Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------1)
The cells in multicellular organisms are…
a) identical
b) specialized
c) prokaryotic
d) not differentiated
2) As a cell grows larger, in order to move materials across the cell membrane and place
fewer demands on its DNA, the cell may respond by…
a) undergoing meiosis
b) undergoing mitosis
c) making gametes
d) making zygotes
3) Eukaryotic cells are different from prokaryotic cells because eukaryotic cells
a) are much smaller.
b) have permeable membranes.
c) have a higher rate of reproduction.
d) have nuclei.
4)
The plasma (cell) membrane of a cell consists of
a) protein molecules arranged in a bilayer with polar areas forming the outside
of the membrane.
b) A bilayer of lipids organized with the nonpolar tails forming the interior of
the membrane.
c) lipid molecules positioned between two carbohydrate layers.
d) protein molecules with polar and nonpolar tails.
5) Some cells, such as human nerve and muscle cells, contain many more mitochondria
than do other cells, such as skin cells. Why do some cells have more mitochondria than
others?
a) the cells use more energy.
b) the cells store more nutrients.
c) the cells degrade more proteins.
d) the cells divide more frequently
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
6) Which of these directly allows blood cells to transport oxygen to various parts of the
body?
a) carbon dioxide
b) hemoglobin
c) antibodies
d) platelets
7) Specialized cells, having cell walls, a large central vacuole, chloroplasts and a
eukaryotic nucleus are most likely…
a) fungi
b) plant
c) animal
d) bacteria
8)
Which cell organelle breaks down compounds into smaller particles for disposal?
a) nucleus
b) vacuole
c) ribosome
d) lysosome
9) Which statement accurately compares the functions of mitochondria and chloroplasts?
a) Plants carry out photosynthesis but not cellular respiration.
b) Both plants and animals carry out photosynthesis and cellular respiration.
c) Animals carry out photosynthesis in the mitochondria.
d) Plants carry out photosynthesis and cellular respiration, while animals only
carry out cellular respiration.
10)
Use the information in the box below to determine which is the correct list of
organelles for the following functions in the synthesis of a new protein molecule.
The first organelle contains the information.
The second organelle assembles the protein.
The third organelle packages the protein.
a)
b)
c)
d)
cell membrane, cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum
nucleus, ribosome, Golgi apparatus (body)
nucleolus, mitochondrion, vacuole
Golgi apparatus (body), vacuole, nucleus
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
11) Which process allows for an organism to increase the number of somatic (body) cells
during development?
a) Budding
b) Conjugation
c) Meiosis
d) Mitosis
12) A cell with 24 chromosomes undergoes mitosis twice. How many chromosomes will
each daughter cell have?
a) 6
b) 12
c) 24
d) 48
13)
At the end of mitosis, each daughter cell has
a) the same number and kinds of chromosomes as in the parent cell.
b) the same number but different kinds of chromosomes as in the parent cell.
c) twice the number of chromosomes as in the parent cell.
d) half the number of chromosomes as in the parent cell.
14) Which of the following processes accounts for the growth of a baby into a toddler,
the growth and development of an acorn into an oak tree, and the healing of a wound?
a) protein synthesis
b) metabolism
c) mitosis
d) DNA replication
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
Lymphocytes extracted from the rat kangaroo, Potorous tridactylus, were grown in culture
for karyotype analysis. To obtain chromosome spreads, such as that illustrated below,
lymphocytes were incubated in the antimitotic drug colchicine for 30 minutes before
fixation and staining. The chromosomes depicted below are representative of the
karyotype found in all of the cells of the culture.
15) Which of the following correctly describes the chromosome number in this rat
kangaroo cell?
a) The haploid chromosome number is 12.
b) The haploid chromosome number is 24.
c) The diploid chromosome number is 12.
d) The diploid chromosome number is 24.
16) The cell membrane of the red blood cell will allow water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and
glucose to pass through. Because other substances are blocked from entering, this
membrane is called
a) perforated.
b) semi-permeable.
c) non-conductive.
d) permeable.
17) Cells move water, gases, nutrients, and waste across their cell membranes in order to
a) maintain their temperature.
b) reduce the surface area of the cell membrane.
c) maintain homeostasis.
d) move within their environment.
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
18) A molecule can easily diffuse through the selectively permeable membrane of an animal
cell. Which of these most likely describes the molecule?
a) The molecule is small and charged.
b) The molecule is large and charged.
c) The molecule is small and not charged.
d) The molecule is large and not charged.
19)
Which of the following requires active transport to move through the cell membrane?
a) Proteins
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Water
d) Oxygen
20) An animal cell with a 2% salt concentration is placed in distilled water which has a
salt concentration of 0%. Which statement below describes the changes that will
occur in the cell?
a) The cell will swell because it is placed in a hypertonic solution.
b) The cell will shrink because it is placed in a hypotonic solution.
c) The cell will swell because it is placed in a hypotonic solution.
d) The cell will shrink because it is placed in a hypertonic solution.
21) The diagram below shows two sides of a cell membrane. Which statement best
describes osmosis across the cell membrane?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Salt will move into the cell and water will move out of the cell.
Salt will move out of the cell.
Water will move into the cell, and salt will move out of the cell.
Water will move out of the cell.
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
22) A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling
decreases. Which has occurred?
a) the swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution.
b) the saltwater solution lowers the temperature of the water in the gums.
c) the salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient.
d) the water in the gums has moved from a high to a low concentration of water.
23) Which is NOT a role of water in living cells?
a) used in chemical reactions
b) maintains body temperature
c) maintains turgor pressure
d) directs cell division
24)The numbers in the figure below represent the chromosome number found in each of
the dog cells shown. The processes that are occurring at A and B are _____________.
a)
b)
c)
a)
mitosis and fertilization
mitosis and pollination
meiosis and pollination
meiosis and fertilization
25)The diploid number of chromosomes in humans is 46. The haploid number is
a) 138
b) 92
c) 46
d) 23
26)How many daughter cells are formed in meiosis?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
27)What is the result of the fertilization of an egg?
a) It restores the diploid number of chromosomes.
b) It deletes polypeptide chains in the chromosomes.
c) It gives offspring more chromosomes than the parents.
d) It produces offspring with a haploid number of chromosomes.
28)Two gametes, each containing 20 chromosomes, join during fertilization. How many
chromosomes will the zygote cell contain?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 40
d) 80
29)A blue colored kernel in corn is a recessive trait (yy). What is the genotype of corn
that produces yellow kernels but when crossed with blue kernel corn produces
offspring at a ratio of 6:1 (yellow:blue)?
a) yy
30)
b) YY
c) Yy
d) Unable to determine
How many different allele combinations would be found in gametes produced by a
pea plant with the genotype of RrYY?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
31) In pea plants, tall pea plants are dominant over short pea plants. Which cross would
produce the most phenotypic variation in the offspring?
a) TT x Tt
b) Tt x tt
c) TT x tt
d) Tt x Tt
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
The pedigree below traces the inheritance of alkaptonuria, a biochemical disorder.
Affected individuals, indicated here by the filled-in circles and squares, are unable to
break down a substance called alkapton, which colors the urine and stains body tissues.
32)Based on the pedigree above, this disorder is____________.
a) dominant
b) recessive
c) sex-linked
d) cannot be determined based on this information
33)Based on the pedigree above, what is the genotype of the first male in the fourth
generation (indicated by the star )?
a) XAY
b) Aa
c) aa
d) Unable to determine
34)Colorblindness is a sex-linked trait in humans. What is the probability of a female child
being color blind if her mother is color blind and her father has normal color vision?
a) 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 0%
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
Hawaiian happy face spiders from the island of Maui can have different markings, as shown
below. A single gene determines the markings on the spiders.
A plain spider is crossed with a patterned spider. The patterned spider is homozygous. The
pattern allele is dominant to the plain allele.
35)What percentage of the offspring from this cross are expected to be patterned
instead of plain?
a)
b)
c)
d)
0%
25%
50%
100%
36)In humans, free earlobes are dominant over attached earlobes. A man with free
earlobes, whose mom had attached earlobes, marries and has a baby with a woman with
attached earlobes. What is the probability of the child having free earlobes?
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
37)Jared can roll his tongue (a dominant trait in humans) and is proud of it. His mom
cannot roll her tongue. What is the chance that Jared’s dad can roll his tongue?
a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 100%
d) Cannot be determined based on this information
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
38)In four o’clock flowers, red and white flowers exhibit incomplete dominance. If a red
flower is crossed with a white flower, the F1 generation is all pink. What percent of
the F2 generation will be red?
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 100%
39)Which is NOT an advantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
It provides genetic variety.
b)
It reduces the frequency of damaging
genetic mutations.
c)
It helps limit the occurrence of
genetic diseases.
d)
Population increases are limited.
40)
Which of the choices below is NOT an advantage of asexual reproduction?
a) Populations can grow quickly
b) Diversity of offspring
c) Does not require a mate to reproduce
d) New species evolve quickly
41) Two students were testing the amount of fertilizer that would best promote the
growth of strawberries in a garden. Which of the following could be an unavoidable
source of experimental error?
a) length of the study
b) variation in the strawberry plants
c) the cost of watering the plants
d) fertilization during the study
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
42) In most stable freshwater environments, populations of Daphnia are almost entirely
female and reproduce asexually. However, males are observed in low oxygen
environments or when food is scarce. Based on these observations, a researcher
suggests that male Daphnia develop in response to unfavorable environmental
conditions. This is an example of a
a) result.
b) theory.
c) procedure.
d) hypothesis.
Students in a biology laboratory are monitoring the rate at which hydrogen
peroxide breaks down to produce water and oxygen gas. They begin monitoring a sample of
hydrogen peroxide and then add catalase, an enzyme that speeds up its breakdown. Their
data are shown in the table below.
Time
(min)
0.0
Rate of Hydrogen Peroxide Breakdown
(molecules per min)
0
0.5
0.030
1.0
0.032
1.5
4,970,000
2.0
5,001,000
2.5
4,985,300
3.0
5,021,700
43)Based on the data in this table, during which of the following time periods did the
students add the catalase to the hydrogen peroxide?
a)between 0.0 and 0.5 min
b)between 1.0 and 1.5 min
c)between 2.0 and 2.5 min
d)between 2.5 and 3.0 min
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
Some bacteria live in hot springs. Their cells contain enzymes that function best at
temperatures of 70°C or higher.
44)At a temperature of 50°C, how will the enzymes in these bacterial cells most likely be
affected?
a)the enzymes will be destroyed by lysosomes.
b)the enzymes will lose their bond structure and fall apart.
c)the enzymes will require less energy to function than at 70°C.
d)the enzymes will not increase the rate of reactions as much as they
would at 70°C.
45)Which of the following best explains why enzymes are necessary for many cellular
reactions?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Enzymes supply the oxygen necessary for the reactions.
Enzymes change reactants from solid to liquid during the reactions.
The reactions take up too much space in the cell if enzymes are missing.
The reactions are too slow to meet the needs of the cell if enzymes are
missing.
46)In the human body, fibrinogen is a protein necessary for sealing cuts and stopping the
loss of blood. Which of the following best describes the molecular structure of
fibrinogen?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a group of six carbon atoms joined in a ring
a chain of amino acids folded and twisted into a molecule
a set of three fatty acids attached to a molecule of glycerol
a sequence of nitrogenous bases attached to a sugar-phosphate backbone
47)Which of the following is a central role of carbon in the chemistry of living organisms?
a) carbon can only bond with other carbon atoms.
b) carbon is a solvent that breaks chemical bonds.
c) carbon readily forms ionic bonds that separate easily.
d) carbon can form many types of molecules with covalent bonds.
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
Many land plants store energy in starch. When energy is needed, the starch molecules can
be broken down quickly.
48)This chemical reaction produces which of the following?
a)
b)
c)
d)
amino acids
lipids
monosaccharides
nucleotides
49) Many plants have waxy coatings on some surfaces. This coating reduces water loss
because it is not water-permeable. This waxy coating is which of the following types of
organic molecule?
a.
b.
c.
d.
carbohydrate
lipid
nucleic acid
protein
A student filled two Petri dishes with a clear cornstarch gel, then marked the letter “X”
invisibly onto the gel in Petri dish 1 with a damp cotton swab. He then placed saliva from
his mouth onto a second cotton swab and used that swab to mark the letter “X” invisibly
onto the gel in Petri dish
2.
Fifteen minutes later, he rinsed both Petri dishes with a dilute solution of iodine to
indicate the presence of starch. The surface of Petri dish 1 turned completely blue,
indicating starch. Most of the surface of Petri dish 2 was blue, except the letter “X” was
clear, as shown above.
Biology One Common Assessment-Student Copy
50)The most probable explanation of the clear “X” is that
a)
b)
c)
d)
the starch in the gel was absorbed by the damp cotton swab.
the iodine reacted with a chemical in the saliva and broke down.
a chemical in the saliva broke down the starch in the gel.
the saliva prevented the iodine from contacting the starch in the gel.