MCQ’s / QCM
Auditorium
• Thursday
M. Dake
In type B aortic dissection, which branch vessel most
frequently originates from the aortic false lumen? (one
answer)
1. Left subclavian artery
2. Celiac trunk
3. Right renal artery
4. Left renal artery
5. Left iliac artery
M. Thompson
What percentage of patients are morphological suitable for
endovascular repair of a Type A dissection with a tubular
endograft: (one answer)
1. 10%
2. 30%
3. 50%
4. 70%
J. Matsumura
Each of the following is a known late complication after TEVAR
for aortic dissection, EXCEPT: (one answer)
1. Aneurysmal degeneration
2. Stent graft erosion and rupture
3. Nickel toxicity from nitinol corrosion
4. Type A dissection
J. Lombardi
The zenith dissection stent has shown great utility in the
treatment of complicated type b aortic dissection by: (one
answer)
1. Allowing favorable early and late aortic remodeling
2. Providing long term solutions for false lumen
exclusion when faced with aneurysmal expansion.
3. Rapidly expands the true lumen in the Acute
setting.
4. Can reverse persistent dynamic and static
obstruction in acute type b dissection.
5. All the above
R. Fattori
In type B dissection, the worse prognostic indicator for aortic
rupture is: (one answer)
1. Total thrombosis of the false lumen
2. Absence of any false lumen thrombosis
3. Partial false lumen thrombosis
4. Intramural hematoma of the false lumen
E. Verhoeven
The reason to treat chronic Type B dissections is usually: (one
answer)
1. Malperfusion
2. Recirculation of flow into the true lumen
3. Aneurysmal degeneration
4. Retrograde dissection
M. Lachat
Which aortic pathology still requires cardiopulmonary bypass
and open aortic surgery? (one answer)
1. Penetrating aortic ulcer or intramural hematom of the
ascending aorta
2. Ascending aortic aneurysm (<65mm)
3. Ascending aneurysm (<65mm) and aortic valve pathology
(aortic annulus >17mm,29mm<)
4. Ascending aneurysm (<65mm) and aortic valve pathology
(aortic annulus >29mm)
T. Chuter
Endovascular TAAA repair, using off-the-shelf multi-branched
stent grafts, is precluded by which of the following (one
answer):
1. Type B aortic dissection
2. Multiple small (<4mm) renal arteries
3. Severe stenosis of the renal or mesenteric arteries
4. Severe stenosis of the iliac arteries
5. TAAA of types I or V
P. Taylor
In acute aortic syndrome: (one answer)
1. A raised D-dimer in the presence of a normal Troponin T
is not significant.
2. Endovascular repair of uncomplicated type B aortic
dissection is of proven benefit.
3. Penetrating ulcer can develop into acute dissection
4. Open repair is the best treatment for aortic transection
5. Endovascular repair of ascending aortic aneurysms is
feasible in the majority of cases
• Friday
I. Guessous
Which class of drugs hold most promise for decreasing the
expansion rate of AAA in meta-analyses ? (one answer)
1. Diuretics
2. ACE inhibitors
3. Statins
4. Beta-blokers
Quizz
Which one of the following is non-cow’s milk cheese ?
1. Camembert
2. Brie
3. Gruyère
4. Roquefort
J. Powell
The growth rate of small abdominal aortic aneurysms: (2 true
answers)
1. Increases with increasing diameter
2. is increased in patients with diabetes
3. is increased in current smokers
4. is increased in older women
5. allows for safe surveillance intervals of 1 year for
all diameters
C. Gasser
What is the maximum diameter of an AAA in the average male
patient that experiences the same PWRR index than a 55mm
aneurysm in the average female patient? (one answer)
1. 55mm
2. 60mm
3. 65mm
4. 70mm
5. 75mm
M. Thompson
The proportion of patients turned down for repair of AAA
(above 5.5 cm) in your institution is (one answer):
1. 5%
2. 15%
3. 25%
4. 50%
5. All of the above are possible
J-P. Becquemin
According to the recent publications, to which complications
good risk patients are increasingly exposed after open surgical
AAA repair when compared to Endovascular
AAA repair (2 correct answers):
1. Mortality
2. Increased hospital stay
3. Cardio-vascular Morbidity
4. Ischemic colitis
5. Incisional complications
P. Chassagne
Which statement about confusion is more correct in old patients
ongoing AAA repair: (one answer)
1.
Prevalence of perioperative confusion is about
20%
2.
The onset of confusion is independent of
prognosis especially of survival rate
3.
The incidence of patients at hgi risk for
postoperative confusion can be detected
4.
The onset of confusion is less frequent in
demented patients
F. Verzini
In the definition of good anatomy patient for AAA endografting,
which of the following is considered an adverse feature? (one
answer)
1. Suprarenal neck angle = 60°
2. Infrarenal neck angle > 90°
3. Neck diameter < 28 mm
4. Neck length = 15 mm
H. Verhagen
In extremely angulated proximal AAA necks, the fundamental
difference between using a conformable endograft vs a stiff
endograft is: (one answer)
1. Stiff endografts are stronger and therefore preferable
2. Using stiff endografts, the total neck-length treated is
longer, so shorter necks can be accepted
3. Conformable endografts align the original anatomy,
therefore canulating the CL leg is more difficult
4. Deploying a conformable endograft over a floppy wire
results in positioning the graft perpendicular to the lumen.
M. Aksoy
EVAR may not be the best treatment option (one answer)
1. To prevent aneurysm rupture
2. To provide the regression of periaortic inflamation
3. In cases, who needs an urgent decompression of
hydronephrosis
4. In cases, who have accompanying diseases
5. When the distal landing zone is proximal to
external iliac artery
V. Riambau
What is in average the percentage of European centers that
follow their uncomplicated EVAR patients using Duplex in yearly
basis? (one answer)
1. more than 65%
2. between 45 and 55%
3. less than 20%
4. never
A. Schanzer
All of the following factors were found to be indpendent
predictors of AAA Sac Enlargement after EVAR except: (one
answer)
1. Aortic Neck Diameter >28 mm
2. Common Iliac Artery Diameter >20 mm
3. Presence of an Endoleak During Follow Up
4. AAA Max Diameter >7.0 cm
5. Aortic Neck Angle >60 degrees
R. Greenhalgh
What are the factors which will determine whether EVAR beats
open repair at 15 years? ( 2 answers )
1. Open repairs will rupture between 10 and 15
years.
2. EVAR causes of endoleak will be corrected.
3. Surgeons will stick to instructions for use.
4. More recent EVAR devices to be analysed by
15 years
M. Thompson
Local anaesthesia for EVR is associated with a proven (one
answer)
1. reduction in mortality
2. reduction in length of stay
3. decreased pain scores
4. none of above
S. Haulon
Percutaneous EVAR: (one answer)
1. should be performed in every patients undergoing
EVAR
2. is cost effective
3. reduces hospital stay
4. can be performed with a “reimbursed” and CE
marked device
T. Larzon
For the use of the fascial closure technique a correct statement
is (one answer):
1. Puncture technique is less critical for fascial closure
technique than for SMCD
2. A puncture above the inguinal ligament might result in
retroperitoneal bleeding
3. Femoral calcification is normally considered as exclusion
criteria
4. Extensive scar tissue is normally considered as exclusion
criteria
5. Obesity is normally considered as exclusion criteria
E. Jean-Baptiste
Regarding Aorto uni-iliac (AUI) EVAR all of those are true,
except: (one answer)
1. AUI stent-grafts permit a broader array of patients to be
EVAR-eligible
2. AUI stent-grafts are subjected to 40% greater drag forces
than bifurcated stent-graft
3. Human clinical studies have shown a higher risk of type I
endoleak with AUI stent-grafts as opposed to bifurcated
devices
4. AUI stent-grafting is ideally suited for use in ruptured AAAs
C. Setacci
What does mean an “active protection” during an endovascular
carotid procedure? (one answer)
1. The use of a filter
2. The use of a proximal endovascular clamping
device
3. The use of a distal endovascular clamping device
4. The use of any cerebral protection device
5. Any method to minimize the probability to
generate embolic debries
F. Moll
What may happen after EVAR? Aneurysm enlargement without
endoleak: is there a risk of rupture? (one answer)
1. High rupture risk, operation is necessary
2. Low rupture risk, intensify monitoring
3. Only the Vanguard stent-graft has a risk of AAA
rupture
4. Rupture risk depends on postoperative AAA
diameter, stent-graft type, but is generally low (in
the first years after surgery)
• Friday afternoon
G. Marcucci
The major advantage of general anesthesia with use of
remifentanil conscious sedation during CEA is: (one answer)
1. Selective shunt reduction deployment.
2. Patient awake neurological monitoring
3. Restenosis rate reduction.
4. Less embolic neurological events.
5. No respiratory distress
M. Bouayed
Which of these statements concerning the involvement of the
carotid arteries in Behçet’s disease is correct? ( 2 answers )
1. Localisation in the carotids is the most frequent
2. For arterial reconstructions a prosthesis is preferable to a
vein graft
3. Carotid ligation is never indicated
4. Endovascular treatment is more effective than conventional
surgery
5. Dual therapy with a corticosteroid and an
immunosuppressive drug eliminates or at least reduces the
risk of recurrence of a false aneurysm
J. Beard
In the real world, the commonest quality control method used
by Vascular Surgeons after completion of a carotid
endarterectomy is: (one answer)
1. Angiography
2. Duplex ultrasonography
3. Angioscopy
4. Hand-held Doppler
5. Meticulous technique and clinical inspection
J. Brunkwall
According to the present knowledge, for a patient with an
asymptomatic carotid artery stenosis the evidence are in favor
of: (one answer)
1. no treatment
2. CAS
3. CEA
4. Statins
5. not yet clear
J-L. Mas
Which of the followings has been most consistently associated
with an increased risk of stroke following carotid stenting? (one
answer)
1. Female sex
2. Age > 70 years
3. Stenting without cerebral protection
4. Type of stent (open- versus closed-cell)
P. Cao
Which is the carotid stent system associated with lower rate of
neurological complications? (one answer)
1. Closed cell
2. Open cell
3. Hybrid
4. Covered stent
C. Setacci
What is the recommended antiplatelet protocol for CAS? (one
answer)
1. Dual antiaggregation therapy
2. Acetylsalicylic acid 100/die.
3. Clopidogrel 300 mg (loading dose before the
operation) and the 75 mg/die after
intervention
4. Acetylsalicylic acid 100 plus LMWH
Quizz
Which variety do we generally find in the great white wines
from Bourgogne ?
1. Merlot
2. Sauvignon
3. Chardonnay
4. Cabernay
A. Amin
Risk of embolization is highest during which step of carotid
artery stenting (CAS)? (one answer)
1. During passage of wire thru the carotid lesion
2. During passage of the EPD
3. During the pre-dilatation PTA
4. During placement of stent
5. During post-stent PTA
J. Matsumura
Each of the following is a well accepted risk factor for stroke
with CAS, EXCEPT: (one answer)
1. Smaller (vs larger) filter pores
2. Symptomatic (vs asymptomatic) carotid
stenosis
3. Beginning investigators (vs experienced) in
symptomatic patients
4. Octogenarian (vs younger) patient
S. Macdonald
Which of the following statement is correct? (one answer)
1.
A systematic review demonstrated more new white
lesions on DW MRI of brain when closed cell stents were used
compared with open cell stents
2.
In the SPACE trial, the stroke and death rates were
identical for closed cell and open cell stents
3.
EU registries demonstrate higher TIA/stroke and death
rates for open cell stants than for closed cell stents in
asymptomatic patients
4.
The Symbiot covered stent had a higher restenosis rate
than the bare Wallstent in a small randomised trial
W. Gray
The markedly improvements in outcomes in CAS over the past
decade appear to be related to all of the following except: (one
answer)
1. Better patient selection
2. Improved equipment
3. Better technique
4. Greater operator experience
F. Veith
All randomized trial comparisons of CAS vs CEA in patients with
symptomatic carotid stenosis have shown that CAS has a higher
periprocedural stroke rate
1. True
2. False
A. Halliday
CREST is the only trial which has reported 4 year results on 1180
asymptomatic patients comparing CEA with CAS. CREST found:
(one answer)
1. CAS is as effective as surgery
2. Women do as well as men in CREST
3. CREST compared medical treatments with intervention in both
symptomatic and asymptomatic patients
4. The results of CREST clearly show that CAS is safe in asymptomatic
patients
5. To compare CAS, CEA and Medical treatment alone may require
more than 10,000 patients
C. Liapis
Which of the following statements regarding CAS is correct?
1. CAS is equivalent to endarterectomy with regard to perioperative
stroke risk
2. CAS is superior to endarterectomy with regard to perioperative
stroke risk
3. CAS is inferior to endarterectomy with regard to perioperative
stroke risk
4. CAS is preferable to endarterectomy in octogenarians
5. The use of cerebral protection devices is supported by level A
evidence
• Saturday
S. Kownator
Which reduction of cardiovascular events can be expected when
introducing a statin therapy in non cardiac perioperative
settings? (one answer)
1. 23 %
2. 33 %
3. 43 %
4. 53 %
5. 63 %
F. Paganelli
About resistance to antiplatelet therapy (one answer):
1. Rate of biology resistance to clopidogrel is between 30
to 40%
2. Resistance test is recommanded in ESC guidelines class I
3. Genetic information is needed to detect resistance to
antiplatelet therapy
4. There is not resistance to new platelet agent
M. Laskar
What is the rate of major vascular complications during TAVI
procedures? (one answer)
1. 5 %
2. 16 %
3. 25 %
4. 40 %
L. Berger
In France, according to the predictive model, the expected
increase between 2009 and 2030 due to aging population in the
vascular surgical workload would be: (one answer)
1. 10 to 20 %
2. 20 to 30 %
3. 30 to 40 %
4. 40 to 50 %
D. Danzer
Which of the following is NOT an option for pedal interventions
(one answer)
1. Subintimal antegrade recanalization
2. Plantar to pedal loop technique
3. Crossover approach
4. Transcollateral techniques
5. Retrograde pedal puncture
M. Bosiers
What is the best treatment option for long highly calcified SFA
lesions? (one answer)
1. PTA alone
2. PTA with stent placement
3. Drug-eluting stent
4. Drug-coated balloon
5. Surgery
G. Torsello
Which one was the most common reason of secondary
procedures? (one answer)
1. Endoleak type Ia
2. Endoleak type II
3. Endoleak Type III due to material fatigue
4. Endoleak Type III due to disconnection
5. Occlusions
Quizz
How many “F” can you count in the following sentence? :
“Finished files are the result of years of scientific study
combined with the experience of years”
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
I. Loftus
Hybrid repair for thoraco-abdominal aneurysm: (one answer)
1. Confers a lower risk in the literature than
branched grafts
2. Is the recommended treatment for young
patients with connective tissue disorders
3. Appears durable, demonstrating >90% long
term graft patency in the literature
4. Should never be performed as a one stage
procedure
T. Mastracci
Branched and fenestrated endografts are a durable alternative
to open thoracoabdominal repair because (one answer)
1. The long-term durability of branched stents is
acceptable
2. The risk of spinal cord ischemia is no different
than for open thoracoabdominal repair
3. The risk of mortality in the long term is not
worse than for open thoracoabdominal repair.
4. All of the above
M. Jacobs
Failed TEVAR requiring surgical conversion is most often caused
by (one answer)
1. Aorto bronchial fistula
2. Infection of the endograft
3. Type 1 endoleak in post dissection
aneurysms
4. Migration of different endograft
components
C. Vaislic
The definition of a cured aneurysm is: (one answer)
1. a patient alive and well
2. all the branches patent
3. a shrunk aneurysm
4. a thrombosed aneurysm
5. all of the above
R. Uberoi
Which of the following is the most accurate non-invasive
technique in the assessment of peripheral arterial disease (one
answer)
1. Computed tomography (CTA)
2. Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
3. Duplex
4. C02 Angiography
5. Ankle Brachial pressures (ABPI)
P. Schneider
Which of these patients are at higher than usual risk of limb
loss, even with the best possible revascularization? (one
answer)
1. Elderly patient on dialysis with toe gangrene
2. Patient that presents with chronic ischemia and exposed
calcaneus
3. Ischemic ankle ulcer in a patient that has been nonambulatory
for several months due to co-morbid medical conditions
4. Plantar abscess in a diabetic with severe occlusive disease
involving the arteries in the foot
5. All of these patients presented above are at higher than usual
risk for limb loss
T. Rand
What is the first choice access for retromelleolar angioplasty:
(one answer)
1. Cross over retrograde
2. Retrograde transpedal
3. Inguinal antegrade
4. Transpopliteal
5. Cubital
• Saturday afternoon
M. Makaroun
Endovascular treatment for extensive aorto-iliac occlusions
(TASC II D): (one answer)
1. Is impossible because of inability to re-enter the lumen in
many cases
2. Is technically feasible in all patients
3. Has no mortality and minimal morbidity
4. Has a significantly lower long term primary patency rate
than Aorto-Bifemoral bypass grafting
5. Is better performed with naked than covered stents
M. Malina
The Chimney Technique, for mid aortic occlusion syndrome may
prove beneficial because: (One answer is WRONG)
1. Visceral trash from aortic stenting can be prevented
2. Visceral arteries do not get covered by the aortic stent
3. Perfusion of stenosed visceral arteries Is Improved
4. The procedure is suitable even for a standard operating
room with a simple C-arm
Y. Goueffic
Type 2 lesion of the common femoral artery: (one answer)
1. represents proximal or distal stenosis bypass
anastomoses.
2. represents lesions that are located at the CFA
and its bifurcation
3. represents lesions that are limited to the CFA
4. represents lesions that are located at the iliac
external artery and are extended to the CFA
L. Chiche
Common femoral artery (CFA) endarterectomy (one wrong
answer):
1. Remains most of the time feasible in case of CFA
occlusion
2. Should be avoided when a common iliac artery
endoluminal angioplasty is planned
3. Allows preservation or revascularization of collaterals
originating from the CFA
4. Does not preclude further revascularization destined to
or originating from the CFA
5. Provides excellent early and long-term clinical,
anatomical and hemodynamical results
H. Sievert
Renal denervation is currently indicated in (one answer)
1. mild hypertension because even mild elevation of blood
pressure has a major impact on cardiovascular mortality
2. resistant hypertension because the benefit has been
proven in the Simplicity trials
3. diabetes because renal denervation reduces glucose levels
4. heart failure because in heart failure the central
sympathetic tone is increased
5. sleep apnoea because sleep apnoea improves after renal
denervation
M. Dake
In the Zilver PTX randomized and single arm clinical trials for
treatment of SFA disease, which of the following was found?
(one answer)
1. The results of stent placement in patients with diabetes
was not different from the outcomes in non-diabetics
2. The result of primary treatment of SFA disease with Zilver
PTX was significantly better than that for patients who
received bare stents
3. The results of provisional stenting with DES after failed PTA
showed a 50 % decrease in re-stenosis at one year compared
with the outcome for provisional bare stent placement
4. 1 and 3
5. All of the above
J. Lindholt
Propaten reduces generally the risk of losing primary patency of
femoropopliteal bypasses by (one answer)
1. 40%
2. 50%
3. 60%
J-M. Cardon
Cutting balloon angioplasty (two correct answers):
1. is usefull for long SFA occlusion
2. is efficient in fibrotic lesions
3. is the first choice for short iliac sternosis
4. may avoid stenting in short popliteal
lesions
5. is less expansive than a plain balloon
S. Sultan
The key to successful use of subinitimal angioplasty within a
limb salvage programme is: (one answer)
1. High deliberate practice volume to overcome the
steep learning curve
2. Patient selection with Duplex Ultrasound to
identify echolucent thrombosis and severe
calcification
3. Maximum use of duplex ultrasound to enhance
cost-effectiveness and minimal invasiveness
4. All of the above
• SESSION VEINES
A. Comerota
Venous obstruction is underestimated as an etiologic factor of
postthrombotic syndrome following iliofemoral DVT is
00:00
confirmed by: (one answer)
20 %
1. There are no valves in the iliofemoral venous segment; therefore,
valvular incompetence cannot be the cause of venous hypertension
0%
2. Postthrombotic iliofemoral DVT patients have the highest resting and
hyperemic venous pressures in the supine position; therefore, only
obstruction is responsible for their venous hypertension and
postthrombotic morbidity.
0%
3. Large-scale clinical observations have shown that in patients with
iliofemoral obstruction and infrainguinal valvular incompetence, the
majority of patients improve when the obstruction is relieved and
nothing need be done regarding their valvular incompetence.
47 %
4. All of the above.
33 %
5. None of the above.
14
G. Geroulakos
All but one are correct statements regarding primary subclavian
vein thrombosis (one answer):
00:00
33 %
1. Congenital abnormal lateral insertion of the costoclavicular
ligament and hypetrophy of the scalenous anterior are important
contributors in the development of primary subclavian vein
thrombosis
25 %
2. Patients with a normal subclavian vein following thrombolysis
and no positional stenosis should not be usually considered for first
rib resection
8%
3. Symptomatic patients with stenosis of the subclavian vein at rest
or with provocative manoeuvres should be offered thoracic outlet
decompression.
33 %
4. Recurrent subclavian vein thrombosis is not a recognised
complication of patient with successful thrombolysis who not
treated with thoracic outlet decompression
12
P. Gloviczki
The correct therapy to decrease recurrence of venous ulcers in a
patient with primary venous valvular incompetence is : (one
00:00
answer)
36 %
1. Compression therapy
5%
2. Laser ablation of the great saphenous vein
0%
3. Radiofrequency ablation of the great
saphenous vein
50 %
4. Ablation of the great saphenous vein and
compression therapy
10 %
5. Foam sclerotherapy
42
M. De Maeseneer
After endovenous thermal ablation of the great saphenous
vein: (one answer)
1. reflux at the saphenofemoral junction (SFJ) always
disappears
2. reflux at the SFJ may persist or re-appear
3. reflux at the SFJ re-appears only in case of recanalisation
of the trunk
4. recurrent reflux at the SFJ is often due to
neovascularisation
I. Vanhandenhove
Recurrence of varicose veins at the groin is: (one answer)
1. always the result of technical failure, with
inadequate ligation at the SF junction
2. best treated by interposition of a silicone or ePTFE patch on the femoral stump
3. less frequent after endovascular techniques
than after classic surgery
4. occuring in only 30% of patients after 5 years
P. Pittaluga
One of the propositions below is not a risk factor for lymphatic
complication after a surgical treatment for varicose vein: (one
answer)
1. Inguinal redo surgery
2. Obesity
3. Female gender
4. Skin damage (C4 to C6)
5. Older age
L. Kabnick
Endovenous procedure is safe to perform in the consulting office
but: (one answer)
1. is more expensive to perform
2. has more infections than in the operating room
3. has to be performed under general anesthesia
4. Is not permitted under current legislation in
France
T. Proebstle
Operative Varicose Vein treatment on incompetent superficial or
perforator veins should be done: (one answer)
1. By any Physcian
2. By any Physician owning a Board Certification
for Phlebology
3. By Vascular Surgeons focused on arterial
reconstruction
4. By any Physician able to place a wire inside the
vein
I. Durand Zaleski
When deciding on the reimbursment of a new procedure,
authorities are concerned by: (one answer)
1. Scientific evidence
2. Budget impact
3. Task shifting among professionals
4. Pressure from patients' groups
5. All of the above
J-J. Guex
Chronic cerebrospinal venous insufficiency is recognized: (one
answer)
1. clinically in patients with MS
2. on CT scan
3. on MRI
4. on Duplex scan
5. on the iron level of blood
A. Frullini
Is sclerosing foam to be used in: (one answer)
1. Teleangectasias only
2. On tributaries only
3. On saphenous trunks only
4. It has been used in every kind of
veins with good results
A. Davies
Which of the following has shown an association with
neurological complications (one answer):
1. Type of sclerosant
2. Volume of foam utilised
3. Presence of patent foramen ovale
4. Gas used in foam preparation
C. Hamel Desnos
For telangiectasia, maximum volume of sclerosant (either liquid
or foam form), recommended for each site of injection is (one
answer)
1. 0.2 mL
2. 0.5 mL
3. 1 mL
4. 1.5 mL
M. Gohel
Regarding cost-effectiveness of superficial venous interventions,
which statement is true? (one answer)
1. The REACTIV trial demonstrated cost-effectiveness for
intervention in patients with C2-C6 disease
2. Radiofrequency ablation is the most cost-effective
endovenous ablation technique
3. Evaluation of generic quality of life is required to
calculate QALYs
4. Health economic studies are only performed from
randomised clinical trials
M. Perrin
Among the different endovenous procedures for treating
varicose veins which one is superior to others according to
present RCT’s available ? (One answer)
1. Radiofrequency Ablation
2. Endovenos laser Ablation
3. Ultrasound guided foam
sclerotherapy
4 .None
A. Davies
Significant improvements in Aberdeen Varicose Veins
Questionnaire scores are seen in which class of disease after
treatment for varicose veins (one answer):
1. C1-C2
2. C3-C4
3. C5-C6
4. All classes
G. Spreafico
Among the thermal ablative techniques for treating varicose
veins, which do not lead to an histologic damage from contact of
the device with the venous wall? (one answer)
1. radiofrequency closure plus
2. endovenous laser 980 nm with flat optical fiber
3. endovenous laser 1470 nm with radial optical
fiber
4. radiofrequency closure plus and endovenous
laser 1470 nm with optical radial fiber
T. Proebstle
The ablation of incompetent saphenous veins with a
cyanoacrylate adhesive (one answer):
1. Does not require tumescent anesthesia or
post treatment compression stockings
2. Cyanoacrylate can be detected in the right
atrium 15 seconds after injection
3. Cyanoacrylate is a chemical substance which
stays in the treated vein forever
4. Cyanoacrylate does not require ultrasound
during the procedure
J. Ferreira
The main advantages of performing EVLT using Radial Emission
fibers without Tumescent Local Anesthesia (TLA) are: (one
answer)
1. Less procedure's time
2. Less pain because TLA requires multiple
punctures with the injection of a large amount of
liquid.
3. Less bruising for the same reasons above
4. Being able to follow the closure procedure in
real time with U.S.
5. All of the above
T. Zubilewicz
DDAVP ( Deamino-8-arginine vasopressin) is recommended as a
prevention of bleeding in von Willebrand disease: (one answer)
1. type 1
2. type 2
3. type 3
4. all of types
L. Kabnick
Tumescentless procedures decrease the… (one answer)
1. Efficacy of the procedure.
2. Safety profile.
3. Pain of the procedure.
4. Time of the procedure.
B. Braithwaite
Which statements are correct? (3 correct answers):
1. The Celon RFITT system works by direct heating of the vein
wall
2. Thermal injury to surrounding structures is reduced as the
generator cuts out when the resistance increases
3. The same Celon RFITT applicator can be used to treat Truncal
Veins and Perforating veins
4. Tumescent infiltration is essential for the use of RFITT
5. 18W or less is the optimum power setting
R. Milleret
Steam Vein Sclerosis: (one answer)
1. Is less effective than other thermal
techniques at 2 years
2. Can be applied to superficial trunks
3. Can be used without tumescent anesthesia
4. Needs a Seldinger access device