Student Name: ______________________
Teacher:
______________________ Date: ___________
District:
Granville
Assessment:
9_12 FACS FN42 - Foods II - Enterprise Quiz 1
Description:
FN42 Foods II Enterprise
Form:
501
1. Which organization includes inspecting food as one of its primary responsibilities?
A.
U.S. Public Health Service
B.
Centers for Disease Control
C. U.S. Department of Agriculture
D.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
2. Why are people who take certain medications at risk for foodborne illness?
A.
Their immune systems are compromised
B.
They have not built up strong immune systems
C.
They only eat TCS food
D.
They hidden allergies
3. What causes preschool-age children to be at risk for foodborne illness?
A.
Their immune systems are not strong.
B.
They have not received all of their immunizations.
C.
They only eat ready -to -eat food.
D.
They have hidden allergies.
4. Which responsibility is included in the Food and Drug Administration’’s role?
A.
Inspecting meat, poultry, and eggs
B.
Issuing licenses and permits
C. Regulating food transported across state lines
D. Approving HACCP plans.
5. Which item is a potential physical contaminant?
A.
Sanitizer
B.
Jewelry
C.
Sweat
D. Hand Sanitizer
6. Which is an example of physical contamination?
A.
Sneezing on food
B.
Touching dirty food-contact surfaces
C.
Bones in fish
D.
Cooking tomato sauce in a copper pan
7. What condition promotes the growth of bacteria?
A.
High acidity
B.
Low levels of moisture
C. Food held between 70° F and 125° F(21° C and 52° C)
D. Food with a pH that is highly alkaline
8. What symptom can indicate a customer is having an allergic reaction?
A.
Wheezing or shortness of breath
B.
Left arm pain
C. Appetite loss
D.
Coughing blood
9. Parasites are commonly associated with what food?
A.
A. Mushrooms
B.
Wild game
C. Whole wheat
D.
Dairy products
10. What practice can help prevent allergic reactions?
A.
Cooking different types in the same oil
B.
Telling customers how an item is prepared
C. Using parchment paper when baking cooking
D. Providing home delivery service
11. Which food item has been associated with Salmonella Typhi?
A.
Beverages
B.
Produce
C.
Shellfish from contaminated water
D. Undercooked ground beef
12. What does the L stand for in the FDA’’s ALERT tool?
A.
Listen
B.
Leave
C. Limit
D. Look
13. What practice is useful for preventing Norovirus from causing foodborne illness?
A.
Cooking food to minimum internal temperature
B.
Excluding staff with vomiting from the operation
C.
Cooling food rapidly
D. Encouraging staff to get flu shots
14. What should a server do when taking a food order from customers who have concerns about food allergies?
A.
Describe each menu item to customers who ask, including and “secret”” ingredients
B.
Explain the symptoms of an allergic reaction to customers before they order
C. When customers arrive, tell them the food may cause allergic reactions
D. Tell customers with food allergies they will not be able to receive service
15. What practice should be used to prevent seafood toxins from causing a foodborne illness?
A.
Cooking food to correct internal temperature
B.
Handwashing throughout the day
C. Purchasing food from approved, reputable supplies
D. Microwaving fish to be served raw for 15 seconds
16. How would chemicals be stored?
A.
Above food
B.
Away from prep areas
C. In food storage areas
D. With kitchenware
17. Where should a food handler wash his or her hands after prepping food?
A.
Three-compartment sink
B.
Utility sink
C.
Designated sink for handwashing
D. Food prep sink
18. What must a food handler with an infected hand wound do to work safely with food?
A.
Cover the wound with an impermeable cover and wear a single-use glove
B.
Avoid working with raw food until the wound is completely dry
C. Place a bandage on the wound
D. Apply hand sanitizer to the wound
19. When should a food handler with a sore throat and fever be excluded from the operation?
A.
When the customers served are primarily a high-risk population
B.
When the food handler’’s fever over 100° F (38° C)
C. After the food handler has a sore throat that has lasted for more than 5 days
D.
Before the regulatory authority is notified
20. What must food handlers do when handling ready-to- eat food?
A. Wear single-use gloves
B.
Sanitize their hands
C. Wear an apron
D. Use bare hands
21. What should a food handler do to make gloves easier to put on?
A.
Sprinkle flour in the gloves
B.
Blow in the gloves
C.
Select the correct size gloves
D. Roll the gloves up
22. What symptom requires a food handler to be excluded from the operation?
A.
Sore throat
B.
Jaundice
C.
Coughing
D.
Stomach cramps
23. What should food handlers do after leaving and returning to the prep area?
A.
Put on gloves
B.
Remove their apron
C. Wash hands
D. Apply hand antiseptic
24. When must a food handler change gloves?
A.
After 1 hour of constant use
B.
As soon as they become dirty or torn
C. At the end of the shift
D. Every 6 hours
25. What is the purpose of hand antiseptic?
A.
Eliminate the need for handwashing
B.
Increase the use of sanitizing solutions
C. Lower the number of pathogens on the skin
D. Eliminate the need for the use of gloves.
26. A food handler comes to work with diarrhea. What should the manager tell the food handler to do?
A.
Do not work with food
B.
Go home
C.
Clean the restroom after each use
D.
Only bus tables
27. Single-use gloves are not required when
A.
the food handler has a latex sensitivity.
B.
Prepping ready-to-eat food
C. washing produce.
D. Handling cooked food
28. What should a server do after clearing the table?
A.
Apply hand antiseptic
B.
Wash hands
C. Put disposable gloves back on
D. Rinse hands in warm water
29. When can a food handler diagnosed with jaundice return to work?
A.
After 1 week
B.
When his or her skin return to a natural color
C.
Seven days after the last symptom is observed
D. When approved by the regulatory authority
30. What temperatures do infrared thermometers measure?
A.
Internal food
B.
Air
C.
Surface
D.
Oven
31. Why should food temperatures be taken in two different locations?
A.
To ensure the thermometer is calibrated correctly
B.
It is required by the manufacturer
C. To ensure the thermometer is accurate to +/-2°F or +/-1°C
D. Temperature may vary in food
32. When can glass thermometers be used?
A.
When candy is being made
B.
When checking liquids
C. When enclosed in a shatterproof casing
D. When hanging in a cooler
33. What strategy can prevent cross-contamination?
A.
Buy food that does not require prepping
B.
Prep food on both sides of a cutting board
C. Prep raw food and ready-to-eat food at the same time
D. Avoid time-temperature abuse
34. Which item should be rejected?
A.
Bags of organic cookies in torn packaging
B.
Bottled milk at 41°F (5°C)
C.
Shell eggs at an air temperature of 45°F (7°C)
D. Live oysters at internal temperature of 50° F (10 ° C)
35. A food handler has just finished storing a dry food delivery. Which step was done correctly?
A.
Stored away from the wall
B.
Stored food 4 inches off the floor
C.
Stored food underneath a stairwell
D.
Stored food in an empty chemical container
36. What information must be included on the label of food packaged on-site for retail sale?
A.
Pack date
B.
List of ingredients
C.
Storage guidelines
D.
Serving size
37. What should be done with a package of flour that is received with signs of dampness on the bag?
A.
Reject the flour and return to the supplier
B.
Accept the flour and place in the dry storage
C.
Dry the bag thoroughly before use
D.
Store the bag in a cooler at 41°F (5°C) or lower
38. How should an item that has been recalled by its manufacturer be stored in an operation?
A.
Together with food that will be served
B.
Separately from food that will be served
C. In vacuum-packed bags
D. In self-draining containers
39. Ready-to-eat TCS food prepped in-house must be date marked if it is held for more than how many hours?
A.
12 hours
B.
24 hours
C.
48 hours
D.
72 hours
40. What information must be included on the label of a container of ready-to-eat TCS food prepped on-site for
retail sale?
A.
Quality of food
B.
Potential allergens
C. Reheating instructions
D.
Storage requirements
41. What should staff do when receiving a delivery of food and supplies?
A.
Inspect non-food items first
B.
Store it immediately and inspect it later
C. Visually inspect all food items
D.
Stack the delivery neatly and inspect it within 12 hours
42. A food handler is prepping a seafood dish on April 4, using shrimp and scallops. The shrimp has a use-by
date of April 8, and the scallops have a use-by date of April 10. What is the use-by date for the seafood dish?
A.
April 4
B.
April 8
C. April 6
D. April 10
43. What temperature must stuffed lobster be cooked to?
A.
135°F (57°C) for 4 minutes
B.
145°F (63°C) for 4 minutes
C.
155°F (68°C) for 15 seconds
D.
165°F (74°C) for 15 seconds
44. Nursing home cafeteria staff are creating new menu items for a breakfast for residents and their family
members. What item is not safe to serve?
A.
Pancakes
B.
Soft boiled eggs
C.
Corned beef hash
D. Mayonnaise
45. What should a food handler do with food after it is thawed in the microwave?
A.
Cook it using conventional cooking equipment
B.
Cover the food to prevent it from drying out
C.
Check the temperature in at least 2 places
D. Let the food stand for 2 minutes before cooking
46. What is the minimal internal cooking temperature for a veal chop?
A.
135°F (57°C)
B.
145°F (63°C)
C.
155°F (68°C)
D.
165°F (74°C)
47. A food handler has cooled a container of chili to 70°F (21°C) in 1 hour. How much time is left to cool the
chili to 41°F (5°C)?
A.
2 hours
B.
3 hours
C.
4 hours
D.
5 hours
48. What should be done with food that has been handled by a food handler who has been restricted or excluded
from the operation due to illness?
A.
Heat the food to destroy pathogens
B.
Throw it out
C. Recondition the food
D. Make sure food has not been time-temperature abused
49. What type of eggs must be used when preparing raw or undercooked dishes for high-risk populations?
A.
Pasteurized
B.
Pooled
C. Hard-boiled
D.
Shelled
50. What is the minimum internal cooking temperature for chicken breast?
A.
135°F (57°C) for 4 minutes
B.
145°F (63°C) for 4 minutes
C.
155°F (68°C) for 15 seconds
D.
165°F (74°C) for 15 seconds
51. What temperature must be cooked vegetables reach to be safely hot-held for service?
A.
135°F (57°C)
B.
145°F (63°C)
C.
155°F (68°C)
D.
165°F (74°C)
52. What must an operation do before packaging fresh juice on-site for later sale?
A.
Obtain a variance
B.
Freeze the juice
C. Hold produce at 41°F (5°C) or lower
D.
Contact OSHA
53. A local nursing home has a yearly barbecue for its residents. Which food item should not be served?
A.
Deviled eggs
B.
Potato salad
C. Raw carrots
D. Rare hamburgers
54. In a self-service area, bulk unpackaged food does not need a label if the product
A.
makes a claim about health or nutrient content.
B.
does not make a claim about health or nutrient content.
C.
has been prepared at an unregulated processing plant.
D.
has been prepared at a vendor’’s processing plant.
55. What should be done with preset, unwrapped utensils that appear to be unused after guests have left the
table?
A.
Wrap the utensils with a clean napkin
B.
Leave the utensils for the next guest
C.
Clean and sanitize the utensils
D. Wipe off the utensils and reuse
56. When transporting food off-site, how should information such as a use-by date and time be communicated to
the off-site staff?
A.
Telephone
B.
Text or email message
C. Labels on food
D. Verbal instructions
57. What rule for serving condiments should be practiced?
A.
Serve condiments in original containers
B.
Serve condiments in antimicrobial containers
C.
Combine bowls of leftover condiments with fresh ones
D.
Serve bottle condiments that remain open between uses
58. What is the minimum internal temperature hot food must be held at to prevent pathogens from growing?
A.
115°F (46°C)
B.
125°F (51°C)
C.
135°F (57°C)
D.
145°F (62°C)
59. How many hours can cold food be held without refrigeration before it must be sold, served, or thrown out?
A.
2 hours
B.
4 hours
C.
6 hours
D.
8 hours
60. What rule for serving bread should food handlers practice?
A.
Do not re-serve uneaten bread
B.
Reheat uneaten bread before serving to other customers
C. Recycle unused, uncovered butter for use in other food items
D.
Clean and sanitize bread baskets between each customer
61. Lasagna was removed from hot holding service at 11:00 am. By what time must it be served or thrown out?
A.
12:00 p.m.
B.
2:00 p.m.
C.
3:00 p.m.
D.
4:00 p.m.
62. A tuna salad is removed from the cooler at 9:00 a.m. and put out for a buffet at 11:00 a.m. By what time must
the tuna salad be served or thrown out?
A.
12:00 p.m.
B.
2:00 p.m.
C.
3:00 p.m.
D.
4:00 p.m.
63. Bulk unpackaged foods in self-service areas must be labeled when
A.
the food is prepared on the premises.
B.
the manufacturer claims the food is healthy.
C.
the food is prepared by another manufacturer.
D.
the food supports pathogen growth.
64. When can raw, unpackaged meat be offered for self-service?
A.
At organic food stands
B.
At Mongolian barbeques
C. When the meat is high quality
D. When the meat is frozen
65. What is the first step in developing a HACCP Plan?
A.
Identify corrective actions
B.
Conduct a hazard analysis
C. Establish monitoring procedures
D.
Determine critical control points
66. Which process requires a variance from the regulatory authority?
A.
Smoking food to enhance flavor
B.
Serving wild game
C.
Serving imported cheese
D.
Sprouting seeds or beans
67. The temperature of clam chowder is checked during holding. According to the operation’’s policy, the
chowder must be thrown out. What HACCP principle is being practiced by throwing out the soup?
A.
Hazard analysis
B.
Verification
C. Monitoring
D.
Corrective action
68. Which of these food processes does not require a variance from a regulatory authority?
A.
Smoking food as a method to preserve it
B.
Buying bean sprouts from a reputable supplier
C.
Curing food
D. Pasteurizing juice on-site
69. The temperature of duck breast is checked during cooking. According to the operation’’s policy, the duck
breast must be cooked for 16 minutes to allow the internal temperature to reach 165°F (74°C). What HACCP
principle is addressed by cooking the duck breast to 165°F (74°C)?
A.
Hazard Analysis
B.
Verification
C. Monitoring
D.
Critical limit
70. What information must be posted on a dishwasher?
A.
Manufacturer phone number
B.
Correct settings
C. Recommended sanitizing amounts
D.
Schedule for cleaning
71. What is a cross-connection?
A.
Backflow of clean water into dirty water
B.
Physical link between safe water and dirty water
C. Water transport vehicle
D. Approved public water main
72. What scenario can lead to pest infestation?
A.
Storing recyclables in paper bags
B.
Cleaning up spills around garbage containers
C. Rotating products using the FIFO method
D. Installing air curtains above doors
73. What factors influence the effectiveness of a chemical sanitizer?
A.
Concentration, temperature, contact time, pH, and water hardness
B.
Concentration, absorbency, moisture, alkalinity, salinity
C.
Concentration, protein, acidity, air temperature, strength
D.
Concentration, water activity, reactivity, pressure, density
74. What is the first step of cleaning and sanitizing stationary equipment?
A.
Take off removable parts
B.
Unplug the unit
C.
Spray the surface with cleanser
D. Wash the equipment surface using hot water
75. How should staff make sure the chemical sanitizer being used on a food-prep surface is at the correct
strength?
A.
Rinse it from the surface and then apply it a second time
B.
Test the surface first to confirm that there are no pathogens
C. Use a test kit to check the sanitizer’’s concentration when mixing it
D. Heat it to the temperature recommended by the manufacturer
76. What temperature should the water be for manual dishwashing?
A.
Must be at least 70° F (21°C)
B.
Must be at least 90 °F (32°C)
C. Must be at least 100°F (76°C)
D. Must be at least 110°F (43°C)
77. What thermometer is best suited to checking a dishwashing machine’’s final rinse temperature?
A.
Time-temperature indicator
B.
Infrared thermometer
C. Maximum registering thermometer
D. Immersion probe
78. What temperature must a high-temperature dishwasher’’s final sanitizing rinse be?
A.
At least 150° F (65° C)
B.
At least 160° F (71° C)
C. At least 170° F (76° C)
D. At least 180° F (82° C)
79. What must staff members do when transferring chemicals to a new container?
A.
Label the container
B.
Complete an MSDS request
C. Log the transfer in the MSDS
D.
Store the chemical in a locked cabinet
80. What organization requires a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to be included with hazardous
chemicals?
A.
Environmental Protection Agency
B.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
C. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals
D.
National Restaurant Association
81. What are marketing objectives?
A.
Goals
B.
Products
C.
Sales
D.
Strategies
82. Which is a major advantage to buying a franchise?
A.
Freedom in making business decisions
B.
Guaranteed profit on all goods sold
C. High cost of supplies and equipment
D. Management training and technical assistance provided
83. Before offering a service or product for sale, determine that there is:
A.
A demand for the product.
B.
A niche in the market.
C. Enough inventory available.
D.
Opportunity for sales.
84. There are no coffee shops on Hatteras Island. Mike thinks that a coffee/bagel shop would have commercial
value. His idea is considered a/n:
A.
Corporation.
B.
Mission.
C.
Opportunity.
D. Partnership.
85. Who are the people to whom a business plans to sell its products?
A.
Administrators
B.
Consumers
C.
Sales staff
D. Target customers
86. The inability to interpret financial records demonstrates a lack of:
A.
Competence of the entrepreneur.
B.
Image development.
C. Management planning.
D. Product/service planning.
87. The Cooper Company decided to sell stock to raise capital. Under which form of business organization does
the company operate?
A.
Corporation
B.
Franchise
C. Partnership
D.
Sole Proprietorship
88. Who are the people most likely to buy a specific product or service?
A.
Buyers
B.
Consumers
C.
Customers
D. Target customers
89. Which term can be defined as the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of products and services to
satisfy customer wants and needs?
A.
Entrepreneurship
B.
Marketing
C. Marketing concept
D. Target marketing
90. Of the major factors contributing to the success of a small business, which one is affected by the lack of
working capital?
A.
Financing
B.
Image
C. Management
D. Planning
91. Jessica asks many questions and conducts research when attempting to solve problems related to her
business. What personal characteristic does this represent?
A.
Creativity
B.
Inquisitiveness
C. Persistence
D. Responsibility
92. Why is sole proprietorship the most common form of business ownership?
A.
Legal assistance is needed for start up in this form.
B.
Limited liability of sole proprietorships is a desirable benefit.
C. Money can be raised easily by issuing shares of stock.
D.
The government assumes little control over sole proprietorships.
93. What is NOT used to construct a cash flow statement?
A.
Expenses
B.
Inventory
C.
Net income (or loss)
D. Revenues
94. What is the amount added to the cost of an item to cover expenses and ensure profits?
A.
Markup
B.
Prestige pricing
C. Price skimming
D. Profit
95. Product standards are developed to benefit the:
A.
Investor.
B.
Consumer.
C. Entrepreneur.
D.
Small business owner.
96. What does an income statement show the business owner?
A.
Amount of profit or loss
B.
Break-even point
C.
Stock turnover rate
D. Total production costs
97. What must the company know in advance to predict when it will begin making a profit?
A.
Break-even point
B.
Credit card sales
C.
Net profit income
D. Turnover rate
98. FACS students practice making several products before choosing which one to sell. The result of that
practice is called a/an :
A.
Carrier.
B.
Mock.
C. Profile.
D. Prototype.
99. Using a 100% markup and taking off one cent to give the impression of bargain prices, what is the RETAIL
price of an item whose wholesale cost is $20.00?
A.
40
B.
39.99
C.
30
D.
29.99
100. A system for verifying and maintaining the desired standards in a product or service is called:
A.
Automation.
B.
Inspection.
C.
Quality circle.
D.
Quality control.
101. What is a working model of a product?
A.
Production model
B.
Prototype
C.
Sample
D. Target product
102. What expenses will stay constant with the number of items produced?
A.
Break even point
B.
Fixed costs
C. Liabilities
D. Variable costs
103. What is net income to a business?
A.
Costs
B.
Inventory
C. Loss
D. Profit
104. What is the process used to test a business idea or concept?
A.
Business concept
B.
Business plan
C. Feasibility analysis
D. Market survey
105. What financial statement tells an entrepreneur what his/her business is worth at a given time?
A.
Balance sheet
B.
Cash flow statement
C. Ledger
D. Profit and loss statement
106. If a price is reduced, what must happen to continue to break even?
A.
Conduct market feasibility study
B.
Sell fewer items
C.
Sell more items
D.
Sell to new customers
107. A feasibility analysis determines if:
A.
A business plan is necessary.
B.
An idea is practical.
C.
Customers will buy the product.
D.
The money is available to start a new business.
108. What is the covering, wrapper, or container in which merchandise is placed for retail sale?
A.
Boxing
B.
Labeling
C. Packaging
D. Wrapping
109. The federal agency which provides assistance and advice on how small businesses can increase revenues
and profits is the:
A.
FTC.
B.
IRS.
C.
SBA.
D.
SBI.
110. Who should the purchasing manager contact if there is something wrong with a shipment or an invoice?
A.
Customer
B.
Manufacturer
C. Retailer
D. Vendor
111. Which state agency provides businesses with information regarding employer responsibilities in relation to
unemployment insurance?
A.
Department of Development
B.
Office of the Secretary of State
C.
State Department of Labor
D. Workers’’ Compensation Board
112. What step BEST describes the development of a marketing strategy?
A.
Marketing mix
B.
Pricing
C. Purchased product
D.
Sharing ideas
113. What kind of plan is presented to potential lenders or investors to gain financial support?
A.
Business
B.
Financial
C. Management
D. Marketing
114. Which organization has as its purpose the stimulation of local economic growth?
A.
Chamber of Commerce
B.
Internal Revenue Service
C.
Small Business Development Center
D.
State Department of Labor
115. The Foods II class prepared 25 dozen cookies, but no one came to purchase them. What should be
evaluated?
A.
Financials
B.
Marketing
C.
Operations
D.
Standards
116. Target customers must be chosen with care when beginning a new business because they are the
customers:
A.
Asked to purchase a specific product or service.
B.
Most likely to buy a specific product or service.
C.
That plan to buy a specific product or service.
D.
That are willing to take a risk on buying from a new business.
117. If the Foods II class lost money on their project but all products were sold, what should be evaluated?
A.
Financials
B.
Marketing
C.
Operations
D.
Standards
118. Under which form of business ownership do owners have limited liability?
A.
Corporation
B.
General partnership
C.
Sole proprietorship
D.
Strategic alliance
119. As she prepared to open her new flower shop, Jamesia made several trips to talk with an accountant. The
fees paid for those consultations would be classified as:
A.
Fixed costs.
B.
Office expense.
C.
Start-up costs.
D. Wages and salary
120. Initial inventory for the business is which type of cost?
A.
Fixed cost
B.
Personal cost
C.
Start-up cost
D. Variable cost
121. Which is a major disadvantage of a corporation?
A.
Difficult to leave the business
B.
Difficult to raise capital
C.
Double taxation
D. Unlimited liability
122. Which form of incorporation would a church or charity use?
A.
C-corporation
B.
Limited Liability Company
C.
Nonprofit corporation
D.
Subchapter S corporation
123. Advertising and promotion expenses for an ongoing business are:
A.
Fixed costs.
B.
Sales revenue.
C.
Start-up costs.
D. Variable costs.
124. A short-term loan is repayable in:
A.
One year.
B.
Two years.
C. Five years.
D. Twenty-five years.
125. When seeking a loan, an entrepreneur who has capacity:
A.
Considers environmental conditions before applying for the loan.
B.
Demonstrates the ability to repay the debt.
C. Has insurance to cover business losses.
D. Has made a personal investment in the business.
126. Which type of business can own assets and borrow money without directly involving the people who own it,
and, therefore, is more closely regulated by the government than other business organizations?
A.
Corporation
B.
Family-owned business
C. General partnership
D.
Sole proprietorship
127. Which is a major disadvantage to buying a franchise?
A.
Equipment and supplies are less expensive.
B.
No management or technical assistance is provided.
C.
The performance of other franchises impact on the franchisee.
D.
There is no guarantee of product consistency.
128.
129.
130.
131. Which tool should be used to true a knife?
A.
Another knife of equal size
B.
Cutting board
C. Knife steel
D.
Sharpening stone or whetstone
132. What is a DISADVANTAGE of using a dull knife?
A.
Makes clean cuts
B.
More likely to be cut with a dull knife
C. Requires less pressure to slice bread
D. Requires less pressure to slice tomatoes
133. Which vegetable is diced?
A.
Carrots cut into ¼"" squares
B.
Garlic cut into very small pieces
C.
Onions chopped into irregular pieces
D. Potatoes cut into ¼"" thick matchsticks
134. Which two metals are commonly used to make knife blades?
A.
Aluminum and steel
B.
Copper and iron
C.
Stainless steel and copper
D.
Stainless steel and high-carbon steel
135. A serrated knife should be used to cut:
A.
Apples, oranges, and cake.
B.
Bread, tomato, and soft food.
C.
Carrots, tomato, and cucumbers.
D. Roast beef, chicken, and pork roast.
136. Which knife is MOST appropriate to chopping vegetables?
A.
Chef’’s
B.
Paring
C.
Slicing
D. Utility
137. What is the proper way to carry a knife in the kitchen?
A.
Gripping the blade
B.
Holding the blade pointed down
C. Holding the blade pointing straight in front
D. Holding the blade pointing toward you
138. Which vegetable is usually minced in recipes?
A.
Bell pepper
B.
Carrot
C. Garlic
D. Mushroom
139. To prevent damage to blades and to people, the best place to store knives is/on a:
A.
Cabinet.
B.
Ceramic container.
C.
Drawer.
D.
Slotted holder.
140. Which knife is MOST appropriate to cut meat?
A.
Chef’’s
B.
Paring
C.
Slicing
D. Utility
141. Which vegetable is sliced?
A.
Carrots cut into ¼"" squares
B.
Garlic cut into very small pieces
C.
Onions chopped into irregular pieces
D. Potatoes cut diagonally ¼"" thick
142. Why should knives have a full tang?
A.
Give more power and strength to knives
B.
Make the knives sharper
C. Make the knife easier to clean
D. Require more pressure to cut vegetables
143. Which is NOT an appropriate place to store knives?
A.
In a drawer with other knives
B.
In a slotted knife holder
C. In a vinyl knife case
D. With magnetized bars on the wall
144. Which knife is MOST appropriate to carve a roast at a buffet?
A.
Chef’’s
B.
Paring
C.
Slicing
D. Utility
145. Which is an IMPROPER safety procedure for knives?
A.
Cut with the blade facing away from the body
B.
Do not try to catch a falling knife
C.
Soak knives in a sink filled with soapy water
D. Use a sharp knife
146. Which vegetable is usually cut into julienne shapes?
A.
Bell pepper
B.
Carrot
C. Mushroom
D.
Onions
147. Which tool should be used to sharpen a knife?
A.
Another knife of equal size
B.
Knife steel
C.
Sharpening stone or whetstone
D. Vegetable peeler
148. What are the advantages of using a sharp knife?
A.
Make clear smooth cuts and is safer
B.
More likely to be injured
C. Require more pressure to slice bread
D. Require more pressure to slice vegetables
149. A tournee knife is used to:
A.
Carve a watermelon basket.
B.
Create spiral designs on a cake.
C.
Cut potatoes that are oblong and seven sided.
D.
Scoop out balls of cantaloupe and watermelon.
150. Which is the BEST way to garnish a sandwich?
A.
No garnish
B.
On a separate plate
C.
On the side
D.
On the top
151. Which is used in plate painting?
A.
Chocolate and raspberry sauces
B.
Colored cake icing
C. Lemon zest
D. Parsley
152. Which garnishing tool should used to pare strips from citrus fruits and thin grooves from carrots and
cucumbers?
A.
Channel knife
B.
Fluting knife
C. Paring knife
D. Vegetable peeler
153. Which garnishing knife is used to carve melons?
A.
Channel knife
B.
Fluting knife
C. Paring knife
D. Tournee knife
154. A butter curler is used to:
A.
Carve a watermelon basket.
B.
Create spiral designs on a cake.
C. Make chocolate curls and balls of butter.
D.
Scoop out balls of cantaloupe and watermelon.
155. A vegetable peeler can be used to make:
A.
Carrot curls and chocolate curls.
B.
Scooped out balls of cheese, potatoes, and butter.
C.
Thick slices of carrots.
D. V-cuts in melons and bell peppers.
156. Which tool is MOST appropriate for plate painting?
A.
Decorating spatula
B.
Melon baller
C.
Squeeze bottle
D. Zester
157. Which garnishing tool should be used to make V- cuts in melons and bell peppers?
A.
Channel knife
B.
Fluting knife
C. Vegetable peeler
D. Zester
158. Which garnishing tool should be used to make curls and grooves and marble-size balls?
A.
Butter cutter
B.
Channel knife
C. Fluting knife
D. Melon baller
159. Toasted and seasoned croutons would be an appropriate garnish for :
A.
Meat
B.
Salads
C.
Sandwiches
D.
Seafood
160. A Parisienne scoop or melon baller should be used to
A.
Create attractive designs in soft foods.
B.
Make chocolate curls.
C.
Scoop out potatoes, butter and melons.
D.
Shave pieces from colorful vegetables.
161. A zester can be used to make:
A.
Carrot curls and chocolate curls.
B.
Shaved pieces from colorful vegetables like carrots.
C.
Thin grooves in carrots and cucumbers.
D. V-cuts in melons and bell peppers.
162. Which garnishing tool should be used to scoop out balls of cheese, potatoes, butter, cantaloupe, and
watermelon?
A.
Butter cutter
B.
Channel knife
C. Fluting knife
D. Melon baller
163. A fluting knife can be used to make:
A.
Carrot curls and chocolate curls.
B.
Shaved pieces from colorful vegetables like carrots.
C.
Thin grooves in carrots and cucumbers.
D. V-cuts in melons and bell peppers.
164. Which is the most appropriate garnish for strawberry cheesecake?
A.
Chocolate curls
B.
Fanned strawberry
C.
Orange slices
D. Twist of lemon
165. A decorating or icing spatula is used to:
A.
Carve a watermelon basket.
B.
Make chocolate curls and balls of butter.
C.
Scoop out balls of cantaloupe and watermelon.
D.
Smooth icing on a cake.
166. Which flour contains the largest amount of gluten and produces the strongest and most elastic gluten?
A.
All-purpose
B.
Bread
C.
Cake
D.
Self-rising
167. What is the proper technique for measuring flour?
A.
Displacement
B.
Pack
C. Pour
D.
Spoon
168. If yeast bread consistently yields a product that has a heavy texture, what is the likely cause?
A.
Over kneaded
B.
Too much yeast
C. Too short proofing time
D. Too warm proofing time
169. If the bakery assistant is preparing bread using the traditional method, what temperature should be used to
dissolve the yeast properly?
A.
150°F to 160°F
B.
105°F to 115°F
C.
60°F to 70°F
D.
45°F to 55°F
170. What is the appropriate temperature for liquid to dissolve yeast?
A.
35°F to 45°F
B.
85°F to 95°F
C.
105°F to 115°F
D.
120°F to 130°F
171. When yeast is dissolved in the traditional mixing method, what is the correct temperature for the liquid?
A.
35°F to 50°F
B.
75°F to 85°F
C.
105°F to 115°F
D.
120°F to 140°F
172. To prepare yeast breads, which method speeds the mixing time and shortens kneading time?
A.
Batter
B.
Mixer
C.
One-rise
D. Traditional
173. What is the correct temperature for liquid when mixing dry and liquid ingredients together when making
yeast bread?
A.
35°F to 45°F
B.
75°F to 85°F
C.
100°F to 115°F
D.
120°F to 130°F
174. When using the microwave oven to bake yeast bread, it will:
A.
Lack a crisp, brown crust.
B.
Need additional rising times.
C.
Need extra kneading.
D.
Need less liquid.
175. Which is NOT a leavening agent?
A.
Baking powder
B.
Baking soda
C. Gluten
D.
Steam
176. Why must yeast dough be punched down?
A.
Create fine, uniform texture
B.
Evaporate alcohol
C.
Optimize fermentation
D. Release some carbon dioxide
177. The baker is preparing refrigerator dough for yeast rolls. Which mixing method should be chosen if the
baker does NOT want to knead the dough?
A.
Batter
B.
Mixer
C.
One-rise
D. Traditional
178. What nutrients give baked products their structure?
A.
Carbohydrates and fat
B.
Protein and starch
C. Protein and sugar
D.
Sugar and fat
179. What is the MAIN difference between liquids used in traditional yeast breads and liquids used in bread
machine yeast breads?
A.
Traditional uses warm liquids and bread machine uses liquids at room temperature.
B.
Traditional uses cool liquids and bread machine uses liquids at room temperature.
C. Traditional uses hot liquids and bread machine uses liquids at warm temperature.
D. Traditional uses refrigerated liquids and bread machine uses liquids at room temperature.
180. Oven spring causes bread to:
A.
Cook without burning.
B.
Have a hard surface.
C. Rise.
D.
Stay fresh longer.
181. The FIRST step to defrost frozen yeast dough in the microwave is to:
A.
Allow dough to sit in microwave for 50 minutes.
B.
Microwave frozen dough on low power for 5 minutes.
C. Microwave 1 cup of water for 3 – 5 minutes, until boiling.
D. Place frozen dough directly in cold microwave.
182. Which is the LAST step to be completed when proofing dough in the microwave?
A.
Microwave on low power for 1 minute, let stand in oven for 15 minutes.
B.
Microwave on low power for 10 minutes, let stand in oven for 15 minutes.
C. Microwave on high power for 1 minute, proofing is complete.
D. Microwave on high power for 10 minute, proofing is complete.
183. What is TRUE about the use of fat in yeast breads?
A.
Increases tenderness
B.
Decreases tenderness
C. Increases volume
D.
Decreases volume
184. What happened to a yeast bread product that is dry and crumbly?
A.
Not enough flour
B.
Oven temperature too low
C.
Over kneaded
D. Too much yeast
185. What is the FIRST step to defrost frozen yeast dough in the microwave?
A.
Microwave frozen dough on defrost for 10 minutes.
B.
Microwave frozen dough on low power for 5 minutes.
C. Microwave 1 cup of water for 3 – 5 minutes, until boiling.
D. Place frozen dough directly in cold microwave.
186. In a recipe that calls for double-acting baking powder, at what point during the preparation will the MOST
carbon dioxide be released?
A.
Heated
B.
Kneaded
C. Moistened
D. Proofed
187. If yeast bread is golden brown with rough crust and the interior has chunks of flour, what quality is the
product?
A.
Excellent
B.
High
C. Low
D. Unable to determine
188. What happened to a yeast bread product that has too much volume?
A.
Baked too long
B.
Too little salt
C. Too little yeast
D. Under proofed
189. The bakery attendant is preparing a yeast bread recipe that calls for the use of baking soda as a leavening
agent. What type of leavening agent is produced by the baking soda?
A.
Gas
B.
Heat
C. Liquid
D. Moisture
190. What adjustment is needed when using bread flour in a yeast bread recipe?
A.
Requires a second rising
B.
Requires less rising time
C.
Shortens fermentation time
D. Yeast works more slowly
191. The bakery chef is testing the use of a variety of fruits in a new yeast bread recipe. The fruit causes extra
moisture in the dough. What will the end product be?
A.
Burned fruit
B.
Cracked on top
C.
Doughy interior
D. Tough and chewy
192. Which yeast bread shape is baked using a special fluted pan?
A.
Brioche
B.
Cloverleaf
C.
Crescent
D. Parker House
193. Which yeast bread is made in a muffin pan?
A.
Cloverleaf
B.
Crescent
C. Parker House
D.
Brioche
194. If additional ingredients not listed in a recipe are added to yeast bread prior to baking, what is the likely
result?
A.
Longer rising time
B.
Shorter rising time
C. Longer baking time
D.
Shorter baking time
195. Omitting salt from a yeast bread recipe causes the final product to have what appearance?
A.
High volume, rounded, and smooth
B.
High volume and rounded and bumpy
C. Low volume and rough top
D. Low volume and smooth top
196. Which roll shape is made by flattening the dough, cutting it into triangles, and then rolling it up?
A.
Brioche
B.
Cloverleaf
C.
Crescent
D. Parker house
197. What adjustment should be made if an egg is added to a recipe for yeast breads?
A.
Decrease the amount of liquid by ¼ cup
B.
Increase the amount of flour by 1cup
C. Increase the amount of salt by T
D.
Decrease the amount of sugar by ¼ t
198. When shaping yeast dough, which is the most difficult for beginners?
A.
Braided
B.
Brioche
C.
Cloverleaf
D. Parker house
199. If a yeast bread recipe calls for 2 teaspoons of baking powder, what ingredients could be used as a
substitution?
A.
½ teaspoon baking powder + 1 teaspoon dry milk
B.
1 teaspoon baking soda + 1 teaspoon cream of tartar
C.
½ teaspoon dry yeast + 1 teaspoon salt
D.
½ teaspoon flour + 1 teaspoon sugar
200. What is the most likely reason a consumer would NOT own an automatic bread machine?
A.
High initial cost
B.
High maintenance
C. Poor quality bread product
D. Too difficult to use
201. Which ratio of bread flour to whole grain flour is recommended for a recipe being adapted?
A.
4 parts bread flour to 1 part whole grain flour
B.
3 parts bread flour to 1 part whole grain flour
C.
2 parts bread flour to 1 part whole grain flour
D.
1 part bread flour to 1 part whole grain flour
202. A high quality shortened cake will have a:
A.
Concave top, with a pale brown crust.
B.
Flat top, with a shiny crust.
C. Rounded top, with crumbly crust.
D. Rounded top, with thin, evenly brown crust.
203. Which is a good technique to frost a cake?
A.
Brush the crumbs from the cake as it is frosted
B.
Do not frost between the layers
C. Frost the top of the cake first
D. Keep the frosting bowl covered
204. A well-made shortened cake will have a:
A.
Concave top, with pale brown crust.
B.
Flat top, with crumbly crust.
C. Rounded top, with smooth crust.
D. Uneven top, with shiny crust.
205. What mixing method is used if the recipe says to cream the sugar and fat?
A.
Biscuit
B.
Muffin
C.
One-bowl
D.
Standard
206. The recommended technique for frosting a two- layer cake is:
A.
Frost first layer and frost second layer.
B.
Frost top of first and second layer, stack, and frost sides.
C. Frost top of first layer, stack, frost sides, and frost top.
D.
Stack, frost sides, and frost top.
207. When a foam cake is done, it will:
A.
Cling to the sides of the pan.
B.
Have low volume.
C. Leave a small dent when tapped on top.
D. Pull away from the sides of the pan.
208. The ingredients for a wedding cake cost $60.00, and the cake will serve 100 guests. What is the unit cost in
cents of each serving?
A.
10
B.
60
C.
70
D.
99
209. The unit cost for each serving of cake is 40¢. If the cake will be sold with a 50% mark-up, the retail price
will be how many cents?
A.
40
B.
60
C.
80
D.
99
210. The ingredients for a cake recipe cost $8.00, and the recipe yields 16 servings. How many cents is the unit
cost of each serving?
A.
16
B.
20
C.
50
D.
80
211. What is TRUE about cooked frostings?
A.
Are difficult to spread
B.
Are not prepared using a mixer
C. Are prepared using principles of candy making
D.
Cannot be used as decorative frosting
212. Which pan size will require 14 to 18 ounces of high-fat batter?
A.
Loaf
B.
Round 8.
C. Round 9.
D. Tube
213. How should single servings of cake be packaged for sale?
A.
Placed in a plastic bag
B.
Placed in an air-tight container
C. Wrapped in foil
D. Wrapped in plastic wrap
214. Shortened cakes that are cooked in the microwave:
A.
Brown well.
B.
Can be prepared in any size or shape pan.
C. Require a long cooking period.
D.
Should be cooked in a round pan.
215. A shortened cake should be cooled in the pan:
A.
For 10 minutes, then remove and place on a wire rack.
B.
On the stovetop.
C.
On a wire rack
D. With the pan inverted.
216. Which is NOT an appropriate way to prepare pans for a shortened cake?
A.
Grease and flour
B.
Grease and line with parchment paper
C. Grease and line with wax paper
D. Use ungreased pans
217. A well made angel food cake should have a:
A.
Compact volume with golden brown top.
B.
Large volume with a tender, moist interior.
C. Large volume with gummy interior.
D. Light brown top with gummy interior.
218. How can a smooth finish be created on a frosted cake?
A.
Coat the spatula with shortening
B.
Dip the spatula in cold water
C.
Dip the spatula in warm water
D. Microwave the frosting for 30 seconds
219. Which is an inappropriate use of timesaving techniques or products to prepare an unshortened cake?
A.
Box mix
B.
Canned frosting
C.
Canned filling
D. Microwave
220. How full should the decorator bag be filled when decorating a cake?
A.
No more than one-half
B.
No more than three-fourths
C.
No more than two-thirds
D. To the top
221. How should cakes be prepared for freezer storage?
A.
Freeze multiple layers in the same package
B.
Freeze the unwrapped cake in a box
C. Wrap the cake loosely with foil
D. Wrap the cake with plastic, and place it in an airtight plastic bag
222. How is the BEST linear effect achieved when decorating a cake?
A.
Applying even pressure
B.
Changing tips
C. Using cloth bags
D. Varying force
223. An incorrect method of frosting a cake is
A.
To brush the crumbs from the cake as it is frosted.
B.
To keep the frosting covered in the bowl.
C. To remove the humps with a bread knife.
D. To spread frosting from the center outwards.
224. Which is a recommended method to determine cake doneness?
A.
Bake for the stated time
B.
Insert a toothpick
C.
Observe the cake’’s edges
D. Press the top of the cake with a finger
225. Cake batter for an 8"" round pan should be scaled to a weight of how many ounces?
A.
14-18
B.
16-18
C.
24
D.
32
226. What equipment and technique should be used to cut an unshortened cake?
A.
Bread knife pressing firmly
B.
Bread knife using a sawing action
C.
Straight edged spatula pressing firmly
D.
Thin, sharp knife applying gentle downward pressure
227. How should the hand holding the decorator bag be used?
A.
Apply varying force
B.
Move the bag
C.
Steady the bag
D.
Sustain even pressure
228. What action prevents frosting from sticking to the knife as a cake is being sliced?
A.
Chill the knife in the freezer
B.
Coat the knife with non-stick spray
C.
Dip the knife into water between each slice
D. Wash the knife after each slice
229. If a layer cake has a hump in the center, when baking the next cake:
A.
Lengthen cooking time by 5 minutes.
B.
Lower the oven temperature 25º.
C. Raise the oven temperature 25º.
D.
Shorten cooking time by 5 minutes.
230. Which is an inappropriate technique for filling pans for an unshortened cake?
A.
Fill the pan two-thirds full
B.
Run a spatula through the pan to remove air pockets
C.
Spread the batter evenly with a spatula
D. Tap the pan on the counter to remove air bubbles
231. Pound cakes are different from other shortened cakes because they contain NO:
A.
Butter.
B.
Chemical leavener.
C. Eggs.
D. Flour.
232. A thin layer of frosting should be applied to a cake before it is decorated because it will:
A.
Even the layers.
B.
Hold cracks together.
C. Keep the cake from tearing.
D.
Secure loose crumbs.
233. How are chiffon cakes DIFFERENT from unshortened cakes?
A.
Contain fat
B.
Cling to the sides of the pan when done
C. Have a tender, moist interior
D. Rely on egg whites and steam for leavening
234. The writing tip is used to make:
A.
Flower stems.
B.
Flower petals.
C. Leaves.
D.
Stars.
235. How many 2""x 2"" servings of cake can be cut from an 18""x 26"" cake?
A.
18
B.
26
C.
44
D. 117
236. What ingredient makes an angel food cake rise?
A.
Baking powder
B.
Baking soda
C.
Beaten egg whites
D. Yeast
237. A shortened cake should be cut with:
A.
A bread knife, using a sawing action.
B.
A straight-edged spatula, pressing firmly.
C. A thin sharp knife, applying gentle pressure.
D. Two forks back-to-back, prying gently in opposite directions.
238. What is the correct method to check for cake doneness?
A.
Insert a toothpick or cake tester
B.
Insert a spoon
C. Top sinks in the middle
D. When the center of the cake is pressed it does not spring back
239. Which timesaving technique is inappropriate for unshortened cakes?
A.
Box mix
B.
Microwave
C. Purchase a ready-made cake and prepare with a homemade filling
D. Ready-made frosting
240. How should the cake be prepared prior to applying frosting?
A.
Brush off loose crumbs
B.
Dust with flour
C. Fill depressions with shortening
D. Warm in the microwave
241. Which statement about making foam cakes is FALSE?
A.
Egg whites and steam function as the leavening agents.
B.
The cake pan is not greased.
C.
They are removed from the pan for cooling.
D.
They contain no fat.
242. Which cake filling/frosting should NOT be refrigerated?
A.
Cream cheese
B.
Custard
C. Fondant/marzipan
D. Meringue
243. How should a cake without fat in the recipe be cooled after baking?
A.
In the pan placed on a cooling rack
B.
In the oven on the cooling rack
C.
Out of the pan on a cooling rack
D. Upside down in the pan on the neck of a bottle
244. All cooked frostings contain:
A.
Beaten egg whites.
B.
Butter.
C.
Cream cheese.
D. Heated sugar syrup.
245. Which type of cake has the characteristics of BOTH shortened and unshortened cakes?
A.
Angel food
B.
Butter
C.
Chiffon
D. Pound
246. If a layer cake has a hump in the center:
A.
Arrange the layers so that the bottoms are together.
B.
Place both layers so that the tops are together.
C. Remove the hump from both layers with a bread knife.
D. Remove the hump from the bottom layer.
247. Which substitution will lower the sugar content of a cake?
A.
Aspartame
B.
Corn syrup
C. Fruit puree
D. Honey
248. What is an expected result of lowering the fat content of a cake recipe?
A.
Less tender
B.
Low volume
C. More tender
D.
Spongy
249. Which is a low-fat frosting alternative?
A.
Caramel sauce
B.
Chocolate shavings
C. Fruit sauce
D.
Nuts
250. Which is characteristic of a cake made with a sugar substitute?
A.
Delicate and tender
B.
Not well browned
C. Tastes bitter
D. Well browned
251. Which cake filling will add the fewest calories and fat grams?
A.
Chocolate shavings
B.
Custard
C. Peach puree
D. Whipped cream
252. Which cake is lowest in calories?
A.
Chiffon
B.
Pound
C.
Shortened
D. Unshortened
253. Which fat substitute keeps the fat content of a recipe the same?
A.
Applesauce
B.
Fruit puree
C. Margarine
D. Pudding made with skim milk
254. By substituting fruit puree for the fat in a recipe, the nutritional value of which nutrient will be increased?
A.
Calcium
B.
Carbohydrates
C. Fat
D. Protein
255. Which is a high fat alternative to frosting?
A.
Fondant
B.
Fruit sauce
C. Powdered sugar
D. Whipped cream
256. When substituting applesauce for the fat in a recipe, the nutritional value of which nutrient is increased?
A.
Calcium
B.
Carbohydrate
C. Fat
D. Protein
257. Which cake has the lowest saturated fat content?
A.
Chiffon
B.
Chocolate
C. Pineapple upside down
D. Pound
258. Which ingredient combination is used in French butter cream?
A.
Beaten egg yolks and butter
B.
Butter, shortening, and fondant
C. Italian meringue and butter
D.
Swiss meringue and butter
259. What ingredients are combined to create a simple butter cream?
A.
Butter, powdered sugar, and flavoring
B.
Butter, solid shortening, powdered sugar, egg whites, and flavoring
C.
Solid shortening, powdered sugar, and flavoring
D.
Solid shortening, powdered sugar, and milk
260. What ingredients are combined to prepare German butter cream?
A.
Beaten egg yolks, Italian meringue and butter
B.
Butter, emulsified shortening, and fondant
C. German meringue and butter
D.
Swiss meringue and butter
261. Swiss style butter cream is a combination of:
A.
Beaten egg yolks, Swiss meringue, and butter.
B.
Butter, shortening, and fondant.
C. Italian meringue and butter.
D.
Swiss meringue and butter.
262. Which method will NOT help the decorator adapt to current decorating trends?
A.
Attend workshops
B.
Subscribe to Wilton cake decorating magazine
C. Use one design, with color variations
D. Visit local bakeries
263. German butter cream is a combination of:
A.
Beaten egg yolks, Italian meringue, and butter.
B.
Butter, emulsified shortening, and fondant.
C. German meringue and butter.
D.
Swiss meringue and butter.
264. What ingredients are combined to prepare Swiss butter cream?
A.
Beaten egg yolks, Swiss meringue, and butter
B.
Butter and fondant
C. Italian meringue and butter
D.
Swiss meringue and butter
265. Which is the MOST appropriate icing for a dense cake?
A.
Fudge type icings
B.
Italian butter cream
C.
Swiss butter cream
D. Whipped cream
266. Which statement about cake decorating trends is FALSE?
A.
Decorating techniques learned today will apply to changing trends.
B.
Decorative trends typically involve changes in color and style.
C. Expensive equipment and training are necessary to implement design trends.
D. Mastery of basic skills enables a decorator to adapt to changes in design trends.
Student Name: ______________________
Teacher:
______________________ Date: ___________
District:
Granville
Assessment:
9_12 FACS FN42 - Foods II - Enterprise Quiz 1
Description:
FN42 Foods II Enterprise
Form:
501
1. Which organization includes inspecting food as one of its primary responsibilities?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.01
RBT:
A.
U.S. Public Health Service
B.
Centers for Disease Control
C. U.S. Department of Agriculture
D.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
2. Why are people who take certain medications at risk for foodborne illness?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.01
RBT:
A.
Their immune systems are compromised
B.
They have not built up strong immune systems
C.
They only eat TCS food
D.
They hidden allergies
3. What causes preschool-age children to be at risk for foodborne illness?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.01
RBT:
A.
Their immune systems are not strong.
B.
They have not received all of their immunizations.
C.
They only eat ready -to -eat food.
D.
They have hidden allergies.
4. Which responsibility is included in the Food and Drug Administration’’s role?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.01
RBT:
A.
Inspecting meat, poultry, and eggs
B.
Issuing licenses and permits
C. Regulating food transported across state lines
D. Approving HACCP plans.
5. Which item is a potential physical contaminant?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
Sanitizer
B.
Jewelry
C.
Sweat
D. Hand Sanitizer
6. Which is an example of physical contamination?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
Sneezing on food
B.
Touching dirty food-contact surfaces
C.
Bones in fish
D.
Cooking tomato sauce in a copper pan
7. What condition promotes the growth of bacteria?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
High acidity
B.
Low levels of moisture
C. Food held between 70° F and 125° F(21° C and 52° C)
D. Food with a pH that is highly alkaline
8. What symptom can indicate a customer is having an allergic reaction?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
Wheezing or shortness of breath
B.
Left arm pain
C. Appetite loss
D.
Coughing blood
9. Parasites are commonly associated with what food?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
A. Mushrooms
B.
Wild game
C. Whole wheat
D.
Dairy products
10. What practice can help prevent allergic reactions?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
Cooking different types in the same oil
B.
Telling customers how an item is prepared
C. Using parchment paper when baking cooking
D. Providing home delivery service
11. Which food item has been associated with Salmonella Typhi?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
Beverages
B.
Produce
C.
Shellfish from contaminated water
D. Undercooked ground beef
12. What does the L stand for in the FDA’’s ALERT tool?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
Listen
B.
Leave
C. Limit
D. Look
13. What practice is useful for preventing Norovirus from causing foodborne illness?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
Cooking food to minimum internal temperature
B.
Excluding staff with vomiting from the operation
C.
Cooling food rapidly
D. Encouraging staff to get flu shots
14. What should a server do when taking a food order from customers who have concerns about food allergies?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
Describe each menu item to customers who ask, including and “secret”” ingredients
B.
Explain the symptoms of an allergic reaction to customers before they order
C. When customers arrive, tell them the food may cause allergic reactions
D. Tell customers with food allergies they will not be able to receive service
15. What practice should be used to prevent seafood toxins from causing a foodborne illness?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
Cooking food to correct internal temperature
B.
Handwashing throughout the day
C. Purchasing food from approved, reputable supplies
D. Microwaving fish to be served raw for 15 seconds
16. How would chemicals be stored?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.02
RBT:
A.
Above food
B.
Away from prep areas
C. In food storage areas
D. With kitchenware
17. Where should a food handler wash his or her hands after prepping food?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
Three-compartment sink
B.
Utility sink
C.
Designated sink for handwashing
D. Food prep sink
18. What must a food handler with an infected hand wound do to work safely with food?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
Cover the wound with an impermeable cover and wear a single-use glove
B.
Avoid working with raw food until the wound is completely dry
C. Place a bandage on the wound
D. Apply hand sanitizer to the wound
19. When should a food handler with a sore throat and fever be excluded from the operation?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
When the customers served are primarily a high-risk population
B.
When the food handler’’s fever over 100° F (38° C)
C. After the food handler has a sore throat that has lasted for more than 5 days
D.
Before the regulatory authority is notified
20. What must food handlers do when handling ready-to- eat food?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A. Wear single-use gloves
B.
Sanitize their hands
C. Wear an apron
D. Use bare hands
21. What should a food handler do to make gloves easier to put on?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
Sprinkle flour in the gloves
B.
Blow in the gloves
C.
Select the correct size gloves
D. Roll the gloves up
22. What symptom requires a food handler to be excluded from the operation?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
Sore throat
B.
Jaundice
C.
Coughing
D.
Stomach cramps
23. What should food handlers do after leaving and returning to the prep area?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
Put on gloves
B.
Remove their apron
C. Wash hands
D. Apply hand antiseptic
24. When must a food handler change gloves?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
After 1 hour of constant use
B.
As soon as they become dirty or torn
C. At the end of the shift
D. Every 6 hours
25. What is the purpose of hand antiseptic?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
Eliminate the need for handwashing
B.
Increase the use of sanitizing solutions
C. Lower the number of pathogens on the skin
D. Eliminate the need for the use of gloves.
26. A food handler comes to work with diarrhea. What should the manager tell the food handler to do?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
Do not work with food
B.
Go home
C.
Clean the restroom after each use
D.
Only bus tables
27. Single-use gloves are not required when
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
the food handler has a latex sensitivity.
B.
Prepping ready-to-eat food
C. washing produce.
D. Handling cooked food
28. What should a server do after clearing the table?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
Apply hand antiseptic
B.
Wash hands
C. Put disposable gloves back on
D. Rinse hands in warm water
29. When can a food handler diagnosed with jaundice return to work?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.1.03
RBT:
A.
After 1 week
B.
When his or her skin return to a natural color
C.
Seven days after the last symptom is observed
D. When approved by the regulatory authority
30. What temperatures do infrared thermometers measure?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.01
RBT:
A.
Internal food
B.
Air
C.
Surface
D.
Oven
31. Why should food temperatures be taken in two different locations?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.01
RBT:
A.
To ensure the thermometer is calibrated correctly
B.
It is required by the manufacturer
C. To ensure the thermometer is accurate to +/-2°F or +/-1°C
D. Temperature may vary in food
32. When can glass thermometers be used?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.01
RBT:
A.
When candy is being made
B.
When checking liquids
C. When enclosed in a shatterproof casing
D. When hanging in a cooler
33. What strategy can prevent cross-contamination?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.01
RBT:
A.
Buy food that does not require prepping
B.
Prep food on both sides of a cutting board
C. Prep raw food and ready-to-eat food at the same time
D. Avoid time-temperature abuse
34. Which item should be rejected?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.02
RBT:
A.
Bags of organic cookies in torn packaging
B.
Bottled milk at 41°F (5°C)
C.
Shell eggs at an air temperature of 45°F (7°C)
D. Live oysters at internal temperature of 50° F (10 ° C)
35. A food handler has just finished storing a dry food delivery. Which step was done correctly?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.02
RBT:
A.
Stored away from the wall
B.
Stored food 4 inches off the floor
C.
Stored food underneath a stairwell
D.
Stored food in an empty chemical container
36. What information must be included on the label of food packaged on-site for retail sale?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.02
RBT:
A.
Pack date
B.
List of ingredients
C.
Storage guidelines
D.
Serving size
37. What should be done with a package of flour that is received with signs of dampness on the bag?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.02
RBT:
A.
Reject the flour and return to the supplier
B.
Accept the flour and place in the dry storage
C.
Dry the bag thoroughly before use
D.
Store the bag in a cooler at 41°F (5°C) or lower
38. How should an item that has been recalled by its manufacturer be stored in an operation?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.02
RBT:
A.
Together with food that will be served
B.
Separately from food that will be served
C. In vacuum-packed bags
D. In self-draining containers
39. Ready-to-eat TCS food prepped in-house must be date marked if it is held for more than how many hours?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.02
RBT:
A.
12 hours
B.
24 hours
C.
48 hours
D.
72 hours
40. What information must be included on the label of a container of ready-to-eat TCS food prepped on-site for
retail sale?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.02
RBT:
A.
Quality of food
B.
Potential allergens
C. Reheating instructions
D.
Storage requirements
41. What should staff do when receiving a delivery of food and supplies?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.02
RBT:
A.
Inspect non-food items first
B.
Store it immediately and inspect it later
C. Visually inspect all food items
D.
Stack the delivery neatly and inspect it within 12 hours
42. A food handler is prepping a seafood dish on April 4, using shrimp and scallops. The shrimp has a use-by
date of April 8, and the scallops have a use-by date of April 10. What is the use-by date for the seafood dish?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.02
RBT:
A.
April 4
B.
April 8
C. April 6
D. April 10
43. What temperature must stuffed lobster be cooked to?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.03
RBT:
A.
135°F (57°C) for 4 minutes
B.
145°F (63°C) for 4 minutes
C.
155°F (68°C) for 15 seconds
D.
165°F (74°C) for 15 seconds
44. Nursing home cafeteria staff are creating new menu items for a breakfast for residents and their family
members. What item is not safe to serve?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.03
RBT:
A.
Pancakes
B.
Soft boiled eggs
C.
Corned beef hash
D. Mayonnaise
45. What should a food handler do with food after it is thawed in the microwave?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.03
RBT:
A.
Cook it using conventional cooking equipment
B.
Cover the food to prevent it from drying out
C.
Check the temperature in at least 2 places
D. Let the food stand for 2 minutes before cooking
46. What is the minimal internal cooking temperature for a veal chop?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.03
RBT:
A.
135°F (57°C)
B.
145°F (63°C)
C.
155°F (68°C)
D.
165°F (74°C)
47. A food handler has cooled a container of chili to 70°F (21°C) in 1 hour. How much time is left to cool the
chili to 41°F (5°C)?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.03
RBT:
A.
2 hours
B.
3 hours
C.
4 hours
D.
5 hours
48. What should be done with food that has been handled by a food handler who has been restricted or excluded
from the operation due to illness?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.03
RBT:
A.
Heat the food to destroy pathogens
B.
Throw it out
C. Recondition the food
D. Make sure food has not been time-temperature abused
49. What type of eggs must be used when preparing raw or undercooked dishes for high-risk populations?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.03
RBT:
A.
Pasteurized
B.
Pooled
C. Hard-boiled
D.
Shelled
50. What is the minimum internal cooking temperature for chicken breast?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.03
RBT:
A.
135°F (57°C) for 4 minutes
B.
145°F (63°C) for 4 minutes
C.
155°F (68°C) for 15 seconds
D.
165°F (74°C) for 15 seconds
51. What temperature must be cooked vegetables reach to be safely hot-held for service?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.03
RBT:
A.
135°F (57°C)
B.
145°F (63°C)
C.
155°F (68°C)
D.
165°F (74°C)
52. What must an operation do before packaging fresh juice on-site for later sale?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.03
RBT:
A.
Obtain a variance
B.
Freeze the juice
C. Hold produce at 41°F (5°C) or lower
D.
Contact OSHA
53. A local nursing home has a yearly barbecue for its residents. Which food item should not be served?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.03
RBT:
A.
Deviled eggs
B.
Potato salad
C. Raw carrots
D. Rare hamburgers
54. In a self-service area, bulk unpackaged food does not need a label if the product
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.04
RBT:
A.
makes a claim about health or nutrient content.
B.
does not make a claim about health or nutrient content.
C.
has been prepared at an unregulated processing plant.
D.
has been prepared at a vendor’’s processing plant.
55. What should be done with preset, unwrapped utensils that appear to be unused after guests have left the
table?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.04
RBT:
A.
Wrap the utensils with a clean napkin
B.
Leave the utensils for the next guest
C.
Clean and sanitize the utensils
D. Wipe off the utensils and reuse
56. When transporting food off-site, how should information such as a use-by date and time be communicated to
the off-site staff?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.04
RBT:
A.
Telephone
B.
Text or email message
C. Labels on food
D. Verbal instructions
57. What rule for serving condiments should be practiced?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.04
RBT:
A.
Serve condiments in original containers
B.
Serve condiments in antimicrobial containers
C.
Combine bowls of leftover condiments with fresh ones
D.
Serve bottle condiments that remain open between uses
58. What is the minimum internal temperature hot food must be held at to prevent pathogens from growing?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.04
RBT:
A.
115°F (46°C)
B.
125°F (51°C)
C.
135°F (57°C)
D.
145°F (62°C)
59. How many hours can cold food be held without refrigeration before it must be sold, served, or thrown out?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.04
RBT:
A.
2 hours
B.
4 hours
C.
6 hours
D.
8 hours
60. What rule for serving bread should food handlers practice?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.04
RBT:
A.
Do not re-serve uneaten bread
B.
Reheat uneaten bread before serving to other customers
C. Recycle unused, uncovered butter for use in other food items
D.
Clean and sanitize bread baskets between each customer
61. Lasagna was removed from hot holding service at 11:00 am. By what time must it be served or thrown out?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.04
RBT:
A.
12:00 p.m.
B.
2:00 p.m.
C.
3:00 p.m.
D.
4:00 p.m.
62. A tuna salad is removed from the cooler at 9:00 a.m. and put out for a buffet at 11:00 a.m. By what time must
the tuna salad be served or thrown out?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.04
RBT:
A.
12:00 p.m.
B.
2:00 p.m.
C.
3:00 p.m.
D.
4:00 p.m.
63. Bulk unpackaged foods in self-service areas must be labeled when
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.04
RBT:
A.
the food is prepared on the premises.
B.
the manufacturer claims the food is healthy.
C.
the food is prepared by another manufacturer.
D.
the food supports pathogen growth.
64. When can raw, unpackaged meat be offered for self-service?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.04
RBT:
A.
At organic food stands
B.
At Mongolian barbeques
C. When the meat is high quality
D. When the meat is frozen
65. What is the first step in developing a HACCP Plan?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.05
RBT:
A.
Identify corrective actions
B.
Conduct a hazard analysis
C. Establish monitoring procedures
D.
Determine critical control points
66. Which process requires a variance from the regulatory authority?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.05
RBT:
A.
Smoking food to enhance flavor
B.
Serving wild game
C.
Serving imported cheese
D.
Sprouting seeds or beans
67. The temperature of clam chowder is checked during holding. According to the operation’’s policy, the
chowder must be thrown out. What HACCP principle is being practiced by throwing out the soup?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.05
RBT:
A.
Hazard analysis
B.
Verification
C. Monitoring
D.
Corrective action
68. Which of these food processes does not require a variance from a regulatory authority?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.05
RBT:
A.
Smoking food as a method to preserve it
B.
Buying bean sprouts from a reputable supplier
C.
Curing food
D. Pasteurizing juice on-site
69. The temperature of duck breast is checked during cooking. According to the operation’’s policy, the duck
breast must be cooked for 16 minutes to allow the internal temperature to reach 165°F (74°C). What HACCP
principle is addressed by cooking the duck breast to 165°F (74°C)?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.2.05
RBT:
A.
Hazard Analysis
B.
Verification
C. Monitoring
D.
Critical limit
70. What information must be posted on a dishwasher?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.3.01
RBT:
A.
Manufacturer phone number
B.
Correct settings
C. Recommended sanitizing amounts
D.
Schedule for cleaning
71. What is a cross-connection?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.3.01
RBT:
A.
Backflow of clean water into dirty water
B.
Physical link between safe water and dirty water
C. Water transport vehicle
D. Approved public water main
72. What scenario can lead to pest infestation?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.3.01
RBT:
A.
Storing recyclables in paper bags
B.
Cleaning up spills around garbage containers
C. Rotating products using the FIFO method
D. Installing air curtains above doors
73. What factors influence the effectiveness of a chemical sanitizer?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.3.02
RBT:
A.
Concentration, temperature, contact time, pH, and water hardness
B.
Concentration, absorbency, moisture, alkalinity, salinity
C.
Concentration, protein, acidity, air temperature, strength
D.
Concentration, water activity, reactivity, pressure, density
74. What is the first step of cleaning and sanitizing stationary equipment?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.3.02
RBT:
A.
Take off removable parts
B.
Unplug the unit
C.
Spray the surface with cleanser
D. Wash the equipment surface using hot water
75. How should staff make sure the chemical sanitizer being used on a food-prep surface is at the correct
strength?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.3.02
RBT:
A.
Rinse it from the surface and then apply it a second time
B.
Test the surface first to confirm that there are no pathogens
C. Use a test kit to check the sanitizer’’s concentration when mixing it
D. Heat it to the temperature recommended by the manufacturer
76. What temperature should the water be for manual dishwashing?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.3.02
RBT:
A.
Must be at least 70° F (21°C)
B.
Must be at least 90 °F (32°C)
C. Must be at least 100°F (76°C)
D. Must be at least 110°F (43°C)
77. What thermometer is best suited to checking a dishwashing machine’’s final rinse temperature?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.3.02
RBT:
A.
Time-temperature indicator
B.
Infrared thermometer
C. Maximum registering thermometer
D. Immersion probe
78. What temperature must a high-temperature dishwasher’’s final sanitizing rinse be?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.3.02
RBT:
A.
At least 150° F (65° C)
B.
At least 160° F (71° C)
C. At least 170° F (76° C)
D. At least 180° F (82° C)
79. What must staff members do when transferring chemicals to a new container?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.3.02
RBT:
A.
Label the container
B.
Complete an MSDS request
C. Log the transfer in the MSDS
D.
Store the chemical in a locked cabinet
80. What organization requires a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to be included with hazardous
chemicals?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.3.02
RBT:
A.
Environmental Protection Agency
B.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
C. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals
D.
National Restaurant Association
81. What are marketing objectives?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
Goals
B.
Products
C.
Sales
D.
Strategies
82. Which is a major advantage to buying a franchise?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
Freedom in making business decisions
B.
Guaranteed profit on all goods sold
C. High cost of supplies and equipment
D. Management training and technical assistance provided
83. Before offering a service or product for sale, determine that there is:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
A demand for the product.
B.
A niche in the market.
C. Enough inventory available.
D.
Opportunity for sales.
84. There are no coffee shops on Hatteras Island. Mike thinks that a coffee/bagel shop would have commercial
value. His idea is considered a/n:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
Corporation.
B.
Mission.
C.
Opportunity.
D. Partnership.
85. Who are the people to whom a business plans to sell its products?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
Administrators
B.
Consumers
C.
Sales staff
D. Target customers
86. The inability to interpret financial records demonstrates a lack of:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
Competence of the entrepreneur.
B.
Image development.
C. Management planning.
D. Product/service planning.
87. The Cooper Company decided to sell stock to raise capital. Under which form of business organization does
the company operate?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
Corporation
B.
Franchise
C. Partnership
D.
Sole Proprietorship
88. Who are the people most likely to buy a specific product or service?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
Buyers
B.
Consumers
C.
Customers
D. Target customers
89. Which term can be defined as the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of products and services to
satisfy customer wants and needs?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
Entrepreneurship
B.
Marketing
C. Marketing concept
D. Target marketing
90. Of the major factors contributing to the success of a small business, which one is affected by the lack of
working capital?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
Financing
B.
Image
C. Management
D. Planning
91. Jessica asks many questions and conducts research when attempting to solve problems related to her
business. What personal characteristic does this represent?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
Creativity
B.
Inquisitiveness
C. Persistence
D. Responsibility
92. Why is sole proprietorship the most common form of business ownership?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.01
RBT:
A.
Legal assistance is needed for start up in this form.
B.
Limited liability of sole proprietorships is a desirable benefit.
C. Money can be raised easily by issuing shares of stock.
D.
The government assumes little control over sole proprietorships.
93. What is NOT used to construct a cash flow statement?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Expenses
B.
Inventory
C.
Net income (or loss)
D. Revenues
94. What is the amount added to the cost of an item to cover expenses and ensure profits?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Markup
B.
Prestige pricing
C. Price skimming
D. Profit
95. Product standards are developed to benefit the:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Investor.
B.
Consumer.
C. Entrepreneur.
D.
Small business owner.
96. What does an income statement show the business owner?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Amount of profit or loss
B.
Break-even point
C.
Stock turnover rate
D. Total production costs
97. What must the company know in advance to predict when it will begin making a profit?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Break-even point
B.
Credit card sales
C.
Net profit income
D. Turnover rate
98. FACS students practice making several products before choosing which one to sell. The result of that
practice is called a/an :
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Carrier.
B.
Mock.
C. Profile.
D. Prototype.
99. Using a 100% markup and taking off one cent to give the impression of bargain prices, what is the RETAIL
price of an item whose wholesale cost is $20.00?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
40
B.
39.99
C.
30
D.
29.99
100. A system for verifying and maintaining the desired standards in a product or service is called:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Automation.
B.
Inspection.
C.
Quality circle.
D.
Quality control.
101. What is a working model of a product?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Production model
B.
Prototype
C.
Sample
D. Target product
102. What expenses will stay constant with the number of items produced?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Break even point
B.
Fixed costs
C. Liabilities
D. Variable costs
103. What is net income to a business?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Costs
B.
Inventory
C. Loss
D. Profit
104. What is the process used to test a business idea or concept?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Business concept
B.
Business plan
C. Feasibility analysis
D. Market survey
105. What financial statement tells an entrepreneur what his/her business is worth at a given time?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Balance sheet
B.
Cash flow statement
C. Ledger
D. Profit and loss statement
106. If a price is reduced, what must happen to continue to break even?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Conduct market feasibility study
B.
Sell fewer items
C.
Sell more items
D.
Sell to new customers
107. A feasibility analysis determines if:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
A business plan is necessary.
B.
An idea is practical.
C.
Customers will buy the product.
D.
The money is available to start a new business.
108. What is the covering, wrapper, or container in which merchandise is placed for retail sale?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.02
RBT:
A.
Boxing
B.
Labeling
C. Packaging
D. Wrapping
109. The federal agency which provides assistance and advice on how small businesses can increase revenues
and profits is the:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.03
RBT:
A.
FTC.
B.
IRS.
C.
SBA.
D.
SBI.
110. Who should the purchasing manager contact if there is something wrong with a shipment or an invoice?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.03
RBT:
A.
Customer
B.
Manufacturer
C. Retailer
D. Vendor
111. Which state agency provides businesses with information regarding employer responsibilities in relation to
unemployment insurance?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.03
RBT:
A.
Department of Development
B.
Office of the Secretary of State
C.
State Department of Labor
D. Workers’’ Compensation Board
112. What step BEST describes the development of a marketing strategy?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.03
RBT:
A.
Marketing mix
B.
Pricing
C. Purchased product
D.
Sharing ideas
113. What kind of plan is presented to potential lenders or investors to gain financial support?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.03
RBT:
A.
Business
B.
Financial
C. Management
D. Marketing
114. Which organization has as its purpose the stimulation of local economic growth?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.03
RBT:
A.
Chamber of Commerce
B.
Internal Revenue Service
C.
Small Business Development Center
D.
State Department of Labor
115. The Foods II class prepared 25 dozen cookies, but no one came to purchase them. What should be
evaluated?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.04
RBT:
A.
Financials
B.
Marketing
C.
Operations
D.
Standards
116. Target customers must be chosen with care when beginning a new business because they are the
customers:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.04
RBT:
A.
Asked to purchase a specific product or service.
B.
Most likely to buy a specific product or service.
C.
That plan to buy a specific product or service.
D.
That are willing to take a risk on buying from a new business.
117. If the Foods II class lost money on their project but all products were sold, what should be evaluated?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.04
RBT:
A.
Financials
B.
Marketing
C.
Operations
D.
Standards
118. Under which form of business ownership do owners have limited liability?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
A.
Corporation
B.
General partnership
C.
Sole proprietorship
D.
Strategic alliance
119. As she prepared to open her new flower shop, Jamesia made several trips to talk with an accountant. The
fees paid for those consultations would be classified as:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
A.
Fixed costs.
B.
Office expense.
C.
Start-up costs.
D. Wages and salary
120. Initial inventory for the business is which type of cost?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
A.
Fixed cost
B.
Personal cost
C.
Start-up cost
D. Variable cost
121. Which is a major disadvantage of a corporation?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
A.
Difficult to leave the business
B.
Difficult to raise capital
C.
Double taxation
D. Unlimited liability
122. Which form of incorporation would a church or charity use?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
A.
C-corporation
B.
Limited Liability Company
C.
Nonprofit corporation
D.
Subchapter S corporation
123. Advertising and promotion expenses for an ongoing business are:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
A.
Fixed costs.
B.
Sales revenue.
C.
Start-up costs.
D. Variable costs.
124. A short-term loan is repayable in:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
A.
One year.
B.
Two years.
C. Five years.
D. Twenty-five years.
125. When seeking a loan, an entrepreneur who has capacity:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
A.
Considers environmental conditions before applying for the loan.
B.
Demonstrates the ability to repay the debt.
C. Has insurance to cover business losses.
D. Has made a personal investment in the business.
126. Which type of business can own assets and borrow money without directly involving the people who own it,
and, therefore, is more closely regulated by the government than other business organizations?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
A.
Corporation
B.
Family-owned business
C. General partnership
D.
Sole proprietorship
127. Which is a major disadvantage to buying a franchise?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
A.
Equipment and supplies are less expensive.
B.
No management or technical assistance is provided.
C.
The performance of other franchises impact on the franchisee.
D.
There is no guarantee of product consistency.
128.
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
129.
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
130.
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.4.05
RBT:
131. Which tool should be used to true a knife?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Another knife of equal size
B.
Cutting board
C. Knife steel
D.
Sharpening stone or whetstone
132. What is a DISADVANTAGE of using a dull knife?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Makes clean cuts
B.
More likely to be cut with a dull knife
C. Requires less pressure to slice bread
D. Requires less pressure to slice tomatoes
133. Which vegetable is diced?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Carrots cut into ¼"" squares
B.
Garlic cut into very small pieces
C.
Onions chopped into irregular pieces
D. Potatoes cut into ¼"" thick matchsticks
134. Which two metals are commonly used to make knife blades?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Aluminum and steel
B.
Copper and iron
C.
Stainless steel and copper
D.
Stainless steel and high-carbon steel
135. A serrated knife should be used to cut:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Apples, oranges, and cake.
B.
Bread, tomato, and soft food.
C.
Carrots, tomato, and cucumbers.
D. Roast beef, chicken, and pork roast.
136. Which knife is MOST appropriate to chopping vegetables?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Chef’’s
B.
Paring
C.
Slicing
D. Utility
137. What is the proper way to carry a knife in the kitchen?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Gripping the blade
B.
Holding the blade pointed down
C. Holding the blade pointing straight in front
D. Holding the blade pointing toward you
138. Which vegetable is usually minced in recipes?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Bell pepper
B.
Carrot
C. Garlic
D. Mushroom
139. To prevent damage to blades and to people, the best place to store knives is/on a:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Cabinet.
B.
Ceramic container.
C.
Drawer.
D.
Slotted holder.
140. Which knife is MOST appropriate to cut meat?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Chef’’s
B.
Paring
C.
Slicing
D. Utility
141. Which vegetable is sliced?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Carrots cut into ¼"" squares
B.
Garlic cut into very small pieces
C.
Onions chopped into irregular pieces
D. Potatoes cut diagonally ¼"" thick
142. Why should knives have a full tang?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Give more power and strength to knives
B.
Make the knives sharper
C. Make the knife easier to clean
D. Require more pressure to cut vegetables
143. Which is NOT an appropriate place to store knives?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
In a drawer with other knives
B.
In a slotted knife holder
C. In a vinyl knife case
D. With magnetized bars on the wall
144. Which knife is MOST appropriate to carve a roast at a buffet?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Chef’’s
B.
Paring
C.
Slicing
D. Utility
145. Which is an IMPROPER safety procedure for knives?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Cut with the blade facing away from the body
B.
Do not try to catch a falling knife
C.
Soak knives in a sink filled with soapy water
D. Use a sharp knife
146. Which vegetable is usually cut into julienne shapes?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Bell pepper
B.
Carrot
C. Mushroom
D.
Onions
147. Which tool should be used to sharpen a knife?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Another knife of equal size
B.
Knife steel
C.
Sharpening stone or whetstone
D. Vegetable peeler
148. What are the advantages of using a sharp knife?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.01
RBT:
A.
Make clear smooth cuts and is safer
B.
More likely to be injured
C. Require more pressure to slice bread
D. Require more pressure to slice vegetables
149. A tournee knife is used to:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Carve a watermelon basket.
B.
Create spiral designs on a cake.
C.
Cut potatoes that are oblong and seven sided.
D.
Scoop out balls of cantaloupe and watermelon.
150. Which is the BEST way to garnish a sandwich?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
No garnish
B.
On a separate plate
C.
On the side
D.
On the top
151. Which is used in plate painting?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Chocolate and raspberry sauces
B.
Colored cake icing
C. Lemon zest
D. Parsley
152. Which garnishing tool should used to pare strips from citrus fruits and thin grooves from carrots and
cucumbers?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Channel knife
B.
Fluting knife
C. Paring knife
D. Vegetable peeler
153. Which garnishing knife is used to carve melons?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Channel knife
B.
Fluting knife
C. Paring knife
D. Tournee knife
154. A butter curler is used to:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Carve a watermelon basket.
B.
Create spiral designs on a cake.
C. Make chocolate curls and balls of butter.
D.
Scoop out balls of cantaloupe and watermelon.
155. A vegetable peeler can be used to make:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Carrot curls and chocolate curls.
B.
Scooped out balls of cheese, potatoes, and butter.
C.
Thick slices of carrots.
D. V-cuts in melons and bell peppers.
156. Which tool is MOST appropriate for plate painting?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Decorating spatula
B.
Melon baller
C.
Squeeze bottle
D. Zester
157. Which garnishing tool should be used to make V- cuts in melons and bell peppers?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Channel knife
B.
Fluting knife
C. Vegetable peeler
D. Zester
158. Which garnishing tool should be used to make curls and grooves and marble-size balls?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Butter cutter
B.
Channel knife
C. Fluting knife
D. Melon baller
159. Toasted and seasoned croutons would be an appropriate garnish for :
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Meat
B.
Salads
C.
Sandwiches
D.
Seafood
160. A Parisienne scoop or melon baller should be used to
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Create attractive designs in soft foods.
B.
Make chocolate curls.
C.
Scoop out potatoes, butter and melons.
D.
Shave pieces from colorful vegetables.
161. A zester can be used to make:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Carrot curls and chocolate curls.
B.
Shaved pieces from colorful vegetables like carrots.
C.
Thin grooves in carrots and cucumbers.
D. V-cuts in melons and bell peppers.
162. Which garnishing tool should be used to scoop out balls of cheese, potatoes, butter, cantaloupe, and
watermelon?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Butter cutter
B.
Channel knife
C. Fluting knife
D. Melon baller
163. A fluting knife can be used to make:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Carrot curls and chocolate curls.
B.
Shaved pieces from colorful vegetables like carrots.
C.
Thin grooves in carrots and cucumbers.
D. V-cuts in melons and bell peppers.
164. Which is the most appropriate garnish for strawberry cheesecake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Chocolate curls
B.
Fanned strawberry
C.
Orange slices
D. Twist of lemon
165. A decorating or icing spatula is used to:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.5.02
RBT:
A.
Carve a watermelon basket.
B.
Make chocolate curls and balls of butter.
C.
Scoop out balls of cantaloupe and watermelon.
D.
Smooth icing on a cake.
166. Which flour contains the largest amount of gluten and produces the strongest and most elastic gluten?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
All-purpose
B.
Bread
C.
Cake
D.
Self-rising
167. What is the proper technique for measuring flour?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Displacement
B.
Pack
C. Pour
D.
Spoon
168. If yeast bread consistently yields a product that has a heavy texture, what is the likely cause?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Over kneaded
B.
Too much yeast
C. Too short proofing time
D. Too warm proofing time
169. If the bakery assistant is preparing bread using the traditional method, what temperature should be used to
dissolve the yeast properly?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
150°F to 160°F
B.
105°F to 115°F
C.
60°F to 70°F
D.
45°F to 55°F
170. What is the appropriate temperature for liquid to dissolve yeast?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
35°F to 45°F
B.
85°F to 95°F
C.
105°F to 115°F
D.
120°F to 130°F
171. When yeast is dissolved in the traditional mixing method, what is the correct temperature for the liquid?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
35°F to 50°F
B.
75°F to 85°F
C.
105°F to 115°F
D.
120°F to 140°F
172. To prepare yeast breads, which method speeds the mixing time and shortens kneading time?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Batter
B.
Mixer
C.
One-rise
D. Traditional
173. What is the correct temperature for liquid when mixing dry and liquid ingredients together when making
yeast bread?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
35°F to 45°F
B.
75°F to 85°F
C.
100°F to 115°F
D.
120°F to 130°F
174. When using the microwave oven to bake yeast bread, it will:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Lack a crisp, brown crust.
B.
Need additional rising times.
C.
Need extra kneading.
D.
Need less liquid.
175. Which is NOT a leavening agent?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Baking powder
B.
Baking soda
C. Gluten
D.
Steam
176. Why must yeast dough be punched down?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Create fine, uniform texture
B.
Evaporate alcohol
C.
Optimize fermentation
D. Release some carbon dioxide
177. The baker is preparing refrigerator dough for yeast rolls. Which mixing method should be chosen if the
baker does NOT want to knead the dough?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Batter
B.
Mixer
C.
One-rise
D. Traditional
178. What nutrients give baked products their structure?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Carbohydrates and fat
B.
Protein and starch
C. Protein and sugar
D.
Sugar and fat
179. What is the MAIN difference between liquids used in traditional yeast breads and liquids used in bread
machine yeast breads?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Traditional uses warm liquids and bread machine uses liquids at room temperature.
B.
Traditional uses cool liquids and bread machine uses liquids at room temperature.
C. Traditional uses hot liquids and bread machine uses liquids at warm temperature.
D. Traditional uses refrigerated liquids and bread machine uses liquids at room temperature.
180. Oven spring causes bread to:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Cook without burning.
B.
Have a hard surface.
C. Rise.
D.
Stay fresh longer.
181. The FIRST step to defrost frozen yeast dough in the microwave is to:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Allow dough to sit in microwave for 50 minutes.
B.
Microwave frozen dough on low power for 5 minutes.
C. Microwave 1 cup of water for 3 – 5 minutes, until boiling.
D. Place frozen dough directly in cold microwave.
182. Which is the LAST step to be completed when proofing dough in the microwave?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Microwave on low power for 1 minute, let stand in oven for 15 minutes.
B.
Microwave on low power for 10 minutes, let stand in oven for 15 minutes.
C. Microwave on high power for 1 minute, proofing is complete.
D. Microwave on high power for 10 minute, proofing is complete.
183. What is TRUE about the use of fat in yeast breads?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Increases tenderness
B.
Decreases tenderness
C. Increases volume
D.
Decreases volume
184. What happened to a yeast bread product that is dry and crumbly?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Not enough flour
B.
Oven temperature too low
C.
Over kneaded
D. Too much yeast
185. What is the FIRST step to defrost frozen yeast dough in the microwave?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Microwave frozen dough on defrost for 10 minutes.
B.
Microwave frozen dough on low power for 5 minutes.
C. Microwave 1 cup of water for 3 – 5 minutes, until boiling.
D. Place frozen dough directly in cold microwave.
186. In a recipe that calls for double-acting baking powder, at what point during the preparation will the MOST
carbon dioxide be released?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Heated
B.
Kneaded
C. Moistened
D. Proofed
187. If yeast bread is golden brown with rough crust and the interior has chunks of flour, what quality is the
product?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Excellent
B.
High
C. Low
D. Unable to determine
188. What happened to a yeast bread product that has too much volume?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Baked too long
B.
Too little salt
C. Too little yeast
D. Under proofed
189. The bakery attendant is preparing a yeast bread recipe that calls for the use of baking soda as a leavening
agent. What type of leavening agent is produced by the baking soda?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.01
RBT:
A.
Gas
B.
Heat
C. Liquid
D. Moisture
190. What adjustment is needed when using bread flour in a yeast bread recipe?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
Requires a second rising
B.
Requires less rising time
C.
Shortens fermentation time
D. Yeast works more slowly
191. The bakery chef is testing the use of a variety of fruits in a new yeast bread recipe. The fruit causes extra
moisture in the dough. What will the end product be?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
Burned fruit
B.
Cracked on top
C.
Doughy interior
D. Tough and chewy
192. Which yeast bread shape is baked using a special fluted pan?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
Brioche
B.
Cloverleaf
C.
Crescent
D. Parker House
193. Which yeast bread is made in a muffin pan?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
Cloverleaf
B.
Crescent
C. Parker House
D.
Brioche
194. If additional ingredients not listed in a recipe are added to yeast bread prior to baking, what is the likely
result?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
Longer rising time
B.
Shorter rising time
C. Longer baking time
D.
Shorter baking time
195. Omitting salt from a yeast bread recipe causes the final product to have what appearance?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
High volume, rounded, and smooth
B.
High volume and rounded and bumpy
C. Low volume and rough top
D. Low volume and smooth top
196. Which roll shape is made by flattening the dough, cutting it into triangles, and then rolling it up?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
Brioche
B.
Cloverleaf
C.
Crescent
D. Parker house
197. What adjustment should be made if an egg is added to a recipe for yeast breads?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
Decrease the amount of liquid by ¼ cup
B.
Increase the amount of flour by 1cup
C. Increase the amount of salt by T
D.
Decrease the amount of sugar by ¼ t
198. When shaping yeast dough, which is the most difficult for beginners?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
Braided
B.
Brioche
C.
Cloverleaf
D. Parker house
199. If a yeast bread recipe calls for 2 teaspoons of baking powder, what ingredients could be used as a
substitution?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
½ teaspoon baking powder + 1 teaspoon dry milk
B.
1 teaspoon baking soda + 1 teaspoon cream of tartar
C.
½ teaspoon dry yeast + 1 teaspoon salt
D.
½ teaspoon flour + 1 teaspoon sugar
200. What is the most likely reason a consumer would NOT own an automatic bread machine?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
High initial cost
B.
High maintenance
C. Poor quality bread product
D. Too difficult to use
201. Which ratio of bread flour to whole grain flour is recommended for a recipe being adapted?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.6.02
RBT:
A.
4 parts bread flour to 1 part whole grain flour
B.
3 parts bread flour to 1 part whole grain flour
C.
2 parts bread flour to 1 part whole grain flour
D.
1 part bread flour to 1 part whole grain flour
202. A high quality shortened cake will have a:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Concave top, with a pale brown crust.
B.
Flat top, with a shiny crust.
C. Rounded top, with crumbly crust.
D. Rounded top, with thin, evenly brown crust.
203. Which is a good technique to frost a cake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Brush the crumbs from the cake as it is frosted
B.
Do not frost between the layers
C. Frost the top of the cake first
D. Keep the frosting bowl covered
204. A well-made shortened cake will have a:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Concave top, with pale brown crust.
B.
Flat top, with crumbly crust.
C. Rounded top, with smooth crust.
D. Uneven top, with shiny crust.
205. What mixing method is used if the recipe says to cream the sugar and fat?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Biscuit
B.
Muffin
C.
One-bowl
D.
Standard
206. The recommended technique for frosting a two- layer cake is:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Frost first layer and frost second layer.
B.
Frost top of first and second layer, stack, and frost sides.
C. Frost top of first layer, stack, frost sides, and frost top.
D.
Stack, frost sides, and frost top.
207. When a foam cake is done, it will:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Cling to the sides of the pan.
B.
Have low volume.
C. Leave a small dent when tapped on top.
D. Pull away from the sides of the pan.
208. The ingredients for a wedding cake cost $60.00, and the cake will serve 100 guests. What is the unit cost in
cents of each serving?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
10
B.
60
C.
70
D.
99
209. The unit cost for each serving of cake is 40¢. If the cake will be sold with a 50% mark-up, the retail price
will be how many cents?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
40
B.
60
C.
80
D.
99
210. The ingredients for a cake recipe cost $8.00, and the recipe yields 16 servings. How many cents is the unit
cost of each serving?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
16
B.
20
C.
50
D.
80
211. What is TRUE about cooked frostings?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Are difficult to spread
B.
Are not prepared using a mixer
C. Are prepared using principles of candy making
D.
Cannot be used as decorative frosting
212. Which pan size will require 14 to 18 ounces of high-fat batter?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Loaf
B.
Round 8.
C. Round 9.
D. Tube
213. How should single servings of cake be packaged for sale?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Placed in a plastic bag
B.
Placed in an air-tight container
C. Wrapped in foil
D. Wrapped in plastic wrap
214. Shortened cakes that are cooked in the microwave:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Brown well.
B.
Can be prepared in any size or shape pan.
C. Require a long cooking period.
D.
Should be cooked in a round pan.
215. A shortened cake should be cooled in the pan:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
For 10 minutes, then remove and place on a wire rack.
B.
On the stovetop.
C.
On a wire rack
D. With the pan inverted.
216. Which is NOT an appropriate way to prepare pans for a shortened cake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Grease and flour
B.
Grease and line with parchment paper
C. Grease and line with wax paper
D. Use ungreased pans
217. A well made angel food cake should have a:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Compact volume with golden brown top.
B.
Large volume with a tender, moist interior.
C. Large volume with gummy interior.
D. Light brown top with gummy interior.
218. How can a smooth finish be created on a frosted cake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Coat the spatula with shortening
B.
Dip the spatula in cold water
C.
Dip the spatula in warm water
D. Microwave the frosting for 30 seconds
219. Which is an inappropriate use of timesaving techniques or products to prepare an unshortened cake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Box mix
B.
Canned frosting
C.
Canned filling
D. Microwave
220. How full should the decorator bag be filled when decorating a cake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
No more than one-half
B.
No more than three-fourths
C.
No more than two-thirds
D. To the top
221. How should cakes be prepared for freezer storage?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Freeze multiple layers in the same package
B.
Freeze the unwrapped cake in a box
C. Wrap the cake loosely with foil
D. Wrap the cake with plastic, and place it in an airtight plastic bag
222. How is the BEST linear effect achieved when decorating a cake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Applying even pressure
B.
Changing tips
C. Using cloth bags
D. Varying force
223. An incorrect method of frosting a cake is
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
To brush the crumbs from the cake as it is frosted.
B.
To keep the frosting covered in the bowl.
C. To remove the humps with a bread knife.
D. To spread frosting from the center outwards.
224. Which is a recommended method to determine cake doneness?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Bake for the stated time
B.
Insert a toothpick
C.
Observe the cake’’s edges
D. Press the top of the cake with a finger
225. Cake batter for an 8"" round pan should be scaled to a weight of how many ounces?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
14-18
B.
16-18
C.
24
D.
32
226. What equipment and technique should be used to cut an unshortened cake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Bread knife pressing firmly
B.
Bread knife using a sawing action
C.
Straight edged spatula pressing firmly
D.
Thin, sharp knife applying gentle downward pressure
227. How should the hand holding the decorator bag be used?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Apply varying force
B.
Move the bag
C.
Steady the bag
D.
Sustain even pressure
228. What action prevents frosting from sticking to the knife as a cake is being sliced?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Chill the knife in the freezer
B.
Coat the knife with non-stick spray
C.
Dip the knife into water between each slice
D. Wash the knife after each slice
229. If a layer cake has a hump in the center, when baking the next cake:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Lengthen cooking time by 5 minutes.
B.
Lower the oven temperature 25º.
C. Raise the oven temperature 25º.
D.
Shorten cooking time by 5 minutes.
230. Which is an inappropriate technique for filling pans for an unshortened cake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Fill the pan two-thirds full
B.
Run a spatula through the pan to remove air pockets
C.
Spread the batter evenly with a spatula
D. Tap the pan on the counter to remove air bubbles
231. Pound cakes are different from other shortened cakes because they contain NO:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Butter.
B.
Chemical leavener.
C. Eggs.
D. Flour.
232. A thin layer of frosting should be applied to a cake before it is decorated because it will:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Even the layers.
B.
Hold cracks together.
C. Keep the cake from tearing.
D.
Secure loose crumbs.
233. How are chiffon cakes DIFFERENT from unshortened cakes?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Contain fat
B.
Cling to the sides of the pan when done
C. Have a tender, moist interior
D. Rely on egg whites and steam for leavening
234. The writing tip is used to make:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Flower stems.
B.
Flower petals.
C. Leaves.
D.
Stars.
235. How many 2""x 2"" servings of cake can be cut from an 18""x 26"" cake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
18
B.
26
C.
44
D. 117
236. What ingredient makes an angel food cake rise?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Baking powder
B.
Baking soda
C.
Beaten egg whites
D. Yeast
237. A shortened cake should be cut with:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
A bread knife, using a sawing action.
B.
A straight-edged spatula, pressing firmly.
C. A thin sharp knife, applying gentle pressure.
D. Two forks back-to-back, prying gently in opposite directions.
238. What is the correct method to check for cake doneness?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Insert a toothpick or cake tester
B.
Insert a spoon
C. Top sinks in the middle
D. When the center of the cake is pressed it does not spring back
239. Which timesaving technique is inappropriate for unshortened cakes?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Box mix
B.
Microwave
C. Purchase a ready-made cake and prepare with a homemade filling
D. Ready-made frosting
240. How should the cake be prepared prior to applying frosting?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Brush off loose crumbs
B.
Dust with flour
C. Fill depressions with shortening
D. Warm in the microwave
241. Which statement about making foam cakes is FALSE?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Egg whites and steam function as the leavening agents.
B.
The cake pan is not greased.
C.
They are removed from the pan for cooling.
D.
They contain no fat.
242. Which cake filling/frosting should NOT be refrigerated?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Cream cheese
B.
Custard
C. Fondant/marzipan
D. Meringue
243. How should a cake without fat in the recipe be cooled after baking?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
In the pan placed on a cooling rack
B.
In the oven on the cooling rack
C.
Out of the pan on a cooling rack
D. Upside down in the pan on the neck of a bottle
244. All cooked frostings contain:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Beaten egg whites.
B.
Butter.
C.
Cream cheese.
D. Heated sugar syrup.
245. Which type of cake has the characteristics of BOTH shortened and unshortened cakes?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Angel food
B.
Butter
C.
Chiffon
D. Pound
246. If a layer cake has a hump in the center:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.01
RBT:
A.
Arrange the layers so that the bottoms are together.
B.
Place both layers so that the tops are together.
C. Remove the hump from both layers with a bread knife.
D. Remove the hump from the bottom layer.
247. Which substitution will lower the sugar content of a cake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.02
RBT:
A.
Aspartame
B.
Corn syrup
C. Fruit puree
D. Honey
248. What is an expected result of lowering the fat content of a cake recipe?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.02
RBT:
A.
Less tender
B.
Low volume
C. More tender
D.
Spongy
249. Which is a low-fat frosting alternative?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.02
RBT:
A.
Caramel sauce
B.
Chocolate shavings
C. Fruit sauce
D.
Nuts
250. Which is characteristic of a cake made with a sugar substitute?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.02
RBT:
A.
Delicate and tender
B.
Not well browned
C. Tastes bitter
D. Well browned
251. Which cake filling will add the fewest calories and fat grams?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.02
RBT:
A.
Chocolate shavings
B.
Custard
C. Peach puree
D. Whipped cream
252. Which cake is lowest in calories?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.02
RBT:
A.
Chiffon
B.
Pound
C.
Shortened
D. Unshortened
253. Which fat substitute keeps the fat content of a recipe the same?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.02
RBT:
A.
Applesauce
B.
Fruit puree
C. Margarine
D. Pudding made with skim milk
254. By substituting fruit puree for the fat in a recipe, the nutritional value of which nutrient will be increased?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.02
RBT:
A.
Calcium
B.
Carbohydrates
C. Fat
D. Protein
255. Which is a high fat alternative to frosting?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.02
RBT:
A.
Fondant
B.
Fruit sauce
C. Powdered sugar
D. Whipped cream
256. When substituting applesauce for the fat in a recipe, the nutritional value of which nutrient is increased?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.02
RBT:
A.
Calcium
B.
Carbohydrate
C. Fat
D. Protein
257. Which cake has the lowest saturated fat content?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.02
RBT:
A.
Chiffon
B.
Chocolate
C. Pineapple upside down
D. Pound
258. Which ingredient combination is used in French butter cream?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.03
RBT:
A.
Beaten egg yolks and butter
B.
Butter, shortening, and fondant
C. Italian meringue and butter
D.
Swiss meringue and butter
259. What ingredients are combined to create a simple butter cream?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.03
RBT:
A.
Butter, powdered sugar, and flavoring
B.
Butter, solid shortening, powdered sugar, egg whites, and flavoring
C.
Solid shortening, powdered sugar, and flavoring
D.
Solid shortening, powdered sugar, and milk
260. What ingredients are combined to prepare German butter cream?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.03
RBT:
A.
Beaten egg yolks, Italian meringue and butter
B.
Butter, emulsified shortening, and fondant
C. German meringue and butter
D.
Swiss meringue and butter
261. Swiss style butter cream is a combination of:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.03
RBT:
A.
Beaten egg yolks, Swiss meringue, and butter.
B.
Butter, shortening, and fondant.
C. Italian meringue and butter.
D.
Swiss meringue and butter.
262. Which method will NOT help the decorator adapt to current decorating trends?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.03
RBT:
A.
Attend workshops
B.
Subscribe to Wilton cake decorating magazine
C. Use one design, with color variations
D. Visit local bakeries
263. German butter cream is a combination of:
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.03
RBT:
A.
Beaten egg yolks, Italian meringue, and butter.
B.
Butter, emulsified shortening, and fondant.
C. German meringue and butter.
D.
Swiss meringue and butter.
264. What ingredients are combined to prepare Swiss butter cream?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.03
RBT:
A.
Beaten egg yolks, Swiss meringue, and butter
B.
Butter and fondant
C. Italian meringue and butter
D.
Swiss meringue and butter
265. Which is the MOST appropriate icing for a dense cake?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.03
RBT:
A.
Fudge type icings
B.
Italian butter cream
C.
Swiss butter cream
D. Whipped cream
266. Which statement about cake decorating trends is FALSE?
NCCTE.9_12.FE.FN42.7.03
RBT:
A.
Decorating techniques learned today will apply to changing trends.
B.
Decorative trends typically involve changes in color and style.
C. Expensive equipment and training are necessary to implement design trends.
D. Mastery of basic skills enables a decorator to adapt to changes in design trends.