from moving away from the metaphase plate. What part of the cell does colchicine most likely affect? a. chromosome structure c. nuclear membrane b. spindle fibers d. cell membrane ____ 38. A stem cell has potential medical uses because it a. undergoes mitosis. b. is not specialized in structure and function. c. is similar to a cancer cell, providing a study system. d. undergoes apoptosis. 5 ____ 39. During which phase of meiosis do homologous pairs of chromosomes line up next to one another along the equator? a. anaphase I b. metaphase I c. prophase II d. metaphase II Completion Complete each statement. 40. Elements are pure substances made up of only one kind of ____________________. 41. Molecules that have an unequal distribution of charges are called ____________________ molecules. 42. The electrostatic attraction between adjacent water molecules is called a(n) ____________________ bond. 43. Interphase is divided into three stages: G1, ____________________, and G2. 44. Once the cell cycle begins, there are built-in ____________________ that can stop it at any time. Short Answer 45. List and describe the parts of the cell theory. 6
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