Answer Key to SSC CGL Tier II English Live Leak 1. 2 11. 1 21. 4 31. 1 41. 1 51. 3 61. 2 71. 1 81. 4 91. 4 101. 4 111. 3 121. 2 131. 3 141. 1 151. 2 161. 4 171. 4 181. 1 191. 4 2. 3 12. 3 22. 2 32. 2 42. 2 52. 4 62. 3 72. 4 82. 2 92. 2 102. 1 112. 2 122. 3 132. 3 142. 3 152. 3 162. 2 172. 2 182. 4 192. 3 3. 1 13.4 23. 3 33. 3 43. 4 53. 2 63. 2 73. 2 83. 2 93. 2 103. 3 113. 2 123. 3 133. 3 143. 4 153. 1 163. 4 173. 1 183.3 193. 1 4.2 14.3 24. 4 34. 2 44. 4 54. 1 64. 3 74. 4 84. 3 94. 4 104. 3 114. 3 124.3 134. 2 144. 2 154. 1 164. 4 174. 4 184. 3 194. 1 5. 3 15. 3 25. 4 35. 3 45. 3 55. 1 65. 2 75. 1 85. 3 95. 2 105. 4 115. 2 125. 3 135. 2 145. 1 155. 4 165.1 175. 3 185. 1 195. 1 6. 4 16. 1 26. 3 36. 1 46. 1 56. 2 66. 4 76. 1 86. 4 96. 3 106. 1 116. 3 126. 3 136. 2 146. 3 156. 1 166. 4 176.4 186. 3 196. 2 7. 1 17. 4 27. 3 37. 2 47. 1 57. 1 67. 1 77. 4 87. 2 97. 1 107. 3 117. 1 127. 4 137. 3 147. 1 157. 4 167. 4 177.2 187.4 197. 1 8. 1 18. 1 28. 3 38. 2 48. 4 58. 68. 2 78. 3 88. 4 98. 2 108. 1 118. 3 128. 4 138. 3 148. 1 158. 4 168. 3 178. 1 188. 4 198. 2 9. 1 19. 2 29. 4 39. 1 49. 1 59. 1 69. 4 79. 2 89. 4 99. 4 109. 1 119. 3 129. 4 139. 2 149. 4 159. 2 169. 4 179.1 189. 2 199. 2 10. 4 20. 3 30. 4 40. 4 50. 1 60. 4 70. 4 80. 4 90. 3 100. 4 110. 1 120. 2 130. 4 140. 3 150. 3 160. 2 170. 2 180. 4 190. 3 200. 2 Solutions: 1. As mentioned in the first paragraph, “a literate person understands what is beneficial and harmful for him.” This means that a literate person has the ability to think for himself, and he does not blindly follow others. Option 1 is entirely opposite of the true meaning. Option 3 is wrong too, as it is not the literate people but the illiterate who threaten the existence of a nation since they prevent the nation's developmental processes. 2. As mentioned in the second paragraph, diseases are only spread when people have no idea about the precautions and measures to be taken to prevent them. This occurs through illiteracy. They, however, do not directly spread because of illiteracy, but in an indirect way. Illiteracy is the state of having 1|P age received no education and does not cause diseases. Although it is possible that an illiterate person may have contracted a disease and has spread it to another people, option 2 is still invalid as it is not necessary that illiterate people spread diseases. 3. It is mentioned in the third paragraph that a girl child is barred from education, even by the educated parents. The second paragraph also states that tribes and backward societies restrict girls from reading and writing. Thus the girl child is the most unduly affected by illiteracy. 4. ‘Guarded’ means to be well protected and be out of trouble. ‘Danger’ refers to the possibility of suffering harm or injury. ‘Valuable’ means a thing which is of great worth or monetary value. ‘Unsafe’ on the other hand, being the opposite of 'guarded', means 'a state of being in possible danger and harm.' This is the closest meaning of ‘vulnerable’, which means 'to be in a position of possible harm or danger.' 5. ‘Restrict’ means 'to keep under control' or 'to prohibit.' Thus it is the correct answer. ‘Wrong’ means incorrect, ‘poverty’ refers to the 'state of having very little or no money and assets', and ‘Infinite’ means 'limitless' or 'innumerable' in terms of space, size, amount etc. 6. Creon, her uncle, had decided to leave Polynices at the mercy of the carrion birds. Antigone, Polynices’ sister, wanted to give her brother an honourable burial which he deserved. Thus she decided to defy the orders. 7. Antigone wasn’t wrong in asking for an honourable burial of her brother. They all belonged to the royal blood and did not deserve such inhuman treatment at the mercy of flesh-eating birds. Creon, being his uncle, should have pardoned Antigone even if she defied his orders. 8. Women were not allowed to defy the orders of the king. They were not allowed to voice their opinion even if they were correct because they were considered inferior to men. This can be inferred from the interaction between Antigone and her sister Isamene. Thus option 1 is the correct answer. 9. The Civil War was fought between the sons of Oedipus after his death. The war can only be attributed to the fact that each of them wanted to inherit the kingdom. Thus option 1 is the correct answer. 10. ‘Carrion’ is the decaying flesh of dead organisms. ‘Carrion birds’ are the birds that feed on dead bodies. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer. 11. As Antigone rightly says, what are blood relations for if we do not stand by each other during the hard times. We should never desert our near and dear ones, even if it means having to defy the prevailing orders. Hence, we should always be true to our kin. Thus option 1 is the best option. 2|P age 12. ‘Vicarious liability’ refers to a situation where someone is held responsible for the actions of another person. Here, Oedipus’ children did not suffer due to his acts. They suffered due to their own actions. So this story does not approve of ‘vicarious liability’. 13. Creon denied an honourable burial to Polycines and left him to be a feast for the carrion birds because he wanted to make an example of anyone who dared to fight against him. 14. After what was done to her brother, Ismene did not have the courage to defy the orders of the king. She thought maybe she’ll have similar fate as that of his brother and that worried her. 15. Oedipus was cursed by Gods because he had killed his father and subsequently married his mother to assume the throne of Thebes. 16. According to the paragraph, a borrowed book is like a guest in a house because we have to treat them with punctiliousness and formality, and have to take immense care to ensure that they are not damaged in any way. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer. 17. The words Homo Sapiens, humanity and humankind are all used to refer to mankind as a whole. On the other hand, ‘humanities’ refers to a branch of study dealing with human culture. Hence, option 4 is the correct answer. 18. Clearly, the theme of the passage is about the pleasure of owning and reading books, and why borrowing books is not a good thing. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer. 19. The appropriate title of the passage would be ‘The Pleasure of Owning Books’. This is because, here in the passage, the author explains why owning books are better than borrowing them. How it is better to own them and not having to treat them with formality. 20. It is clear that marking a favorite passage in a book helps us to remember the passage easily and to refer to it whenever the need arises. Therefore, clearly, the 3rd option is not one of the advantages of marking passages. 21. The author feels that the book-shelves of our private library must not be under lock-and-key, must not have doors or windows, but should be free and accessible, so that anyone can access them at any point of time. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. 22. The paragraph asserts that books are not for show. They are to be read and used as a source of knowledge. Hence, the correct answer is option 2 23. The author thinks that everyone should begin collecting a private library in their youth, so that they can build an impressive collection suited to their needs as they grow older. Hence, the 3rd option is the correct answer. 3|P age 24. The author says that if books are our own then we can treat them with affectionate intimacy, not as a formality but out of love. So, it is better to own them, rather than borrowing them from someone. Hence, option 4 is the correct answer. 25. The paragraph asserts that a borrowed book must not be left carelessly, and we must make sure that it sustains no damage at our hands. Hence, the correct answer is option 4. 26. The first sentence says that ‘if an opinion contrary to your own makes you angry, that is a sign that you are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for thinking, as you do’. This implies that we have no good reasons for our opinion and somewhere subconsciously, we are aware of it. Among the given options, the option that explains this best is option 3. The others are ruled out. 27. The ‘contrary conviction’ would refer to the fact that two and two do not make five and Iceland is not on the equator. My conviction should be opposite to what has been thought by the other person. Thus, option 3 is the correct answer. 28. ‘Conviction’ means an opinion or belief. Among the options, the word synonymous with conviction is option 4. The other options are ruled out. 29. A person who’d say that two and two are five, you feel pity because of his ignorance of the fact that two and two are four and that he is wrong. Thus, the option 4 is correct and other options are ruled out. 30. The second sentence is a statement whose illustration is given in the second sentence. It gives us a clear explanation of the first statement. Thus, considering the options, option 4 is correct. 31. All the words mentioned here indicate movement to or from a point. 'Gone' does not fit the context. 'Come' and 'arrived' are suitable in the context of real people but not for abstract noun like 'Information technology'. 'Entered' fits the context as it means ‘to begin or to be involved in.’ Thus, option 1 is the correct answer. 32. In the context of the given passage, ‘sphere’ means ‘an area of activity, interest, or expertise’. 'Area', 'parts' and 'field' are terms not appropriate enough to be used with respect to ‘life’. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer. 33. 'Automating' refers to the ‘process of converting (a process or facility) to be operated by largely automatic equipment.’ The word that would make appropriate sense in the blank space is ‘manual’ because it signifies the opposite of ‘automated’. Since the industries are ‘cutting down’ on something to promote the automated process to carry on tasks, ‘manual’ should be used in the blank because manual labour is supposed to be replaced by automation. ‘Machine’ will facilitate ‘automation’ and can be eliminated. ‘Hand’ and ‘man’ are nor appropriate fits for the blank space. 34. 'Deteriorate' which means to ‘get worse’ can be ruled out as the softwares in all probability will be used to enhance the ‘quality of products’. 'Advance' means ‘to move forwards in a purposeful way’ which is not appropriate to be used along with 'quality'. ‘Enhance’ means to intensify, increase, or further improve the quality’ of something. The word fits the sentence well. ‘Better’ needs to be excluded because the word is used while saying that one entity is good in comparison to the other. 4|P age 35. So far it has become clear that the passage discusses the increasing role of IT in our lives and its benefits. Consequently, the demand for IT professions is rising. Thus 'high' is correct in the context. 36. The passage is showing the field of IT in a positive light. All the words given are in the opposite sense except 'promising' which means ‘showing signs of future success.’ Thus, option 1 is the correct answer. 37. The word following the blank space is 'expand' which means ‘to become or make larger or more extensive.’ 'Refuse' means ‘to deny’ and does not go along with the sense conveyed by ‘expand’. ‘Acceleration’ is a noun and does not make proper sense when put in the blank space. However, if we had the verb 'accelerate' among the options, it could have been an appropriate fit. 'Grow' fits the context the best. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer. 38. The word ‘handsome’ in the context of salary is used to imply an attractive and well- proportioned income. Thus, option 3 suits best suits the blank space. Also, because the word ‘package’ is used after the blank space, ‘home’ and ‘benefits’ would be inappropriate to use. Moreover, the passage has already talked about ‘career’ and this sentence is concerned with the monetary outcome derived from the same. 39. The sentence in concern talks about a fresher, ‘a person who has no prior work experience and is looking for a job’. Therefore, ‘primary’ would appropriately define the level of his job at the IT sector. ‘Simple’ is not an appropriate fit in the context and the other two words cannot be used to define the job of a fresher. 40. The words 'goal', 'objective' and 'ambition' are things which one 'achieves', 'fulfils' or ‘sets’ and not 'finds'. 'Avenue' means ‘a way of approaching a problem’. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer for the blank space. 41. The sentence under concern in the first sentence talks about the interplay two factors in the author’s text. Thus, ‘analyzing’ makes proper sense when used in the blank space. You do not ‘try’ or ‘run’ the interplay of two factors with respect to academic concepts. The usage of ‘checking’ is also quite inappropriate here. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer. 42. With respect to the given blank space, it can be inferred that a word carrying contradictory meaning to ‘private’ should be used. This is suggested by the word ‘interplay’. ‘Personal’ and ‘secret’ do not convey the desired contradictory word. ‘Pristine’ means ‘pure’ and is out of context of the sentence. Thus, ‘political’ which belongs to the ‘public’ domain is the most appropriate answer. 43. Note that the sentence containing the blank space mentions the word ‘complexities’. Thus, it must be difficult to ‘understand’ Behn’s writing rather than ‘read’ or ‘stand’ it. ‘Stood’ is completely irrelevant and also grammatically incorrect to be used. 44. Note that the context of the passage talks about one of the literary texts of Aphra Behn. Therefore, ‘geological’, ‘zoological’ and ‘biological’ are inappropriate to be used here. The correct word should be 5|P age ‘ideological’ as it means a ‘set of opinions or beliefs of a group or an individual’. Very often ideology refers to a set of political beliefs or a set of ideas that characterize a particular culture. 45. Note that the word in this particular blank should be in conjunction with ‘ideological complexities’ because they are linked with each other with ‘and’. Therefore, ‘niceties’ can be discarded. ‘Intricacies’ can be eliminated as we don’t know ‘intricacy of what?’ ‘Details’ is also not as appropriate as ‘ambiguities’ in the context of the sentence. ‘Ambiguities’ refer to ‘the quality of being open to more than one interpretation; inexactness.’ 46. The sentence under concern talks about the values challenged by the writings of Behn. Thus, options 2, 3 and 4 can be discarded because these forms of aesthetics need not be challenged. Moreover, since the associated word is ‘historical’ we can safely assume that ‘traditional’ should be used in the blank space. 47. ‘Assumptions’ refer to ‘something that is supposed to be true without any concrete proof’. Assumed historical values are worthy of being challenged by a literary critic. Thus, option 1 is the most appropriate word that can be used in the blank space. 48. A critical reading of a literary work may be done by a reader or a literary critic who presents her opinion on the text. Here, it has been mentioned that Robert Markley ‘observes’ something and formulates his opinion. Thus ‘jokingly’ and ‘wonderfully’ are quite inappropriate to be used here. Since the critic offers an opinion and does not express anger, option 1 can be eliminated. Thus, ‘critically’ is the correct answer. 49. In order to challenge an ideology, it should be non- progressive or rudimentary. Therefore, the word that best suites the blank space is ‘regressive’. The other three options indicate progressiveness. 50. The blank needs to be filled with a preposition. Among all the given options ‘upon’ suites the blank space because ‘insist upon’ is a grammatically as well as contextually. Options 2 and 3 do not fit the context and the usage of option 4 would render the sentence grammatically incorrect. 51. The passage talks about impact of inventions and discoveries in the 19th and 20th centuries on the lives of people in the rich countries of the world. The next line mentions that the material scarcity was effectively vanquished which suggests that the inventions and discoveries had a positive impact on the lives of the people. Among all the options given, only ‘altered’ can be used to describe the positive effect on the lives of people. ‘To terminate’ means to ‘bring an end to’. ‘Terminated’ does not appropriately fit the blank space as it is inept to say that something ‘terminated’ the very shape of human life'. ‘Mangle’ means ‘to destroy or severely disfigure’ and ‘dismantled’ means to ‘demolish’ or ‘disassemble’. 52. We have already been told that material scarcity was effectively vanquished. Also, after the blank space, it has been mentioned that now almost all people have shelter. These two statements indicate that ‘starvation’ must have also vanquished. Thus, among all the options, ‘eliminated’ fits the blank well as it tells that starvation was completely removed. ‘Broach’ means to ‘mention, introduce or raise a subject for discussion’ and ‘quench’ refers to ‘satisfy (thirst)’ or ‘extinguish (fire)’. ‘Swallowed’ is irrelevant in the context of the sentence and can be eliminated. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer. 6|P age 53. Since the passage so far has talked about the positive impacts of the inventions of the 19th and 20th century, we can guess that they must have essentially saved the humans from gruelling manual labour. Among all the given options, ‘lessened’ would fit the blank space well. ‘Rare’ would render the sentence grammatically incorrect. The word ‘extinct’ is used in reference to 'the complete wipe out of any living organism' and does not suite the given context. ‘Lessened is more appropriate than the ‘unavailable’ in the context of the passage. 54. The blank 4 has to be filled in by a word that describes the nature of the three human needs which have been mentioned- food, shelter and security. These three without any doubt constitute the ‘basic’ human need. Though, ‘actual’ and ‘important’ can also fit the blank space, but since the word ‘basic’ implies the fundamental requirements of humans, the latter is better than the other two. ‘Insignificant’ would convey a sense opposite to what is intended. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer. 55. The blank (E) has to be filled in by a word that describes the fact that since the basic requirements of the people have been fulfilled by the inventions and discoveries of the 19th and 20th century, anything else beyond that would be ‘more’ than what is required. Thus, option 1 is the best fit answer in the given context. Also note that since the word ‘than’ is mentioned after the blank space we should have a word that expresses a degree of comparison. Among all, only 'more' indicates the degree of comparison. 56. Let’s look at the meanings of the given options. Ophthalmologist: A specialist in medical or surgical eye problems. Optometrist: someone who is in the occupation of measuring eyesight, prescribing corrective lenses, and detecting eye disease or optometry and is not necessarily an ophthalmologist. Oncologist: a doctor specializing in the treatment of cancer. Occult: mystical, magical or supernatural practices/powers or phenomena. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer. 57. Let’s look at the meanings of the words given in the options: Wisdom: the quality of being wise. E.G. It is said that old people owing to their experience possess more wisdom than the young people. Earthly: relating to the earth or human life E.G. It is believed by many scientists that our galaxy inhabits creatures other than the earthly beings. Terrestrial: On or relating to the earth. E.G. There are certain types of snakes which are terrestrial as well as aquatic. ‘Paranormal’ can be used as a one word substitute for the given sentence as phenomena such as telekinesis is often said to be ‘paranormal activity’. 58. All 4 options relate to the judiciary in some measure, but only option 1 and 4 refer to people who presents a case. But there is a subtle difference between a lawyer and an advocate. A ‘lawyer’ exclusively means a person who practices or studies law. While an advocate can also refer to ‘a person like a care manager or agent who has the authority to present to a higher authority on behalf of his clients’. Thus, option 4 is a better fit answer as the given sentence is not exclusively related to law. 7|P age 59. Let’s look at the meanings of the words mentioned in the options: Incandescent: something that emits light as a result of being heated. E.G I have purchased incandescent lights to light up my house this Diwali. Holy: sacred. E.G. In Hindu religion, many places of pilgrimage are said to be holy. Grail: a thing which is eagerly sought after. E.G. In the times of cut- throat competition, success has become the grail of life. Passionate: having or showing strong feelings or beliefs. E.G. Megha’s collection of sea- shells shows how passionate is she about her job. Thus option 1 is the best fit answer. 60. The meanings of the words given in the options are as follows: Antagonist: a person who opposes or is hostile to another person. E.G. Birbal had a number of antagonists because he was one of the favourite ministers of Akbar. Apprentice: a person who is learning trade from a skilled employer. E.G. Mohan is an apprentice at the hardware shop. Autocrat: a person who has absolute power and is indifferent to others’ opinions. E.G. Given a chance and the concerned power, most of us would want to become autocrats and suppress others. Acquaint: become familiar with someone or something. E.G. ‘Before you start your work, it would be better if you acquaint yourself with the other employers’, said the boss to Usha. Since ‘acquaint’ refers to the expression mentioned in the question, the answer is option 4. 61. Surrogate: a substitute, especially a person accomplishing the role of another person. E.G. We need to have more comprehensive laws in order to avoid the exploitation of surrogate mothers. Debonair: a person who is confident, charming and stylish. E.G. Some of the Bollywood cinemas are obsessed with portraying a debonair male protagonist. Dumb: unable or unwilling to speak; mute E.G. She stood dumb as her friend raised questions about her honesty. Soliloquy: act of speaking aloud to oneself, especially in a play, regardless of the presence of any listeners. E.G. Some of the plays of Shakespeare’s have remarkable soliloquies which have made the characters immortal in the field of literature. The expression mentioned in the question can be appropriately substituted with ‘debonair’. Thus, option 2 is the best fit answer. 62. The meanings of the words given in the options are as follows: Instructive: useful or informative E.G. Moral stories are believed to be instructive for kids and are supposed to inculcate positive values in them. Irresponsible: careless or lacking responsibility. E.G. Priya is too irresponsible and cannot be handed over such a crucial task. 8|P age Invincible: too powerful to be defeated E.G. Ashoka is believed to be one of the most invincible warriors as he brought many kingdoms under his control. Insensitive: showing or feeling no concern for others. E.G. We should be careful before making any remark that could be gender insensitive. Thus, ‘invincible’ can substitute the expression mentioned in the question. Thus, option 3 is the best fit answer. 63. Let’s look at the meanings of the words given in the options: Inaccessible: having no access or unapproachable. E.G. It is a regrettable fact that clean drinking water is still inaccessible to a major population of India. Indefatigable: one who is incapable of getting tired, someone who goes on doing a work tirelessly. E.G. Bhagat Singh was an indefatigable freedom fighter. Heretic: one who does not conform to religious customs or beliefs. E.G. A heretic that he is, Rajiv is quite critical about orthodox customs across religions. Misogynist: A person who dislikes or is prejudiced against women. E.G. ‘We have had a number of misogynist texts in the history of English literature’, said the teacher to students. Thus, ‘indefatigable’ can appropriately substitute the expression mentioned in the question.And option 2 is the answer. 64. The meanings of the words given in the options are as follows: Sadist: Someone who gains pleasure in inflicting pain to others. E.G. Hitler who propagated genocide cannot be but said to be a sadist. Truant: a person who absents himself from class without permission. E.G. Paul who is so successful today used to be a perpetual truant during his school days. Teetotaler: One who doesn’t consume any intoxicating drink. E.G. Madhav has vowed to be a teetotaler throughout his life. Volunteer: a person who freely offers services for some task. E.G. ‘Our N.G.O is looking for volunteers to carry out cleanliness awareness programmes in the slum areas’, said Pradeep. Thus, option 3 is the best fit answer. 65. The meanings of the words given in the options are as follows: Somnambulist: one who walks in sleep. Omnipresent: present everywhere at the same time (especially used in reference to God). Misogamist: one who hates marriage. Fatalist: one who is believer of fate and that human effort cannot change events that are destined to occur. Thus, option 2 is the best fit answer. 66. Mercenary: someone who works only for the sake of money neglecting ethics. Pessimist: one who doesn’t look at the positive or brighter side of life or a situation. Pedant: one who is concerned with very minor details or makes a vain display of knowledge. 9|P age E.G. Miss Taylor is such a pedant that she prefers to be called a liberal feminist rather than just a feminist Pauper: one who is poor and doesn’t have any money. Thus, ‘pauper’ can substitute the expression given in the question. 67. The meanings of the words mentioned in the options are as follows: Polyglot: one who knows or uses many languages. Linguist: one who is skilled in foreign languages; or one who studies linguistic Introvert: a person who is reserved or limits her feelings and thoughts to herself. Sociopath: a person with a personality disorder due to which she possesses an extremely anti- social (difficulty in interacting or mingling with people easy) attitude or behaviour. Thus, ‘polyglot’ is the best fit answer. 68. ‘Illegible’ which means ‘not clear enough to be read’ has been correctly spelt. The correct spellings of the other words are as follows: 1. Perseverance 3. Incorrigible 4. Magnificent 69. The correct spellings are as follows: 1. Accretion 2. Accede 3. Accost ‘Acumen’ has been spelt correctly. 70. The correct spellings are as follows: 1. Antediluvian 2. Antelope 3. Antithesis Since ‘anarchy’ has been spelt correctly, option 4 is the correct answer. 71. ‘Man in street’ refers to ‘average or ordinary people’. So option 1 is the correct answer. 72. ‘Playing to the gallery’ means to behave or say things that will make people admire or support you’. So, option 4 is the correct answer. 73. The phrase ‘blood ran cold’ means to ‘become extremely frightened.’ So option 2 is the correct answer. 74. ‘To come out of shell’ means ‘to become comfortable and friendly with people’; ‘to be more sociable’. So option 4 is the correct answer. 75. The phrase ‘bolt from the blue’ means ‘something unexpected or surprising’. So option 1 is the correct answer. 76. ‘At the drop of a hat’ means ‘to act instantly and without any hesitation’. Thus, option 1 is the most suitable answer. 10 | P a g e 77. Buying ‘for a song’ means ‘buying something very cheaply’. Thus, option 4 is the most suitable answer. 78. ‘Let the cat out of the bag’ means ‘to reveal a secret or surprise, often by accident’. Thus, option 3 is the most suitable answer. 79. ‘Shoot the breeze’ means ‘to have a casual conversation’. Thus, option 2 is the most suitable answer. 80. The second sentence would be option P because it tells us about the efforts taken in order to develop the country. After having mentioned in P that the outcomes have not been on the expected lines, Q puts forward another negative aspect. The word ‘moreover’ confirms that Q should follow P. The next sentence would be R which talks about the futility of the efforts that have been put forward. The fifth sentence would be S which tells about the reasons that have mainly hindered the development. S is linked to the last sentence that tells that they resulted due to lack of meaningful policies. Therefore, the correct order is PQRS. 81. ‘Bite the bullet’ means ‘to do something difficult and unpleasant that is unavoidable.’ Thus, option 4 is the most suitable answer. 82. Sentence S should follow sentence 1 because the expression ‘its’ suggests that it refers to Industrial Revolution. The next sentence would be P that lists out the history of industrial revolution and tells that lives have altered. R lists the changes that have occurred, thus, it follows next in the sequence. The fifth sentence would be option Q which tells about the development aspects that took place. Therefore, the correct order is SPRQ. 83. Sentence S should follow sentence 1 because it tells that science has influenced people’s lives. The next sentence would be P which specifically lists the influences. R further lists the influences science has had on people’s lives. Sentence Q tells that there are also some cons of the science. The word ‘however’ suggests that, a contradictory statement would follow after the positive aspects have been mentioned. This is linked to the 6th sentence which tells about the negative aspect of science. Therefore, the correct order is SPRQ. 84. Sentence Q must follow sentence 1 because it tells us about the importance of education. The usage of the pronoun ‘it’ suggests that it has been used for ‘better education’. The next sentence would be R as it talks about a specific kind of education, that is, school education. Sentence P continues to explain about the education system at the school level informing that it constitutes of three divisions. The next sentence would be S which states that all the divisions have their own importance and benefits. Therefore, the correct order is QRPS. 85. Sentence 1 must be followed by Q because it tells about the various types of risks involved in the banking sector. The word ‘these’ confirms that it refers to ‘risks’. The next sentence would be S which takes into consideration other crises that the bank have to face. Sentence P tells in what circumstances the crises have occurred in the past. R would follow next in the sequence as it states the examples of the crises. Therefore, the correct order is QSPR. 11 | P a g e 86. Sentence S should follow statement 1 because it tells us about the commonness of social problems. This constitutes one aspect of the opinion that has been put forward in 1. The next sentence should be option R which presents the other aspect of the opinion where a single aspect is considered as a social problem by one group and not by the other. P should follow Q because it states another such example. The usage of ‘similarly’ suggests that P should come after Q. Therefore, the correct order is SRQP. 87. Sentence R should follow sentence 1 because it tells us about the technology and people’s opinion on the same. The next sentence would be option P because it tells about the setbacks of possessing developed technology. This furthers the opinion mentioned in R. Option S further explains the change. The fifth sentence would be option Q progressing towards the advancement of technology and the possibilities by the United States which links it to sentence 6. Therefore, the correct order is RPSQ. 88. Sentence 1 presents a general idea as it mentions something about ‘most problems’. After this, sentence S should follow because it puts forward a specific idea by talking about the simplest problems. Q should follow next as it mentions that the statement mentioned in D can be elaborated with an example. P discusses the example. R elaborates it further. Therefore, the correct order is SQPR. 89. The heart‘s function is explained in sentence 1 and the second sentence would then be R which tells how the heart gets its energy in return. Note that the word ‘however’ in Q suggests that an idea contradicting the previous one will be introduced. So Q follows R as it explains Q as it explains how the blood flow may get obstructed .The next sentence in the sequence should be P as it names the process of obstruction. S forms the second last statement of the passage as it elaborates more about the effect of the obstruction before the consequences of total blockage is mentioned in sentence 6. Therefore, the correct order is RQPS. 90. The second sentence would be option P as it takes the idea of ‘tax benefit’ forward. S should be the next sentence because it discusses about the factors to be considered when a person decides to operate a business. Note that the usage of the word ‘also’ confirms that S follows P. Option Q continues to explain about a specific type of business, i.e. non-profit organization. The fifth sentence would be option R which tells about the need of a non-profit corporation. Therefore, the correct order is PSQR. 91. The sentence should continue with the description of the house. Since option Q states that something was higher than the houses, it is evident that option R follows sentence 1 as it uses the word ‘white’ and houses can be ‘white’. It is followed by option Q. Option Q talks about ‘front yards’ which is further described in option S making it the third part. Option P describes the stream and it is flow is seen in sentence 6. Thus the correct sequence of sentence is ‘RQSP’. Hence option 4 is the correct answer. 92. The sentence begins by stating how certainly the French are misunderstood. To maintain the continuity this should be followed by the parts talking about whose fault it is behind this misunderstanding. Options P and Q both have the word ‘fault’ in them. But option P is more appropriate as it starts with trying to understand whether the ‘fault’ lies with the French. Option P ends with how they may not be sufficiently explaining themselves and should be followed by the part explain this lack of sufficiency and its cause. Option R does the same and becomes the second part. Since Q talks about someone else’s fault it is evident that it precedes the 6th part of the sentence making option S the third part. Thus the correct order is PRSQ making option 2 the correct answer. 12 | P a g e 93. The given first part of the sentence states that universal elementary education has made steady progress. This should be followed by the period during which it made progress and part S fits the bill. Part S also mentions a boost it received and part Q which mentions the enactment of a certain Act should follow part S. the right provided by this Act should follow as defined by part R and lastly part P should come showing the age group on which the Act Is effective. Thus the correct order is SQRP making option 2 the correct answer. 94. The beginning of the sentence lists ‘skill development’ to be constituted in something on the national level. Off all the given parts, part R talks about the ‘priorities’ and is the second part of the sentence. Off parts P, Q and S the part following R should enlighten us as to why ‘skill development’ is critical. This is shown in part P which becomes the third part of the sentence. The fourth part is S as it follows part P in the same thought process while part Q succeeds after it. Thus the correct order is RPSQ or option 4. 95. A certain initiative is mentioned in the given first part of the sentence. It has been used as an example and part Q should follow this. Part mentions that broadband should ‘connect’. Connections occur in between two things and this is best described in part R which identifies medical specialists and rural patients. The effect this connection would have is described in part P and the facilities that it provides is shown in part S. thus the correct order is QRPS making option 2 the correct answer. 96. The given part of the sentence talks about a certain Index. This should be followed by a definition of it and part p fits the bill. The definition is not completed until it is said who provides the ‘information and services’ as outlined by part P. part R shows that it is proved by a country and this succeeds part P. part R must be followed by the part defining in what the citizens are engaged and that is outlined in part Q. this is followed by part S. thus the correct order is PRQS and option 3 is the right answer. 97. The proportion of foreign aid can either rise, fall or be same and since part Q mentions a continuous rise it is evident that it follows the given 1st part. It should be followed by the current scenario and this is elaborated in part R and Part S follows it to complete the flow. Part P follows after this to show the uncertainty thus created in economy. Thus the correct sequence is QRSP and option 1 is the correct answer. 98. The natural follow up to ‘gender’ is equality and part R follows the given 1st part. This is evidently part of a report and part Q follows R to establish the same. Since it mentions ‘health’ the natural choice is part S to follow up as ‘nutrition’ is related to health. Part P follows this. Thus the correct sequence is RQSP and option 2 is the correct answer. 99. The ‘currently married’ used in the 1st given part of the sentence shows that to keep the continuity part P must come after it which also emphasizes on ‘current marriage. The last given part of the sentence shows a different scenario by the use of the word ‘than’. Thus parts Q, R and S must follow order and come before it. Part Q should come after P as it introduces those women who face both physical and sexual violence. This should be followed by part R as it begins with the word violence and presents continuity to part Q. part S comes last. Thus the correct order of sentence is PQRS and option 4 is the correct answer. 13 | P a g e 100. The sentence ‘R’ describes the debt mentioned in ‘S’, therefore ‘SR’ form a link. Also, the 1st sentence should be followed by ‘P’ as it carries forward the line of thought which is describing the word. Hence, the correct order is ‘PQSR’. 101. The word ‘enfranchise’ means ‘to set free or to grant the citizenship of a place’. ‘Quell’ is incorrect because quell means to subdue or crush. ‘Suppress’ is incorrect because suppress means to end, inhibit, or subdue. ‘Subjugate’ is incorrect because subjugate means to conquer or enslave. Hence, ‘liberate’ is correct because liberate means ‘to free or emancipate’. This is synonymous with enfranchise. 102. ‘Amicable’ means a person who is friendly in nature. So, ‘friendly’ is the word closest to amicable in its meaning. ‘Perfect’ is ideal. ‘Joyous’ and ‘happy’ are synonyms and it means cheerful. These three options are not relevant. Thus option 1 is the correct answer. 103. The given word means a tendency to do nothing. So the correct synonym for it is ‘Idleness’ which means lethargy or laziness. The word ‘Liveliness’ means full of vital energy The word ‘Life’ means symbol of existence The word ‘activity’ means a thing that a person or group does or has done. 104. To 'construct' is to build or make. To 'destroy' is to damage something by attacking it. The correct answer is option number 3 because construct is the opposite of destroyed. 'Shook', 'overloaded' and 'flooded' are irrelevant as they do not signify either building or damaging. 105. To 'combine' is to join or merge. To 'separate' is the opposite of combine. 'Regarding' means to respect someone, 'ignoring' means to avoid whereas 'revealing' means to uncover. 106. 'Negligence' means failure to take proper care of or pay attention to something. 'Attentiveness' is to be attentive towards something or thoughtfully attend to something or take care of something. The correct answer is option number 1 because the opposite of negligence is attentiveness. 'Slackness' meaning not using due care is a synonym whereas 'philanthropy' means to be generous and stupidity is not related to the word. 107. Whenever we are talking about a motion which involves an active interaction of two objects (car and tree in this case) we use 'into'. So we need to replace 'to' with into. 108. In this sentence we are highlighting a special characteristic of the team and therefore the in the beginning of the sentence also we are referring to the team and the correct pronoun to do that is 'Ours'. 109. 'Unless' means 'if not' and when it is used there is no need to use another negative in the same clause. Therefore we should rewrite like: Unless you work hard you will not pass the examinations. 14 | P a g e 110. In case like this where two actions are taking place in future, the conditional clause( When I will....) should be expressed in simple present tense and the main clause( I will visit....) shall be in future tense. 111. The noun railway station is a definite noun and it should be preceded by the article “the.” Hence the correct form of the sentence is, “May I know where the Airport is?” 112. 'Let' is always followed by objective case pronouns. 'I' is a subjective case pronoun. 'I' must be replaced with 'me'. 113. There has been a wrong use of conjunction in the given sentence. The conjunction ‘or’ refer to a choice that either he loved her or not tell her which doesn’t make any sense. Instead, other conjunctions like ‘but’ that represents contrast between the two parts of the sentences would make perfect sense. Therefore, the sentence must read – ‘he loved her but he could not tell her.’ 114. The preposition that should be used in this case should be ‘beside’ which means right next to. The word ‘besides’ means other than that. 115. The correct sentence is “We should not look down upon/on the needy”.’ Look down upon’ is an idiom which means ‘to consider someone/something as not so important or of lesser value’. So the preposition “upon/on” should appear after “look down” in order to correct it grammatically. This idiom can also be otherwise phrased as “look down your nose at somebody/something”. Thus, 2 is the correct option. 116. The main verbs used after the modal ‘should’ are always in the base form irrespective of the number of the subject. E.g.: She should go down to meet him. They should go down to meet him. In the sentence, ‘transgresses’ must be changed to ‘transgress’ to make the sentence grammatically correct. The error is in the third part of the sentence 117. There is an incorrect use of preposition in the sentence. The frog cannot hop ‘on’ the park. It must be hopping ‘inside’ the park denoting the location of the activity and not on top of the park. Thus ‘on’ needs to be replaced by ‘in’ to make the sentence grammatically correct. There is an error in the first part. 118. The subject of the sentence is such that it is talking about a friend. ‘Going out of the way’ means taking extra effort to do something. Here, since the friend has put in the effort, a possessive pronoun must have been used in place of ‘that’. Thus the error is in the third part. ’That’ needs to be replaced by ‘his’ or ‘her’. 119. The error in this particular sentence lies in the use of the preposition ‘by’ preceding the phrase ‘his own convenience’. It is to be noted here that the sentence is not talking about the mode of coming, but rather the time. Therefore, the correct preposition should be ‘at’. Hence, there is an error in option 3. 15 | P a g e 120. The verbs such as discussed, describe, order and request are transitive verbs. These should not be used with a preposition. The correct sentence should be: 'The committee discussed the matter yesterday.' 121. The adverb, ‘too’ means “more than what is required” and should not be used interchangeably with very or much. Hence the correct sentence should be: The news is too good to be true. 122. We have to use an adjective which qualifies the noun i.e. apartment. But, in the sentence ‘rent apartment’ has been used. ‘Rent’ is a noun, which cannot qualify the noun apartment. So, instead of rent we have to use ‘rented’ which is the past participle. A past participle always acts as an adjective and thus can qualify a noun. 123. Here, the error is in the use of the word ‘informations’. ‘Information’ is an uncountable noun and thus does not have a plural form. It is incorrect to add an ‘s’ after it when we are denoting more than one piece of information. 124. Use ' among' here instead of 'between'. The sentence talks about the prize money that is shared by the team members. But, there are 'four' members. So, we have to use 'among'. 'Between' is used when the number is 'two’. For more than two, we have to use 'among'. Thus error is in part 3 of the sentence. The corrected sentence would be: The four team member shared the prize money among themselves. 125. Use ' tremendously' instead of 'tremendous'. The sentence talks about the increase in number of working couples and 'senior citizens living alone'. ‘Increased’ is a verb. To qualify a verb we need an adverb not an adjective. Tremendous is an adjective, we have to use an adverb i.e. ‘tremendously’. Thus the error is in part 3. 126. There is an incorrect use of tense in the sentence. Since the time frame mentioned is ‘yesterday’, ‘looked’ (past tense) of ‘look’ should be the correct tense to be used in the sentence. Thus the error is in option 4. 127. ‘Counsel’ means advice and a ‘counsellor’ gives advice. ‘Council’ is a board of people for a particular task and the head of that group is the ‘councillor’ who is actually the local administrative head in a ward, so surveying the four options option 4 seems most apt. 128. ‘Quarrel’ and ‘argument’ are not something that can last for two decades. ‘Fight’ and ‘feud’ are the probable terms for the blank but feud is slightly a better fit for the blank so option 4 is the answer. 129. The first and second options can be eliminated because they are grammatically incorrect within themselves. On the other hand, the third option is in present continuous which does not fit in with the past tense used in the sentence. Hence, the correct answer is ‘had arrived’ that is the past perfect. This is because the arrival of the guest had taken place before the action of arriving at the house. 16 | P a g e 130. ‘Anticipation’, ‘compensation’ do not give a legitimate meaning to the sentence. ‘Perpetration’, which means, committing a crime, must have been used before defining the nature of crime, like‘accused of perpetration due to bringing money’. Thus, ‘violation’, meaning to go against, appropriately fits. 131. ‘All others’ and ‘altogether’ cannot be used as the sentence aims to refer to something mutual, and they refer to the cluster of people in general. Since we are not talking about two specific individuals, 'each other' is not correct. We are talking about all the students helping the other individuals in a classroom, thus 'one another' is the correct option. 132. ‘Beware’ is to be cautious about something whereas ‘aware’ is to know about something. Here, the subject of the sentence did not know about the dogs in the house. Hence the correct usage would be, “were not aware of”. The correct preposition to be used is ‘of’. 133. Diners rate restaurants and hotels based on the service provided by their staff. Hence, the word ‘service’ is the best fitted. 134. When we say someone is eating his meal, we use the term ‘having’. Thus option 2 is the correct answer 135. To ‘insinuate’ means 'to suggest or hint in an indirect and unpleasing manner.' To ‘conjecture’ means 'to form an opinion or supposition about something on the basis of incomplete knowledge.' To ‘underscore’ means 'to put emphasis on something.' Thus, 2 is the best option to use in the phrase. 136. ‘Efficacy’ means 'effectiveness' i.e. the ability of something. ‘Effigy’ is a 'sculpture or a model of a person.' 'Frequency' means 'the rate at which something occurs over a particular period of time or in a given sample' ‘Efficiency’ which refers to the 'ability to do something without a waste of time and money' is the most appropriate choice. 137. Germany is compared to the other European states individually and not as a whole, hence ‘any other’ has to be used. ‘Any other’ is used in the comparative degree. For eg: Our product is better than any other product in the market. 138. In the sentence, there is a comparison between two things: average rainfall and the present rainfall. Thus, a comparative degree is required. Also, ‘number’ refers to individual things that can be counted (e.g. pens) and ‘amount’ is used to refer to a something that cannot be counted (e.g. water). Thus option 3 is the correct phrase to replace in the sentence. 139. ‘Then’ is used to indicate something following something else in time, as in step-by-step instructions, or planning a schedule (we’ll go to the mall and then we will go to the restaurant). ‘Than’ is 17 | P a g e used for comparisons. Here, a comparison is being stated. This is evident from the use of the comparative adjective 'more'. Thus ‘than’ is the correct answer. 140. ‘For’ is used to indicate duration of time. ‘Since’ is used to indicate a point of time in past as the starting point . Thus, in the above sentence, ‘since’ is the most appropriate preposition. Hence, 3 is the correct answer. 141. Since the verb ‘finish’ in the sentence is preceded by an-ing verb ‘having’, the verb ‘finish’ cannot be in the –ing form. It needs to be in the –ed form. Thus, the correct phrase to replace the sentence is ‘having finished’. 142. It is to be noted here that the subject of the sentence (time) is singular. Therefore, the demonstrative pronoun should be singular to denote the singular subject. Hence, the correct phrase to use in the sentence should be ‘that was the’. Thus the correct option is 3. 143. The sentence does not need any improvement. 144. ‘Was being suspended’ implies that the process of suspension was being continued in the past. This is illogical. The simple past tense should be used to denote the action of suspension. ‘Suspended’ cannot be directly used here since the subject ‘match’ is a non-living object and cannot suspend on its own. The sentence has to be in the past tense and in the passive voice. Thus, ‘was suspended’ needs to be used in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. 145. ‘Your’ means belonging to you. It indicates possession. ‘You’re’ is a contraction for ‘you are.’ For instance: You’re driving really fast. Your dog is adorable. ‘While’ indicates a duration and thus is not suitable in the context here eliminating option 2. Hence option 1 'when you're coming' is the right answer. 146. The use of the preposition ‘off’ implies that the boy fell down from the roof, and not simply on the roof itself. The preposition ‘off’ indicates separation of something from another thing. Hence, it conveys the desired meaning effectively. 147. The auxiliary ‘ought’ is used to express the duty or obligation of any action. The context of the sentence is such that it expresses the duty of paying taxes. Thus, ‘ought to pay’ is the correct phrase to substitute in the sentence. 148. The sentence talks about last evening which shows that the event has occurred in the past. Thus, we have to use the past form of the verb ‘send’ i.e. ‘sent’. Hence, the correct option to replace the phrase is ‘sent out’. ‘At’ is the incorrect preposition to be used in the sentence. 149. ‘In accordance with’ means following or in coherence with. The right preposition should be used here. Hence, ‘in’ is the correct choice. 18 | P a g e 150. ‘Under the provisions of’ means ‘under the guidance of’ or ‘with the help of’. The right preposition should be used in this phrase. Hence, ‘under’ is the correct choice. 151. The error in this sentence lies in the use of the conjunction ‘by’. It is to be realized that in this particular sentence, the issue being talked about is the implementation of the new system from a particular date. The meaning that is being conveyed here is that the system will be effective from this time. Hence, the preposition suited to convey this meaning would be ‘with’. Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer. 152. The word ‘better’ in the sentence is already present in the comparative degree. Using the word ‘most’ which is a superlative makes the sentence grammatically incorrect. Hence, the correct phrase to be used must be in the superlative degree to convey the required meaning. Thus, ‘the best available’ is the correct phrase to be used in the sentence. 153. It is to be noted here that the subject of the sentence (several of the older devices) is plural. Therefore, the verb has to agree with the plural subject. Hence, the correct phrase would be to replace has with the plural form ‘have’ making option 1 the correct answer. 154. The given sentence is in present perfect. So to change it into passive voice auxiliary verb ‘have/has been’ has to be placed before the main verb.The subject ‘decisions’ is plural so we ‘have’ instead of ‘has’. Hence, option 1 is the correct one. 155. We see that the verb in the active voice is in simple past. So in the passive voice, the auxiliary verb ‘was’ should be used before the main verb in past participle. The object becomes the subject in the passive voice. 156. ‘Who’ in the active becomes ‘by whom’ in the passive voice. Also, simple past in the active becomes (was/were+ main verb in the passive voice) in the passive. 157. ‘Is celebrated’ in the passive voice must be changed to the simple present ‘celebrate’ and the object must be changed to the subject in the active voice. Option 4 is the correct answer. 158. Here the object ‘by circumstances’ is incorporated in the active voice since it acts as a subject. The past tense in passive voice ‘was obliged’ changes to ‘obliged’ so option 4 is the correct answer. Note that the pronoun ‘me’ is an object pronoun converted from ‘I’ a subject pronoun in the passive voice. 159. The Active and Passive Voice should not be associated with any kind of change of tense in this case. Only ‘have lost’ will become ‘has been lost’ since ‘book’ is a third person singular noun unlike ‘I’ for which ‘have’ was used. 160. For interrogative sentences beginning with do, does did, etc. following steps must be followed to change them into passive. ‘Did’ should be replaced by ‘was/were’ accordingly. The verb should be changed to the past participle form and the subject should be mentioned as ‘by all ‘candidates’. 19 | P a g e 161. The object becomes the subject and the auxiliary is used in terms of the new subject. Here, ‘good men’ is the plural subject that takes the plural verb ‘are’. 162. The auxiliary ‘be’ verb which is not present in the active voice will appear in the passive voice. When no subject is mentioned in an imperative sentence, ‘let’ is used at the beginning of the sentence followed by the object. 163. The simple past changes with the addition of ‘was’ before the main verb in the participle form and the object in the active voice becomes the subject. 164. Many hours of work is considered as a single object so in the passive voice ‘is’ is used and not ‘are’. Since the verb is in the present continuous tense, in the passive voice we use ‘is being put’. 165. The verb is in simple past tense. So in the passive voice the auxiliary verb will be ‘was’ followed by the main verb in the past participle form. 166. The passive voice is ‘has been’ as the auxiliary verb and the past participle form of the word ‘written’ follows. So the active voice should be in present perfect tense and thus option 4 is the correct answer. 167. No change of tense is associated with the change of active to passive voice in this case. Only the auxiliary verb ‘was’ is added before the verb ‘established’. In passive voice, sometimes the doer of the action is not mentioned. 168. The verb is in simple past tense. So in the passive voice the auxiliary verb will be ‘was’ followed by the main verb in the past participle form. 169. The active voice is an interrogative sentence in the present perfect tense. So, in the passive voice the auxiliary verb will be ‘have been’, followed by the past participle form of the main verb 170. The verb is in the simple past tense (rescued). So in the passive voice auxiliary verb will be were, followed by the past participle form of the main verb. 171. The verb is in the past perfect tense so in the passive form the auxiliary verb will be ‘had been’ followed by the past participle form of the verb. Thus option 4 satisfies this criterion. 172. For changing imperative sentences to passive voice, auxillary verb ‘be’ is used. The word ‘let’ is added to the beginning of the sentence. The main verb in the imperative sentence is changed to the participle form of the verb(inform->informed). 173. The given interrogative sentence is in present perfect so in the passive voice the auxiliary verb ‘been’ has to introduced followed by the verb in the past participle form. 174. Since the clerk is a subordinate to Mr. Mathew, instead of ‘asked’ as in option 1, it should be ‘ordered’ and the infinitive form is used and thus option 4 is the correct answer. 20 | P a g e 175. The sentence states a universal fact and thus the present tense should be used to report the same. Thus, option 3 is the sentence that states it in the present tense. 176. ‘May’ in direct speech becomes ‘might’ in the indirect speech along with the usual introduction of ‘that’ so option 4 is the answer. 177. Present perfect in direct speech is converted to past perfect in indirect speech and ‘this’ becomes ‘that’ so option 2 is the answer. 178. The conjunctions like whether/if should come in the indirect form of the interrogative sentence and obviously ‘will’ becomes ‘would’ in indirect speech so option 1 is the correct answer. 179. The simple present tense changes to simple past tense in the indirect speech and thus option 3 is the correct answer. 180. ‘Shall/ Will’ in direct speech becomes ‘would’ when it represents future tense in indirect speech so option 4 is the correct answer. 181. ‘Said’ in direct speech becomes ‘asked’ in indirect speech and ‘was’ in indirect should be ‘is’ in direct speech. So option 1 is the answer. 182. Since the reporting verb is ‘enquired’, it implies that the sentence is in the interrogative sense. Thus in the direct speech, we can use either ‘enquired’ or ‘asked’. The sentence is in the past perfect tense in the indirect speech and thus in the direct speech it should be in the present perfect tense. Option 4 satisfies this criteria. 183. The word “please” takes the corresponding verb “request” in the indirect form. The infinitive form ‘to warm’ and ‘to boil’ are used. 184. The indirect speech takes the simple past tense of the verb. ‘Will’ changes to ‘would’. The pronoun changes from the first person to the third person. Also, the article remains constant. Thus the correct answer is 3. 185. This is a general statement and thus the tense of the verb does not change. Also, whenever an object is present we change ‘said’ to ‘told’. It is reported in the simple present tense and the first option is the only one doing that with the reporting verb as ‘told’. 186. The indirect speech uses the past perfect tense of the verb. Thus, ‘have been’ must be replaced by ‘had been’ in the indirect speech. 187. The negative command given by the guide can be represented by ‘forbade’. Thus option 4 is the correct answer. We could have used option 1 if it would have been in the form ‘….not to swim out too far.’ 21 | P a g e 188. The indirect speech will use the past tense. ‘Shall’ changes to ‘would’. Thus the correct sentence is option 4. 189. The “whether” clause is used when a ‘yes/no’ type of question is posed in the direct speech. ‘Will’ changes to ‘would’. 190. The given sentence is an imperative sentence. In imperative sentences, the verb ‘said ’ can be changed to ‘asked ’ or ‘told’ in the direct speech. Also the full meaning of the given direct speech is found in options 3 and 4. But option 4 introduces ‘us’ in the sentence and no reference for it can be found in the direct speech. Thus option 3 is correct. 191. For a universal truth the tense used is the simple present tense for both the direct and indirect speech. Thus option 4 is the correct answer. 192. The direct sentence clearly shows that the word ‘requested’ should be present in the indirect speech. The usual usage is to put the reported verb before the main clause and thus option 3 is the correct answer. 193. The indirect sentence needs to be changed to the direct speech. We want to retain the meaning of the sentence and thus option 1 suits the best. 194. The modal ‘Might’ is replaced by ‘may’ in the direct speech and ‘next day’ by tomorrow. Thus, option 1 is the perfect answer. 195. Options 2 and 3 are grammatically incorrect and option 4 does not conform to the given indirect sentence. Option 1 is the correct answer by method of elimination. 196. Usually in most of the cases “hurray” of direct speech is replaced by ‘exclaimed with joy’ and the past perfect of indirect speech should become present perfect in direct speech. 197. In this type of conversion from direct to indirect speech conjunctions like if/ whether are necessary. The present tense should change to past tense and thus option 1 is the correct answer. 198. The indirect speech is in the past continuous tense. So the direct speech should use the present continuous tense and since it is a question the verb should come before the object. Also, the pronoun ‘you’ changes to ‘I’. Thus option 2 is the correct answer. 199. ‘Would’ in the indirect speech changes to ‘will’ in the direct speech. That day’ changes to ‘today’. Thus option 2 satisfies this criteria and thus is the right answer. 200. While reporting commands and requests, the indirect speech is introduced by verb expressing command or request. In the direct speech ‘please’ is used, hence reporting verb will be ‘requested’ and the imperative mood is changed to the Infinitive. Simple present in the direct will become simple past in the indirect (return-returned). ‘Here’ in the direct becomes ‘there’ in the indirect. 22 | P a g e SSC CGL Tier II Quant Live Leak (based on 2016 Predicted Pattern) SSC CGL Tier II Quant Live Leak Answer Key & Solutions SSC CGL Tier II English Live Leak (based on 2016 Predicted Pattern) More SSC CGL Tier II Mock Tests like this Clear SSC CGL Quant in 1 Day! Predicted Question Bank in PDF SSC JE Recruitment Notification 2016 SSC CHSL Recruitment Notification 2016 23 | P a g e
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