S20 Final Review
Practice
Science 20
Final Review
Unit A – Chemical Change
1. An atom has 19 protons and 20 neutrons. The number of electrons in this atom is
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
19
20
39
Use the following diagrams to answer questions 2 to 4.
2. The element represented in the diagram on the left is
A.
B.
C.
D.
aluminium
fluorine
lithium
sodium
3. The diagram on the right is a(an)
A.
B.
C.
D.
atomic diagram
Bohr diagram
Lewis dot diagram
energy level diagram
4. The element represented in the diagram on the right is
A.
B.
C.
D.
aluminium
fluorine
lithium
sodium
S20 Final Review
Practice
5. For a chlorine atom to become a chloride ion, the chlorine atom must
A.
B.
C.
D.
gain one electron
lose one electron
share an electron
lose all its electrons
6. Which is an example of an ionic compound?
A.
B.
C.
D.
aluminium
plastic
rock salt
sugar
7. Sodium and chlorine form a bond when
A.
B.
C.
D.
sodium gains one electron and chlorine loses one electron
sodium loses one electron and chlorine gains one electron
sodium gains seven electrons and chlorine loses seven electrons
sodium loses seven electrons and chlorine gains seven electrons
8. Cobalt(II) nitrate is dissolved in water. The cobalt(II) nitrate is considered to be the
A.
B.
C.
D.
product
solution
solvent
solute
9. Which substance is a non-electrolyte?
A.
B.
C.
D.
calcium carbonate
aqueous ethanol
hydrochloric acid
sodium sulfate
S20 Final Review
Practice
10. Which is not a reason why a solution with a greater concentration reacts faster
than a solution that is more dilute?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A chemical reaction is a result of collisions between particles.
A dilute solution has more particles of solute available for collisions than a
concentrated solution.
A concentrated solution has more particles of solute available for collisions than
a dilute solution.
The probability of collisions increases as the number of solute particles within a
system increases.
11. For which calculation is the following formula used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
molar concentration
parts per million
percent by volume
percent of solvent
12. A bottle of insect repellent states that the percent by volume concentration of
DEET is 14%. What volume of DEET is in a 500-mL container?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35 mL
70 mL
140 mL
500 mL
13. The number of grams in three moles of solid ammonium chloride, NH4Cl(s), is
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.47 g
53.50 g
102.96 g
160.50 g
S20 Final Review
Practice
14. A student dissolves 45.2 g of Mg(OH)2(s) in enough water to make 1.00 L of
solution. The concentration of this solution is
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.52 mol/L
1.00 mol/L
0.775 mol/L
0.109 mol/L
15. A teacher wants to make 200 mL of a 0.600-mol/L solution of KOH(aq). What
volume of a 2.00-mol/L stock solution is required for this dilution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.0 mL
240 mL
667 mL
1.67 x104 mL
16. Based on the equation 4 Ag(s) 2 H2S(g) O2(g)  2 Ag2S(s) 2 H2O(l), what is
the mole ratio of H2S(g) to Ag2S(s)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2/1
2/2
2/4
4/2
17. Hydrogen sulfide can be used in aqueous solutions to separate out metal ions. On
the other hand, hydrogen sulfide in the air causes considerable damage to silver objects.
When a silver goblet tarnished in the presence of hydrogen sulfide (and oxygen), 1.20
mol of silver sulfide formed. What amount of silver was consumed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.80 mol
2.40 mol
1.20 mol
0.600 mol
S20 Final Review
Practice
18. In producing pure iron metal from its ore, iron(III) oxide and carbon (coke) must
react according to the following balanced chemical equation:
Fe2O3(s) 3 C(s)  2 Fe(s) 3 CO(g)
Suppose 5.89  103 mol of iron ore are consumed. How many moles of pure iron metal
are produced?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.47  103 mol
2.95  103 mol
5.89  103 mol
1.18  104 mol
20. Which is an example of oxidation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
K+(aq) e–  K(s)
Au3+(aq) 3e–  Au(s)
Fe2+(aq) 2e–  Fe(s)
Li(s)  Li+(aq) e–
21. Which is an example of reduction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ca(s)  Ca2+(aq) 2e–
Fe3+(aq) + e–  Fe2+(aq)
H2(g)  2 H+(aq) 2e–
Zn(s)  Zn2+(aq) 2e–
S20 Final Review
Practice
22. When zinc metal is placed into a solution of silver nitrate, silver metal and zinc
nitrate are produced according to this reaction:
Zn(s) 2 AgNO3(aq)  2 Ag(s) Zn(NO3)2(aq)
a.
What chemical atom or ion in the reaction is oxidized? Give a reason for
your choice.
b.
What chemical atom or ion in the reaction is reduced? Give a reason for
your choice.
c.
What chemical atom or ion in the reaction is a spectator? Give a reason for
your choice.
23. A student listed the following possible reactants in redox reactions:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
iron and copper(II) sulfate solution
silver and calcium nitrate solution
zinc and lead(II) nitrate solution
copper and lead(II) nitrate solution
magnesium and zinc nitrate solution
Which combination will spontaneously react in a redox reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I and II
I, III, and IV
I, III, and V
V only
S20 Final Review
Practice
Use the following voltaic cell to answer questions 24 to 27.
24. The reduction-half reaction for the cell is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ag+(aq) e–  Ag(s)
Ag(s)  Ag+(aq) e–
Mg(s)  Mg2+(aq) 2e–
Mg2+(aq) 2e–  Mg(s)
25. The oxidation half-reaction for the cell is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ag+(aq) e–  Ag(s)
Ag(s)  Ag+(aq) e–
Mg(s)  Mg2+(aq) 2e–
Mg2+(aq) 2e–  Mg(s)
26. The oxidation half-reaction occurs at
A.
B.
C.
D.
the anode
the cathode
the anode and the cathode
neither the anode nor the cathode
27. What is the chemical name for the liquid fuel component C10H22(l)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
butane
decane
nonane
methane
S20 Final Review
Practice
28. What is the name of the hydrocarbon on the
right?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3-ethyl-2-methylhexane
2-methyl-3-ethylhexane
5-methyl-4-ethylhexane
4-ethyl-5-methylhexane
29. The ending -yne is used for hydrocarbons with
A.
B.
C.
D.
only single bonds
at least one double bond
at least one triple bond
only double and triple bonds
Use the following diagrams to answer questions 30 to 32.
I. III
II.
III.
30. Compound I is
A.
B.
C.
D.
3-pentene
2-pentene
3-pentyne
2-pentyne
31. Compound II is
A.
B.
C.
D.
2-methyl-1-pentene
2-methyl-4-pentene
4-methyl-1-pentene
4-methyl-4-pentene
32. Compound III is
A.
B.
C.
D.
2,5-dimethyl-3-hexyne
2,5-dimethyl-3-heptyne
2-ethyl-5-methyl-3-hexyne
2-ethyl-5-methyl-3-heptyne
II.
S20 Final Review
Practice
33. Draw the complete structural diagram for C5H8.
34. Draw the condensed structural diagram for the following compound.
4-ethyl-7-methyl-2-octyne
35. Determine the balanced chemical equation for the complete combustion of
2,2-dimethylhexane.
36. Write the balanced chemical equation for the cracking of pentane into methane and
butane.
37. Write the balanced chemical equation for the hydrogenation of C4H8.
S20 Final Review
Practice
38. Explain why there is such a large variety of carbon-based compounds.
39. Draw the complete structural diagram of the hydrocarbon 3,3-diethylheptane.
Unit B – Changes in Motion
1. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45 km, north
248 mL
250 km[W]
500 m[up]
2. The sound from a bolt of lightning travelled 4.08 km in 12.0 s. What was the speed of
the sound in metres per second?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.340 m/s
49.0 m/s
340 m/s
343 m/s
3. A vehicle is travelling 1.0 102 km/h. What is the speed of the vehicle in metres
per second?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28 m/s
27.8 m/s
3.6 102 m/s
1.0 104 m/s
S20 Final Review
Practice
4. Which position–time graph most closely represents an object moving with uniform
motion?
Use the following graph to answer questions 5 and 6.
5. During which interval(s) did the robot arm move with uniform motion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
I and IV
I, II, and III
I, II, and IV
S20 Final Review
Practice
6. During which interval(s) did the robot arm move the slowest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I
I and II
II and III
IV
7. Examine the velocity–time graph of an object travelling with uniform motion. The
displacement of the object over the 25-s time interval is
A.
B.
C.
D.
300 m
475 m
517 m
600 m
8. The graph given shows the velocity of an
automobile as it accelerates uniformly to its
cruising speed. What is the displacement of
the car in the first 12 s of acceleration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90 m
100 m
180 m
360 m
9. Based on a reaction time of 1.50 s and a braking rate of 5.85 m/s2, the stopping
distance of a vehicle initially travelling 90 km/h would be
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.5 m
53.4 m
75.0 m
90.9 m
S20 Final Review
Practice
10. A high-performance car initially travelling 97.2 km/h came to a stop in just 2.9 s. The
mass of the car and its contents was 1850 kg. What was the magnitude of the average net
force (braking force) on the car while it decelerated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.7 104 m
1.8 104 m
4.9 104 m
5.9 104 m
11. The applied force on a vehicle as it increased in speed was 4500 N. The force of
friction was 1000 N. The net force on the vehicle was
A.
B.
C.
D.
5500 N
3500 N
3500 N
5500 N
12. A hockey puck has a mass of 0.170 kg; a soccer ball has a mass of 0.425 kg; a
baseball has a mass of 0.145 kg; and a tennis ball has a mass of 0.0575 kg. Suppose these
objects were approaching your knee with the same velocity. Based on the most relevant
quantity of motion, you would least likely need protection from the
A.
B.
C.
D.
hockey puck
soccer ball
tennis ball
baseball
13. A puck with a mass of 0.170 kg has a velocity of 90.0 km/h. The momentum of the
puck is
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.153 kgm/s
4.25 kgm/s
53.1 kgm/s
55.2 kgm/s
S20 Final Review
Practice
14. A group of students listed the following expressions that are supposedly equal to
impulse:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Which expressions are actually equal to impulse?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I and II
I and III
II and III
III and IV
15. A passenger vehicle collided with a barrier of sand-filled barrels. During this
collision, the change in momentum for the vehicle was 6.5  105 Ns, which occurred
over 0.095 s. What force was exerted on the front of the vehicle during
this time interval?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.8  103 N
6.2  104 N
6.2  105 N
6.8  106 N
16. An 18 000-kg freight car travelling 1.75 m/s[E] collides with a 27 000-kg freight car
at rest. After the collision, the freight cars stick together. What is the velocity of the
freight cars after the collision?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.00 m/s[E]
1.50 m/s[E]
0.70 m/s[E]
0.50 m/s[E]
S20 Final Review
Practice
Unit C – The Changing Earth
1. Oceanic crust and the continental crust make up the layer of Earth called the
A.
B.
C.
D.
asthenosphere
lithosphere
mesosphere
stratosphere
2. Which of the following is a name for Alberta’s earliest fossils?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ammolites
cyanobacterium
strata
stromatolites
3. The following diagram represents the four eras of time in Earth’s existence.
The correct order for the eras from oldest to youngest is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Precambrian
Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Precambrian
Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic
Precambrian, Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic
4. The organisms responsible for producing much of Earth’s atmospheric oxygen are
A.
B.
C.
D.
ammolites
cyanobacteria
jellyfish
stromatolites
S20 Final Review
Practice
5. The law of superposition states that
A.
B.
C.
D.
all rocks and fossils in a given area are the same age
for a given sequence of rock layers, any layer is younger than the one beneath it
all rock layers consisting of the same type of rock are the same age
a sequence of rocks is the chronological record of a given region
6. A fossil that can be used to correlate rock layers in different locations is a(an)
A.
B.
C.
D.
historic fossil
stratigraphic fossil
index fossil
relative fossil
7. The era that spans the greatest number of years in Earth’s geological history is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mesozoic
Cenozoic
Precambrian
Paleozoic
Use the following diagram to answer questions 8 to 9.
8. Layer 2 in the diagram is younger than layers 3, 4, and 5.
This statement is based on the
A.
B.
C.
D.
rock cycle
principle of cross-cutting relationships
principle of superposition
principle of uniformitarianism
S20 Final Review
Practice
9. The correct order of the numbered layers from oldest to youngest is
A.
B.
C.
D.
3, 4, 5, 2, 1
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
5, 4, 3, 2, 1
3, 4, 5, 1, 2
10. Rock that forms when molten magma from the mantle intrudes into the crust and solidifies
is
A.
B.
C.
D.
igneous rock
metamorphic rock
sedimentary rock
none of the above
11. The process in which the nucleus of an unstable atom disintegrates and causes the atom to
become a new element is known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
unconformity
carbon dating
radioactive decay
half-life
Use the following graph to answer questions 12 to 15.
S20 Final Review
Practice
12. How many half-lives have elapsed when 25% of the parent nuclide is left?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1
2
4
13. How much parent nuclide remains after three half-lives have elapsed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0%
6.25%
12.5%
30%
14. If a sample of radioactive material contains 17% daughter nuclide, what percent of
parent nuclide is present in the sample?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0%
17%
50%
83%
15. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years. How old is a bone fragment if the
proportion of carbon-14 remaining is 25%?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2865 a
5760 a
11 460 a
17 190 a
16. The correct order of steps in the process of fossilization is
A.
B.
C.
D.
preservation, burial, death, discovery, life, recovery
discovery, recovery, life, death, burial, preservation
life, death, burial, preservation, discovery, recovery
burial, death, life, discovery, recovery, preservation
17. Which statement is not true of P-waves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They result from an earthquake.
They are slower than S-waves.
They are longitudinal waves.
They can move through solids and liquids.
S20 Final Review
Practice
Seismograph
Station
S-P Interval (s)
Distance to
Epicentre (km)
Maximum
Amplitude of
S-waves (mm)
Station A
23
200
22
Station B
30
260
15
Station C
40
360
7
Use the following charts to answer question 18.
18. The magnitude of the earthquake is approximately
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.0
3.0
4.0
5.0
19. A factor that likely led to the Cretaceous Extinction was a
A.
B.
C.
D.
long-term drought
sudden reduction in oxygen levels
drastic cooling of the global climate
sudden increase in global temperatures
S20 Final Review
Practice
20. The period during which polar ice sheets advanced to cover large regions of
North America and northern Europe is known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
an ice age
glaciation
an epoch
a glacier
21. Which statement about CO2 levels and average global temperatures over Earth’s
history corresponds to the geological evidence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The CO2 level increases and the average global temperature increases.
The CO2 level increases and the average global temperature decreases.
The CO2 level decreases and the average global temperature increases.
The CO2 level and the average global temperature both stay the same.
Unit D – Changes in Living Systems
1. An ecosystem includes
A.
B.
C.
D.
non-living (abiotic) components only
living (biotic) components only
both biotic and abiotic components
physiographic components only
2. The soil in a flower pot, the amount of water added to the pot, the amount of
sunlight received by the plant, the amount and type of fertilizer given, and the
temperature of the air surrounding the pot all make up the plant’s
A.
B.
C.
D.
abiotic factors
biotic factors
ecosystem
habitat
3. A rapid algal bloom can harm an aquatic ecosystem because
A.
B.
C.
D.
algae deplete the oxygen in the water
decomposing dead algae deplete the oxygen in the water
an extensive algal bloom blocks the sunlight for other organisms in the water
all of the above
S20 Final Review
Practice
4. A tapeworm lives in the intestines of an animal and absorbs nourishment from its
host. If the tapeworm multiplies enough, eventually the host becomes weak and may die
of some contracted disease. This relationship is an example of
A.
B.
C.
D.
commensalism
mutualism
parasitism
none of the above
5. Green plants, algae, and tiny aquatic organisms that convert light energy and store it
in the chemical bonds of organic molecules are called
A.
B.
C.
D.
consumers
herbivores
producers
primary consumers
6. An energy pyramid differs from a biomass pyramid because
A.
B.
C.
D.
the two pyramids are inverted to each other
an energy pyramid does not show organisms at each trophic level
an energy pyramid has fewer organisms at the top trophic level
an energy pyramid shows the amount of energy at each trophic level, while a
biomass pyramid shows the mass transferred at each trophic level
7. A food web is different from a food chain because a food web
A.
B.
C.
D.
does not begin with producers
shows the various trophic levels
does not show what each organism eats
is made up of various food chains that are part of an ecosystem
8. A soil temperature of 12.2° C at a depth of 10 cm is an example of which type
of factor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
an abiotic factor in a terrestrial ecosystem
a biotic factor in a terrestrial ecosystem
an abiotic factor in an aquatic ecosystem
a biotic factor in an aquatic ecosystem
S20 Final Review
Practice
9. The carbon cycle begins with the process of
A.
B.
C.
D.
cellular respiration
oxidation
photosynthesis
transpiration
10. A growing forest is valuable because it
A.
B.
C.
D.
removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
removes methane from the atmosphere
uses oxygen from the atmosphere
11. In the oxygen cycle, oxygen is
A.
B.
C.
D.
added to and removed from the atmosphere by photosynthesis
added to the atmosphere by decomposers and removed by photosynthesis
added to the atmosphere by cellular respiration and removed by photosynthesis
added to the atmosphere by photosynthesis and removed by cellular respiration
and combustion
12. A farmer plants alfalfa (a type of legume) to add nitrogen to the soil on his farm. The
process through which nitrogen gas is converted into ammonia is known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
denitrification
nitrification
nitrogen fixation
fertilizing
13. The following illustrates the sequence of events that led to a decline in the caribou
population due to habitat fragmentation.
I. Cleared forest areas attract moose to live in the area.
II. Human activities create open areas and cutlines throughout a habitat.
III. The caribou population declines due to increased predation.
IV. More wolves move into the area.
V. Cutlines and open areas allow wolves to spot and capture prey more easily.
The order of events beginning with habitat fragmentation and resulting in a decline in
the caribou population is
A.
B.
C.
D.
I, II, III, IV, V
V, I, II, IV, III
II, I, V, IV, III
II, III, I, IV, V
S20 Final Review
Practice
14. Your ecological footprint is affected by
A.
B.
C.
D.
the type of food you consume
the type of transportation you use
the type of housing you maintain
all of the above
15. Fifty moose live in a particular region in northwestern Alberta. The factors which
affect the population within the region are
A.
B.
C.
D.
only the number of births and the number of deaths
only immigration and emigration
only the number of births and the amount of immigration
births, deaths, immigration, and emigration
16. The population of grouse in a particular region increases and decreases every five
years. The graph of the grouse population over 20 years would have the shape of
A.
B.
C.
D.
a straight line
a J-curve
an S-curve
an exponential curve
17. A population of sea monkeys in a fish tank is an example of a closed population
because
A.
B.
C.
D.
the birth rate of the sea monkeys is low
the carrying capacity of the fish tank is limited
there is a limited amount of food in the fish tank
there is no sea monkey immigration or emigration
18. Charles Darwin theorized that finches on the Galapagos Islands developed different
beak types because the finches
A.
came from various places with these different beak types
B.
developed different beak types due to interbreeding
C.
developed different beak types because they needed to adapt to the different
types of food available
D.
developed different beak types so they could defend themselves
S20 Final Review
Practice
19. The human arm, a whale flipper, and a bat wing are examples of
A.
B.
C.
D.
the theory of natural selection
Darwinian fitness
homologous structures
Lamarck’s theory of evolution
20. Soot deposits on the buildings and trees around Manchester, England, favoured the
survival of the black moth over the peppered moth. A change in conditions in the area
that favoured a return to a majority of peppered moths was
A.
B.
C.
D.
the removal of trees
the elimination of pollution
an introduction of more birds
a decrease in the bird population