TM
PAPER CODE
CAREER INSTITUTE
Path to Success KOTA (RAJASTHAN)
0 1 DM 3 1 4 0 1 0
FORM NUMBER
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)
LEADER TEST SERIES COURSE
TARGET : MH-CET 2015
DATE : 26 - 04 - 2015
Test Pattern : MH-CET
TEST # 10
Test Type : MAJOR
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS
INSTRUCTIONS
Duration : 3:00 hours
Total Marks : 200
1.
This question booklet contains 200 MCQs in the subjects of Physics (50), Chemistry (50) and Biology (100).
2.
The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the examination.
3.
Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4.
Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct entries on
the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be
taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill accurately. The correctness of entries has to be
cross-checked by the invigilators. Paper code and Form No.
5.
Read each question carefully.
6.
Select the correct answer from the four available options given for each question.
7.
Mark the appropriate circle completely like this
8.
Each MCQ will have four options with single best response type. Correct response shall be awarded one (1) mark. There shall be
no negative marking.
9.
Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
, for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball point pen only.
10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.
11. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the
Answer Sheet.
12. The required Log-Antilog table will be provided along with the Question Booklet.
13. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet is to be returned to the Invigilator.
14. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.
15. No marks will be deducted if a particular question is not attempted.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in MH-CET 2015
Leader Test Series Course/MH-CET/26-04-2015
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BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1.
2.
Hydrogen atoms in ground state are excited
by monochromatic radiation of wavelength
975 Å. The total number of lines in the resulting
spectrum will be
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 10
A particle moves such that its acceleration a is
given by a = –bx, where x is the displacement
from equilibrium position and b is a positive
constant. The period of oscillation is
5.
6.
(1) 2 b
(2) 2 / b
(3) 2 / b
(4) 2 (  / b)
3.
7.
A planet moves around the sun. At a point P, it
is closest from the sun at a distance d1 and has
a speed v 1 . At another point Q, when it is
farthest from the sun at a distance d2, its speed
will be
(1) d12 v1 / d 22
(2) d 2 v1 / d1
(3) d1 v1 / d 2
(4) d 22 v1 / d12
4.
A 1 kW transmitter works at a frequency of
880 kHz. The number of photons emitted per
second is
(1) 1.7 × 1028
(2) 1.7 × 1030
23
(3) 1.7 × 10
(4) 1.7 × 1025
8.
In Young's double slit experiment if two
slightly different wavelengths are present in the
light used then
(1) the sharpness of fringes will increase every
where (compared to the case when
monochromatic light is used )
(2) there will be no fringes at all
(3) the sharpness of fringes will decrease as
we move away from central fringe.
(4) the central fringe will be white.
Torque acting on a wheel of moment of inertia
200 kg–m2 is 1000 Nm. Its angular velocity
after 3 second will be(1) 10 rad/s
(2) 5 rad/s
(3) 15 rad/s
(4) 25 rad/s
The temperature of a black body is increased
by 50%. The rate of radiations emitted by the
body increase nearly by
(1) 50% (2) 100%
(3) 225% (4) 400%
If two soap bubbles of different radii are in
communication with each other
(1) air flows from the larger bubble into the
smaller one until the two bubbles are of
equal size
(2) the sizes of the bubbles remain unchanged
(3) air flows from the smaller bubble into the
larger one and larger bubble grows at the
expense of the smaller one
(4) air flows from the larger into the smaller
bubble until the radius of the smaller one
becomes equal to that of the larger one and
of the large one equal to that of the smaller one.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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9.
10.
Two gases are at absolute temperatures 300K
and 350K respectively. The ratio of average
kinetic energy of their molecules is
(1) 7 : 6
(2) 6 : 7
(3) 36 : 49
(4) 49 : 36
The current in a coil changes from 0 to 2 A in
0.05 s. If the induced emf is 80 V, the
self-inductance of the coil is
(1) 1 H
(2) 0.5 H
(3) 1.5 H
(4) 2 H
14.
15.
The equivalent capacity
11.
12.
13.
between the points A and B in the following
figure will be
(1) 9 µF
(2) 1 µF
(3) 4.5 µF
(4) 6 µF
Two simple pendulums have time period 2s
and 2.5 s. At what time they will be in same
phase if oscillated simultaneously
(1) 5s
(2) 10s
(3) 15s
(4) None of these
Two loudspeakers L 1 and L 2 driven by a
common oscillator and amplifier are set up as
shown in the figure. As the frequency of the
oscillator increases from zero, the detector at
D recorded a series of maximum and minimum
signals. What is the frequency at which the first
maximum is observed ?
(Speed of sound = 330 m/s ).
(1) 165 Hz
(3) 495 Hz
LTS-2/27
16.
17.
A planet is revolving around a sun under the
effect of gravitation then which of the
following quantities will be conserved :(1) Total mechanical energy and linear
momentum
(2) Total mechanical energy and angular
momentum
(3) Total mechanical energy, linear momentum
and angular momentum
(4) Only total mechanical energy
Figure shows current in a part of electrical
circuit, then current i is
(1) 1.7 A
(2) 3.7 A
(3) 1.3 A
(4) 1 A
To get maximum current in a resistance of 3
ohms, one can use n rows of m cells ( connected
in series) connected in parallel. If the total
number of cells is 24 and the internal resistance
of a cell is 0.5 ohms then
(1) m = 12, n = 2
(2) m = 8, n = 3
(3) m = 2, n =12
(4) m = 6, n = 4
The electric potential V at any point x, y, z ( all
in metres ) in space is given by V = 4x2 volt.
The electric field at the point ( 1 m, 0, 2 m ) in
volt/metre is
(1) 8 along negative x-axis
(2) 8 along positive x-axis
(3) 16 along negative x-axis
(4) 16 along positive z-axis
(2) 330 Hz
(4) 660 Hz
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18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
A bubble of radius R having surface tension 
is made by a soap solution. What is the
pressure difference between its outer and inner
surface :(1)
4
R
(2)
2
R
(3)

4R
(4)

2R
24.
Electrial potential along a line varies as
V(x) = x. Where  is a constant. What is the
electrical field along the line at x = 2m.
(1) –
(2) +
(3) –2 (4) +2
A circular loop of radius r is placed in a region
where magnetic field increases with time as
B(t) = at then what will be emf induced in coil
with direction and magnitude :(1) r2a, clockwise
(2) 3r2a, counter clockwise
(3) 2r2a, clockwise
(4) 2r2a, counter clockwise
The mutual inductance between a pair of coils
each of N turns is M. If a current i in the first
coil is brought to zero in a time t, then average
e.m.f. induced in the second coil is
(1) Mi / t
(2) NMt / i
(3) Mt / iN
(4) it / MN
When the radioactive isotope
88
83 X
(3)
84
01DM314010
224
X 220
25.
26.
One way communication is called
(1) half duplex
(2) full duplex
(3) mono communication
(4) simplex
In common base mode transistor amplifier, the
current gain is
(1) 50
(2) 10
(3) 1
(4) less than one
The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in
the first Bohr orbit is
(1) equal to the circumference of the first orbit
(2) 1/2 the circumference of the first orbit
(3) 1/4 of the same
(4) 3/4 of same
Which circuit represents a NAND gate
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ra 236 decays
in a series by emission of three alpha particles
and a beta particle, the isotope X which remains
is
(1)
23.
Two waves originating from source S1 and S2
having zero phase difference and common
wavelength  will show completely destructive
interference at a point P if (S1P - S2P) is
(2) 84 X 218
(1) 5
(2) 3 / 4
223
(4) 87 X
(3) 2
(4) 11  / 2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
27.
LTS-3/27
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/MH-CET/26-04-2015
28.
In series LR circuit XL = 3R. Now a capacitor
32.
with XC = R is added in series. Ratio of new to
old power factor is
(1) 1
(3)
29.
(2) 2
1
2
(4)
Two particles each of same mass move along
a circular path about their common centre of
mass under the action of mutual gravitational
force. If the radius of their circular path is R,
then what is their linear speed ?
(1)
2
GM / R
1  GM 
(2) 2  R 


Two waves are represented by the following
equations
y1  5 sin 2 (10t  0.1x)
1  GM 
(3) 4  R 


y2  10 sin 2 ( 20t  0.2 x )
Ratio of intensities I 2 / I1 will be
(1) 1
30.
31.
(2) 2
(4)
(3) 4
(4) 16
The first diffraction minima due to a single slit
diffraction is at  = 30° for a light of wavelength
5000 Å. The width of the slit is
(1) 5 × 10–4 cm
(2) 1.0 × 10–4 cm
(3) 2.5 × 10–4 cm
(4) 1.25 × 10–4 cm.
If an alternating current i = imsin t is flowing
through an inductor then voltage drop V L
across inductor L will be :(1) Lim sin t
(2) Lim cos t
33.
34.
1  GM 


16  R 
Two stretched wires have frequencies in unison.
If the tension in one of the wires is increased
by 1 %, 3 beats are produced in 2s. The initial
frequency of each wire is nearly
(1) 150 Hz (2) 200 Hz
(3) 300 Hz (4) 450 Hz
A solid sphere rolls down without slipping an
inclined plane and its velocity at the bottom is
v 1 . The same sphere slides down another
similar inclined plane (without friction) and its
velocity at the bottom is v 2 Which of the
following relations is correct?
(3) Lim


sin  t  

4
(1) v1  v2
(4) Lim


cos  t  

4
(3) v1 
(2) v1 
7
v2
5
5
v2
7
(4) none of these
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35.
Two point charges +4q and +q are placed at a
distance L apart. A third charge Q is so placed
that all the three charges are in equilibrium.
Then location and magnitude of third charge
will be
(1) At a distance
L
4q
from +4q charge,
3
9
(2) At a distance
L
4q
from +4q charge, 
3
9
(3) At a distance
39.
40.
L
4q
from +q charge, 
3
9
L
q
from +q charge, –
6
9
Two particles P and Q are in motion under
gravity. Then :
(1) their relative acceleration is constant but
not zero
(2) their relative velocity is always zero
(3) their centre of mass has constant velocity
(4) their cen tre of mass has constant
acceleration.
In a series L–R growth circuit, if maximum
current and maximum induced emf in an
inductor of inductance 3mH are 2A and 6V
respectively, then the time constant of the
circuit is :
(1) 1ms
(2) 1/3 ms
(3) 1/6 ms
(4) 1/2 ms
With a potentiometer null points were obtained
at 140 cm and 180 cm with cells of e.m.f.
1.1 V and one of unknown value respectively.
The unknown e.m.f. is
(1) 1.1 V (2) 1.8 V (3) 1.4 V (4) 1.41 V
(4) At a distance
36.
37.
38.
41.
42.
Which of the following material has zero
magnetic moment of single atom :(1) Paramagnetic
(2) Ferromagnetic
(3) Diamagnetic
(4) All
A solid cube and a solid sphere made from
same material have equal surface area. Both
are at the same temperature of 120°C, Then
(1) both of them will cool down at the same rate
(2) the sphere will cool down faster then the cube
(3) the cube will cool down faster than the sphere
(4) whichever of the two is heavier will cool
down faster
The potential energy associated with a particle
is given by U = 20 + (x - 2)2, where x is position
of the particle. Then
(1) The corresponding force can produce an
oscillatory motion but not SHM.
(2) The corresponding force will produce an
SHM of frequency 2 Hz.
(3) The corresponding force will produce an
SHM about the mean position x = 2
(4) The corresponding force will produce an
SHM about the mean position x = 0
The rectangular surface of area 8 cm  4 cm of
a black body at a temperature of 127°C emits
energy at the rate of E per second. If the length
and breadth of the surface area each are reduced
to half of the initial value and the temperature
is raised to 327°C, the rate of emission of
energy will become
(1) (3/8)E
(2) (9/16)E
(3) (81/16)E
(4) (81/64)E
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43.
44.
45.
46.
In order to increase the capacity of a parallel
plate condenser, one should introduce between
plates of the condenser, a sheet of
(1) mica
(2) tin
(3) copper
(4) stainless steel
A photon of 12.8 eV energy collides with a
hydrogen atom in ground state elastically. Then
what can be detected by a suitable detector.
(1) one photon of 10.2 eV and an electron of
energy 1.4 eV
(2) 2 photons of energy 10.2 eV
(3) 2 photons of energy 3.4 eV
(4) No photons will be emitted
A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning
fork forming standing waves with five
antinodes between the two bridges when a mass
of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. When this
mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire
resonates with the same tuning fork forming
three antinodes for the same positions of the
bridges. The value of M is
(1) 25 kg
(2) 5 kg
(3) 12.5 kg
(4) 1/25 kg
Two resistors of 10  and 20  and an ideal
inductor of 10 H are connected to a 2 V battery
as shown. The switch S is put on at time t = 0.
The initial (at t = 0) and final (at t = ) currents
through the battery are
47.
48.
(1)
1
1
A; A
15 10
(2)
1
1
A; A
10 15
(3)
2
1
A; A
25 10
(4)
1
2
A; A
15 25
According to Bohr Model for Hydrozen,
energy is proportional to :
2
2
(1) –Z /n
(2) – n/Z
2 2
2
(3) –Z /n
(4) –n /Z
In the network shown in figure, each resistance
is 1 . The effective resistance between A and
B is
(1)
49.
50.
4

3
(2)
3

2
(3) 7 W
(4)
8

7
The rate of flow of a liquid through a capillary
tube of radius is r is V when the pressure
difference is P. If the radius is reduced to r/2
and the pressure increases to 2P, then the rate
of flow becomes
(1) V
(2) V / 2
(3) V / 4
(4) V /8
A longitudinal wave can be
(1) plane polarized
(2) partially polarized
(3) never be polarized
(4) totally polarized
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51.
52.
53.
1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte
X3 Y 2 is 25% ionised. The boiling point of
the solution :
(Given Kb for H2 O = 0.52 K kg mol–1 )
(1) 375.5 K
(2) 374.04 K
(3) 377.12 K
(4) 373.25K
XeF 6 + H2 O product is :(2) XeO3
(1) XeF 2
(3) XeOF 3
(4) XeF 4
55.
57.
B
The rate constant for the reaction A 
is 2 × 10–4 lt mol–1 min–1 . The concentration
of A at wh ich rate of the reaction is
2 × 10–6 mol lt–1 sec–1 is
1 5
M
20 3
(3) 0.1 M
(4) 0.2 M
Consider the following statement :
(i) IUPAC name of K 2 [OsCl 5 N] potassium
pentachloronitridoosmate (VI)
(ii) [ C r ( H 2 O ) 6 ] [ F e( C N ) 6 ] c o n t ai n f o u r
unpaired electrons
(iii) n u m b e r o f i s o m e r p o s s i b l e f o r
K2 [PtCl(Br)2 (SCN)] is six
(iv) [Ni(H2 O) 6 ]2+ has six electrons in t2g and
2 electrons in eg orbital.
Give initial ‘T’ for true statement and ‘F’ for
false statement :
(1) TTFT
(2) FTFT
(3) TTFF
(4) FFTT
For the half cell
OH
O
_
+
+2H + 2e (E = 1.30 V)
(1) 0.25 M
54.
56.
(2)
58.
59.
60.
In an exothermic reaction A  B, the activation
energy is 100 KJ/mol. The enthalpy of the
reaction is –140 kJ/mol. The activation energy
of reverse reaction, (B  A) is?
(1) 40 kJ / mol
(2) 340 kJ/mol
(3) 240 kJ/mol
(4) 100 kJ/mol
Which is incorrectly matched for refining of
elements?
(1) Si, Ge from impurities  zone refining
method
(2) Sn refined from SnO2  Poling method
(3) Zn, Cd from impurities with higher boiling
point  liquation
(4) Al from impurities Cu, Fe etc.  hoop
method
If the boiling point of aqueous solution is
100.1ºC, what is its freezing point? Given latent
heat of fusion and vaporization of water
80 cal g-1 and 540 cal g–1 respectively.
(1) 0.362ºC
(2) –0.362ºC
(3) –3.62ºC
(4) 3.62ºC
Consider the structure of CsCl (8:8
coordination). How many Cs+ ions occupy the
second-nearest neighbour locations of a Cs+
ion?
(1) 8
(2) 24
(3) 6
(4)16
Micelles form only
(1) below the CMC and below the kraft
temperature (KT)
(2) above the CMC and below the KT
(3) above the CMC and above the KT
(4) below the CMC and above the KT
Which of the following compounds of 0.1N
concentration has smallest   (equivalent
conductivity)?
(1) NaCl
(2) NiSO4 (3) CaCl2 (4) Na2SO4
61.
O
OH
At pH = 2, the electrode potential is
(1) 1.36 V
(2) 1.30 V
(3) 1.42 V
(4) 1.20 V
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Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/MH-CET/26-04-2015
62.
For a reaction I + OCl 
 IO + Cl, in an
aqueous medium, the rate of the reaction is
given by
63.
64.
65.
66.
d[IO ]
[I ][OCl ]
.The overall
k
dt
[OH ]
order of the reaction is
(1) –1
(2) 1
(3) zero
(4) 2
N2O5 reacts with iodine to produce
(2) I2O3
(1) I2O6
(3) I2O5
(4) I2O5+N2 O
If 200 ml of 0.1 M urea solution is mixed with
300 ml of 0.2 M glucose solution at 300 K, the
osmotic pressure () of resulting solution will
be:
(1) 1.97 atm
(2) 3.94 atm
(3) 7.88 atm
(4) 2.97 atm
Which of the following complex is most stable
complex.
(2) [Co(NH3)2 (en)2 ]3+
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(3) [Co(NH3)4 (en)]3+ (4) [Co (en)3]3+
Which of the following is correct relationship
for Ist order (where   total time reaction)
n  number of half lines
N  remaining moles
No  initial moles.
(1) T = n × t1/2
1
(2) N0 = N  
2
(3) K 
(4) t 
67.
68.
69.
2.303  a  n 
log 

K
 a 
Q
In a multistep reaction such as A + B 

 C. The potential energy diagram shown
below.
25
20
Energy
(K cal/mol) 15
10
C
Q
5
A+B
Which statement is true (1) Reaction A + B 
 Q is faster
n
0.963
t1/ 2
The thermal stability of the hydrides of group
15 follows the order :
(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
(2) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(3) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(4) AsH3 < PH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 > NH3
Pair of compounds which is planar : (1) [Ni(CN)4 ]2- , [Pt(Cl)4 ]2(2) [Ni(Cl)4 ]2- , [Ni(CN)4 ]2(3) [Ni(CN)4 ]2- , [Rh(CO)2 (PPh3 )2 ] +
(4) [Pt(Cl)4 ]2-, [Ni(CO)4 ]
70.
71.
 C is faster
(2) Reaction Q 
(3) Rate of reaction in (1) and (2) are equal
(4) Data insufficient
Which d-orbital of metal in [Fe(CO) 5 ] is
involved in hybridisation ?
(1) dZ 2
(2) dxy
(3) dyz
(4) dzx
During extraction of iron, which of the
following acts as a flux.
(1) Silica
(2) Calcium Sulphate
(3) lime stone
(4) Coke
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01DM314010
Leader Test Series Course/MH-CET/26-04-2015
72.
Heptene decomposes according to following
80.

73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
 2C2H4 + C3H6
reaction: C7H14 
rate constant was found to be 2 × 10-4 sec-1. In
what time, molar ratio of heptene to ethene in
the reaction mixture will attain the value 1.
[log2 = 0.3010 log3 = 0.4771]
(1) 68 min
(2) 33.7 min
(3) 1736 min
(4) 4055 min
Which of the following complexes is example
of strongest reducing reagent.
(2) [Co(CN)6 ]3(1) [Co(CN)6 ]4(3) [Ag (CN)2]-1
(4) [Cu(CN)4 ]3During extraction of Aluminium from bauxite
ore, the impurities of Fe2O3 are removed by
boiling the ore with:
(1) liquid NH3
(2) Aqueous NaOH
(3) conc H2 SO4
(4) conc. HNO3
For a reaction, Ea = 0 and k = 3.2 × 104 s–1 at
300 K. The value of k at 310 K would be
(2) 3.2 × 108 s–1
(1) 6.4 × 104 s–1
(3) 3.2 × 104 s–1
(4) 3.2 × 105 s–1
Silver chloride fuses with sodium carbonate to
produce
(1) Ag2CO3 (2) Ag2 O (3) AgOH (4) Ag
In an NaCl structure.
(1) 4 corners are shared
(2) 6 corners and 2 edges are shared
(3) 3 edges are shared
(4) 12 edges are shared
The number of S-S bonds in the cyclic trimer
of SO3 is
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0
Which of the following hydrogen halides has
high delectric constant and low viscosity?
(1) HCl
(2) HBr (3) HI
(4) HF
81.
82.
ClO2 reacts with O3 to give
(1) Cl2O4
(2) Cl2 O (3) Cl2O6 (4) Cl2O7
Which of the following does not sublime on
heating?
(1) NH4Cl (2) As2O3 (3) HgCl2 (4) Sb2S3
The final product of the given reaction
sequence is:
NO 2
(NH4)2 S
NaNO2
+HCl
NO2
H2O, Cu2O
(0-5ºC)
OH
OH
(1)
(2)
NO2
NO2
OH
OH
(3)
(4)
OH
83.
NH2
Compound 'X' give following reactions?
Na Metal
2, 4 DNP
C6H8O2
(X)
O3
H2 gas
Yellow orange ppt
B (C6H 8O4)
Its structure can be
OH
OH
(1)
(2)
O
CHO
O
(3)
OH
O
OH
(4) H
O
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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84.
Periodic acid splits glucose and fructose into
formic acid and formaldehyde. Ratio of formic
acid to formaldehyde for glucose and fructose is
respectively.
(1) 5/1 and 4/2
(2) 5/1 and 3/2
(3) 4/2 and 4/2
(4) 3/2 and 4/2
O
HO
(1)
(1) Zn / H+
(3) Na
product:
(2)
Cl
90.
HO
OH
OH
(3)
(4)
HO
Cl
86.
Br
89.
Zn-Hg
HCl
85.
(i) CH3MgBr
(X)
(ii) H3O +
In the given reaction Br
can be brought about using
88.
/OH
Toluene 1.2. HKMnO
+
4
_
SOCl2
NH3
OBr
_
(X),
(X) is (1) C6 H5 CONH 2
(2) p-CH3 C6H4 NO2
(3) C6H5 CH2 NH2
(4) C6 H5NH2
Lactose is composed of :(1) -D-glucose + -D-glucose
(2) -D-glucose + -D-galactose
(3) -D-glucose + -D-galactose
(4) -D-glucose + -D-galactose
O
(P) ; P will be
91.
O
(2) CuI
(4) (CH3)2 CuLi
X will be
O
(1) Br
OMgBr
O
(4)
O
O
+ _
Na C  C - CH3
H2, Pd - BaSO4
X
+
quinoline
H /H O
87.
(3)
Identify structure of Y.
(3)
OH
Br
92.
OH
H (2)
C=C
H
CH3
(4)
(4)
Y
2
(1)
(2)
(1)
O
(3)
O
OH
(2)
OH
CH3
C=C
H
H
+ Mg
ether
(1)
(2) Br
(3) F
(4)
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93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
Which pair of compounds give Tollen's test?
(1) Glucose and fructose
(2) Sucrose and glucose
(3) Hexanal and acetophenone
(4) Fructose and sucrose
The repeating units of PTFE are
(2) CF3 – CF3
(1) CH  CH
(3) CH2 = CH – CN
(4) CF2 = CF2
Anthracene can be purified by
(1) sublimation
(2) crystallization
(3) distillation
(4) filtration
Which of the following hydrolyses the fastest?
(2) CH3CH2Cl
(1) CH3Cl
(3) CH3OCH2Cl
(4) (CH3 )2CHCl
The enol form of acetone, after treatment with
D2 O gives
(1) CH3 - C = CH2
(2) CD3 - C - CD3
OD
(4) CD2 = C - CD3
OD
OH
Which of the following is not correctly
matched
(1)
R
R
Zn-Hg/HCl R
C=O
R
(2) R
Cl
C=O
(3) R
R
C=O
(4) R - CN
99.
CH3 - CH2 - COOH
KOH
(1 equivalent)
H2/Pd/BaSO4 R
H
NH2-NH 2/KOH
(ii) H+
X
(1) CH3 - CH - CH2 - OH
O - C - CH2 - CH3
O
O
(2) CH3 - CH - CH2 - O - C - CH2 - CH3
OH
(3) CH3 - CH2 - CH - O - C - CH2 - CH3
OH
O
OK
(4) CH3 - CH2 - CH - O - C - CH2 - CH3
O
100. An optically active compo und X has
molecular formula C4 H8 O3 . It evolves CO2
with aq. NaHCO3 . X reacts with LiAlH4 to
give achiral compound. Structure of X is
(1) CH3 - CH2 - CH - COOH
OH
CH2
(2) CH3 - CH - COOH
C=O
RCH2 NH2
OH
(3) CH3 - CH - COOH
R
R
Sn/HCl
(i) CH3 - CH - CH2
so X is :
O
(3) CH2 = C - CH2D
98.
O
CH - OH
CH2OH
(4) CH3 - CH - CH2COOH
OH
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101. Mother is having blood group AB, father has
blood group B. Which of the following blood
group of the progeny will prove that father is
heterozygous ?
(1) Blood group A
(2) Blood group O
(3) Blood group B
(4) Blood group AB
102. Cumulative effect of genes is observed in
(1) crossing of red kernel variety of wheat with
white kernel variety.
(2) blood group of human being.
(3) wing abnormality in Drosophila.
(4) crossing of red cattle with white cattle.
103. A pink coloured flowering Snapdragon plant
is crossed with red coloured flower-bearing
Snapdragon plant. Which of the following
cannot be obtained?
(1) All white colour flowered progeny.
(2) Red & Pink coloured flowers in 1 : 1 ratio.
(3) All progeny plants contain at least one
dominant allele.
(4) Homozygous : heterozygous in 50 : 50
ratio.
104. Which one of the following diagrams
CORRECTLY describes a nucleotide?
O
(3) O P O
5
CH2
O
4
H H
1
2
3
H
N-Base
O
H
OH H
O
(4) O P O
5
CH2
O
4
H H1
3
H
H
O
2
N-Base
OH H
105. _____ and solenoid fibres are the characteristic
of nucleus at interphase.
(1) Nucleosome
(2) NHC
(3) Core DNA
(4) Linker DNA
106. Ribosomes are composed of approximately
_______ % r-RNA & ______ % protein.
(1) 70 , 30
(2) 65, 35
(3) 35 , 65
(4) 30 , 70
107. Uridine, present only in RNA is a
(1) pyrimidine
(2) nucleoside
O
(3) nucleotide
(4) purine
(1) O P O 5 CH3
N-Base
108. Among the following, which step is observed
O
O
in the prophase of cell division?
4 H H 1
2
3
a. Nucleus shows the presence of nucleosome
H
H
OH H
and solenoid fibres.
b. Formation of 200 nm chromatin fibres and
O
then a chromatid of 700 nm is observed.
(2) O P O CH2
N-Base
5
c. Presence of a chromosome with single
O
O
1
chromatid.
4 H H
2
3
(1) a & b
(2) only b
H
H
OH H
(3) only c
(4) a & c
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109. Study the following diagrams regarding
transcription and identify the CORRECT one.
5’
(1)
Polyadenylation
5’
3’
3’
5
Capping
3’
5’ Gppp
5’ Gppp
5
3
3’
Cap
5’ Gppp
A
3
BºC
3’
5’ Gppp
C
5’
(2)
111. Fill in the blanks & choose the CORRECT option -
5
D ºC
5’
3’
3’
3
5
3
3’
Cap
5’ Gppp
Capping
3’
5’ Cppp
5’ Gppp
E
3’
5’ Gppp
(3)
0
FC
5’
5’
3’
3’
Capping
5’ Gppp
Cap
5’ Gppp
3’
3’
(4)
5’ Gppp
5’
5’
3’
3’
Capping
(1) E - Extension, D - 91oC, B - 55oC
(2) A - Denaturation, D - 55oC, E - Annealing
5’ Gppp
3’
3’
Cap
5’ Gppp
Polyadenylation
5’ Gppp
5’ Gppp
3’
3’
5’ Gppp
110. Fill in the blanks regarding post RNA synthesis
processes a. _____ is the process for addition of an
unusual nucleotide at 5' end of hnRNA.
b. _____ is the process of removal of introns
from RNA.
(1) Adenylation, Splicing
(2) Capping, Adenylation
(3) Splicing, Capping
(4) Capping, Splicing
(3) C - Annealing, A - Denaturation, F - 72oC
(4) C - Denaturation, B - 91oC, A - Annealing
112. Test tube 'A' contains viral DNA (ds) while test
tube 'B' contains bacterial plasmid. Restriction
endonuclease (Type II) was added to both the
test tubes and agarose gel electrophoresis was
performed. None of the samples showed
restriction fragment patterns.
What could be the possible explanation for this
observation ?
(1) Phosphodiester bonds are hydrolyzed.
(2) ATP was not added in the reaction mixture.
(3) Mg++ ions was not added in the reaction
mixture.
(4) Mn++ ions was not added in the reaction
mixture.
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113. Match the columns 116. Read the following statements and identify the
Column - I
Column - II
appropriate options related to these.
a. Cry
p. Provitamin A
(a) Completely sex linked genes do not inherit
b. Flavr Savr
q. Bacillus
together.
thuringiensis
(b) As per pea plant experiment, characters are
c. Beta carotene
r. Dicot plants
transmitted from one generation to next
d. Crown gall tumors s. Polygalactouronase
through particles known as 'Factors'
(1) a - q, b - s, c - r, d - p
(c) Trait is an interited character.
(2) a - q, b - s, c - p, d - r
(d) Pea naturally cross pollinates to produce
(3) a - s, b - p, c - q, d - r
fertile offsprings.
(4) a - s, b - r, c - p, d - q
(1) a & b correct, c & d are incorrect
114. Which of the following statement is true ?
(2) c is correct, b & d are incorrect
(1) Palindrome in DNA is the sequence of base
(3) a, d are incorrect, b & c are correct
pairs that reads the same on two strands
(4) a, b & d are incorrect
when orientation of reading is same.
117. By the process of _____, resistant varieties of
(2) ECoRI was the first exonuclease to be
Moong beans to ____, have been developed.
discovered.
(1) plant breeding, hill bunt
(3) M13 is a commonly used phytophage which is
(2) plant breeding, black rot
used as cloning vector.
(3) biofortification, leaf curl disease
(4) Virion assembly takes about 600 seconds
(4) mutation, powdery mildew
in lytic cycle.
115. Read the following statements & choose the
CORRECT option.
118.
(a) More than 100 different type II endonuclease
with 350 different recognition sequences
are known.
(b) Cosmids cannot accomodate long DNA
fragment and therefore plasmids are
constructed.
(c) Genomic library is the collection of all
In the above diagram, _____ hormone is
clones of DNA fragments that represent
required for caulogenesis.
complete genome of an organism.
(1) auxin
(1) All are incorrect
(2) cytokinin
(2) All are correct
(3) gibberalin
(3) ‘b’ & ‘c” are correct
(4) combination of auxin and cytokinin
(4) Only ‘c’ is correct
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119. High yielding wheat and rice varieties are
_______ & _______ respectively.
(1) A - Padma, B - Kanti
(2) B - Lerma Rojo 64 - A, A - Safed Lerma
(3) A - Sharbati Sonora, B - Jayanti
(4) B - Vijaya, A - Padma
120. Maize variety with ____, low nitrogen and
sugar content is not affected by _____.
(1) low aspartic acid, Bollworms
(2) low aspartic acid, maize stem borer
(3) high aspartic acid, Bollworms
(4) high aspartic acid, maize stem borer
121. The DNA present in chloroplast is ______,
naked ring and is called _____.
(1) open, plastidome
(2) closed, plastidome
(3) linear, Plasmid
(4) closed, plasmid
122. - CH3 group in chlorophyll - a is replaced with
______ group in chlorophyll - b.
(1) – OH
(2) – CO
(3) – COOH
(4) – CHO
123. Identify the CORRECT statement regarding
PAR.
(1) PAR ranges from 390 mm to 780 nm.
(2) Green light is absorbed, hence colour of
leaves is green.
(3) Action spectrum shows the highest peak in
red region.
(4) In red and blue region of light, little
absorption occurs
124. Identify the CORRECT feature regarding the
path of Carbon experiment of Dr. Melvin.
(1) Feeding of 14 CO2 to algae

Killing of algal cells by using hot methanol

Separation of intermediates by using paper
chromatography

Radioautography
(2) Feeding of 14 CO2 to algae

Separation of intermediates by using paper
chromatography

Killing of algalcells by using hot methanol

Radioautography
(3) Killing of algal cells by using hot methanol

Feeding of 14 CO2 to algae

Separation of intermediates by using paper
chromatography

Radioautography
(4) Feeding of 14 CO2 to algae

Killing of algal cells by using hot methanol

Radioautography

Separation of intermediates by using paper
chromatography
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125. Among the following reactions, which one 129. Study the following diagram :
A
requires Mn++?
B
(1) Isocitrate + NAD  Oxalo-succinate + NADH2
C
(2) Cis - aconitate + H2O  Isocitrate
D
(3) OAA + Acetyl CO - A + H2O  Citrate + Co- A
E
(4)  - Ketoglutrate + NAD + Co-A
 Succinyl Co -A + NADH2 + CO2
Identify the region which involves the
126. Through terminal oxidation, ____ is produced.
following features :
(a) Cells are larger in size
(1) NADH2
(2) 1 FADH2
(b) Containing dense cytoplasm
(3) 10 NADH2
(4) 3 FADH2
(c) Cells contain one or more diploid nuclei or
127. Which reaction among the following is
a polyploid nucleus
catalysed
by
Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(d) Contributes in the formation of sporopollenin
dehydrogenase?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(1) PEPA + ADP + H2O  Pyruvate + ATP
130. Identify the CORRECT statement from the
(2) PGAL + H3PO4 + NAD  1, 3 - di - PGA + NADH2
following (3) 1,3 - di PGA + ADP  3 - PGA + ATP
(1) Development of male gametophyte is
(4) Fructose - 6 phosphate  Fructose 1,
endosporic and involves only 2 mitotic division.
(2) Development of female gametophyte is
6 - diphosphate
endosporic and involves only 2 mitotic division.
128. Match the following (3) The smaller cell is known as vegetative cell.
Column - I
Column - II
(4) Pollen grain consists of an outer layer
a. Oxalis
p. Development of
known as sporoderm.
foliar buds
131. Study the following diagram b. Shishav
q. Tuberous roots
A
irregularly swollen,
B
tapering towards both
C
end
D
c. Begonia
r. Creeps on the ground
E
and become rooted at
the nodes.
F
d. Dahlia
s. Vegetative roots by
G
Choose the option with correct labellingnon fleshy roots
(1) A - Chalaza, B - Synergid , C - Micropyle
1. a -r,
b - p, c - s, d - q
(2) A - Chalaza, B - Nucellus , C - Integuments
2. a - q, b - s, c - p, d - r
(3) A - Integuments , B - Nucellus , C- Chalaza
3. a - r, b - p, c - s , d - q
(4) A - Nucellus , B - Integuments , C - Chalaza
4. a - s , b -r, c - q, d - p
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132. Identity the plant from the following features (a) Needle like pollen grain lacking exine
(b) Pollen grains when in contact with stigma,
coil around it and germinate
(1) Zea mays
(2) Ceratophylum
(3) Cotton
(4) Grass
133. Which plant shows large and stout flowers and
emit rotten fruits like fermenting fruity odour?
(1) Bougainvillea
(2) Bauhinia
(3) Butea
(4) Bombax
-2
134. If the dry weight (kgm ) of primary producers
is 809, primary consumer-37, secondary
consumer-11, tertiary consumer - 1.5, then
(1) it will form an upright pyramid.
( 2 ) producers are less in biomass than
herbivores, herbivores are more in biomass
than the carnivores.
(3) this is the pyramid of numbers.
(4) this is the pyramid of energy.
135. Identify the CORRECT sequence for the
degradation of ozone layer by discharge of
CFC.
(1) Discharge of CFC in upper part of
atmosphere  Reach stratosphere  UV
rays act on CFCs  Fluorine atoms released
 Fluorine acts as catalysts Degrade
ozone
(2) Discharge of CFC in lower part of
atmosphere  Reach stratosphere  UV
rays act on CFCs  Chlorine atoms released
 Chlorine acts as catalysts  Degrade ozone
(3) Discharge of CFC in lower part of
atmosphere  Reach stratosphere  UV
rays act on CFCs  Degrade ozone
( 4 ) Discharge of CFC in upper part of
atmosphere  Reach stratosphere  UV
rays act on CFCs  Chlorine and Fluorine
atom released  Fluorine acts as catalysts
 Degrade ozone
136. Find the CORRECT match (1) Micro-consumer - Actinomycetes
(2) Pyramid of energy - always inverted
(3) Carbon content in organism - 71% of dry weight
(4) Decomposition - Increase in low temperature.
137.
Plan
ts
CO2
Sugars
An
im a
Fossil fuels
ls
(1) a = Industry
(2) a = Decay
b = Respiration
b = Consumption
c = Consumption
c = Respiration
(3) a = Decay
(4) a = Decay
b = Industry
b = Respiration
c = Consumption
c = Consumption
138. Find the INCORRECT statement (1) Female with one recessive gene is called
carrier.
(2) Night blindness is more common in females.
(3) Myopia is a X-linked disorder.
(4) Holandric genes are located on nonhomologous region of Y chromosome.
139. Identify the CORRECT combination Half of the sons will
(1) XCY × XCXC have normal vision
All the offsprings will be
(2) XCXC × XCY colour blind
h
H H
(3) X Y × X X All offsprings will have
normal clotting of blood
All sons will have normal
(4) XHXh × XhY clotting of blood.
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140. Identify the CORRECT statement regarding
honey bee sex determination (1) Haplo-diploid sex determination system
(2) Unfertilized egg develops as female
(3) Drones have diploid numbers of chromosomes
(4) Queen have haploid number of chromosomes
141. Match the following Column - I
Column - II
a. Restriction
p. Electrophoresis
endonuclease
b. Formation of
q. RFLP
bands
c. Nitrocellulose
r. Genetic markers
paper
d. VNTRs
s. Southern blotting
(1) a - s, b - r, c - p, d - q
(2) a - q, b - p, c - r,
d-s
(3) a - r, b - p, c - q, d - s
(4) a - q, b - p, c - s,
d-r
142. In the given diagram, identify the region which
shows the presence of chromatids at one point.
144.
145.
146.
A
B
C
D
147.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
143. Find the CORRECT statement (1) DNA fragmentation is achieved by enzyme
exonuclease cut at specific locations.
(2) DNA amplification is done in vivo by PCR
( 3 ) In h yb rid izat ion , rem ai ni ng do ub le
stranded DNA fragments are washed off.
(4) Single stranded DNA gets embedded into
nylon membrane in southern blotting.
Find the INCORRECT statement (1) DNA fingerprinting is useful for study of
forensic and phylogeny only.
(2) In a population every person shows unusual
sequences of 20-100 base pairs.
(3) Genetic linkage maps determine markers on
the chromosomes.
(4) Physical maps specify distance between genes
or DNA with unknown functions.
Find the INCORRECTLY matched pair (1) Rosie - 2-4 gm protein/litre of milk
(2) -1, antitrypsin - Emphysema
(3) Toxoids - Highly toxic antigen
(4) Transgenic mice - Used for safety of polio
Find the INCORRECT statement (1) Non-parental gene combination is known
as recombination
(2) Red green colour blindness is due to incomplete
sex linkage.
(3) Hypertrichosis is related to holandric genes
(4) Sex-linked traits appear more frequently in
males than in females.
Haemophilic male can be obtained with 25%
frequency when (1) cross between carrier female and normal
male is made.
(2) haemophilic male mates with normal female
(3) cross between normal female and carrier
male is made.
(4) cross between carrier female with normal
vision males.
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148. Find the appropriate combination of the
following (1) Drone's sperm - Meiosis
(2) Haemophilia - Clotting factor VIII/X
(3) Arched palate - (2n+1)
(4) Thalassemia - Increased synthesis of either
 or  chain
149. What is thalassemia?
(1) A genetic disease represented by 2n + 1
chromosome number.
(2) A quantitative abnormality of a type of
polypeptide chain synthesis.
(3) A qualitative abnormality of a type of
polypeptide chain synthesis.
(4) It is represented by 44 + XO
150. Identify the CORRECT step and action for
vaccine production.
(1) Growing organisms in a growth medium
 Production of large amount of toxins 
Toxins become antigen  Immune system
recognises toxins  Produces antibodies
against toxins
(2) Growing organisms in a growth medium
Production of large amount of toxoids
Toxoids become antigen Immune
system recognises toxoids  Produces
antibodies against toxins
(3) Growing organisms in a growth medium
 Releasing of antigen  Immune system
recognises antigen  Produces antibodies
against toxins
(4) Growing organisms in a growth medium
 Production of large amount of toxins 
Alteration to produce non toxic toxoids 
Toxoids become antigen  Immune
system recognises toxoid  Produces
antibodies against toxins
151. Read the statement carefully a. Wine & beer produced with distillation and
whiskey is produced by fermentation and
then distillation.
b. Biogas production involves only acetogenesis
or acidogenesis.
c. A biological method for controlling plant
disease and pests is called biocontrol.
d. Biofertilizers are mostly nitrogen-fixing
microbes which enrich soil with nutrients.
Which one is the CORRECT options:
(1) a & d (2) b & c (3) a & b (4) c & d
152. a. Parasite inhabiting between the cells is
called ____.
b. Parasite living within the cells in the hosts body
is called ____.
c. Parasites steal food gathered by the host
is called _____.
d. A parasite in which the host species is
closely related to the parasite, often being
a member of the same family or genus
is called ____.
(1) a. intercellular parasitism
b. intracellular parasitism
c. kleptoparasitism
d. adelpho-parasitism
(2) a. intercellular parasitism
b. intracellular parasitism
c. adelpho-parasite
d. kleptoparasitism
(3) a. intracellular parasitism
b. intercellular parasitism
c. adelpho-parasite
d. klepto parasitism
(4) a. intracellular parasitism
b. intercellular parasitism
c. kleptoparasitism
d. adelpho-parasite
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153. Use of some microbes as biofertiliser to
enchance crop productivity is called
(1) organic farming
(2) marine farming
(3) micro farming
(4) compost farming
154. Which one is CORRECT combanation Column - I
Column - II
a. Long bushy tails,
p. Hominoidea
flat snouts, and
large eyes facing
more in front
than lateral side
b. Nocturnal, eyes
q. tarsiers
are large, directed
forward
c. Snout protruded,
r. Lemurs
teeth large, a simian
gap present in upper
jaw
(1) a - q, b - r, c - p
(2) a - r, b - q, c - p
(3) a - r, b - p, c - q
(4) a - p, b - r, c - q
155. Which one is CORRECT for the Hominoidea?
(1) Diastema present in upper jaw and lower
jaw between incisor and canines.
(2) Foramen magnum directed backward in
apes while in human it is directed downward.
(3) Lumbar curve is present in apes and human
beings.
(4) These are insectivorus, arboreal and nocturnal
primates found over the islands of east indies.
156. Match the following
Column-I
Column - II
a. Molecular
p. Palaeocene
evolution
b. Extinction of great
q. Archeozoic
mammals
c. Origin of egg-laying r. Pleistocene
mammals
d. Origin of life
s. Triassic
e. Rise of first primates t. Pliocene
(1) a - q, b - r, c - s, d - q, e - p
(2) a - q, b - r, c- s, d - t, e - p
(3) a - q, b - p, c - r, d - s, e - t
(4) a - q, b - p, c - s, d - r, e - t
157. Which one is an INCORRECT statement?
(1) Actual remains, are the most common type
of fossils and generally formed in the deep
oceans.
(2) An impression of the body part left on the
soft mud of the oceanic floor is called moulds.
(3) When the cavities of the mould get filled
with minerals, it hardens into stones and
form cast.
(4) Seymouria was the connecting link between
amphibian and reptiles while Ichthyostegia
is connecting link between Salamander and turtle.
158. Smokers who smoke a pack of cigarettes daily
may have blood HbCO levels of
(1) 4% or more
(2) 6% or more
(3)5% or more
(4) 4 to 6% or more
159. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, blockage of
the intestinal passage and anemia are some of
the symptoms caused due to infection by
(1) Ascaris
(2) Wuchereria
(3) Plasmodium
(4) Trichophyton
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160. The sporozoites that cause infection when a
female Anopheles mosquito bites a human
being are found in
(1) hepatocytes of human.
(2) salivary glands of mosquito.
(3) erythrocytes of human.
(4) salivary glands of infected mosquito.
161. Which one of the following statement is false?
(1) Killer - T - cell bind to infected cell as well
as normal cells and secrete perforins.
(2) Helper T-cell responsible for the proliferation
of other T-cells, stimulate B-lymphocyte,
attraction of macrophage and eosinophils.
(3) Langerhans cells of epidermis of skin are
an antigen presenting cell.
(4) During inflamation, inflamatory chemicals
dilate and make the blood capillaries more
permeable in the region of tissue injury.
162. Common cold differ from pneumonia in that?
(1) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while
common cold is caused by the bacteria.
(2) Pneumonia is a communicable disease while
common cold is a non-communicable
disease.
(3) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live
attenuated vaccine whereas the common
cold has also an effective vaccine.
(4) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas
the common cold affects nose and respiratory
passage but not the lungs.
163. Myasthenia gravis is (1) progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
mostly due to genetic disorder.
(2) rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in
body fluid.
164.
165.
166.
167.
(3) au t o - i m m u n e d i s o r d er af f ect i n g
neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
(4) age-related disorder characterized by
decreased bone mass and increased chances
of fracture.
Mark the incorrect statement with reference to
allergy?
(1) In it the antibodies produced are IgG type.
(2) It is due to the release of chemicals like
histamine from basophils and mast cells
(3) Use of drugs like adrenaline and steroids
quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.
(4) Eosinophils increases during allergic
condition.
The most common warning signs of drug and
alcohol abuse among youth include (a) drop in academic performance.
(b) unexplained absence from school/college.
(c) lack of interest in personal hygiene.
(d) social stigma.
Which one is CORRECT option?
(1) a, b & d
(2) b, c & d
(3) a, b & c
(4) a,b,c & d
Fertilization and development of Plasmodium
take place in
(1) stomach / intestine of female mosquito.
(2) stomach of man.
(3) liver of man.
(4) blood corpuscles of human.
Interferons is included in which type of innate
immunity barrier?
(1) Physical barrier
(2) Physiological barrier
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Inflammatory barrier
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168. Milk production in the mammary glands(1) is initiated during the birth process.
(2) occurs by the process of mitosis.
(3) starts at end of pregnancy
(4) is stimulated by a combination of hormones
including prolactin, hCG and hpL.
169. In animal husbandry, if two closely related
animals of same species are mated for a few
generations it results in loss of fertility and
vigour. This is due to (1) increased homozygosity.
(2) increased heterozygosity.
(3) increased inbreeding depression.
(4) out-crossing.
170. The most popularly known blood grouping is
the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not
ABC because "O" in it refers to having (1) no antigens A and B on RBCs.
(2) other antigens besides A and B on RBCs.
(3) overdominance of this type on the genes
for A and B type.
(4) one antibody only-either anti-A or Anti-B
on the RBCs.
171. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of
the tricuspid valve of the human heart. Heart
is partially nonfunctional, what will be the
immediate effect?
(1) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery
will be reduced.
(2) The flow of blood into the aorta will be
slowed down.
(3) The flow of blood into pulmonary vein will
be reduced.
(4) The blood will tend to flow back into the
left atrium.
172. Read the following statements (a-d) regarding
human blood circulatory system
a. Arteries are thick walled and have narrow
lumen as compared to veins.
b. Angina is acute chest pain when the blood
circulation to the brain is reduced.
c. Persons with blood group AB can donate
blood to any person with any blood group
under ABO system.
d. Calcium ion plays an very important role
in blood clotting.
Which statements are correct?
(1) a & d
(2) a & b
(3) b & c
(4) c & d
173. Which of the following is INCORRECT w.r.t.
human heart?
(1) It is mesodermally derived organ, situated
in the midedeastinal cavity, in between the
two lungs, slightly tilted towards the left.
(2) The opening between the right atrium and
left atrium is guarded by fossaovalis.
(3) Coronary sulcus is a transverse groove
present between atria and ventricles.
(4) The wall of heart consist of three layers, the
innermost endocardium,middle myocardium
and outermost epicardium.
174. An infectious disease in which alveoli get filled
with fluid leading to severe problems in
respiration is caused by
(1) Salmonella typhi
(2) Plasmodium malaria
(3) Haemophilus influenzae
(4) Wuchereria malayi
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175. Figure shows human urinary system with
structure labelled P to S.
P
S
Q
R
Select option which CORRECTLY identifies
them and gives their characteristics.
(1) Q - Pelvis - Broad funnel shaped space inner
to hilum directly connected to loops of Henle.
(2) R - Medulla - inner zone of kidney and
contains complete nephrons.
(3) S - Cortex - outer part of kidney and do not
contain any part of nephrons.
(4) P - Adrenal glands located at the anterior
part of kidney secrete catecholamines which
stimulates glycogen breakdown.
176. Selective secretion is absent in (1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(4) Collecting tubules
177. The CORRECT match is a. DCT
- Secretion of H+
and K+ ions
b. Henle's loop - Reabsorption of
glucose water
and Na+ ions.
c. Podocytes
- Attached to parietal
layer of Bowman's
capsule
d. JGA
- Rise in glomerular
blood pressure
activates it to
release rennin
(1) c
(2) b
(3) a
(4) d
178. Which area of cerebral cortex is called sensory
speech area ?
(1) Broca's area
(2) Wernicke's area
(3) Premotor area
(4) Association area of sensory cortex
179. Which of the following statements are true for
"motor cortex"?
(a) It is located in the frontal lobe of cerebral
cortex.
(b) It contains pyramidal cells & basal nuclei.
(c) It is responsible for all visual functions.
(d) It is essential for our thought processes.
(e) It stimulates waking conditions.
(f) It regulates voluntary muscular movements.
(1) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(2) (b), (c), (d) & (e)
(3) (b), (d), (e) & (f)
(4) (a), (b), (d) & (f)
180. Mary is sitting in examination hall. But during
first five minutes before the examination, she
experiences sweating, increased rate of heart
beat, respiration etc.
Which hormone is responsible of her restlessness?
(1) Prostaglandins and Vasopressin
(2) Epinephrine and Cortisol
(3) Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
(4) Insulin and Thyroxine
181. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally
conceive due to (1) suppression of GTH.
(2) suppression of LTH.
(3) hypersecretion of GTH.
(4) suppression of gametic transport.
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182. Which of the following is not likely to happen
in his neurohormonal control system, in
response to stress of any kind?
a. Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic
division of brain.
b. Sympathetic nervous system is activated
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
from adrenal cortex.
c. Craniosacral outflow is stimulated.
d. Sympathetic nervous system is activated
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
from adrenal medulla.
(1) a & b only
(2) a & c only
(3) a, b & c only
(4) a, b, c & d
183. Which one of these statement is CORRECT?
(1) Motor fibres leave spinal cord via dorsal root.
(2) Arbor vitae is a part of cerebrum
(3) Activity of brain is recorded by ECG.
(4) Pons and medulla enclose fourth ventricle
184. Which of the following nerves control the
movement of the eyeball?
(1) III, IV & VI
(2) III, V & VII
(3) II, III & IV
(4) III, IV & V
185. Which statement is CORRECT?
(1) Impulse transmission is faster across an
electrical synapse than across a chemical
synapse.
(2) Impulse transmission across an electrical
synapse involves neurotransmitters
(3) Impulse transmission is faster across chemical
synapse than electrical synapse.
(4) both synapses have equal impulse transmission
speed.
186. Limbic system comprises
(1) hypothalamus and olfactory lobes.
(2) hippocampus, amygdala and basal ganglion.
(3) hippocampus and cerebellum.
(4) brain stem and optic chiasma.
187. Find out the CORRECT match from the
following table.
Column-I
Column-II
Column-III
(a)
Corpus
luteum
Progesteron
(b)
Pineal
gland
Vasopressin
Maintaining
the thickness
of
endometrium
Intracellular
transport
(c)
Pars
nervosa
Coherin
Induces
contraction of
jejunum
(1) a only
(2) a and b
(3) c only
(4) b and c
188. Which of the following statements regarding
the menstrual cycle are CORRECT?
(a) The initiation of the preantral phase of
follicular development is under the control
of LH.
(b) The development of the antral follicle depends
on the expression of receptors for FSH and LH.
(c) Ovulation occurs after about 14 days.
(d) Ovulation occurs in response to a sudden
increase in plasma LH.
(e) The period before ovulation is known as the
luteal phase.
(f) The luteal phase is associated with a large
increase in plasma progesterone.
(1) (a), (b) and (e)
(2) (b), (c), (e) and (f)
(3) (b), (c), (d) and (f)
(4) (a), (d) and (e)
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189. Which of the following statements regarding
the testes are CORRECT?
(a) Leydig cells secrete androgen.
(b) Testosterone inhibits the secretion of LH by
negative feedback.
(c) Pyramidal cells prevent free diffusion of
water soluble substances between the
seminiferous tubules and the blood.
(d) Leydig's cells respond to androgen by
synthesising ABP (androgen binding protein).
(e) Pyramidal cells line the seminiferous tubules
and directly give rise to the developing sperm.
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (b), (d) and (e)
(3)(a), (b) and (c)
(4) (d) and (e)
190. Contraction of the cremester muscle occurs
because of (1) the sexual arousal and warm temperature.
(2) lowered sperm production and cold temperature.
(3) the sexual arousal and temperature change.
(4) high hormone levels.
191. Given figure of T.S. of penis
192. Refer to the given figure showing T.S. of
mammalian testis. Identify the labels along with
their functions and select the correct option.
W
X
Y
Z
(1) W are spermatids which have 46 chromosomes.
(2) X are Leydig's cells which provide nutrition
to the developing sperm.
(3) Y are seminiferous tubules whose wall is
formed of germinal epithelium.
(4) Z are Sertoli cells which secrete male sex
hormone.
193. The given figure shows stages in the
development of sperm from spermatogonia in
human male
S
Q
T
R
R
Q
P
P
How will penile function be altered if the blood
supply to the Q is impaired?
(1) Erection will be able to occur but ejaculation
will not be possible.
(2) The urethra will become occluded.
(3) Erection will not occur.
(4) The erect penis will be unable to become
flaccid.
Identify the cells labelled (P-S) and select the
option that CORRECTLY represents
chromosome number per cell.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
P
Q
R
S
46
46
23
23
23
46
23
46
46
23
46
23
23
23
46
46
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194. Identify the parts labelled P, Q, R and S in the
given figure.
Q
P
197.
R
S
1
2
3
4
P
Second polar
body
Second polar
body
First polar
body
First polar
body
Q
Granulosa
cell
Zona
pellucida
Corona
radiata
Zona
pellucida
R
First meiotic
spindle
First meiotic
spindle
Second meiotic
spindle
Second meiotic
spindle
S
Zona
pellucida
Granulosa
cell
Zona
pellucida
Granulosa
cell
195. "Testis are extrabdominal in position". Which
of the following is the most appropriate reason?
(1) Narrow pelvis in male.
(2) Special protection for testis.
(3) Prostate gland and seminal vesicles occupy
maximum space.
(4) 2.0-2.5 0 C lower than the normal body
temperature.
196. Identify the CORRECT match from the
columns I, II and III.
Column -1
a. Interstitial
cells
b. Sertoli cells
Column - II
P. Cortex of
ovary
q. Ovarian
follicle
r. Testis
c. Granulosa
cells
d. Cells of corpus s. Seminifero us
luteum
tubules
LTS-26/27
Column - III
w. Follicular fluid
x. Progesterone
198.
199.
200.
(1) b - p - y, a - r - z, c - q - w, d - s - x
(2) a - r - z, b - s - y, c - q - w, d - p - x
(3) a - s - y, b - p - z, c - q - w, d - r - x
(4) b - s - y, a - r - z,
c - p - x, d - q - z
In case of a couple where a man is having very
low sperm count, which of the following
technique will be suitable for fertilization?
(1) Intra-uterine transfer
(2) Gamete intra-cytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(3) Artificial insemination
(4) Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection
Read carefully and choose the CORRECT
statement
(1) Condom and pencillin at the time of exposure
are prophylactic treatment of syphilis.
(2) Combined pill is the most commonly used
birth control pill.
(3) The pill saheli is taken weekly. Saheli is 1st
steriodal birth control pills.
(4) Neisseria gonorrhoeae does not causes arthritis.
What is the oldest method of birth control?
(1) Rhythmic method
(2) Oral devices
(3) Coitus interruptus
(4) IUCD
Match the following :
Incubation period
a. 2 to 14 days
in male
b. 7 to 21 days
in female
c. 21 to 28 days
(1) a - p,
(2) a - q,
(3) a - r,
(4) a - q,
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y. Attachment of
sperm bundle
z. Testosterone
b - q,
b - q,
b - p,
b - p,
Disease
p. Syphilis
q. Gonorrhoea
r. Leprosy
c-r
c-p
c-q
c-r
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