Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test – 1
Time : 3 Hrs.
MM : 720
TOPICS COVERED
PHYSICS
Physical World and Measurement; Kinematics
CHEMISTRY
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties,
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
BIOLOGY
Diversity in Living World: What is living?; Biodiversity; Need for Classification; Three Domains of Life; Taxonomy
& Systematics; Concept of species and taxonomical hierarchy; Binomial nomenclature; Tools for Study of Taxonomy
– Museums, Zoos, Herbaria, Botanical gardens keys, Five kingdom classification; Salient features and classification of
Monera, Protista and Fungi into major groups; Lichens; Viruses and Viroids, Salient Features and classification of
animals, non-chordate upto phyla level and Chordates upto Classes level
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1.
Isotropy of space is equivalent to
(1) Law of conservation of angular momentum
(2) Law of conservation of linear momentum
(3) Law of conservation of energy
(4) Law of conservation of charge
2.
If M and m are moving mass and rest mass respectively of a body and c is speed of light, then kinetic energy
of body is given by
(1) K = [m – M]c2
(2) K = [M – m] c2
(3) K = Mc2
(4) K = mc2
3.
Absolute error will be
(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) May be positive or negative
(4) Zero
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
4.
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) A dimensionally correct relation may be numerically correct
(2) A numerically correct relation is never dimensionally incorrect
(3) A dimensionally correct relation is always numerically correct
(4) Both (1) & (2)
5.
Which of the following is not a unit of fundamental quantity?
(1) Barn
(2) Shake
(3) amu
(4) Parsec
6.
If the unit of force is 2 kilo newton, the length is 2 km and time is 10 s, then the unit of mass is
(1) 1 kg
(2) 10 kg
(3) 100 kg
(4) 10–2 kg
7.
If y = sinthen for what value of ,the relative error in y is minimum?
(1) 90°
(2) 30°
(3) 0°
(4) 45°
8.
The angle between instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle moving along a straight line is
(1) 0°
(2) 180°
(3) Between 0°and 180°
(4) 0° or 180°
9.
A body is moving along x-axis and y-axis according to given equation as x = A sinand y = B cosThe trajectory
followed by the body is
(1) Elliptical
(2) Parabolic
(3) Straight line
(4) Circular
10. The rate of change of slope at the maxima is
(1) Zero
(2) Positive
(3) Negative
(4) Infinite
11. Two instruments X and Y calculate length of a rod as X = 4.00 m and Y = 4.000 m then
(1) X is more accurate
(2) Y is more accurate
(3) Y has more percentage error
(4) X has less percentage error
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Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
12. Normal reaction is example of
(1) Strong nuclear force
(2) Gravitational force
(3) Electromagnetic force
(4) Weak force
13. A particle moving on a straight line with a velocity which is linearly dependent on the position. Then the
acceleration of particle depends on the position as a trajectory of
(1) Straight line
(2) Circle
(3) Parabola
(4) Ellipse
14. Two cars A and B are travelling in the same direction with velocities 4 m/s and 2 m/s. When the car A is at a
distance d behind the car B. The car A starts decelerating with 0.5 m/s2. To avoid collision which option is correct?
(1) d > 4 m
(2) d < 3 m
(3) d < 4 m
(4) d < 2 m
15. The position (x) of a particle moving along a straight line as a function of time (t) is given by x = 4t – t2. The
distance covered by the particle in t = 0 to t = 5 s is
(1) 20 m
(2) 25 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 13 m
16. If velocity of particle is given as v  10 x where g is acceleration due to gravity and x is position, then time
taken by the particle to cover a distance of 10 m along x-axis from rest is
(1) 10 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 2 s
(4) 8 s
17. A body starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration. The ratio of distance covered in 4th second to
the distance covered in 4 second is
(1)
1
16
(2)
7
16
(3)
16
7
(4) 17
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
18. A biker at rest sees a bus 2 km ahead of him moving with a speed of 20 m/s. With what constant speed should
he move so as to overtake the bus in 200 s ?
(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 40 m/s
19. The velocity vector of an object starts from origin at any time t is given by ⎡t 2 iˆ  3tjˆ ⎤ m/s. Its position along
⎣
⎦
y-axis has a magnitude after 2 s is
(1) 3 m
(2) 6 m
(3)
8
m
3
(4) 4 m
20. A ball is thrown upward with speed u from the top of a tower of height 40 m and it reaches the ground in 4 s.
Then projected velocity is
(1) 10 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 10 2 m/s
21. If air resistance is considered in a projectile motion, then horizontal motion takes place with
(1) Variable velocity
(2) Constant velocity
(3) Zero velocity
(4) Zero acceleration
22. The velocity acquired by a body moving with uniform acceleration is 20 m/s in 1 s and 40 m/s in 2 s. The initial
velocity is
(1) 40 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) Zero
23. A man aims a target at a horizontal distance of 50 m. If the muzzle speed of bullet is 500 m/s, then the height
above the target which he should aim is
(1) 10 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 0.5 m
(4) 0.05 m
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Online Test - 1 (Objective)
24. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is y  2 x 
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
x2
. The time of flight of projectile is [ x, y are in metre
4
and g = 10 m/s2]
(1)
5s
2
(2)
(3)
(4)
5
3
5
4
5
s
s
s
25. A cart is moving horizontally along a straight line with constant speed 10 m/s. A projectile is to be fired from
the moving cart so that it returns to the same cart after the cart has moved 50 m. The speed with which the
projectile must be fired with respect to the ground is
(1) 25 m/s
(2) 26 m/s
(3) 26.9 m/s
(4) 29 m/s
26. If the vertical range of an oblique projectile is 20 m. The time of flight of the projectile is [g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 2 s
(2) 6 s
(3) 4 s
(4) 8 s
27. The distance through which a body in the 5th second is 45 m. The distance through which it falls in the next
second is [g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 65 m
(2) 45 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 55 m
28. A particle is projected from ground at an angle 30° with the horizontal with speed 20 m/s. Rate of change of
speed at the point of projection is [g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 5 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(4) 25 m/s2
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
29. If equation of trajectory of a projectile is y = ax – bx2, then graph between y and x is
Y
x
(1)
Y
x
(2)
Y
(3)
x
Y
x
(4)
30. If A  2iˆ  ˆj and B  iˆ  2 ˆj , then the projection of A along B is
(1) 4
(2)
(3)
(4)
4
5
1
5
5
4
31. In projectile motion angle between velocity and acceleration due to gravity
(1) Decreases only
(2) Increases only
(3) First increases then decreases
(4) First decreases then increases
32. Two particles X and Y are moving in opposite direction with velocity V1 and V2 . Then relative velocity of particle
X with respect to Y is given as
(1) | Vxy |  V12  V22
(2) | Vxy |  V1  V2
(3) Vxy  V1  V2
(4) Vxy  V2  V1
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Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
33. Two vectors having equal magnitude are inclined at an angle  If magnitude of resultant is
magnitude of each vector, then angle  is
(1)

6
(2)

3
(3)

2
3 times the
(4) Zero
34. Select the incorrect statement
(1) A  B  B  A
(2) A  B  B  A
A
(3) Aˆ  | A|
(4) Both (2) & (3)
35. Two particles are moving along a path has velocities as given in the diagram. Then velocity of P with respect
to Q is given by
VP
VQ
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
36. The position of particle P with respect to Q moving along x-axis is given by x = 3t – 6 (m). Then select the
correct option
(1) In the time interval 0 to 2 seconds, the particle P is behind the Q
(2) In the time interval t > 2, Q is behind the P
(3) At t = 2 s both P and Q are at same position
(4) All of these
37. The velocity of a particle A with respect to B is 10 m/s. Then select the correct option
(1) The relative separtion of A with respect to B may increase w.r.t time
(2) Velocity of A may be zero and velocity of B may be –10 m/s
(3) Velocity of A may be 30 m/s and B may be 20 m/s
(4) All of these
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
38. If two bodies are projected upward with same velocities at same time, then graph between relative velocity of
two balls and time is given as
v
(1)
t
v
(2)
t
v
(3)
t
v
(4)
t
39. Which of the following position-time graphs correctly presents two objects A and B with zero relative velocity?
x
(1)
B
A
t
x
A
B
(2)
x
(3)
A
B
(4) Both (2) & (3)
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t
t
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
40. The relative velocity of two moving objects A and B remains constant with time, then which option is incorrect?
x
B
A
(1)
t
O
x
B
A
(2)
t
x
(3)
A
B
x
t
B A
(4)
t
41. If initial and final positions of a particle moving in a circular path is same, then angular displacement is
(1) 
(2) 2
(3)

3
(4)
2
3
42. If particle is moving with constant frequency in the circular path, then angular velocity of particle
(1) Must be constant w.r.t all axis
(2) May be constant w.r.t given axis
(3) Must be zero
(4) Data is insufficient
43. Uniform circular motion is the example of
(1) Uniform accelerated motion
(2) Non-uniform accelerated motion
(3) Uniform motion
(4) Both (2) & (3)
44. A particle moves in a circle of radius 1 m at a speed v = 2t m/s, acceleration of the particle at t = 1 s is
(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 5 2 m/s2
(4) 2 5 m/s2
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
45. If speed of particle in circular motion is decreasing then angle between radius vector and acceleration is
(1) Acute
(2) Obtuse
(3)

2
(4) 
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Normality of 0.2 M H3BO3 solution is
(1) 0.2 N
(2) 0.3 N
(3) 0.6 N
(4) 0.4 N
47. The total number of electrons present in 36 ml water (density = 1 g/ml) is
(1) 6.02 1023
(2) 2  6.02  1024
(3) 3.01 1023
(4) 2  6.02  1023
48. How many atoms are there in 200 amu of He?
(1) 50
(2) 40
200
(3) N
A
(4) 50NA
49. The mass of an atom of an element is 6.02  10 –23 g, then the number of gram atom in
36 kg of it is (approx)
(1) 1000
(2) 360
(3) 1200
(4) 600
50. When a metal is burnt, then mass increases by 60%, then equivalent weight of metal is
(1)
40
3
(2)
20
3
(3) 20
(4)
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10
3
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
51. The ratio of volume of one equivalent H2 to that of 2 equivalent of O2 at STP is
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 1 : 4
52.
CaC2  H2O  CaO  C2H2
C2H2
+H2
C2 H4
C2H4  (CH2 -CH2 )n
How much polythene is prepared by 200 g of CaC2?
(1) 150 g
(2) 280 g
(3) 175 g
(4) 87.5 g
53.
2Mg  O2  2MgO
In above reaction, if 2g Mg reacts with 2g of oxygen, which reagent acts as limiting reagent?
(1) Mg
(2) O2
(3) MgO
(4) Not the case of limiting reagent
54. Select the correct statement(s)
(1) At STP one mole of any substance occupies 22.4 litre
(2) 1 g of hydrogen contains same atoms as in 1 g-atoms of hydrogen
(3) Equal volumes of all gases at STP contains equal number of atoms
(4) All of these
55. Which of the following property of an element is variable?
(1) Atomic number
(2) Mass number
(3) Equivalent mass
(4) Valence electrons
56. Rearrange the following (I to IV) in the correct order of masses and choose the correct answer
(I) 16 g O2 (II) 6 1023 molecules of H2 (III) 22.4 L NH3 at STP (IV) 1 amu
(1) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
(2) (III) > (I) > (IV) > (II)
(3) (II) = (I) > (IV) > (III)
(4) (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV)
57. For which transition in He, the amount of energy released will be maximum?
(1) n = 2 to n = 1
(2) n = 5 to n = 2
(3) n = 6 to n = 2
(4) n = 4 to n = 2
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
58. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 3d orbitals are respectively
(1) 3, 2
(2) 3, 0
(3) 2, 0
(4) 0, 1
59. For 4f electron, the orbital angular momentum is
(1)
12 (2)
2
(3)
8 (4)
6 60. If E1, E2 and E3 are kinetic energies of an electron, an -particle and a proton, with same de-Broglie wavelength,
then which of the following order is correct?
(1) E1 > E2 > E3
(2) E1 = E2 = E3
(3) E2 > E3 > E1
(4) E1 > E3 > E2
61. Which of the following d-orbitals has electron density along all the three axes?
(1) 3dxy
(2) 3dyz
(3) 3dzx
(4) 3dz2
62. The frequency of revolution of an electron in an orbit is
(1) Directly proportional to the principal quantum number ‘n’
(2) Inversely proportional to the principal quantum number ‘n’
(3) Directly proportional to n2
(4) Inversely proportional to n3
63. If the shortest wavelength of H-atom in Lyman series is ‘’, then longest wavelength in Balmer series of He
ion is
(1)
5
9
(2)
9
5
(3)

5
(4)
36
5
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
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
64. Which of the following plot is correct about the kinetic energy of photoelectrons (KE)?
KE
(1)
Intensity
of radiation
KE
(2)
Surface
area of metal
(3)
KE
Frequency
of radiation
(4)
KE
Wavelength of
incident radiation
65. Wave function of an orbital () is plotted against the distance (r) from nucleus?
r
The above graphical representation is of
(1) 1 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 3 s
(4) 2 p
66. What will be the total spin of Fe3 ion?
(1) 2
(2) 
5
2
(3) 
3
2
(4)  1
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
67. Highest second ionization enthalpy among the following is
(1) Li
(2) F
(3) N
(4) Ne
68. Which of the following element has highest density?
(1) Os
(2) Hg
(3) Fe
(4) Ir
69. Symbol of element having atomic number 118 is
(1) Uuo
(2) Ubn
(3) Uue
(4) Uun
70. In Mendeleev’s periodic table bridge elements are the elements of
(1) Third period
(2) Fifth period
(3) Fourth period
(4) Second period
71. The size of the ions change in the order
(1) Na  Mg2  Si4  Cl7
(2) Na  Mg2  Cl7

 Si4 
(3) Cl7   Na  Mg2  Si4 
(4) Mg2  Na  Cl7  Si4
72. Which of the following is the correct order of electron affinity?
(1) Cl > C > O > N
(2) Cl > O > C > N
(3) Cl > N > C > O
(4) Cl < C < O < N
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Online Test - 1 (Objective)
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
73. Which of the following pair is/are isoelectronic?
& PO 43
(1)
(2) NO 3 & CO32
(3) ClO 4 & SO42
(4) All of these
74. The correct order of acidic strength is
(1) CO2 > N2O5 > SiO2 > SO3
(2) SO3 < N2O5 < CO2 < SiO2
(3) SiO2 < CO2 < N2O5 < SO3
(4) N2O5 > SiO2 > CO2 > SO3
75. Which of the following is non-linear molecule/ion?
(1) NO2+
(2) N3
(3) C3O2
(4) SO2
76. Find the incorrect match.
(1) ClF3 – T-shape
(2) XeF4 – sp3d2 hybridisation
(3) S8 – Eight lone pairs
(4) AsH3 – pyramidal shape
77. The hybridisation of sulphur in peroxosulphuric acid is
(1) sp2
(2) sp3
(3) sp3d
(4) sp3d2
78. The correct stability order of oxides of chlorine
Cl2O
(I)
Cl2O3 ClO 5
(II)
(III)
Cl2O7 is
(IV)
(1) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
(2) (IV) > (I) > (II) > (III)
(3) (I) > (II) > (IV) > (III)
(4) (I) < (II) < (III) < (IV)
79. In the change of NOto NO, the electron is added to
(1)  -Molecular orbital
(2) -Molecular orbital
(3)   -Molecular orbital
(4)   -Molecular orbital
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
80. The correct stability order of following species is
(1) O22 O2 O2 > O2
> O22
> O22 > O2 > O2
(2) O22
> O2
(3) O22
> O22 O2 > O2 > O2
(4) O2 > O2 > O2
> O22 > O22
81. Which of the following has non-zero dipole moment?
Cl
(1)
Cl
OH
(2)
OH
CN
(3)
CN
(4) PCl3F2
82. Which of the following is correct order of ionic nature of bond?
(1) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4
(2) BeCl2 > LiCl > BCl3 > CCl4
(3) BCl3 > BeCl2 > LiCl > CCl4
(4) CCl4 > BCl3 > BeCl2 > LiCl
83. The number of bonds and -bonds in (CN)2 respectively is
(1) 2, 2
(2) 4, 3
(3) 3, 3
(4) 3, 4
84. The correct order for bond angles is
(1) NH4> NH3 > NH2
(2) NH3 > NH4 > NH2
(3) NH4 > NH2 > NH3
(4) NH3 > NH2 > NH4
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Online Test - 1 (Objective)
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
85. Representative elements are the elements of
(1) s-block only
(2) p-block only
(3) d-block
(4) s & p block
86. Which of the following element will have the least negative electron gain enthalpy?
(1) S
(2) O
(3) F
(4) Cl
87. Which of the following elements can show covalency greater than ‘4’?
(1) C
(2) P
(3) Be
(4) B
88. The repulsive interaction of electron pairs decreases in the order
(1) bp – lp > lp – lp > bp – bp
(2) lp – lp > lp – bp > bp – bp
(3) bp – bp > lp – lp > lp – lp
(4) lp – lp > bp – bp > lp – bp
89. The bond order of (N – O) in NO3 is
(1)
5
2
(2) 2
(3)
4
3
(4)
5
3
90. What is the hybridisation of ‘Xe’ in XeO2F2?
(1) sp3d
(2) sp3d2
(3) sp3
(4) sp2
17/31
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
[ BIOLOGY]
91. Herbarium is related to all, except
(1) It is taxonomic aid which is useful for conservation of plant specimens specimens
(2) It depicts the morphological variations found in species
(3) It is a collection of dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens
(4) It acts as a quick referral system in taxonomic studies
92. Read the following statements and select correct options
A. Reproduction and cellular organisation are defining features of all life forms
B. Separate taxonomic keys are required for each taxonomic category
C. Dicots and angiosperms represent taxa at different levels
(1) ‘A’ is incorrect
(2) Both ‘B’ & ‘C’ are incorrect
(3) Only A is correct
(4) Only C is incorrect
93. Select the incorrect match.
Taxon
Category
(1) Grasses
–
Family
(2) Tiger
–
Species
(3) Insect
–
Order
(4) Mammals
–
Class
94. Solanum and Panthera are
(1) Polytypic species
(2) Monotypic genera
(3) Monotypic species
(4) Polytypic genera
95. Match the columns
Column I
a. IBG (Indian
Column II
(i) Delhi
Botanical Garden)
b. National Museum of
(ii) Howrah
Natural History
c.
National Botanical
(iii) Kew
Research Institute
d. Royal Botanical
Garden
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
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(iv) Lucknow
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
96. In case of animals classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called
(1) Division
(2) Family
(3) Phylum
(4) Order
97. Select incorrect statement
(1) Order has fewer common characters than family
(2) Variety is the lowermost Linnean category
(3) Class is a group of closely related phyla with few general characters
(4) There are seven obligate taxonomic categories
98. The first step of taxonomic study is
(1) Identification
(2) Characterisation
(3) Nomenclature
(4) Classification
99. Which of the following are defining features of living organisms?
(1) Intrinsic growth, self consciousness
(2) Growth, consciousness
(3) Metabolism, intrinsic growth
(4) Self consciousness, cellular organisation
100. Taxonomic aid which contains actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area is
(1) Manual
(2) Monograph
(3) Flora
(4) Keys
101. Select the group of fungi which belongs to the same class
(1) Puffball, stinkhorn, oyster mushroom
(2) Sponge mushroom, Erysiphe, sacred mushroom
(3) Cup fungi, morels, bread mould
(4) Bracket fungi, smut fungi, Mucor
102. Prolonged dikaryophase occurs in the life cycle of
(1) Puccinia
(2) Erysiphe
(3) Aspergillus
(4) Phytophthora
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Online Test - 1 (Objective)
103. Select incorrectly matched combination.
Fungus
(1) Rhizopus
Asexual spore
Sexual spore
Sporangiospore
Zygospore
(2) Aspergillus Exogenous spore Ascospore
(3) Gill fungi
Conidia
Basidiospore
(4) Alternaria
Conidia
Absent
104. In which of the following organism reduction division occurs in fruiting body?
(1) Ustilago
(2) Mucor
(3) Aspergillus
(4) More than one option is correct
105. Read the following statements w.r.t. imperfect fungi and select correct option
(A) They are important decomposers of litter
(B) Mycelium is aseptate and branched
(C) Sexual phase is absent
(1) All are correct
(2) (B) is incorrect
(3) (A) and (C) are incorrect
(4) Only (C) is correct
106. Select incorrect match.
(1) Budding yeast – Saccharomyces
(2) Ergotine alkaloid – Claviceps
(3) Rhizomorph – Agaricus
(4) Coprophilous fungus – Rhizopus
107. Plasmogamy in white rust fungus occurs by
(1) Somatogamy
(2) Spermatisation
(3) Gametangial contact
(4) Gametangial copulation
108. The dikaryotic spores formed in life cycle of Puccinia are
(1) Uredospore and Basidiospore
(2) Basidiospore and Pycniospore
(3) Aeciospore and Uredospore
(4) Pycniospore and Teleutospore
20/31
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
109. How many of the following fungus have edible fruiting
bodies?
Morels, bread mould, toadstools, common field
mushrooms, yeast, truffles
(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two
110. Toadstools, bracket fungus, morels are similar in the presence of
(1) Dikaryophase
(2) Aseptate mycelium
(3) Basidiocarp
(4) Ascocarp
111. In two kingdom classification, Amoeba and Paramoecium were placed in
(1) Animalia
(2) Monera
(3) Protista
(4) Plantae
112. Which of the following is not a criterion for five kingdom classification given by Whittaker?
(1) Mode of nutrition
(2) Cell type
(3) Reserve food
(4) Body organisation
113. The scientist who separated bacteria at first from protist due to its prokaryotic nature is
(1) Linnaeus
(2) Copeland
(3) Whittaker
(4) Haeckel
114. Lichens are dual organisms which contain a permanent association of mycobiont and phycobiont. These
organisms
(1) Are rapidly growing
(2) Pioneer species for succession in hydrosere
(3) Can tolerate air pollution
(4) Are perennials
115. Find incorrect match w.r.t lichen
(1) Propagules – Soredia
(2) Iceland moss – Cetraria
(3) Nitrogen fixation – Mycobiont
(4) Rock flower – Parmelia
21/31
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
116. Pathogen of potato spindle tuber disease is/was
(1) dsDNA
(2) Discovered by T.O. Diener
(3) Has capsid and genetic material
(4) Infectious to both plants and animals
117. Select the odd one w.r.t viral symptoms in plants
(1) Vein clearing
(2) Mosaic formation
(3) Rusty appearance
(4) Stunted growth
118. Choose correct set of character w.r.t virus from given features
(a) The first virus discovered was TMV
(b) Virus was termed Contagium vivum fluidum by Beijerinck
(c) They are facultative intracellular parasites
(d) They have a capsid or protein coat
(1) (a),(b) & (d)
(2) (a),(b) & (c)
(3) (a) & (c)
(4) (b),(c) & (d)
119. Select incorrect match w.r.t genetic material of viruses
(1) Influenza virus – ssDNA
(2)  174 – ssDNA
(3) TMV – ssRNA
(4) T2-phage – dsDNA
120. Infectious protein particles cause all diseases, except
(1) Mad cow disease
(2) Mumps disease
(3) Scrapie disease
(4) Kuru disease
121. Chemosynthetic autotrophic eubacteria
(1) Have basic proteins called histone in their nucleoid
(2) Play an important role in nitrification
(3) Are most abundant in nature
(4) Reduce various inorganic substance
122. Nostoc has/shows
(1) Anoxygenic photosynthesis
(2) Cellulosic cell wall
(3) Heterocysts for nitrogen fixation
(4) Chl.a and chl.b as photosynthetic pigments
22/31
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
123. The bacteria found in gut of ruminant cattle is
(1) Methanococcus
(2) Halobacterium
(3) Thermoplasma
(4) More than one option is correct
124. Ray fungi are
(1) Motile eubacteria
(2) Mycelial bacteria
(3) Source of antibiotics
(4) More than one option is correct
125. Which of the following bacteria is used to remove bitterness of tobacco leaves?
(1) Micrococcus candisans
(2) Bacillus megathurium
(3) Frankia
(4) Lactobacillus
126. Mark correct option w.r.t. Mycoplasma
(1) Walled bacteria
(2) Sensitive to penicillin
(3) Facultative aerobes
(4) They can multiply in abiotic medium having sterols
127. A. Bacteria are simple in structure and complex in behaviour.
B. Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant in nature.
(1) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
(2) Only ‘A’ is correct
(3) Only ‘B’ is correct
(4) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are incorrect
128. Which of the following is related to halophilic archaebacteria?
(1) Bacteriorhodopsin in cell membrane
(2) Pseudomurein in cell membrane
(3) Presence of 80S ribosomes
(4) Presence of introns and sap vacuoles
129. Anticoagulant substance found in endospore of bacteria is
(1) Ca - DPA
(2) DAPA
(3) D-amino acids
(4) NAG and NAM
23/31
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
130. Which is true w.r.t. oxyphotobacteria?
(1) Cannot be used for reclaiming usar soils
(2) Reproduce by true sexual methods
(3) Cellulosic cell wall
(4) Complementary chromatic adaptation
131. The protist which has photosynthetic pigment similar to higher plants is
(1) Diatoms
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Protozoans
(4) Euglenoids
132. A non contractile vacuole called pusule is found in
(1) Gonyaulax
(2) Paramoecium
(3) Melosira
(4) Euglena
133. Protist having bivalved overlapping shells also have
(1) Heterokont flagellation in somatic body
(2) Reserve food chrysolaminarin
(3) Whirling whip like motion
(4) Mesokaryon nucleus
134. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. acellular slime moulds
(1) Naked uninucleate protoplast in somatic stage
(2) Have polycentric plasmodium
(3) Produce swarm cells during anisogamy
(4) Produce spores during favourable condition
135. Select incorrect match.
(1) African sleeping sickness – Trypanosoma
(2) Malarial parasite – Plasmodium
(3) Free living protozoan – Paramoecium
(4) Saprotrophic protozoan – Amoeba
136. Select the correct pair of animals matched against specific phenomenon they exhibit
(1) Bioluminescence – Pleurobrachia and Macrobrachium
(2) Apolysis – Taenia and Fasciola
(3) Epitoky – Neopilina and Nereis
(4) Torsion – Pila and Limax
24/31
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
137. Find out the incorrect match
(1) Pheretima – Blood is circulated through a series of vessels of varying diameters
(2) Hydra – Single opening in coelenteron that serves as both mouth and anus
(3) Ascaris – The body is externally and internally divided into segments with serial repetition of atleast some
body organs
(4) Salamandra – Notochord is replaced by bony vertebral column
138. In which of the following animals an undifferentiated layer, mesoglea, is present between ectoderm and
endoderm?
(1) Planaria
(2) Obelia
(3) Wuchereria
(4) Bombyx
139. Find out the incorrect statement w.r.t bilateral symmetry
(1) The body can be divided into identical right and left halves in only one plane
(2) Bilateral symmetry is advantageous for sessile animals, as it allows food to be gathered from all sides
(3) Bilateral symmetry arose when animals on the ocean floor became mobile
(4) Bilateral symmetry first of all appeared in platyhelminthes
140. Complete the following analogy
Archaeocytes : Sycon : : _________ : Hydra
(1) Nerve cell
(2) Cnidoblasts
(3) Germ cells
(4) Interstitial cells
141. Which of the following animal shows commensal relationship with certain shrimps and is given as a precious
marriage gift in Japan?
(1) Euplectella (Venus flower basket)
(2) Euspongia (Bath sponge)
(3) Hyalonema (Glass rope sponge)
(4) Poterion (Neptune’s goblet)
142. Select the incorrect match w.r.t animal shown and its specific feature
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Gemmule formation
Metagenesis
External fertilisation
Autotomy
25/31
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
143. Consider the following features
(a) Marine animal
(b) Enterocoelomate
(c) Body is cylindrical and composed of an anterior proboscis, a collar and a long trunk
(d) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
The above given features belong to the animal
(1) Branchiostoma
(2) Salpa
(3) Saccoglossus
(4) Cucumaria
144. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t annelids?
(1) Organ system level of organisation and bilateral symmetry
(2) Longitudinal and circular muscles in body wall
(3) Distinct sexual dimorphism with females longer than males
(4) Respiration through moist skin or gills
145. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t Hydra?
(1) Hydra is a marine, herbivorous animal
(2) Hydra cannot digest starch
(3) Development in Hydra is indirect
(4) Endogenous budding is common in Hydra
146. Select the correct set of animals belonging to same taxon
(1) Sea fan, sea star, sea pen
(2) Star fish, jelly fish, silver fish
(3) Brittle star, sea star, sea arrow
(4) Sea hare, sea lemon, sea butterfly
147. Parasitic forms are absent in
(1) Arthropods
(2) Echinodermates
(3) Annelids
(4) Nemathelminthes
148. Which of the following arthropods show similar type of mouth parts?
(1) Honeybee and housefly
(2) Butterfly and cockroach
(3) Mosquitoes and bed bugs
(4) Grasshopper and moth
26/31
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
149. Which of the following animal is incorrectly matched with animal and its locomotory structure?
(1) Nereis – Parapodia
(2) Asterias – Tube feet
(3) Pleurobrachia – Comb plates
(4) Hirudinaria – Setae
150. The infective stage of Schistosoma for primary host is
(1) Cercaria
(2) Miracidium
(3) Sporocyst
(4) Metacercaria
151. Male Ascaris differs from female Ascaris in possessing
(1) Amphids
(2) Phasmids
(3) Penial setae
(4) Circular muscles in body wall
152. Which of the following is a correct match w.r.t causative agent, its intermediate host and disease caused?
Causative agent Intermediate host
Disease
(1) Wuchereria
Female Anopheles Filariasis
(2) Dracunculus
Cyclops
Cysticercosis
(3) Taenia saginata
Pig
Taeniasis
(4) Fasciola hepatica Pond snail
Liver rot
153. Consider the following given animals select the animals which shows external fertilisation with indirect
development.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
27/31
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
154. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t animal shown its common name and two of its features?
Common
Animal
Feature
name
Sea
anemone
(1)
(2)
Biradial symmetry
digestion
intracellular and
extracellular
Diploblastic; only
sexual
Sea
gooseberry reproduction
present
(3)
Blood
sucking
leech
Saliva contains
hirudin
Development
indirect
(4)
Tongue
worm
Respiration
through gills
open circulatory
system
155. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t sponges?
(1) Sponges are mostly asymmetrical
(2) Sponges have paragastric cavity which helps in extracellular digestion
(3) Choanocytes or collar cells line the spongocoel and the canals
(4) The larval stage in sponge is morphologically distinct from the adult
156. In which of the following animal heart, brain, anus and excretory system are absent?
(1) Asterias (star fish)
(2) Ophiura (Brittle star)
(3) Echinus (sea urchin)
(4) All of these
157. All of the following are connecting link between two groups of animals, except
(1) Neopilina galathea
(2) Peripatus
(3) Chaetopterus
(4) Proterospongia
158. Which of the following pair of arthropods have similar body division, respiratory and excretory organ?
(1) Cray fish and silver fish
(2) Centipede and millipede
(3) Cockroach and scorpion
(4) Millipede and honeybee
159. Snakes differ from lizards in possessing
(1) Vocal cords
(2) Movable eyelids
(3) Asymmetrical lungs
(4) Urinary bladder
28/31
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
160. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t Hemidactylus (wall lizard)?
(1) Skull is monocondylic
(2) Heart is three chambered with two systemic arches
(3) Middle ear has single ear ossicle columella auris
(4) Cloacal respiration present
161. The function of ampulla of lorenzini in Scoliodon is similar to that of
(1) Jacobson’s organ in garden lizard
(2) Johnston’s organ in mosquito
(3) Pit in pit viper
(4) Neuromast organ in rohu
162. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t Ascidia.
(1) Body is covered by leathery test or tunic made up of cellulose-like organic material tunicin
(2) Open circulatory system present
(3) The larval form is sessile and adult is motile
(4) Notochord is present in tail of larva and is absent in adult
163. In all of the following respects lamprey differs from hag fish except in
(1) Number of cranial nerves
(2) Number of external gill slits
(3) Presence of salivary gland
(4) Absence of scales and paired fins
164. Chimaera is a connecting link between cartilaginous and bony fish because it possess
(a) Swim bladder
(b) Operculum
(c) Ctenoid scales
(d) Anus
(1) (a) & (b)
(2) (b) & (c)
(3) (a) & (d)
(4) (b) & (d)
165. Female shows parental case in
(a) Pipa
(b) Ichthyophis
(c) Hippocampus
(d) Alytes
(1) (a) & (b)
(2) (c) & (d)
(3) (a) & (d)
(4) (b) & (d)
166. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t frog?
(1) The body of frog is divided into head, neck and trunk
(2) Adult frog respires through skin, gills and lungs
(3) Hepatic portal system and renal portal system are well developed
(4) Male frog possesses copulatory organ
29/31
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
167. Which of the following is not an amphibian?
(1) Horned toad
(2) Mid wife toad
(3) African toad
(4) Fire bellied toad
168. Select the incorrect set of animals having amnion during embryonic development
(1) Cobra, sparrow, rabbit
(2) Lizard, krait, crocodile
(3) Frog, salamander, shark
(4) Alligator, spiny ant eater, peacock
169. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t most reptiles?
(1) The body of reptiles is covered by dry and cornified skin. The skin is non-glandular
(2) Tympanum represents ear
(3) Heart is three chambered with two systemic arches
(4) Limbs are two pairs and digits with horny claws in all reptiles
170. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t animal and its common name
(1) Passer
–
Sparrow
(2) Rhacophorus _
Tree frog
(3) Necturus
_
Mud puppy
(4) Pristis
_
Saw fish
171. Which of the following is present in all mammals without exception?
(1) Seven cervical vertebrae
(2) External ear or pinna
(3) Mammary glands with nipples
(4) Muscular diaphragm
172. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t animal shown, its features and the class to which it belongs?
Features
Class
(1)
Streamlined
body; four pair
gills present
Pisces
(2)
Prehensile
tail; exhibit
camouflage
Reptilia
(3)
Oil glands
absent;
vestigial
wings
Aves
Animal
(4)
30/31
Echolocation;
sweat glands
Mammalia
present
Online Test - 1 (Objective)
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
173. Which of the following is not a feature of metatheria (marsupial)?
(1) They give birth to young ones
(2) Nipples are abdominal
(3) Scrotum is behind penis
(4) Placenta is less developed
174. Which of the following is the largest group of eutherian mammals?
(1) Rodents
(2) Insectivores
(3) Carnivores
(4) Primates
175. Find out the incorrect match
(1) Viviparous lizard
–
Chameleon and Phrynosoma
(2) Poisonous lizard
–
Heloderma
(3) Herbivorous lizard
–
Iguana
(4) Limbless lizard
–
Ophiosaurus and Uromastix
176. Which of the following part of digestive system of bird secretes pigeon milk?
(1) Gizzard
(2) Crop
(3) Rectal caecae
(4) Urodaeum
177. Find out the incorrect statement w.r.t. aves.
(1) Vocal cords are absent in birds
(2) Quill features on wings are known as rectrices
(3) Feathers of birds are made up of -keratin protein
(4) In female birds only left ovary and oviduct is functional while right ovary and oviduct is reduced
178. Which of the following is an incorrect difference between shark and ray?
(1) Shark is surface feeder while ray is bottom feeder
(2) In shark gill slits are ventral whereas in ray gill slits are lateral
(3) In shark pectoral fins are distinct but not in rays
(4) Spiracles are absent in shark but present in rays
179. Neurotoxin venom causes death by
(1) Widespread tissue destruction and haemorrhage
(2) Paralysis of respiratory muscles and asphyxiation
(3) By lowering of blood pressure
(4) By neural imbalancement
180. Shagreen is
(1) Skin of shark
(2) Prepared from air bladder of carps
(3) Present on pelvic fin of elasmobranch helping in reproduction
(4) High protein supplement feed
31/31
Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
ONLINE TEST – 1
ANSWERS
1.
(1)
37.
(4)
73.
(4)
109. (3)
145. (2)
2.
(2)
38.
(1)
74.
(3)
110. (1)
146 (4)
3.
(1)
39.
(4)
75.
(4)
111. (1)
147. (2)
4.
(4)
40.
(3)
76.
(3)
112. (3)
148. (3)
5.
(1)
41.
(2)
77.
(2)
113. (2)
149. (4)
6.
(3)
42.
(2)
78.
(4)
114. (4)
150. (1)
7.
(1)
43.
(2)
79.
(4)
115. (3)
151. (3)
8.
(4)
44.
(4)
80.
(1)
116. (2)
152. (4)
9.
(1)
45.
(2)
81.
(2)
117. (3)
153. (4)
10.
(3)
46.
(1)
82.
(1)
118. (1)
154. (3)
11.
(2)
47.
(2)
83.
(4)
119. (1)
155. (2)
12.
(3)
48.
(1)
84.
(1)
120. (2)
156. (2)
13.
(1)
49.
(1)
85.
(4)
121. (2)
157. (3)
14.
(1)
50.
(1)
86.
(2)
122. (3)
158. (4)
15.
(4)
51.
(1)
87.
(2)
123. (1)
159. (3)
16.
(3)
52.
(4)
88.
(2)
124. (4)
160. (4)
17.
(2)
53.
(1)
89.
(3)
125. (2)
161. (3)
18.
(3)
54.
(2)
90.
(1)
126. (4)
162. (3)
19.
(2)
55.
(3)
91.
(1)
127. (1)
163. (4)
20.
(1)
56.
(4)
92.
(1)
128. (1)
164. (4)
21.
(1)
57.
(1)
93.
(3)
129. (1)
165. (1)
22.
(4)
58.
(3)
94.
(4)
130. (4)
166. (3)
23.
(4)
59.
(1)
95.
(1)
131. (4)
167. (1)
24.
(4)
60.
(4)
96.
(3)
132. (1)
168. (3)
25.
(3)
61.
(4)
97.
(3)
133. (2)
169. (4)
26.
(3)
62.
(4)
98.
(2)
134. (2)
170. (2)
27.
(4)
63.
(2)
99.
(3)
135. (4)
171. (4)
28.
(1)
64.
(1)
100. (3)
136. (4)
172. (1)
29.
(4)
65.
(2)
101. (1)
137. (3)
173. (3)
30.
(2)
66.
(2)
102. (1)
138. (2)
174. (1)
31.
(1)
67.
(1)
103. (3)
139. (2)
175. (4)
32.
(3)
68.
(4)
104. (3)
140. (4)
176. (2)
33.
(2)
69.
(1)
105. (2)
141. (1)
177. (2)
34.
(2)
70.
(1)
106. (4)
142. (2)
178. (2)
35.
(2)
71.
(1)
107. (3)
143. (3)
179. (2)
36.
(4)
72.
(2)
108. (3)
144. (3)
180. (1)
1/13
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]
Hints to Selected Questions
[ PHYSICS ]
1.
Answer (1)
2.
Answer (2)
3.
Answer (1)
4.
Answer (4)
5.
Answer (1)
6.
Answer (3)
By n1u1 = n2u2
7.
Answer (1)
∵ Y = sin
dy = cosd

8.
dy
d

y
tan 
Answer (4)
The speed of particle may increase or decrease
9.
Answer (1)
sin =
y
x
& cos =
A
B
sin2+ cos2= 1 =
10. Answer (3)
11. Answer (2)
12. Answer (3)
13. Answer (1)
v x
dv
 constant
dx
a = V
dv
v x
dx
14. Answer (1)
u2  v 2
∵ dminimum = 2a
relative
2/13
x2
A2

y2
B2
Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
15. Answer (4)
∵ v 
dx
 4  2t
dt
v
4
5
A1
-6
A2
2
tcs
distance = A1 + A2
16. Answer (3)
v2 = gx
∵  v2 = 0 + 2ax
a =
g
2
S=0+
g 2
t
2
17. Answer (2)
Snth  u 
S  ut 
a
[2n  1]
2
1 2
at
2
18. Answer (3)
 Vrelative =
Srelative
time
19. Answer (2)
Vy = 3t
dy = 3tdt
y
3t 2
2
20. Answer (1)
u
40 m = h
∵ –40 = u 4 – 5.16
u = 10 m/s
21. Answer (1)
22. Answer (4)
∵ v = u + at
3/13
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
23. Answer (4)
∵ R = uxt & T 
2U y
g
24. Answer (4)
y  x tan  
gx 2
2u 2 cos2 
25. Answer (3)
V2
V1
∵ R  Vx t  V1t
50  10t
T  t  5s
2V2
g
∵ V2  25 m/s
T 
V  V12  V22
w.r.t ground
26. Answer (3)
∵ hm  Vertical range 
& T  Time of flight  2
Uy 2
2g
Uy
g
27. Answer (4)
∵ S [ n  1]th  S
n th
g
28. Answer (1)
∵ Tangential acceleration  g sin 
29. Answer (4)
30. Answer (2)
A.B
∵
 [ A cos ]  Projection of A along B
B
31. Answer (1)
32. Answer (3)
33. Answer (2)
⎡⎤
∵ R  2 A cos ⎢ ⎥
⎣2⎦
⎡⎤
3  2 cos ⎢ ⎥
⎣2⎦

2
 = 60º
30 
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Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
34. Answer (2)
35. Answer (2)
36. Answer (4)
37. Answer (4)
38. Answer (1)
39. Answer (4)
40. Answer (3)
∵Vrelative  Constant
 tan A  tan B  Constant & non-zero
41. Answer (2)
42. Answer (2)
43. Answer (2)
44. Answer (4)
∵ at 
dv
v2
& ac 
dt
r
1
anet  ⎡⎣at2  ac2 ⎤⎦ 2
45. Answer (2)
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Answer (1)
Normality = Molarity x-factor
= 0.2 1 = 0.2 N
(H3 BO3 is a monobasic acid)
47. Answer (2)
Mole 
Weight 36

2
Mol.wt. 18
Number of molecules = 2 6.02  10
23
Number of electrons = 2 6.0210 10
24
= 2 6.02 10
23
48. Answer (1)
Number of atoms =
200
 25  2  50
4
49. Answer (1)
Atomic weight = 6.02  10–23  6  1023
 36
Number of gram-atom =
36  1000
 1000
36
5/13
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Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]
50. Answer (1)
Weight of metal = x g
Weight of metal oxide = x  x 
Weight of oxygen =
60
x  3 8x
x

100
5
5
8x
3x
x 
g
5
5
No. of g. eq. of metal = No. of g. eq. of oxygen
⇒
W1 W2
x
3x
40

⇒ 
⇒E
E1
E2
E 58
3
51. Answer (1)
1 equivalent volume of H2 = 11.2 litre
2 equivalent volume of O2 = 5.6 x 2 litre
52. Answer (4)
∵ 64 g CaC2  28 g C2H4
28
 200 g
64
 200 g CaC2 
 87.5 g
53. Answer (1)
54. Answer (2)
55. Answer (3)
56. Answer (4)
Weight of H2 =
6  1023  2
Weight of NH3 =
6  1023
2g
22.4
 17  17 g
22.4
1 amu = 1.66 10–24 g
57. Answer (1)
58. Answer (3)
For 3s
n = 3, l = 0
Number of radial nodes = n – l – 1
=3–0–1
=2
For 3d
n = 3, l = 2
Number of radial nodes = n – l – 1
=3–2–1=0
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59. Answer (1)
l=3
Orbital angular momentum =
l (l  1)  3(3  1)  12 60. Answer (4)
h

2.(KE)  m
61. Answer (4)
z
y
x
dz2
62. Answer (4)
T  n3 ,  
1
n3
63. Answer (2)
For H - atom
∵

⎡ 1
1 ⎤
 RZ2 ⎢ 2  2 ⎥
 ⎥⎦
⎢⎣ n1
1
 short
1

 short
⇒R
R  (1)2  1
1
  short 
1
R
1

For He ion
⎡ 1
1
1 ⎤
45 R5
 R  (2)2 ⎢ 2  2 ⎥  R 

36
9
long
(3) ⎦
⎣ (2)
 long 
9
5
64. Answer (1)
65. Answer (2)
For 2 s,
n = 2, l = 0
Number of radial node = n – l – 1 = 2 – 0 –1 = 1
66. Answer (2)
n
2
n = number of unpaired electron
Total spin = 
Fe3 : 3d5 4s0
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.
4s
5
3d
n=5
 total spin  
5
2
67. Answer (1)
68. Answer (4)
69. Answer (1)
70. Answer (1)
71. Answer (1)
For isoelectronic species
r 
1
Atomic number
72. Answer (2)
73. Answer (4)
74. Answer (3)
75. Answer (4)
:
S
SO2 ⇒
0
O
Bent shape
76. Answer (3)
S8 having 16 lone pairs
77. Answer (2)
78. Answer (4)
79. Answer (4)
80. Answer (1)
Bond order 
1
Bond length
81. Answer (2)
Non-planar
82. Answer (1)
83. Answer (4)
C N
C N
84. Answer (1)
85. Answer (4)
86. Answer (2)
Order of negative electron gain enthalpy
Cl > F > S > O
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Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]
All India Aakash Test Series-2016
87. Answer (2)
It has ‘d’ orbital
88. Answer (2)
89. Answer (3)
O
N=O
O
BO = 4 = 1.33
3
(Number of resonating structure = 3)
90. Answer (1)
F
O
Xe
O
F
3
sp d
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (1)
Herbarium is a collection of dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens.
92. Answer (1)
Reproduction is not a defining feature of all life forms.
93. Answer (3)
Insect – Class
94. Answer (4)
Genus with more than one species is called polytypic genus.
95. Answer (1)
96. Answer (3)
For plants – division.
97. Answer (3)
Class is a group of closely related orders.
98. Answer (2)
99. Answer (3)
Self consciousness in humans.
100. Answer (3)
101. Answer (1)
Puffball, stink horn and oyster mushroom all belong to basidiomycetes.
102. Answer (1)
Puccinia as it is a basidiomycetes fungus.
103. Answer (3)
Gill fungi is a basidiomycetes fungus which does not produce conidia.
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104. Answer (3)
Fruiting body is developed in Aspergillus.
105. Answer (2)
Mycelium is septate and branched.
106. Answer (4)
Rhizopus is bread mold.
107. Answer (3)
White rust fungus is Albugo.
108. Answer (3)
Aeciospore, uredospore and teleutospores are dikaryotic.
109. Answer (3)
Morels, truffles and common field mushroom.
110. Answer (1)
Toadstools, bracket fungus belong to basidiomycetes and Morels belong to ascomycetes.
111. Answer (1)
In Amoeba & Paramoecium, cell wall is absent.
112. Answer (3)
113. Answer (2)
Four kingdom classification.
114. Answer (4)
Lichens are slow growing, pioneer species in lithosere, cannot tolerate air pollution.
115. Answer (3)
Nitrogen fixation by phycobiont
116. Answer (2)
PSTD is ssRNA, has no capsid and infectious to plants only.
117. Answer (3)
118. Answer (1)
Viruses are obligate parasites.
119. Answer (1)
Influenza virus ssRNA
120. Answer (2)
Mumps is a viral disease.
121. Answer (2)
Chemosynthetic eubacteria : (i) lack histones (ii) not abundant (iii) oxidise inorganic substance.
122. Answer (3)
Oxygenic photosynthesis.
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
123. Answer (1)
Methanogens
124. Answer (4)
Ray fungi are non-motile eubacteria.
125. Answer (2)
Micrococcus candidans is used for tea leaves.
126. Answer (4)
Mycoplasma are walled, insensitive to penicillin and facultative anaerobes.
127. Answer (1)
128. Answer (1)
70S ribosomes
129. Answer (1)
Calcium dipicolinate
130. Answer (4)
BGA is used for reclaiming usar soils.
131. Answer (4)
Chlorophyll-a & b and carotenoids.
132. Answer (1)
In dinoflagellates
133. Answer (2)
Diatoms
134. Answer (2)
Somatic stage is multinucleate, naked and diploid.
135. Answer (4)
Amoeba is holozoic protists.
136. Answer (4)
Torsion is shown by members of gastropod mollusc.
137. Answer (3)
Ascaris (roundworm) is unsegmented animal.
138. Answer (2)
Obelia (sea fur) is a coelenterata (diploblastic). Rest are triploblastic animals.
139. Answer (2)
Radial symmetry is advantageous for sessile animals, as it allows food to be gathered from all sides.
140. Answer (4)
Archeocytes and interstitial cells are totipotent cells.
141. Answer (1)
Euplectella symbolises the idea “till death us do part”.
142. Answer (2)
Aurelia (Jelly fish) do not show metagenesis (alternation of generation) as medusa phase is dominant in it.
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Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]
143. Answer (3)
The given features belong to a hemichordate.
144. Answer (3)
Females are longer than males in aschelminthes.
145. Answer (2)
Hydra is freshwater animal. Development is direct and exogenous (external) budding takes place.
146 Answer (4)
Sea pen, sea fan and jelly fish are coelenterates
Sea star, star fish, brittle star are echinoderms
Silver fish is an arthropod
Sea hare, sea lemon and sea butterfly are molluscs
147. Answer (2)
148. Answer (3)
Piercing and sucking type of mouth parts are found in mosquitoes and bed bugs.
149. Answer (4)
Setae are S-shaped chitinous structures present in earthworms.
150. Answer (1)
In Schistosoma (Blood fluke) redia and metacercaria stages are absent. Cercaria leaves the body of snail and
attacks man.
151. Answer (3)
152. Answer (4)
Intermediate host of Wuchereria is female Culex and of Taenia saginata is cattle. Dracunculus (guinea worm)
causes blisters on skin.
153. Answer (4)
Brittle star shows, external fertilization with indirect development involving ophiopluteus larva.
154. Answer (3)
Development is direct in leech.
155. Answer (2)
Digestion in sponges is intracellular.
156. Answer (2)
Ophiura (Brittle star) has blind sac body plan. Starfish and sea urchin possess anus. Heart, brain and excretory
system is absent in all of them.
157. Answer (3)
158. Answer (4)
In millipede and honeybee body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen. They respire through tracheal system
and excretory organ is malpighian tubules.
159. Answer (3)
Lizards have symmetrical lungs.
160. Answer (4)
Cloacal respiration is present in chelones
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All India Aakash Test Series-2016
161. Answer (3)
Ampulla of lorenzini is thermoreceptor.
162. Answer (3)
Larva is motile, adult is sessile.
163. Answer (4)
Petromyzon (lamprey) and Myxine (hag fish) are cyclostomates.
164. Answer (4)
165. Answer (1)
Pipa (Surinam toad)
Icthyophis (Limbless amphibian)
Hippocampus (Sea horse)
Alytes (Mid wife toad)
166. Answer (3)
Body of frog is divided into head and trunk. Adults do not respire through gills. Male frog does not possess
copulatory organ.
167. Answer (1)
Horned toad is a lizard (Phrynosoma).
168. Answer (3)
Fishes and amphibians are anamniotes.
169. Answer (4)
Limbs are absent in snakes.
170. Answer (2)
Rhacophorus–Flying frog.
171. Answer (4)
172. Answer (1)
The given animal is Catla and it belongs to osteichthyes class.
173. Answer (3)
Scrotum is in front of penis.
174. Answer (1)
175. Answer (4)
Uromastix (spiny tailed lizard) possess limbs.
176. Answer (2)
Crop secretes milk in both male and female bird during breeding season.
177. Answer (2)
Quill feathers on wings are called remiges.
178. Answer (2)
In shark gill slits are lateral but in ray gill slits are ventral.
179. Answer (2)
180. Answer (1)
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