HR/Tampa Study Group
WORKFORCE PLANNING & EMPLOYMENT
1. Equal employment opportunity programs are implemented in the workplace to:
a. prevent employment discrimination in the work place
b. take remedial action to offset past employment discrimination
c. allow all American Citizens the opportunity to work
d a and b above
e. all of the above
2. Which of the following influenced the development of EEO?
a. the emerging role of government regulation
b. the economic status of women and minorities
c. changes in societal values
d. all of the above
e. none of the above.
3. The criterion which refers to an employment process which results in a significantly higher
percentage of a protected group in the population being rejected for employment, placement or
promotion is called the _______________ criterion.
a. adverse impact
b. discriminatory impact
c. unequal result
d. discriminatory result
e. adverse result
4. The federal laws related to EEO and Title VII include all BUT which of the following:
a. Sexual Harassment Law of 1989
b. Age Discrimination Act of 1967
c. Equal Pay Act of 1963
d. Rehabilitation Act of 1973
e. Vietnam Era Veteran’s Readjustment Act of 1974
5. The three ways in which the courts have defined discrimination are:
a. prejudiced treatment, discriminatory practice, and discriminatory result,
b. discriminatory treatment, discriminatory practice, and discriminatory result
c. prejudiced treatment, unequal treatment and unequal impact
d. prejudiced intent, prejudiced treatment, and prejudiced result
e. unequal intent, unequal treatment, and unequal impact.
6. A practice which applies different standards or different treatment to different group of
employees or applicants is illegal under the ______________definition of discrimination.
a. prejudiced treatment
b. unequal treatment
c. prejudiced intent
d. discriminatory practice
e. unequal impact
7. Practices, which are prohibited because they have the consequence of excluding some
minority groups while not being related to the job in question, are illegal under the
____________ definition of discrimination.
a. discriminatory result
b. unequal impact
c prejudiced result
d. discriminatory impact
e. unequal impact
8. In the ________________ case it was established that the validation of a test or other
screening tool is not proven unless the test or other screening tool can predict job success.
a. Griggs v Duke Power (1971)
b. Albermarle Paper Co. v J. Moody (1975)
c. Bakke v. University of California (1978)
d. Weber vs. Kaiser (1979)
e. Firefighters Local Union 1784 v Stotts (1984)
9. In the ____________ case it was established that if adverse impact is found the defendant
must demonstrate the selection practice used is valid.
a. Griggs v Duke Power (1971)
b. Washington v Davis (1978)
c. Bakke v. University of California (1978)
d. Weber vs. Kaiser (1979)
e. Firefighters Local Union 1784 v Stotts (1984)
10. In the _______________ case it was established that a test is not illegal simply because a
greater percentage of minorities do not successfully pass it.
a. Griggs v Duke Power (1971)
b. Washington v Davis (1978)
c. Albermarle Paper Co. v J. Moody (1975)
d. Bakke v. University of California (1978)
e. Weber vs. Kaiser (1979)
11. In the ______________ case it was established that reverse discrimination was not allowed,
but that race could be used as a factor in selection decisions.
a. Griggs v Duke Power (1971)
b. Albermarle Paper Co. v J. Moody (1975)
c. Washington v Davis (1978)
d. Weber vs. Kaiser (1979)
e. Bakke v. University of California (1978)
12. In the _______________case it was established that employers could give preference to
minorities and women in hiring and promoting for “traditionally segregated job categories.”
a. Albermarle Paper Co. v J. Moody (1975)
b. Washington v Davis (1978)
c. Bakke v. University of California(1978)
d. Weber vs. Kaiser (1979)
e Firefighters Local Union 1784 v Stotts (1984)
13. What is the difference between AA and EEO?
a. Affirmative action is a legal obligation
b Affirmative action is a permanent obligation
c. Equal opportunity gives preference to protected classes
d. Equal opportunity is prohibitory
14. Which of the following is NOT one of the powers of the EEOC?
a. the power to require employers to report employment statistics
b. the power to sue an employer
c. the power to process charges of discrimination
d. the power to issue directly enforceable order to correct employment imbalances
e. all of the above are powers of the EEOC
15. Affirmative action _________________________.
a. is neutral with respect to protected characteristics
b. are those actions appropriate to overcome past or present barriers to equal employment
c. is a legal obligation
d. is a permanent obligation
e. is a barrier to equal employment opportunity
16. Any employer having a contract with the federal government of a least $50,000 and
employing at least _____ people must file a written affirmative action plan.
a. 15
b 25
c 50
d 200
e 250
17. Poor affirmative action plans will be judged by the courts as the same as not having a plan at
all. This statement was established by which of the following Supreme Court decisions?
a. Griggs v Duke Power
b. Albermarle Paper Co. v J. Moody
c. Carmi v St Louis Sewer District
d Davis v Bucher
e. Santa Clara County Transportation Agency v V Johnson
18. The three step for planning an Affirmative action plan is:
a. Utilization analysis, goals, and timetables
b. Meaningfulness, responsibility, knowledge of results
c. Implementation, diagnosis, evaluation
d. External factors, internal factors, people
e. Situation analysis, forecasting, development
19. Job analysis provides answers to all BUT one of the following questions.
a. What kind of behaviors is needed to perform the job?
b. What kind of person is best suited for the job?
c. How much time is taken to complete important tasks?
d. How can a job be designed to enhance employee performance?
e. How many employees will be needed next year in this area?
20. The process of defining a job in terms of tasks or behaviors and specifying the education,
training and responsibilities needed to perform the job successfully is called
a. job description
b. job specification
c. job design
d. task assignment
e. job analysis
21. The degree to which a test, interview or other selection device measures the knowledge,
skills, abilities or other qualifications that are actually part of the job.
a. criterion related validity
b. construct validity
c. content validity
d. concurrent validity
e. none of the above
22. Three key elements of job analysis are:
a. knowledge, skills, abilities
b. job description, job specification, job design
c. job title, job summary, required tasks
d. job title, job summary, reporting structure
e. knowledge, skills, required tasks
23. Which recruiting method may pose a potential for discrimination complaints
a. job posting
b. job bidding
c. previous applicants
d. internet
e. college fairs
24. The selection process includes all BUT
a. hiring the best qualified applicant
b. analysis of application form
c. preemployment testing
d. background investigation
e. qualified medical exam
25. The four step of needs analysis include all BUT which of the following?
a. analyzing the situation
b. forecasting HR demands
c. reconciling the budget
d. forecasting the HR supply
e. most effective use of people to achieve organizational goals
26. The focus of career planning and career management is:
a. To enhance each employee’s capacity to handle responsibilities and authority
successfully
b. Career Planning is an individual centered approach
c. Career Management is an organization-centered approach
d. Both b and c
e. All of the above
27. Key steps to designing a career path
a. Job analysis, develop natural progression, communicate, obtain information, and determine
training needs.
b. Job analysis, develop training needs, natural progression, obtain information, communicate,
c. Job analysis, skill inventory, communicate, develop natural progression, determine training
needs.
d. Design a career development plan, identify personal abilities and interests, communicate.
Develop natural progression, provide on the job development.
e. None of the above
28. Which of the following is an organization-centered approach to career planning?
a. Design a career development plan that accommodates the organizations needs
b. Assess career paths options within and outside the organization
c. Identify future organizational staffing needs
d. Communicate development preferences to manager.
e. All of the above.
29. Which of the following is an individual centered approach to career planning?
a. Match organizational needs with individual abilities.
b. Provide career training, on the job development, and counseling
c. Develop career-planning model.
d. Plan personal career goals.
e. All of the above.
30. Succession planning and promotability forecasts can be used to determine all but which of
the following:
a. What employees might benefit from job rotation?
b. What employees might benefit from job enrichment?
c. Identify training needs for career advancement
d. Performance appraisal data used to make match
e. All of the above.
31. Mentoring involves:
a. advising
b. role modeling
c. networking
d. a and b above
e. a, b, and c above
32. Common cues that Kaye (1993) identified that can signal coachable moments include all but
which:
a. sharing contacts
b. experiencing poor job fit
c. demonstrates new skill or interest
d. seeks feedback
e. mentions desire for development opportunities.
33. Examples of mobility are:
a. relocations
b. lateral moves
c. demotions
d. promotions
e. all of the above
34. Factors to be considered in relocations include all BUT which of the following:
a. benefit to the organization
b. matching employee’s abilities with staffing needs
c. employment requirements for trailing spouse
d. orientation program for employees and their families
e. effect on employee morale
35. Which of the following factors are driving business to address glass-ceiling issues.
a. changes in labor force demographics
b. globalization of marketplace
c. people of diverse backgrounds are needed to compete
d. changes in demographics of national consumer markets
e. all of the above
36. A type of interview that relies on a careful job analysis to identify the critical job
requirements position. The interview questions focus on what the person has done in previous
situations relative to the job requirements.
a. Situational interview
b. Targeted-selection interview
c. Panel interview
d. Non Directive Interview
37. Which pre-employment measure could a company use to screen candidates for employment
who might pose a security risk to the organization?
a. Polygraph test
b. Drug test using a blood test
c. Drug test using a urinalysis test
d. Background check with the candidate’s permission
38. A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions is referred to as:
a. job
b. task
c. position
d. duty
39. Identification of the tasks, duties and responsibilities of a job is defined as:
a. job specification
b. skill inventory
c. job description
d. performance standard
40. Which of the following is an observation method for conducting job analysis?
a. work sampling
b. interviewing
c. employee diary/log
d. a and c
41. Which of the following recruitment methods allows candidates to talk to employers about an
opening without making a formal job application?
a. executive search firms
b. public employment agencies
c. employee referrals
d. career fairs
42. A systematic investigation of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities, and duties necessary to
do a job is known as:
a. Job Analysis
b. Job Evaluation
c. Job Description
d. Job Specification
43. Which of the following is a condition that may exist when a person is denied an opportunity
because of preferences given to protected-class individuals who may be less qualified?
a. Affirmative Action
b. Reverse Discrimination
c. Discrimination
d. Disparate Treatment
44. A rule that states that discrimination is considered to occur if the selection rate of a protected
group is less than 80% of the groups representation in relevant market or of the selection rate for
the majority group:
a. Internal rule
b. 4/5th rule
c. Disparate impact rule
d. None of the above
45. Which interview topic questions would be considered legal?
a. Age
b. Essential tasks
c. Convictions
d. All of the above
46. The best place to start a recruitment program is by conducting a ______
a. Strategic analysis.
b. Demand Analysis
c. Needs Analysis
d. Supply Analysis.
47. What is the disadvantage to recruiting employees internally?
a. It rewards good work of current employees and improves morale.
b. It is cost-effective.
c. It can result in succession of promotions.
d. It can maintain current racial and ethnic mix of an organization
48. A contract ___________.
a. protects an employee from discipline or termination
b. is a promise or an offer of something
c. does not have to meet the needs of both parties
d. all of the above
49. ADEA applies to employers with 20+ employees and records: be maintained for
___________.
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years
50. ADA and CRA applies to employers with 15+ employees and records must be maintained for
___________.
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years
51. Davis Bacon Act, Service Contract Act and Walsh Healy Act apply to federal contractors.
Records must be maintained ____________ from the end of the contact.
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years