KERALA PMT 2014 - SOLVED PAPER
Paper-I Chemistry & Physics
1.
2.
3.
When ammonium chloride is added to ammonium hydroxide
solution, the dissociation of ammonium hydroxide is
supressed due to
(a) hydrolysis
(b) oxidation
(c) reduction
(d) increase in dielectric constant
(e) common ion effect
The pKa of a weak acid HA and pKb of a weak base BOH are
4.60 and 4.80 respectively. The pH of 0. 1 M solution of the
salt, BA, formed from the acid HA and base BOH is
(a) 7.10
(b) 9.40
(c) 6.90
(d) 0.20
(e) 4.80
In which one of the following equilibria will the point of
equilibrium shift to left when the pressure of the system is
increased?
7.
8.
9.
10.
(c) C(s) + O2(g) ƒ CO2(g)
(d) 2H2(g) + O2(g) ƒ 2H2O(g)
4.
5.
6.
(e) 2H2(g) + O2 (g) ƒ H2O(l)
The experimental and calculated elevation in boiling points
of an electrolyte AB in its aqueous solution at a given
concentration are 0.81 K and 0.54 K respectively. The
percentage ionization of the electrolyte at this concentration
is
(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 60
(e) 80
Which one of the following binary liquid mixtures exhibits
negative deviation from Raoult's law?
(a) n-hexane-n-heptane
(b) Chloroform-acetone
(c) Carbondisulphide-acetone
(d) Bromoethane-chloroethene
(e) Benzene-toluene
An electrolyte (AB) is 100 % ionized in 10 % aqueous
solution. What is the osmotic pressure (L-atm.) of a 10 %
solution of the electrolyte at 300 K if molecular weight of
AB is 200 g mol-1?
(R = 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1)
(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 246
(d) 24.6
(e) 2.46
2.303 RT
value at 298 K = 0.06 V)
F
(a) l.l295 V
(b) 0.100 V
(c) 1.07 V
(d) 0.76 V
(e) l.l V
The tl/2 for a zero order reaction at the initial concentration
of 6 × l0–3 M is one minute at 27°C. The rate constant at
27°C in mol dm–3s–1 is
(a) 3 × 10–4
(b) 6 × 10–4
–5
(c) 5 × 10
(d) 5 × 10–4
–5
(e) 3 × 10
The inversion of cane sugar is first order in [sugar] and
proceeds with half-life of 600 minutes at pH = 4 for a given
concentration of sugar. However, if pH = 5, the half-life
changes to 60 minutes. The rate law expression for the sugar
inversion can be written as
(a) rate = k[sugar]1[H+]2
(b) rate = k[sugar]1[H+]1
(c) rate = k[sugar]1 [H+]4
(d) rate = k[sugar]1[H+]0
(e) rate = k[sugar]1[H+]5
In an attempt to compare the half-lives of two radioactive
elements A and B, a scientist set aside 400 g of each. After
3 months, the scientist found 25 g of A and 200 g of B.
Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Half-life of B is twice that of A
(b) Half-life of B is four times that of A
(c) Half-life of A is twice that of B
(d) Half-life of A is four times that of B
(e) Half-life of B is eight times that of A
When molten magnesium oxide was electrolysed for a certain
period, 150 mg of Mg was deposited on the cathode. The
volume of oxygen gas in cm3 at STP conditions at the anode
during the same period is (atomic mass of Mg = 24 g mol –1)
(a) 140
(b) 280
(c) 70
(d) 120
(e) 240
at 298 K is (
(a) H2(g) + I2(g) ƒ 2HI(g)
(b) 2NH3(g) ƒ N2(g) + 3H2(g)
In the electrolysis of aqueous solution of copper sulphate
using copper strips as anode and cathode, the anode
reaction is
(a) Cu2+ + 2e– ® Cu
(b) Cu ® Cu2+ + 2e–
(c) 2HO– ® H2 + ½O2 + 2e–
(d) SO42– ® SO4 + 2e–
(e) 2HSO4– ® H2S2O8 + 2e–
0.001 mole of strong electrolyte Zn(OH)2 is present in
200 mL of an aqueous solution. The pH of this solution is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 12
(d) 10
(e) 7
If the standard potential for Daniel cell is 1.1 V, then the
potential of the cell when [Zn 2+] = l .0M and [Cu2+] = 0.l M
11.
12.
13.
2014-2
14. Which one of the following is not explained by adsorption?
(a) When acetic acid solution is shaken with charcoal the
concentration of the acid decreases
(b) The white precipitate of Mg(OH)2 attains blue colour
when precipitated in the presence of magneson reagent
(c) The air becomes dry in the presence of silica gel
(d) An aqueous solution of NaOH attains pink colour with
a drop of phenolphthalein
(e) When animal charcoal is shaken with coloured
methylene blue solution, the solution turns colourless
15. The hybridization of central metal ion in K2[Ni(CN)4] and
K2[NiCl4] are respectively
(a) dsp2, sp3
(b) sp3, sp3
2
2
(c) dsp , dsp
(d) sp3, sp3d2
(e) sp3d2, d2sp3
16. Which of the following compounds show optical isomerism?
(i) cis-[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
(ii) trans-[Co(en)2C12]+
(iii) cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+
(iv) [Co(en)3]3+
Choose the correct answer codes given below
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv
(d) i, iii and iv
(e) i, ii, iii and iv
17. Camphor can be purified by
(a) distillation
(b) vacuum distillation
(c) sublimation
(d) steam distillation
(e) fractional crystallization
18. Tropolone is an example of
(a) benzenoid aromatic compound
(b) non-benzenoid aromatic compound
(c) alicyclic compound
(d) acyelic compound
(e) heterocyclic aromatic compound
19. Both sp2 and sp3 hybrid orbitals are involved in the
formation of
(a) CH2 = CH – C º C – H (b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(c) CH2 = CH – C º N
(d) CH2 = CH2
(e) CH2 = CH – CO – CH3
20. Arrange the following molecules in the correct order of
decreasing C – C bond length:
C2H6, C2H4, C2H2, C6H6
(a) C2H6 > C6H6 > C2H4 > C2H2
(b) C2H6 > C2H4 > C6H6 > C2H2
(c) C2H4 > C2H2 > C6H6 > C2H6
(d) C2H2 > C6H6 > C2H4 > C2H6
(e) C6H6 > C2H4 > C2H6 > C2H2
21. Williamson's synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether is a/an
(a) electrophilic substitution
(b) SN1 reaction
(c) electrophilic addition
(d) SN2 reaction
(e) free radical substitution
22.
23.
2014 SOLVED PAPER
The effect that makes 2,3 -dimethyl-2-butene more stable
than 2-butene is
(a) resonance
(b) hyperconjugation
(c) electromeric effect
(d) inductive effect
(e) steric effect
In which of the following compounds only primary carbon
atoms are present?
(a)
CH3 CH CH2 CH3
CH3
(b) CH3 CH CH3
CH3
CH3
(c)
CH3 C CH3
CH3
24.
25.
26.
(d) CH3 – CH2 – CH3
(e) CH3 – CH3
The organic compound with two asymmetric carbon atoms
is
(a) 3,4-dimethylheptane
(b) 3-methyl-l-pentene
(c) 2-chloropentane
(d) 5-ethyl-2,3 -dimethylheptane
(e) 3-chlorohexane
Geometrical isomerism is not possible in
(a) 2,4-hexadiene
(b) benzaldoxime
(c) but-2-ene
(d) l,2-dichloroethene
(e) benzophenone oxime
The correct IUPAC name of the organic compound
CH3 CH CH CH CH2 OH
Cl
27.
28.
CH3 CH3
(a) 4-chloro-2,3-dimethylpentan-1-ol
(b) 2-chloro-3,4-dimethylpentan-5-ol
(c) 2,3-dimethyl-4-chloropentan-1 -ol
(d) 2-chloro-3,4-dimethyl n-pentyl alcohol
(e) 2,3-dimethyl-4-chloro n-pentyl alcohol
Carbylamine test is not answered by
(a) C6H5NH2
(b) (CH3)3C–CH2–NH2
(c) C6H5CH2NH2
(d) (CH3)3N
(e) CH3NH2
Which of the following represents Wurtz-Fittig reaction?
(a) C6H5I + 2Na + CH3I ® C6H5CH3 + 2 NaI
(b) 2C6H5I + 2Na ® C6H5C6H5 + 2 NaI
(c) 2CH3CH2I + 2Na ® CH3CH2CH2CH3 + 2 NaI
(d) C2H5ONa + C2H5I ® C2H5–O–C2H5 + NaI
(e) CH3Br + AgF ® CH3F + AgBr
2014 SOLVED PAPER
29. Which of the following organic halogen compounds
undergoes hydrolysis with -aqueous NaOH predominantly
by SN1 mechanism?
(a) ethyl iodide
(b) methyl chloride
(c) isopropyl chloride
(d) chlorobenzene
(e) benzyl chloride
30. The major product formed when 2-bromo-2-methyl butane
is refluxed with ethanolic KOH is
(a) 2-methylbut-2-ene
(b) 2-methylbutan-1-ol
(c) 3-methylbutan-2-ol
(d) 2-methylbutan-2-ol
(e) 2-methylbut-l-ene
31. In which of the following reactions new carbon-carbon bond
is not formed?
(a) Cannizzaro reaction
(b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Aldol condensation (d) Friedel-Craft reaction
(e) Kolbe's reaction
32. Which one of the following phenols has the highest pKa
value?
(a) o-Nitrophenol
(b) Phenol
(c) m-Nitrophenol
(d) Picric acid
(e) p-Cresol
33. The reagent that is used to distinguish between secondary
amine and tertiary amine is
(a) p-toluenesulphonyl chloride
(b) Lucas reagent
(c) CHCl3 and alc. KOH
(d) Borsche's reagent
(e) Bromine water
34. Which one of the following isomeric amines has the highest
boiling point?
(a) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH–CH3
(b) CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3
(c) (CH3)2N–CH2–CH3
(d) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–NH2
(e) (CH3)2CH–NH–CH3
35. Which one of the following reagent will convert acetamide
to ethanamine?
(a) Phosphorus pentoxide
(b) Lithium aluminium hydride
(c) Potassium cyanide
(d) Thionyl chloride
(e) Bromine and sodium hydroxide
36. Match the following
List-l
List-II
(a) Acetaldehyde and
(i) Enantiomers
Vinylalcohol
(b) Eclipsed and
(ii) Tautomers
staggered ethane
(c) (+)–2-Butanol and
(iii) Chain isomers
(–)–2-Butanol
(d) Methyl-n-propylamine (iv) Conformational isomers
and Diethylamine
(v) Metamers
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
2014-3
(a) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(v)
(b) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(c) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(d) (a)- (v), (b)- (i), (c)-(iii), (d) - (ii)
(e) (a)- (ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(1), (d)-(v)
Which one of the following is an example for biodegradable
polyester?
(a) PHBV
(b) PET
(c) Nylon 6
(d) Bakelite
(e) Glyptal
Which one of the following is an essential amino acid?
(a) Methionine
(b) Tyrosine
(c) Proline
(d) Glycine
(e) Alanine
The one letter code for the amino acid tryptophan is
(a) G
(b) V
(c) W
(d) H
(e) A
Cheilosis and digestive disorders are due to the deficiency
of
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Thiamine
(c) Riboflavin
(d) Ascorbic acid
(e) Pyridoxine
Which one of the following is a bacteriostatic drug?
(a) Aminoglycosides
(b) Penicillin-G
(c) Ofloxacin
(d) Ampicillin
(e) Tetracycline
Freon-12 is manufactured from tetrachloromethane by
(a) Haloform reaction
(b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(c) Wurtz reaction
(d) Swartz reaction
(e) Gattermann reaction
The ratio of de Broglie wavelengths of a deuterium atom to
that of an alpha particle, with the velocity of the former is
five time greater than that of the later, is
(a) 4
(b) 0.2
(c) 2
(d) 0.4
(e) 5
The maximum number of electrons which can be held by
sub shell with azimuthal quantum number 'l' in an atom is
given by
(a) (2l + 1)
(b) (2l + 2)
(c) 2 (2l + l)
(d) 2 (2l + 2)
(e) 2l
Which one of the following data has only four significant
figures?
(a) 6.023 × 1023
(b) 285 cm
(c) 0.0025 L
(d) 0.200 g
(e) 1.0 × 105 mm
The uncertainity in the velocity of a particle of mass
6.626 ×10–31 kg is l × 106 ms–1. What is the uncertainty in
its position (in nm)? (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js)
(a) (1/2p)
(b) (2.5/p)
(c) (4/p)
(d) (l/4p)
(e) (5/p)
2014-4
47. The bond orders for O+2 and C2 respectively are
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
(a) 2.5, 2
(b) 3, 2
(c) 2, 2.5
(d) 2, 3
(e) 3, 3
The percentage of s-character in the hybridised orbitals of
BF3 is
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 33.3
(e) 21.5
Which one of the following has the lowest dipole moment?
(a) CH3F
(b) CH3Cl
(c) CH3I
(d) CHCl3
(e) CH3Br
The number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons
respectively in NH3 molecule are
(a) 4 and 0
(b) 3 and 0
(c) 3 and 1
(d) 2 and 2
(e) 5 and 0
The partial pressure of nitrogen in air is 0.76 atm. and its
Henry's law constant is 7.6 × l04 atm at 300 K. What is the
mole fraction of N2 in the solution obtained when air is
bubbled through water at 300 K?
(a) 1 × 10–4
(b) 2 × 10–4
–5
(c) l × 10
(d) 2 × 10–5
(e) 1 × 10–6
The type of attractive forces that operate between gaseous
HCl and chlorine molecule is
(a) dipole-dipole forces
(b) London forces
(c) induced dipole-induced dipole forces
(d) dipole-induced dipole forces
(e) electrostatic forces
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Glass is an extremely viscous liquid
(b) Viscosity coefficient of a liquid decreases with increase
in temperature
(c) Laminar flow represents regular gradation of velocity
in passing from one layer to another in liquids
(d) Liquids rise in capillary due to surface tension
(e) Gases can be liquefied at any temperature by applying
sufficient pressure
The number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in a ccp
array of 100 atoms are respectively
(a) 200 and 100
(b) 100 and 200
(c) 200 and 200
(d) 100 and 100
(e) 50 and 50
Which of the following pairs contain metalloid elements in
the periodic table?
(a) Na and K
(b) F and Cl
(c) Ca and Mg
(d) As and Si
(e) Cu and Ag
The atom/ion that has the highest number of unpaired
electrons is
(a) Na+
(b) F
(c) N
(d) O–2
(e) B
57.
58.
59.
60.
2014 SOLVED PAPER
The inorganic compound obtained by the auto-oxidation
of 2-alkylanthraquinol is
(a) H2O
(b) H2O2
(c) H2
(d) O2
(e) H2SO4
The least stable carbonate of alkali metals is
(a) Cs2CO3
(b) Na2CO3
(c) K2CO3
(d) Rb2CO3
(e) Li2CO3
Sphalerite is concentrated by
(a) gravity separation
(b) froth floatation
(c) magnetic separation (d) hydraulic washing
(e) leaching
The following set of reactions are used in refining zirconium.
523K
1800K
Zr (impure) + 2I2 ¾¾¾
® ZrI4 ¾¾¾® Zr (pure) + 2I2
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
This method is known as
(a) Distillation
(b) Liquation
(c) Hall-Heroult method (d) Van Arkel method
(e) Mond's process
Which one of the following is used as a piezoelectric
material?
(a) Silicones
(b) Graphite
(c) Silica gel
(d) Kieselghur
(e) Quartz
The gaseous product formed when HOCl reacts with H2O2
in acidic medium is
(a) H2
(b) C12
(c) O2
(d) HClO2
(e) HClO3
Three centre two electron bond is present in
(a) NH3
(b) B2H6
(c) BCl3
(d) AlCl3
(e) BF3
Which one of the following is used for the production of
UF6 in the enrichment of U235?
(a) ClF3
(b) KF
(c) KHF2
(d) HF
(e) PF3
Zeigler-Natta catalyst is
(a) ZnCl2
(b) Et3Al + TiCl4
(c) Cu/ ZnO–Cr2O3
(d) Pt
(e) V2O5
Among the 3d series of transition metals the one that has
positive M2+/M standard electrode potential is
(a) Cr
(b) Mn
(c) Zn
(d) Ni
(e) Cu
Which one of the following transition metal ions is
colourless in aqueous solution?
(a) Ti4+
(b) V4+
2+
(c) Mn
(d) Fe3+
2+
(e) Ni
2014 SOLVED PAPER
68. The magnetic moment of Ni2+ ion (At. No. of Ni. is 28) in
BM unit is
(a) 1.73
(b) 4.81
(c) 5.96
(d) 2.84
(e) 3.86
69. The enthalpy of formation of CH4(g), H2O(l) and CO2(g)
are respectively –74.8 mol–1, 285.8 kJ mol–1, and –393.5 kJ
mol–1 ,. Then, the standard enthalpy of combustion of
CH4(g) is
(a) +8903 kJ mol–1
(b) –604.5 kJ mol–1
–1
(c) –754.1 kJ mol
(d) +6045 kJ mol–1
(e) –890.3 kJ mol–1
70. In the following reaction, 4NO2(g) + O2(g) ® 2N2O5(g);
DH = –110 kJ. If N2O5(s) is formed instead of N2O5(g) in
the reaction, the enthalpy change (in kJ) would be (enthalpy
of sublimation of N2O5(s) is + 53 kJ mol–1)
(a) –216
(b) –162
(c) +103
(d) +216
(e) +162
71. For the reaction 2A3 ƒ 3A2 the equilibrium constant and
the DG° values at a certain temperature are respectively 1 ×
1030 and –172.4 kJ mol–1. The equilibrium temperature in °C
is about (2.303 R = 19.15 JK–1 mol–1)
(a) 300
(b) 27
(c) 273
(d) 298
(e) 270
72. The equilibrium constant (KC) for the reaction
N2(g) + O2(g)
77.
78.
79.
80.
ƒ 2NO(g)
at 800 K is 0.0625. What is the KC value for the following
reaction at 800 K?
NO(g)
76.
81.
ƒ 1/2 N2(g) + 1/2 O2(g)
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.375
(c) 4
(d) 40
(e) 0.20
73. A toroid having carries a current of 1 A. The average radius
of the toroid is 10 cm. The magnetic field at any point in the
open space inside the toroid is
(a) 4 × 10–3T
(b) zero
–3
(c) 0.5 × 10 T
(d) 3 × 10–3T
–3
(e) 2 × l0 T
74. Transformer is used to
(a) convert ac to dc voltage
(b) convert dc to ac voltage
(c) obtain desired dc power
(d) obtain desired ac voltage and current
(e) obtain desired dc voltage and current
75. If an LCR series circuit is connected to an ac source, then at
resonance the voltage across
(a) R is zero
(b) R equals the applied voltage
(c) C is zero
(d) L equals the applied voltage
(e) L is zero
82.
83.
84.
2014-5
A dynamo converts
(a) mechanical energy into thermal energy
(b) electrical energy into thermal energy
(c) thermal energy into electrical energy
(d) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(e) electrical energy into mechanical energy
The electromagnetic waves detected using a thermopile and
used in physical therapy are
(a) gamma radiations
(b) X-rays A
(c) ultra-violet radiations
(d) infra-red radiations
(e) micro-wave radiations
Two lenses of power 15 and –3 dioptre are placed in contact.
The focal length of the combination is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 18 cm
(e) 8.33 cm
The speed of light in an isotropic medium depends on
(a) the nature of the source
(b) its wavelength
(c) its direction of propagation
(d) its intensity
Astigmatism is corrected using
(a) cylindrical lens
(b) plano-convex lens
(c) plano-concave lens
(d) convex lens
(e) concave lens
If the wavelength of incident light falling on a photosensitive
material decreases, then
(a) photoelectric current increases
(b) stopping potential decreases
(c) stopping potential remains constant
(d) photoelectric current decreases
(e) stopping potential increases
After 300 days, the activity of a radioactive sample is 5000
dps (disintegrations per sec). The activity becomes 2500
dps after another 150 days. The initial activity of the sample
in dps is
(a) 20,000
(b) 10,000
(c) 7,000
(d) 25,000
(e) 15,000
The control rods used in a nuclear reactor can be made up
of
(a) Graphite
(b) Cadmium
(c) Uranium
(d) Barium
(e) Lead
The fusion reaction in the sun is a multi-step process in
which the
(a) helium is burned into deuterons
(b) helium is burned into hydrogen
(c) deuteron is burned into hydrogen
(d) hydrogen is burned into helium
(e) helium is burned into neutrons
2014-6
85. Identify the wrong statement
(a) In conductors, the valence and conduction bands
overlap
(b) Substances with energy gap of the order of l0 eV are
insulators
(c) The resistivity of semiconductors is lower than metals
(d) The conductivity of metals is high
(e) The resistivity of a semiconductor is lower than that
of an insulator
86. Identify the wrong statement with reference to a solar cell
(a) It is a p-n junction diode with no external bias
(b) It uses materials of high optical absorption
(c) It uses materials with band gap of 5 eV
(d) It converts light energy into electrical energy
(e) It uses materials such as GaAs, Si
87. The minimum number of NAND gates used to construct an
OR gate is
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 3
(e) 2
88. An FM radio station operating at 630 kHz is permitted to
broadcast audio frequencies up to 6 kHz. The band pass
filter in its modulation circuit can retain the frequencies
(a) 636 kHz, 630 kHz
(b) 12 kHz, 6 kHz
(c) 1260 kHz, 6 kHz
(d) 1260 kHz, 630 kHz
(e) 6 kHz, 630 kHz
89. A transducer, in communication system is a device that
(a) is a part of the antenna
(b) is a combination of a receiver and a transmitter
(c) converts audio signals into video signals
(d) detects the incoming signal
(e) converts physical variable into corresponding
variations in the electrical signal
90. The dimensions of mobility are
(a) M–2 T 2 A
(b) M–1 T 2 A
–2
3
(c) M T A
(d) M–1 T 3 A
–1
2
–1
(e) M T A
91. The acceleration of a moving body is found from the
(a) area under velocity - time graph
(b) area under displacement - time graph
(c) slope of distance - time graph
(d) slope of velocity - time graph
(e) area under acceleration - time graph
92. A ball thrown vertically upwards after reaching a maximum
height h, returns to the starting point after a time of l0 s. Its
displacement is
(a) h
(b) 2 h
(c) 10 h
(d) 20 h
(e) zero
93. If the angles of projection of a projectile with same initial
velocity exceed or fall short of 45° by equal amounts , then
the ratio of horizontal ranges is
(a) l : 2
(b) l : 3
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 1
(e) l :
2
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
2014 SOLVED PAPER
If the length of seconds' hand of a clock is 10 cm, the speed
of its tip (in cm s–1) is nearly
(a) 2
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.5
(d) 3
(e) l
The retarding acceleration of 7.35 m s–2 due to frictional
force stops the car of mass 400 kg travelling on a road. The
coefficient of friction between the tyre of the car and the
road is
(a) 0.55
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.70
(d) 0.65
(e) 0.80
A hammer weighing 3 kg strikes the head of a nail with a
speed of 2 ms–1 drives it by l cm into the wall. The impulse
imparted to the wall is
(a) 6Ns
(b) 3Ns
(c) 2Ns
(d) l2 Ns
(e) 8 Ns
If two persons A and B take 2 seconds and 4 seconds
respectively to lift an object to the same height h, then the
ratio of their powers is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) l : 3
(e) 3 : l
If a machine gun fires n bullets per second each with kinetic
energy K, then the power of the machine gun is
(a) nK2
(c)
(e)
n 2K
(b)
K
n
(d) nK
n
K
99. The moment of inertia of the rectangular plate
ABCD, (AB = 2 BC) is minimum along the
axis
(a) G H
(b) E F
(c) B C
(d) A C
(e) A B
100. The position of centre of mass of a system of particles does
not depend upon the
(a) mass of particles
(b) symmetry of the body
(c) position of the particles
(d) relative distance between the particles
(e) nature of particles
101. The relation between escape velocity (Ve) from the surface
of the earth and the orbital velocity (Vo) is
(a)
2 Ve = Vo
(c) Ve = 2Vo
(e) Ve = 3 Vo
(b) Ve = 2 Vo
(d) 4Ve = 3Vo
2014 SOLVED PAPER
102. The time period of an earth's satellite revolving at a height of
35,800 km is
(a) 24 hours
(b) 100 minutes
(c) 12 hours
(d) 48 hours
(e) 52 hours
103. A solid ball of volume V experiences a viscous force F when
falling with a speed v in a liquid. If another ball of volume
8 V with the same velocity v is allowed to fall in the same
liquid, it experiences a force
(a) F
(b) l6 F
(c) 4 F
(d) 8 F
(e) 2 F
104. For most of the materials, Young's modulus (Y) and rigidity
modulus (G) are related as
(a) G = 3Y
(b) G = Y/3
(c) G = 3/2 Y
(d) G = Y/8
(e) 10 G = 3Y
105. The pressure on an object of bulk modulus B undergoing
hydraulic compression due to a stress exerted by
2014-7
108. The change in internal energy of a thermodynamical system
which has absorbed 2 kcal of heat and done 400 J of work is
(1 cal = 4.2 J)
(a) 2 kJ
(b) 8 kJ
(c) 3.5 kJ
(d) 5.5 kJ
(e) 4 2 kJ
109. When the displacement of a particle executing simple
harmonic motion is half of its amplitude, the ratio of its
kinetic energy to potential energy is `
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : l
(d) l : 2
(e) 2 : 3
110. A body oscillates with SHM according to the equation
pö
æ
(in SI units), x = 5 cos ç 2p t ÷ .
è
4ø
Its instantaneous displacement at t = 1 second is
(a)
2
æ DV ö
surrounding fluid having volume strain ç
is
è V ÷ø
æ DV ö
(a) B2 ç
è V ÷ø
(c)
1 æ DV ö
Bç
è V ÷ø
(e)
Bç
æ DV ö
(b) B ç
è V ÷ø
(d)
1
B2
2
æ DV ö
çè ÷ø
V
æ DV ö
è V ÷ø
106. If d is the average diameter of the molecule, then the mean
free path of the molecules between two successive
collisions is proportional to
(a) d
(b) d 2
(c)
(e)
1
(d)
d
1
d
2
1
d
3
107. Which one of the following is a wrong statement in kinetic
theory of gases?
(a) The gas molecules are in random motion
(b) The gas molecules are perfect elastic spheres
(c) The volume occupied by the molecules of a gas is
negligible
(d) The force of attraction between the molecules is
negligible
(e) The collision between molecules are inelastic
(c)
(e)
2
m
5
5
2
5
2
m
(b)
(d)
1
3
m
1
m
2
m
111. Identify the correct statement
(a) Transverse wave can propagate in gases.
(b) Transverse wave consists of compressions and
rarefactions.
(c) Longitudinal wave can propagate in solids, liquids
and gases.
(d) In a longitudinal wave, particles of the medium vibrate
perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
(e) In a longitudinal wave, the higher density corresponds
to rarefactions.
112. The speed of sound in air
(a) decreases with temperature
(b) increases with pressure
(c) increases with humidity
(d) decreases with pressure
(e) increases with density
113. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is B. If it is subjected
to uniform pressure p, the fractional decrease in radius is
(a)
p
B
(b)
p
3B
(c)
3p
B
(d)
B
3p
(e)
3B
p
2014-8
r
114. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform
r
extemal electric field E . Then the
r
r
(a) torque experienced by the dipole is E × p
r
r
(b) torque is zero if p is perpendicular to E
r
r
(c) torque is maximum if p is perpendicular to E
r
r
(d) potential energy is maximum if p is parallel to E
r
(e) potential energy is maximum if p is perpendicular to
r
E
115. Electric field at a point of distance r from a uniformly charged
wire of infinite length having linear charge density X is
directly proportional to
(a) r–1
(b) r
(c) r2
(d) r–2
r
(e)
116. When 4 ampere current flows for 2 minutes in an
electroplating experiment, m gram of silver is deposited.
Then the amount (in gram) of silver deposited by 6 ampere
current flowing for 40 seconds is
(a) 4 m
(b)
m
2
(c) 2 m
(d)
m
4
(e)
2014 SOLVED PAPER
117. A uniform wire of resistance 9 W is joined end-to-end to
form a circle. Then the resistance of the circular wire between
any two diametrically opposite points is
(a) 6 W
(b) 3 W
(c)
9
W
4
(d)
3
W
2
(e) 1 W
118. The temperature coefficient of resistance of an alloy used
for making resistors is
(a) small and positive
(b) small and negative
(c) large and positive
(d) large and negative
(e) zero
119. The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is
(a) directly proportional to the torsional constant of the
spring
(b) independent of the torsional constant of the spring
(c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil
(d) inversely proportional to the current flowing through it
(e) directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
120. When a magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron, it
(a) remains stationary
(b) spins about its own axis
(c) moves in the direction of the field
(d) moves perpendicular to the direction of the field
(e) moves opposite to the direction of the field
3m
4
Paper-II Biology
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following statements regarding fats is true?
(a) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbons excluding the
carboxyl carbon.
(b) Glycerol is a trihydroxy propane.
(c) Palmitic acid has 18 carbons including the carboxyl
carbon.
(d) Oils have higher melting points than fats.
(e) Lipids are generally water soluble.
Coenzymes NAD and NADP contain the vitamins
(a) Niacin
(b) Biotin
(c) Thiamine
(d) Vitamin B12
(e) Vitamin A
Which of these is/are wrongly matched?
(1) Alkaloid
- Codeine
(2) Lectin - Morphine - Morphine
(3) Toxin
- Abrin
(4) Terpene
- Curcumin
(a) (1) and (3) only
(b) (2) and (3) only
(c) (2) and (4) only
(d) (3) and (4) only
(e) (l) and (4) only
Choose the wrong statement
(a) Cells swell in hypertonic solutions and shrink in
hypotonic solutions
5.
6.
(b) Water potential is the kinetic energy of water which
helps in the movement of water
(c) The absorption of water by seeds and dry wood takes
place by a special type of diffusion called imbibition
(d) Solute potential or PS is always negative
(e) Less than 1% of the water reaching the leaves is used
in photosynthesis and plant growth
When one element is involved in opening and closing of
stomata, the other helps to maintain the ribosome structure.
They are
(a) Potassium and calcium
(b) Phosphorus and sulphur
(c) Potassium and magnesium
(d) Iron and magnesium
(e) Calcium and sulphur
Which of the following groups of minerals are
micronutrients?
(a) Magnesium, Manganese, Copper, Boron and
Phosphorus
(b) Manganese, Copper, Magnesium, Zinc and Boron
(c) Nitrogen, Potassium, Manganese, Copper and Iron
(d) Iron, Manganese, Copper, Molybdenum and Zinc
(e) Carbon, Potassium, Phosphorus, Nitrogen and Oxygen
2014 SOLVED PAPER
7.
Match the mineral in Column I with the enzyme activated in
Column II and choose the correct option.
Column I
Column II
(A) Magnesium
(1) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(B) Molybdenum
(2) Phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxylase
(C) Zinc
(3) Nitrogenase
(a) A - 2, B - 3, C - l
(b) A - l, B - 2, C - 3
(c) A - 2, B - l, C - 3
(d) A - 3, B - 2, C - l
(e) A - 3, B - l, C - 2
8.
Which of the following statements regarding cyclic flow of
electrons during light reactions is false?
(a) This process takes place in the stromal lamella
(b) ATP synthesis takes place
(c) NADPH + H+ is synthesized
(d) Takes place only when light of wavelength beyond
680 nm is available for excitation
(e) PS II is not involved in the process
9.
In which of the following steps of citric acid cycle, CO2 is
evolved?
I. Citric acid
– Ketoglutaric acid
II. Succinic acid
– Malic acid
III. Malic acid
– Oxaloacetic acid
IV. a-ketoglutaric acid
– Succinyl CoA
(a) I and II only
(b) I and IV only
(c) II and III only
(d) II and IV only
(e) III and IV only
10. Find out the mismatched pair
(a) C4 plants
- Kranz anatomy
(b) Primary CO2 fixation product - OAA
of C4 plants
(c) Primary CO2 acceptor of C3
- RuBP
plants
(d) Calvin pathway of C4 plants - Bundle sheath
occur in
(e) C3 plants
- Maize
11. Which of these is/are not a property of facilitated transport ?
(A) Requires special membrane proteins
(B) Highly selective
(C) Uphill transport
(D) Requires ATP energy
(a) (A) and (B) only
(b) (C) and (D) only
(c) (A) and (C) only
(d) (B) and (C) only
(e) (B) and (D) only
12. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid results in the
formation of
I. Acetyl CoA
II. CO2
III. ATP
IV. NADH + H+
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III only
(d) I, II and IV only
(e) III and IV only
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
2014-9
Select the correct order of reactions in glycolysis
(A) Conversion of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde to 1,
3-bisphosphoglycerate
(B) Conver sion of 3-phosphoglyceric acid to
2- phosphoglycerate
(C) Conversion of BPGA to 3 phosphoglyceric acid
(D) Splitting of fructose l, 6 bisphosphate into dihydroxy
acetone phosphate and 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde
(a) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(b) (B), (C), (A), (B)
(c) (B), (D), (C), (A)
(d) (A), (D),(C), (B)
(e) (D), (A), (C), (B)
Free living nitrogen fixing aerobic bacterium is
(a) Rhodospirillum
(b) Anabaena
(c) Nostoc
(d) Beijernickia
(e) Rhizobium
Which of the following plant growth hormone increases
the yield of sugar by increasing the length of stem in
sugarcane?
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Auxin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Ethylene
(e) Gibberellic acid
Which of the following feature(s) is/are common to both
wind and water pollinated flowers?
I. Pollen grains are long and ribbon-like
II. Stigma is large and feathery
III. The flowers are not colourful
IV. The flowers do not produce nectar
(a) III and IV only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and II only
(d) II only
(e) I only
One hormone hastens the maturity period in juvenile
conifers, a second hormone controls xylem differentiation
while the third increases the tolerance of plants to various
stresses and they are respectively
(a) Auxin, Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(b) Gibberellin, Auxin and Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin, Auxin and Ethylene
(d) Gibberellin, Auxin and ABA
(e) Auxin, Gibberellin and ABA
Which of the following is NOT an effect of ethylene?
(a) Promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs
(b) Breaks seed and bud dormancy
(c) Brings about horizontal growth of seedlings
(d) Hastens fruit ripening
(e) Helps to overcome apical dominance
Select the plants pollinated by water
(A) Water hyacinth
(B) Zostera
(C) Amorphophallus
(D) Vallisneria
(E) Yucca
(a) (A), (D) and (E) only (b) (B) and (E) only
(c) (B) and (D) only
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only
(e) (A), (B) and (D) only
2014-10
20. The breakdown of detritus into small particles by
detritivores is called
(a) Leaching
(b) Humification
(c) Catabolism
(d) Mineralization
(e) Fragmentation
21. Which of the following statements regarding responses of
organisms to abiotic factors is false?
(a) All birds and mammals are capable of thermoregulation
(b) Majority of animals and nearly all plants cannot
maintain a constant internal environment
(c) Shivering is a kind of exercise which produces heat
and raises body temperature
(d) Very small animals are commonly found in polar regions
as they have to spendless energy to generate body
heat
(e) Diapause is a stage of suspended development seen
in zooplanktons
22. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango tree is an
example for
(a) Parasitism
(b) Predation
(c) Commensalism
(d) Mutualism
(e) Competition
23. The ozone hole over Antarctica develops each year between
(a) Late December and early February
(b) Late February and early April
(c) Late April and early June
(d) Late August and early October
(e) Late October and early December
24. In the equation,
27.
28.
29.
dN
æ K - Nö
= rN ç
è K ÷ø where r stands for
dt
(a) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(b) Death rate
(c) Population density at time t
(d) Carrying capacity
(e) The base of natural logarithms
25. Which of the following statements about Productivity is
true?
(a) Primary productivity of all ecosystems is a constant
(b) The annual net primary productivity of the whole of
the biosphere is 17 billion tons (dry weight) of organic
matter
(c) Net primary productivity is the amount of biomass
available for consumption by carnivores
(d) Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of
formation of new organic matter by decomposers .
(e) Primary productivity depends on the plant species
inhabiting a particular area
26. The pioneer species in Xerarch and Hydrarch succession
are respectively
(a) Lichens and sedges
(b) Lichens and rooted hydrophytes
(c) Phytoplanktons and lichens
(d) Lichens and phytoplanktons
(e) Sedges and phytoplanktons
30.
31.
32.
2014 SOLVED PAPER
Which of the following statements does not apply to
eutrophication?
(a) It is the natural ageing of a lake by nutrient enrichment
of its water
(b) In a young lake the water is cold and clear and supports
less life
(c) The nutrients such as sulphur and phosphorus
encourage the growth of aquatic organisms in the lake
(d) Pollutants released by man radically accelerate the
ageing process of a lake
(e) Overgrowth of algae leads to scum that depletes the
level of dissolved oxygen in the water
According to Robert Constanza, 50% of the total cost for
ecosystem services goes to
(a) Recreation
(b) Soil formation
(c) Nutrient cycling
(d) Climate regulation
(e) Habitat for wildlife
Which of the following statement(s) regarding energy flow
is/are false?
I. The detritus food chain begins with dead organic
matter.
II. In aquatic ecosystem, detritus food chain is the major
conduit for energy flow.
III. In terrestrial ecosystem a larger fraction of energy flows
through grazing food chain.
IV. Producers belong to the first trophic level of the food
chain.
(a) II and III only
(b) III and IV only
(c) I and IV only
(d) I and II only
(e) I, II and III only
The first recombinant DNA was constructed by linking an
antibiotic resistant gene with the native plasmid of V
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Clostridium butylicum (d) Acetobacter aceti
(e) Bacillus thuringiensis
The polymerase chain reaction1 (PCR) is a technique that is
used for
(a) in vivo replication of specific DNA sequence using
thermostable DNA polymerase
(b) in vitro synthesis of mRNA
(c) in vitro replication of specific DNA sequence using
thermostable DNA polymerase
(d) in vivo synthesis of mRNA
(e) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size
Bioreactors are useful in
(a) Separation and purification of a product
(b) Processing of large volumes of culture
(c) Micro-injection
(d) Isolation of genetic material
(e) Amplification of genes
2014 SOLVED PAPER
33. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option
Column I
Column II
(A) Ascomycetes
(1) Ustilago
(B) Phycomycetes
(2) Saccharomyces
(C) Basidiomycetes
(3) Trichoderma
(D) Deuteromycetes
(4) Albugo
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, d-3
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, d-3
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(e) A-1, B-4, C-2, d-3
34. Which of the following statement(s) about taxonomical aids
is/are true?
I. Keys are used to identify plants and animals based on
similarities and dissimilarities
II. Flora contains the account of habitat and distribution
of plants in a given area
III. Flora provide an index to the plant species found in a
particular area
IV. Monographs provide information for identifying the
species found in an area
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II and III only
(c) I and IV only
(d) I only
(e) IV only
35. Which one of the following shows, the hierarchial
arrangement of taxonomic categories of plants in
descending order?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Kingdom Kingdom Kingdom Kingdom Kingdom
­
­
¯
¯
¯
Division Division Division Division Division
­
­
¯
¯
¯
Class
Order
Order
Class
Family
­
­
¯
¯
¯
Order
Class
Class
Order
Order
­
­
¯
¯
¯
Family
Family
Family
Family
Class
­
­
¯
¯
¯
Species
Species
Genus
Genus
Genus
­
­
¯
¯
¯
Genus
Genus
Species
Species
Species
36. Which of the following does not apply to Ascomycetes?
(a) Mycelium is coenocytic and aseptate
(b) Commonly known as sac fungi
(c) Asexual spores called conidia are produced
exogenously
(d) Sexual spores called ascospores are produced
endogenously
(e) They are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic or
coprophilous
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
2014-11
As per Whittaker's classification, an organism possessing
eukaryotic cell structure, multicellular organisation, with a
cell wall and nuclear membrane showing heterotrophic
nutrition can be placed under the kingdom :
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Plantae
(d) Fungi
(e) Animalia
Which of the following groups of algae belongs to class
Rhodophyceae?
(a) Laminaria, Fucus, Porphyra, Volvox
(b) Gelidium, Porphyra, Dictyota, Fucus
(c) Gracilaria, Gelidium, Porphyra, Polysiphonia
(d) Volvox, Spirogyra, Ulothrix, Sargassum
(e) Sargassum, Laminaria, Fucus, Dictyota
Select the correct statement:
(a) Biological names are generally in Greek and written in
italics
(b) Family comprises a group of related species which
has more characters in common
(c) Triticum aestivum comes under the order Sapindales
(d) An order includes related classes
(e) Families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included
in the order Polymoniales mainly based on the floral
characters
Which of the following groups of organisms have a protein
rich layer called pellicle?
(a) Chrysophytes
(b) Euglenoids
(c) Dinoflagellates
(d) Slime moulds
(e) Protozoans
Which of the following are heterosporous pteridophytes?
I. Lycopodium
II. Selaginella
III. Equisetum
IV. Salvinia
(a) I and Il only
(b) II and III only
(c) II and IV only
(d) II and IV only
(e) I and IV only
Match the following and choose the correct combination
from the options given
Column I (Alga type)
Column II (Example)
(A) Green alga
(1) Dictyota
(B) Brown alga
(2) Prophyra
(C) Red alga
(3) Spirogyra
(a) A - 3, B - 2, C - l
(b) A - 3, B - l, C - 2
(c) A - 2, B - 3, C - l
(d) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3
(e) A - l, B - 3, C - 2
Choose the correct statement.
(a) Bryophytes can live in soil but are dependent on water
for sexual reproduction
(b) The sex organs in bryophytes are unicellular
(c) In bryophyte the main plant body is a gametophyte
which is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves
(d) Common example of liverwort is Polytrichum
(e) Common example of moss is Marchantia
2014-12
44. Read the following statements and identify the correct
options given
(A) Angiosperms range in size from microscopic Wolfia to
tall trees of Eucalyptus
(B) In angiosperms, the seeds are enclosed by fruits
(C) Double fertilisation is an event unique to angiosperms
(D) In angiosperms, each cell of an embryo sac is diploid
(E) In angiosperms, the zygote develops into an
endosperm
(a) (A), (B) and (D) alone are correct
(b) (A), (B) and (E) alone are correct
(c) (A), (B) and (C) alone are correct
(d) (B), (C) and (D) alone are correct
(e) (B), (C) and (E) alone are correct
45. Match the plants in Column I with their modification types
in Column II and choose the right options given below
Column I
Column II
(A) Ginger
(1) Flattened stems
(B) Pumpkin
(2) Thorns
(C) Bougainvillea
(3) Stem tendrils
(D) Opuntia
(4) Underground stem
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(b) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-3
(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(e) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
46. In one plant adventitious roots are modified for storage
and in the other plant a lateral branch with short internodes
and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of
roots is found. They are
(a) Sweet potato and Pistia
(b) Eichhornia and jasmine
(c) Carrot and mint
(d) Turnip and Chrysanthemum
(e) Sweet potato and mint
47. The type of placentation seen in Argemone and Primrose
are respectively
(a) Axile and free-central
(b) Parietal and free-central
(c) Parietal and basal
(d) Marginal and free-central
(e) Basal and parietal
48. Consider the following characters with respect to the
gynoeciun of Fabaceae and choose the correct options
given below.
(A) Ovary monocarpellary (B) Many styles
(C) Placenta swollen
(D) Superior ovary
(E) Axile placentation
(a) (A), (D) and (E) only (b) (D) and (E) only
(c) (A) and (B) Only
(d) (A) and (D) only
(e) (C) and (D) only
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
2014 SOLVED PAPER
Which of the following characters are not applicable to the
anatomy of dicot stem and choose the correct options given
below.
(A) Collenchymatous hypodermis
(B) Polyarch xylem
(C) Presence of casparian strips on the endodermis
(D) Open vascular bundle
(E) Presence of medullary rays
(a) (A), (D) and (E) only (b) (B) and (C) only
(c) (B) and (E) only
(d) (A), (B) and (C) only
(e) (C), (D) and (E) only
Which of the followings are the characteristic features of
Solanaceae?
(A) Exstipulate leaves
(B) Persistent calyx
(C) Racemose inflorescence
(D) Unilocular ovary
(E) Fruits are either berry or capsule
(a) (A), (B) and (E) are correct
(b) (A), (C) and (D) are correct
(c) (A) only is correct
(d) (B) only is correct
(e) (D) and (E) are correct
Pick out the wrong statement
(a) Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem.
(b) The cell wall of collenchyma is made up of cellulose,
hemicellulose and pectin.
(c) The first formed primary xylem elements are called
protoxylem.
(d) The cell wall of parenchyma is made up of pectin.
(e) Gymnosperms have albuminous cells and sieve cells
in their phloem.
Which of these characters does/do not apply to the vascular
bundle of monocot stem?
I. Conjoint
II. Endarch protoxylem
III. Open
IV. Phloem parenchyma is absent
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) III and IV only
(d) III only
(e) I and IV only
When one wood is lighter in colour with a lower density,
the other wood is darker with higher density. They are
(a) Spring wood and autumn wood
(b) Heart wood and late wood
(c) Spring wood and early wood
(d) Sap wood and spring wood
(e) Autumn wood and spring wood
Which of the following part of dicot root is made up of cells
with suberin deposition in tangential as well as radial walls?
(a) Epidermis
(b) Endodermis
(c) Cortex
(d) Pericycle
(e) Xylem
2014 SOLVED PAPER
55. Choose the matched ones.
(A) Vibrio
- Rod like bacteria
(B) Mesosome
- Helps in cell wall formation
(C) Smooth endoplasmic - Synthesis of lipid
reticulum
(D) Vacuoles
- Rich in hydrolytic enzymes
(a) (B) and (C) only
(b) (A) and (D) only
(c) (A), (B) and (C) only (d) (B) and (D) only
(e) (B), (C) and (D) only
56. Which of these organelles does not contain ribosomes?
I. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
II. Chloroplast
III. Golgi apparatus
IV. Mitochondria
(a) I and II only
(b) I and IV only
(c) IV only
(d) III only
(e) II, III and IV only
57. Match the sub-stage of prophase I of meiosis in Column I
and the events in Column II and choose the right option.
Column I
Column II
(A) Leptotene
(1) Terminalization of chiasma
(B) Zygotene
(2) Crossing over and recombination
(C) Pachytene
(3) Synapsis
(D) Diakinesis
(4) Visibility of chromosomes
(a) A-l, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-l
(d) A-4, B-l, C-2, D-3
(e) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-l
58. Which of the following scientists discovered the triple
helical structure of collagen?
(a) G.N. Ramachandran
(b) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(c) Matthias Schleiden
(d) Theodor Schwann
(e) Rudolf Virchow
59. One type of chromosome has middle centromere whereas
the other has a terminal centromere. They are
(a) Metacentric and acrocentric
(b) Metacentric and telocentric
(c) Sub-metacentric and telocentric
(d) Telocentric and acrocentric
(e) Acrocentric and metacentric
60. Match the following and choose the correct combination
from the options given.
Column I
Column II
(Chemical compounds)
( Example)
(A) Nitrogen base
(1) RNA
(B) Nucleoside
(2) Thymidylic acid
(C) Nucleotide
(3) Cytidine
(D) Nucleic acid
(4) Uracil
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-l
(d) A-4, B-l, C-2, D-3
(e) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-l
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
2014-13
In eukaryotic genes, coding sequences are called
(a) introns
(b) exons
(c) regulatory sequence (d) repetitive DNA
(e) histones
Which site of the tRNA pairs through hydrogen bonding
with the triplet codes on mRNA?
(a) Codon
(b) 5' end of tRNA
(c) 3' end of tRNA
(d) Anticodon
(e) Amino acid acceptor end
Find the wrongly matched pair
(a) Har Gobind Khorana - synthesized RNA
molecules chemically
(b) George Gamow
- codon is triplet 'S
(c) Meselson and Stahl - regulation of gene
expression
(d) Alec Jeffreys
- DNA finger printing
(e) Frederick Sanger
- amino acid sequencing
If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at
high frequency, it is referred as
(a) DNA polymorphism (b) Expressed sequence tag
(c) Sequence annotation (d) Linkage
(e) Triplet codon
In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II transcribes
(a) hnRNA
(b) l8S rRNA
(c) 28S rRNA
(d) tRNA
(e) snRNAs
Match Column I with Column II and Column Il. Choose the
correct option.
Column I
Column II
Column III
(Substrate)
(Enzyme)
(Product)
(1) Lactose
(A) Lipase
(i) Galactose
(2) Monogycerides
(B) Trypsin
(ii) Maltose
(3) Starch
(C) Lactase
(iii) Fatty acid
(4) Peptones
(D) Amylase
(iv) Dipeptides
(a) l-A-i, 2-C-ii, 3-B-iii, 4-D-iv
(b) l-D-i, 2-A-ii, 3-B-iii, ,4-C-iv
(c) 1-C-i, 2-A-iii, 3-D-ii, 4-B- iv
(d) l-C-i, 2-A-ii, 3-D-iii, 4-B-iv
(e) l-B-i, 2-D-ii, 3-C-iii, 4-A-iv
Choose the wrong statement among the following
(a) Trypsinogen is activated by enterokinase
(b) The optimum pH for salivary amylase activity is 8.9
(c) Rennin helps in the digestion of milk proteins
(d) Goblet cells secrete mucous 8.9
(e) Submucosal glands of the intestine are also known as
Brunner's glands
To generate pressure gradients to facilitate expiration and
inspiration, the human body uses the intercostal muscles
and
(a) alveolar sacs
(b) bronchi
(c) primary, secondary and tertiary bronchioles
(d) diaphragm
(e) windpipe
2014-14
69. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Solubility of CO2 in blood is 20-25 times higher than
that of O2
(b) The total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at
the end of a forced inspiration is called the 'vital
capacity'
(c) O2 can bind with haemoglobin in a reversible manner
to form oxyhaemoglobin
(d) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(e) The diffusion membrane is made of three major layers
namely the thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, the
endothelium of alveolar capillaries and the basement
substance in between them.
70. Match Column I with Column II regarding human excretory
system. Choose the correct option.
Column I
Column II
(i) Epithelial cells of Bowman's
(A) Juxtamedullary
capsule
nephron
(ii) Extension of cortex between (B) Vasa recta
the medullary pyramids as
renal columns
(iii) Nephrons with long loop of
(C) Juxtaglomerular
Henle running deep into the
Apparatus
medulla
(iv) A fine vessel of the peritubular (D) Podocytes
capillaries running parallel to
Henle's loop
(v) A special sensitive region in (E) Columns of
the DCT and afferent arteriole
Bertin
at the location of their contact
(F) Cortical nephron
(a) i-C, ii-B, iii-A, iv-D, v-E (b) i-E, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C, v-D
(c) i-D, ii-C, iii-B, iv-E, v-A(d) i-D, ii-E, iii-A, iv-B, v-C
(e) i-B, ii-D, iii-F, iv-A, v-C
71. Thrombokinase is associated with
(a) elimination of urea and other excretory products from
the body
(b) production of erythrocytes from the bone marrow
(c) pulmonary and systemic circulation
(d) cardiac cycle and its regulation
(e) enzymatic reactions in coagulation of blood
72. What is the pO2 and pCO2 in the systemic arteries?
(a) pO2 40 mm Hg; pCO2 45 mm Hg
(b) pO2 95 mmHg; pCO2 104 mm Hg
(c) pO2 95 mm Hg; pCO2 40 mm Hg
(d) pO2 45 mm Hg; pCO2 40 mm Hg
(e) pO2 104 mm Hg; pCO2 159 mm Hg
73. The striated appearance of a myofibril is due to the
distribution pattern of
(a) actin and myosin
(b) fascicles
(c) troponin
(d) meromyosin
(e) sarcoplasmic reticulum
74.
2014 SOLVED PAPER
Label the pans marked in the human skull and select the
correct option
E
D
F
A
C
B
75.
76.
77.
78.
(a) A-temporal bone; B-parietal bone; C-sphenoid bone;
D-frontal bone; E-zygomatic bone; F-occipital bone
(b) A-frontal bone; B-zygomatic bone; C-occipital bone;
D-sphenoid bone; E-parietal bone; F-temporal bone
(c) A-sphenoid bone; B-occipital bone; C-zygomatic
bone;
D-parietal bone; E-frontal bone; F-temporal bone
(d) A- sphenoid bone; B-zygomatic bone; C-occipital
bone;
D-frontal bone; E- temporal bone; F- parietal bone
(e) A-zygomatic bone; B-occipital bone; C-parietal bone;
D-frontal bone; E-sphenoid bone; F-temporal bone
The 'U' shaped bone present at the base of the buccal cavity
is
(a) Maleus
(b) Ethmoid
(c) Zygomatic
(d) Hyoid
(e) Sphenoid
Which of the following statement is wrong regarding
conduction of nerve impulse?
(a) In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is more
permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to
Na+ ions
(b) Fluid outside the axon has a high concentration of
Na+ and low concentration of K+, in a resting neuron
(c) Ionic gradients are maintained by Na-K pumps across
the resting membrane, which transport 3 Na+ ions
outwards for 2K+ ions into the cell
(d) Resting potential is the electrical potential difference
across the resting membrane
(e) A neuron is polarized only when the outer surface of
the axonal membrane possess a negative charge and
its inner surface is positively charged
An autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular
junction is
(a) Angina
(b) CAD
(c) Emphysema
(d) Gout
(e) Myasthenia gravis
Which of the following statement is wrong ?
(a) Sella turcica is a bony cavity where the pituitary gland
is located
(b) Parathyroid hormone decreases the Ca2+ levels in
blood
(c) Thymosins play a major role in T cell differentiation
(d) The middle layer of adrenal cortex is zona fasciculata
(e) Insulin stimulates glycogenesis
2014 SOLVED PAPER
79. Match the hormones secreted by various endocrine
structures and choose the correct option.
i.
Hypothalamus
(A) Melanocyte stimulating
hormone
ii. Pars intermedia
(B) Aldosterone
iii. Pineal gland
(C) Gonadotrophin releasing
hormone
iv. Adrenal medulla
(D) Melatonin
v. Adrenal cortex
(E) Catecholamines
(a) i-E, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B, v-C
(b) i-E, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B, v-C
(c) i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C, v-E
(d) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B, v-E
(e) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-E, v-B
80. Choose the wrongly matched pair
(a) Portion of myofibril
– Sarcomere
between two 'Z' lines
(b) Isotropic band
– Actin
(c) Anisotropic band
– Myosin
(d) Central part of I-band
– M-line
(e) Central part of A-band
– H-zone
81. Chylomicrons are
(a) small fat globules coated with protein
(b) protein molecules coated with fat
(c) small granules found in gastric juice
(d) neural signals that stimulate, intestinal secretions
(e) aerobic microbes
82. When percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is
plotted against pO2 the curve obtained is
(a) J shaped
(b) Hyperbola
(c) Sigmoid
(d) U shaped
(e) Urn shaped
83. Identify the correct statement regarding cardiac activity
(a) Normal activities of the human heart is regulated
intrinsically hence it is neurogenic
(b) A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can
moderate the cardiac function through the CNS
(c) Parasympathetic neural signals increase the rate of
heart beat
(d) Adrenal medullary hormones can increase cardiac
output
(e) The end of a T-wave marks the end of diastole
84. Identify the correct statement regarding urine formation
(a) Counter current mechanism works around the
glomerulus and PCT
(b) To prevent diuresis, ADH facilitates water reabsorption
from the latter parts of
(c) Maximum absorption of electrolytes occurs in the
Henle's loop
(d) A decrease in blood pressure can increase the
glomerular filtration rate
(e) The collecting duct is impermeable to water and thus
helps in diluting the urine
85. The yellowish pigmented spot at the posterior pole of the
human eye lateral to the blind spot is
(a) crista
(b) saccule
(c) iris
(d) meatus
(e) macula lutea
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
2014-15
Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) The Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the developing
male germ cells
(b) Leydig cells synthesize and secrete androgens
(c) Secretions of the acrosome helps the sperm to enter
into the cytoplasm of the ovum
(d) Secondary spermatocytes are diploid
(e) The fluid filled cavity in the tertiary follicle is called
antrum
The inner glandular layer of the uterus is
(a) endometrium
(b) myometrium
(c) fallopian tubes
(d) perimetrium
(e) infundibulum
The release of sperms from the seminiferous tubules is called
(a) Spermiogenesis
(b) Spermiation
(c) Spermatogenesis
(d) Fertilisation
(e) Gametogenesis
Find the wrongly matched pair
(a) Endemism
- species confined to one
region and not found
anywhere else
(b) Hot spots
- regions with species
richness
(c) Alien species to India - Clarias gariepinus
(d) Lungs of the planet - Amazon Rain Forest
(e) in situ conservation - IVF D
Which one among these is NOT an ex-situ conservation
strategy?
(a) Seed banks
(b) Botanical gardens
(c) Cryopreservation
(d) Biosphere reserves
(e) Tissue culture
The semi dwarf wheat which was instrumental in increasing
wheat production was developed by
(a) Alexander von Humboldt
(b) Paul Ehrlich
(c) Dr. Kurien
(d) Edward Jenner
(e) Norman E. Borlaug
Ernest Chain and Howard Florey's contribution was
(a) discovery of streptokinase
(b) establishing the potential of penicillin as an effective
antibiotic
(c) discovery of the DNA sequencer
(d) isolating the bacterial plasmid
(e) production of genetically engineered insulin
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct
option.
Column I
Column II
(1) Totipotency
(A) breeding crops with higher
levels of nutrients
(2) Micropropagation (B) plant grown from hybrid
protoplast
(3) Somaclone
(C) producing a large number of
plants through tissue culture
(4) Somatic hybrid
(D) capacity to generate a whole
plant from an explant
(5) Biofortification
(E) Plants genetically identical to
the original plant
(a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-E, 4-B, 5-A (b) 1-A, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D, 5-C
(c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-E, 4-D, 5-A (d) l-D, 2-E, 3-A, 4-D, 5-C
(e) 1-D, 2-E, 3-B, 4-A, 5-C
2014-16
94. Viruses of the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus are employed
as
(a) Gobar gas producers
(b) Biological control agents
(c) Anaerobic sludge digesters
(d) Antibiotics
(e) Atmospheric nitrogen fixing agents
95. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Louis Pasteur demonstrated that life comes only from
pre-existing life
(b) S.L. Miller observed that electric discharge in a flask
containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800 °C
formed amino acids
(c) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are examples for
homology
(d) Homology indicates common ancestry
(e) Analogous structures are the result of convergent
evolution
96. Match Column I with Column II and choose the right option.
Column I
Column II
(1) Thomas Malthus
(A) Branching descent
(2) Hugo deVries
(B) Studies on populations
(3) Charles Darwin
(C) Use and disuse theory
(4) Lamarck
(D) Saltation
(a) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C,4-B
(b) l-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(c) I-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
(d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
(e) l-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
97. The hominid fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed a
stage in the human evolution, which was called
(a) Homo erectus
(b) Dryopithecus
(c) Australopithecus
(d) Homo habilis
(e) Ramapithecus
98. Functional systems for specific physiological functions are
not seen in
(a) Annelids
(b) Molluscs
(c) Arthropods
(d) Echinoderms
(e) Coelenterates
99. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct
answer.
Column I
Column II
(i) Incomplete digestive system (A) Sponges
(ii) Cellular level of organization (B) Coelenterates
(iii) Radial symmetry
(C) Annelids
(iv) Pseudocoelomate
(D) Platyhelminthes
(v) Metamerism
(E) I Aschelminthes
(a) i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B, v-E (b) i-D, ii-E, iii-B, iv-C, v-A
(c) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-E, v-C (d) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D, v-E
(e) i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-A, v-E
100. Which of the following statement/s regarding coelenterates
is/ are wrong?
I. Cnidocytes are present on the tentacles and on the body
II. Diploblastic with cellular level of organization
III. Polyp forms are free swimming
IV. Exhibits metagenesis
V. Polyps produce medusae sexually and medusae form
polyps asexually
(a) II and IV only
(b) III and V only
(c) I, II and III only
(d) III only
(e) II, III and V only
2014 SOLVED PAPER
101. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Teeth in Chondrichthyes are modified ctenoid scales
(b) Air bladder in fishes regulates buoyancy
(c) In amphibians, the tympanum represents the ear
(d) Long bones in birds are pneumatic
(e) Reptiles are poikilotherms
102. Which one of the following is not a sensory structure in
cockroach?
(a) Antennae
(b) Eyes
(c) Anal cerci
(d) Maxillary palps
(e) Proventriculus
103. Choose the wrongly matched pair regarding the position of
reproductive structures in earthworm
(A) Testes
- 10th and 11th segments
(b) Spermathecae
- 6th to 9th segments
(c) Male genital pore - 9th segment
(d) Ovaries
- Inter segmental septum of l2th
and l3th segments
(e) Female genital pore - l4th segment
104. In cockroach, the arthrodial membrane
(a) forms the hind wings
(b) covers the compound eyes
(c) forms the hypopharynx
(d) forms the tegmina
(e) joins the sclerites
105. Choose the wrong statement regarding the circulatory
system of frog
(a) Sinus venosus receives blood through major veins
called vena cava
(b) The ventricle opens into a sac like conus arteriosus
(c) The erythrocytes are nucleated
(d) Special venous connection between liver and intestine
called renal portal system is present
(e) Lymphatic system consists of lymph, lymph channels
and lymph nodes
106. Read the following statements and choose the correct
answer.
i.
Gap junctions cement adjacent cells together
ii. Areolar tissue contains fibroblasts, macrophages and
mast cells
iii. Tight junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with
each other
iv. Adhering junctions help to stop substances from
leaking across tissues
v. Cells of connective tissue except blood secrete fibres
of structural proteins called elastin
(a) i, ii and iii only are wrong
(b) i, iii and iv only are wrong
(c) iii and v only are wrong
(d) i, ii and v only are wrong
(e) ii, iv and v only are wrong
107. Tendons, which attach one bone to another bone are made
up of
(a) Dense regular connective tissue
(b) Dense irregular connective tissue
(c) Areolar tissue
(d) Adipose tissue
(e) Cuboidal epithelial tissue
108. Multiple allelism is observed in
(a) flower colour in Snapdragon
(b) pod colour in Pisum sativum
2014 SOLVED PAPER
(c) haemophilia in man
(d) sex determination in birds
(e) ABO blood types
109. The graphical representation to calculate the probability of
all possible genotypes of offsprings in a genetic cross was
developed by
(a) Gregor Mendel
(b) Kornberg
(c) Har Gobind Khorana (d) George Gamow
(e) Reginald C. Punnett
110. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell
division results in aneuploidy
(b) Additional copy of 'X' chromosome in males results in
Klinefelter's syndrome
(c) Closely located genes in a chromosome always assert
independently resulting in recombinants
(d) According to Mendel, recessive character never blend
in heterozygous condition
(e) Failure of cytokines is after DNA replication results in
polyploidy
111. A person affected with phenylketonuria, lacks an enzyme
that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into
(a) Valine
(b) Proline
(c) Histidine
(d) Tyrosine
(e) Methionine
112. Identify the wrong statement about DNA
(a) The length of DNA is defined as the number of base
pairs present in it
(b) Cytosine is common to both DNA and RNA
(c) In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is linked to a
phosphate group
(d) Thymine is chemically 5-methyl uracil
(e) Nucleoside Deoxythymidine is a nucleoside
113. Choose the wrong statement
(a) In grasshopper, besides autosomes males have only
one X-chromosome, whereas females have a pair of Xchromosomes
(b) In XY type of sex determination, both males and females
have same number of chromosomes
(c) In Drosophila, males have one X and one Y
chromosome, whereas females have a pair of Xchromosome besides autosomes
(d) In birds, females have one Z and one W chromosomes,
whereas males have a pair of Z chromosomes besides
autosomes
(e) In insects with XO type of sex determination, all sperms
bear X-chromosome besides autosomes
114. Which property among these listed below is not a criteria
for a molecule to act as a genetic material?
(a) Generate its replica
(b) Chemically and structurally stable
(c) Mutate slowly to facilitate evolution
(d) Express itself in the form of Mendelian characters
(e) Destroy itself after every cell cycle
115. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I
Column-II
(Scientists)
(Concept)
(I) Taylor and colleagues A. Lac operon
2014-17
(II) Hershey and Chase
(III) Griffith
(IV) Jacob & Monod
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
B.
DNA replicates
semi-conservatively
C. Transforming
principle
D. DNA is the genetic
material
E. Transcription
(b) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(d) I-A, II-E, III-D, IV-B
(a) I-B, II-E, III-A, IV-C
(c) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
(e) I-C, II-E, III-B, IV-A
In sickle cell anemia, the sequence of amino acids from the
first to the seventh position of the b-chain of haemoglobin
S(HbS) is
(a) His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Glu, Val, Val
(b) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Glu, Glu
(c) Thr, His, Pro, Val, Pro, Val, Glu
(d) Glu, His, Leu, Pro, Val, Glu, Glu
(e) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Val, Glu
Which triplet codon does not have a tRNA associated with
it?
(a) UAA
(b) UUA
(b) UUU
(d) AUU
(e) GUU
Read the following statements and choose the correct
option:
I. RNA polymerase associates transiently with 'Rho'
factor to initiate transcription.
II. In bacteria, transcription and translation takes place in
the same compartment.
III. RNA polymerase I is responsible for transcription of
tRNA.
IV. When hnRNA undergoes capping process, adenlyte
residues are added at 3' end in a template independent
manner.
V. hRNA is the precursor of mRNA
(a) II only is correct
(b) II, III and V only are correct
(c) III and IV only are correct
(d) I and IV only are correct
(e) II and V only are correct
Choose the correct statement.
(a) Haploid content of human DNA is 4.6 × 106 bp.
(b) A nitrogenous base is linked to pentose sugar through
phosphodiester linkage
(c) X-ray diffraction data of Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind
Franklin was the basis of Watson and Crick's DNA
model
(d) DNA is an acidic substance was first identified by
Watson and Crick
(e) Ratios between adenine, thymine and guanine,
cytosine are not constant.
Aminoacylation of tRNA is essential for
(a) replication of RNA
(b) formation of peptide bond
(c) splicing
(d) initiation of transcription
(e) termination
2014-18
2014 SOLVED PAPER
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Paper-I : Chemistry & Physics
1.
2.
(e) This is due to common ion effect. According to
common ion effect when a solution of strong electrolyte
is added to a solution of weak electrolyte which
furnishes an ion common to that strong electrolyte,
the ionization of weak electrolyte is suppressed. Here
NH4OH is a weak electrolyte and NH4Cl is a strong
electrolyte.
7.
Cu ¾¾
® Cu 2 + + 2e -
8.
(c) For a salt solution formed by weak acid (HA) and weak
base (BOH)
1
pH = [ pK w + pK a - pKb ]
2
(b) Oxidation occurs at anode i.e.
(d) Molar conc. of OH– in solution = 2 ×
= 10–2
–
\
[OH ] = 10–2
\
pOH = –log [OH ] = 2
Now since
–
pH + pOH = 14
\
9.
1
= [14 + 4.60 - 4.80]
2
pH = 14 – 2 = 12
(c) According to the Nernst equation
Ecell = E°cell +
= 6.90
3.
Q
In the reaction
= E°cell +
ˆˆ† N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)
2NH 3 (g) ‡ˆˆ
no. of moles of reactants are less than that of products
hence on increasing pressure equilibrium will shift
towards left.
4.
2.303RT
[Cu 2 + ]
log
nF
[Zn 2 + ]
(b) According to Le-chatelier's principle, on increasing
pressure equilibrium shifts in the direction where no.
of moles decreases.
observed DTb
0.81
=
(c) Van't Hoff factor (i) =
calculated DTb 0.54
= 1.1 +
10.
ˆˆ† A + + BAB ‡ˆˆ
0
at eq.
1–a
a
a
Total no. of moles at eq. = 1 – a + a + a
[A]0
2k
or k =
[A0 ]
2t1/2
\ 1 + a = 1.5; a = 0.5 or 50 %
(b) Chloroform-acetone solution shows negative deviation.
6.
(d) p = iCRT = i
=
n
RT
V
2 ´ 10 ´ 0.082 ´ 300 ´ 1000
200 ´ 100
= 24.6
k=
11.
5.
0.06
0.1
log
= 1.1 - 0.03
2
1
t1/2 =
0
=1+a
0.06
[Cu 2 + ]
log
2
[Zn 2 + ]
(c) For a zero order reaction
Now
1
2.303 RT
= 0.060
F
= 1.07 V
= 1.5
at t = 0
0.001
´ 1000
200
6 ´ 10-3
= 5 ´ 10-5
2 ´ 1 ´ 60
(d) C12H 22 O11 + H 2O + H + ¾¾
® C 6 H12O 6 + C6 H12 O 6 +H +
The rate law expression for the sugar inversion can be
written as
d[sucrose]
= K [Sucrose]a [H + ]b
dt
Now given
[H+] = 10–5; t1/2 = 60 minutes
[H+] = 10–4; t1/2 = 600 minutes
2014 SOLVED PAPER
For a zero order reaction
2014-19
t1/2 µ a0
\ Order of reaction with respect to [H+] will be zero
hence the rate law expression will be
rate = k[Sugar]1 [H+]0
12.
(b) From the formula
N æ1ö
=ç ÷
N0 è 2 ø
n
Q
32 g of O2 at STP occupies = 22400 ml
Q
0.1g of O2 at STP occupies =
= 70 cm3
14.
(d) Colour of the indicator changes due to change in pH
and not because of adsorption.
15.
(a) [NiCl4]2–
: : : :
where N0 = initial amount
N = Final amount
sp3
[Ni(CN)4]2–
n = no.of half lives
Substituting the values
1 æ1ö
=ç ÷
16 è 2 ø
4
dsp 2
n
16.
(c) [Co(en)3 ] 3+ and cis-[Co(en)2 Cl 2 ]+ show optical
isomerism.
n
æ1ö
æ1ö
çè ÷ø = çè ÷ø
2
2
N
\n=4
N
N
Q Total time (T) = n × t1/2
n
200 æ 1 ö 1 æ 1 ö
=ç ÷ ; =ç ÷
400 è 2 ø 2 è 2 ø
Co
n
13.
N
N
N
N
N
Cl
\n=1
en
3 1 1
´ =
4 3 4
1
´ t1/2(B)
4
\
t1/2(A) =
or
t1/2(B) = 4 × t1/2(B)
(c)
wt. of Mg deposited Eq.wt. of Mg
=
wt. of O2 produced Eq.wt. of O 2
wt. of O2 = 0.1 gm
en
Co
cis
0.150
12
=
wt. of O 2 8
Cl
Cl
now
=
Co
N
t1/2(B) = 3 months
t1/2(B)
N
T 3
= months
n 4
For B
t1/2(A)
N
N
n
now
\ t1/2(A) =
: : : :
:
For A
25 æ 1 ö
=ç ÷
400 è 2 ø
22400
´ 0.1
32
Co
en
en
Cl
17.
(c) Camphor can be purified by sublimation as this is a
sublime substance
18.
(b) Tropolone is classified as non-benzenoid aromatic
compound
O
OH
Tropolone
19.
(e)
CH
CO
CH3
2014-20
20.
21.
2014 SOLVED PAPER
(a) Among aliphatic hydrocarbons, as the no. of Pi bonds
increases in carbon–carbon covalent bond, the bond
length decreases. In Benzene all the C–C bond lengths
are same (139 pm). The C–C bond lengths are greater
than a double bond but shorter than a single bond.
C2H6
C2H4
C2H2
154 pm
133 pm
120 pm 139 pm
CH3
CH3
–
+
R – O –– R¢ + NaX
22.
(b) This is due to hyperconjugation. 2, 3-dimethyl – 2 –
butene can have more hyperconjugative structures
than 2 – butene.
23.
(e)
1°
CH3
(a)
H3C
*
CH
*
CH
CH3
CH3
CH2
25.
(e)
33.
(a) p-toluenesulphonyl chloride is used to distinguish
between secondary and tertiary amine.
C6H5
O
C
NOH
S
CH3
C6H5
5
(d) CH3
4
CH
3
CH
2
CH
Cl
CH3
CH3
Cl + H – N – C2H5
O
Since the compound contains two similar (–C6H5) groups
on one side of – C = N – bond, hence geometrical isomerism
is not possible.
26.
C
CH2
(minor)
(e) In substituted phenols the presence of electron
withdrawing groups such as nitro group, enhances
the acidic strength of phenol. This effect is more
pronounced when such a group is present at ortho
and para position. It is due to the effective
delocalisation of negative charge in phenoxide ion.
On the other hand electron releasing groups such as
alkyl groups do not favour the formation of phenoxide
ion resulting in decrease in acid strength hence
p-cresol is least acidic among all and hence have
highest pH.
CH3
(3, 4-dimethylheptane)
CH2
32.
1°
CH2
C
CH3 + CH3
(major)
(a) No new C–C bond formation takes place in Canizzaro's
reaction.
CH3
CH2
CH
31.
Both carbon atoms in ethane are primary.
24.
CH3
CH3
The reaction involves SN2 attack of an alkoxide ion on
primary alkyl halide.
CH3
CH3 + alc. KOH
Br
C6H6
(d) Williamson's synthesis : In this method, an alkyl halide
is allowed to react with sodium alkoxide.
R – X + R¢ – O Na
C
CH2
C2H5
O
(d) Carbylamine test is performed by only 1° amines.
Except (CH3)3N all are 1° amines.
28.
(c) A mixture of an alkyl halide and aryl halide gives an
alkylarene when treated with sodium in dry ether and
is called Wurtz-Fitting reaction.
(e) Benzyl chloride undergoes hydrolysis by S N 1
mechanism because of the stability of benzyl
carbocation formed as a result of heterolysis.
30.
(a) According to Saytzeff's rule "In dehydrohalogenation
reactions the preferred product is that alkene which
has the greater number of alkyl groups attached to the
doubly bonded carbon atoms. Thus 2-methyl but-2ene will be the major product.
O
C2H5
O
S
CH3
Cl + (C2H5)3N
No reaction
O
34.
C6H5I + 2Na + CH3I —® C6H5CH3 + 2NaI
29.
N – C2H5 + HCl
N-N-Diethyltoluene
sulphonamide
4-chloro, 2, 3 dimethyl pentan-1-ol
27.
S
CH3
1
CH2OH
(d) The order of boiling points of isomeric amines is as
follows:
1° > 2° > 3°
Boiling point of 1° amine is highest due to
intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
O
35.
(b) CH3
C
acetamide
NH2
LiAlH4
CH3
CH2
ethanamine
NH2
2014 SOLVED PAPER
36. (a) a - (v), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (ii)
48.
O
H
CH2
C
H
CH2
acetaldehyde
C
OH
C
H
C
CH3
C2H5
50.
(c)
H3C
H
H
51.
C2H5
CH3– CH2– NH – CH2– CH3
Diethyl amine (metamers)
37.
(a) PHBV is a biodegradable polymer
38.
(a)
41.
(e) Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic drug i.e. have inhibitory
effect on microbes.
42.
(d) Freon - 12 (CCl2F2)is one of the most common freons
in industrial use. It is manufactured from tetrachloro
methane by swarts reaction.
40. (c)
h
(d) De-broglie wavelength l =
mv
= 10-5
53.
54.
(e) Gases cannot be liquified above their critical
temperature.
(a) No. of tetrahedral voids = 2n
55.
(a) As and Si are metalloids
56.
57.
(c) N(7) = 1s2 2s2 2p3 i.e. 3 unpaired electrons.
(b)
No. of octahedral voids = n
OH
C2H5
O
O2
H2/Pd
2-ethylanthraquinone
2-ethylanthraquinol
58.
45.
(a)
59.
46.
(d) Dx =
C2H5
+ H2O2
O
OH
(c) The maximum number of electrons which can be held
by subshell with azimuthal quantum number (l) in an
atom is = 2 (2l + 1)
(e) Li2CO3 is the least stable carbonate and give Li2O and
CO2 on heating to red hot.
(c) Sphalerite is ZnS, the sulphide ore of Zn. This is
concentrated by froth floatation process.
h
6.626 ´ 10 -34
=
4 pm.Dv 4 ´ p ´ 6.626 ´ 10 -31 ´ 1 ´ 106
60.
1
1
´ 10-9 m =
nm
4p
4p
(d) Vapour phase refining method is used for the
purification of titanium, zirconium etc. and is called
Van Arkel method.
61.
(e) Quartz is used as a piezoelectric material
62.
(c) HOCl + H2O2 ––® H3O+ + Cl– + O2
63.
(b) In B2H6, there are four two-centre two electron bonds
and two three centre two electron bonds also called
banana bonds
(a) O2+ = (s1s)2 (s* 1s)2 (s2s)2 (s* 2s)2 (s2pz)2
( p2 px2
B.O =
7.6 ´ 104
(d) It is dipole-induced dipole force that operates between
the polar molecules having permanent dipole and the
molecule lacking permanent dipole e.g. HCl and Cl2
(mv)a 4 1
l
\ D =
= ´ = 0.4
la (mv)D 2 5
47.
0.76
52.
Consider that the given particle is a
=
(c) According to Henry's law
Partial pressure (P) µ mole fraction of solute
x=
Methyl-N-propylamine
44.
H
0.76 = 7.6 × 104 × x
(d) CH3– CH2– CH2– NH – CH3
43.
H
P = KHx where KH = Henry's constant
(–) –2-butanol(enantiomers)
39. (c)
N
\ 1 lone pair and 3 bond pairs
OH
(+) – 2-butanol
(d) Among the given option the dipole moment of CHCl 3
is highest.
vinyl alcohol (Tautomers)
(b) Eclipsed and staggered ethane are example of
conformational isomers.
(c)
49.
H
º
p 2 p 2y ) (p* 2 p1x )
1
[10 - 5] = 2.5
2
C2 = (s1s)2 (s* 1s)2 (s2s)2 (s* 2s)2 (p2 px2 º p 2 p2y )
1
B.O = [8 - 4] = 2
2
H
(a)
OH
2014-21
(d) B in BF3 is sp2 hybridized hence percentage of
s-character is 33.3%.
H
H
H
B
B
H
Structure of B 2H6
H
2014-22
64.
2014 SOLVED PAPER
(a) ClF 3 is used for the production of UF 6 in the
enrichment of 235U
73.
B=
U(s) + 3ClF3(l) ––® UF6(g) + 3ClF(g)
65.
(b) Zieglar Natta catalyst is TiCl4 + (C2H5)3 Al, used for
the polymerization of olefins.
66.
(e) The standard reduction potential of copper is +0.34V
67.
(a) Ti(Z = 22) – [Ar]3d2 4s2
=
i.e.
electrons and
hence it is colourless in aqueous solution.
(d) Ni (Z = 22) – [Ar]3d 84s2
n(n + 2) = 2(2 + 2)
74.
(c) Transformer is used to obtain desired ac voltage and
current
75.
(b) In series RLC circuit,
Voltage, V = VR2 + (VL - VC )2
= 2.84 BM
69.
And, at resonance, VL = VC
(e) CH4 + 2O2 —® CO2 + 2H2O
Hence, V = VR
According to Hess's law
DHf = DHf (CO2) + 2 × DHf (H2O) – DHf (CH4)
DH = –393.5 + 2 × – 285.8 – (–74.8)
= – 890.3 kJ mol–1
70.
(a) DH = –110 + 2 × – 53
76.
(d) A dynamo is a device which converts mechanical
energy into electrical energy
77.
(d) Infrared radiations
78.
(e) As we know, equivalent power of lens
P = P1 + P2 = 15 + (– 3) = 12 D
= – 216 kJ mol–1
71.
(b) DG° = –2.303 RT log K
– 172.4 = –19.15 × 10–3 × T log 1030
T = 300 K
72.
(c)
N2(g) + O2(g)
2NO(g)
[NO]2
Kc =
[N 2 ][O 2 ]
Kc =
And focal length F =
(b) In an isotropic medium, speed of light depends on its
wavelength.
80.
(a) Cylindrical lens is used to rectify eye defect astigmatism
81.
(e) Stopping potential increases if wavelength of light
falling on a photosensitive material decreases.
82.
(a) Activity decreases
5000 dps to 2500 dps in 150 days
\ Half life period T1/2 = 150 days
\ 300 days = 2T1/2
[N 2 ]1 2[O 2 ]1 2
[NO]
1
Kc
\ Kc =
1
0.0625
Kc =
=
1 1
100
cm = 8.33 cm
= m=
P 12
12
79.
1
1
N2 + O2
2
2
NO
4p ´ 10-7 ´ 200 ´ 1
2p ´ 0.1
This value is inside closed space and, in open space
B = zero
Ni2+ – [Ar]3d 8
m=
m0 NI
2 pR
= 4 × 10–4 T
Ti4+(18) = [Ar]3d 04s0 no unpaired
68.
(b) Magnetic field
Therefore, initial activity = 5000 × 2T1/2 = 5000 × 2 × 2
= 20000 dps
83.
(b) Control rods absorb fast moving neutrons in nuclear
reaction. They are made of cadmium.
84.
(d) In fusion, lighter nuclei combine to form heavier
nucleus
i.e., 12 H + 12 H ¾¾
® 32 He + 10 n + Q
85.
(c) Resistivity rinsulator > rsemiconductor > rmetal/conductor
1
86.
(c) For solar cell, band gap < 3 eV
25 ´ 10 -2
87.
(d) To make an OR gate at least 3 NAND gates are required
88.
(a) Low pass filter allows 624 kHz to pass and retains 630
kHz and 636 kHz frequencies.
=4
2014 SOLVED PAPER
89. (e) A transducer converts physical variable into
corresponding variations in the electrical signal.
90.
(b) Mobility m =
2014-23
96.
(a) As we know, |impulse| = |change in momentum|
= |p2 – p1|
= |0 – mv1|
= |0 – 3 × 2| = 6 Ns
97.
(c) Power =
drift velocity Vd (ms -1) m 2 s -3
=
=
electric field E (Vm -1 )
V
æ
joule(J) ö
çèQ Volt = V = coulomb(C) ÷ø
=
mgh
Therefore power of A, PA = t
A
m 2 s -1C m 2 s -1 As
=
[Coulomb,c = As]
J
kg m 2 s -2
mgh
and power of B, PB = t
B
= kg–1 s2 A = M–1 T2 A
91.
(d) Slope AB =
\
BC DV
=
= acceleration
AC Dt
Velocity (v) ®
98.
A
93.
(d) For complementary angles of projection (45° + a) and
(45° – a) with same initial velocity u, range R is same.
(b) The distribution of mass about axis EF is minimum so
radius of gyration is minimum and therefore moment
of inertia is minimum about EF.
100. (e) The position of centre of mass of a system depends
upon mass, relative distance, position and symmetry
of the body.
RCM =
q1 + q2 = (45° + a) + (45° – a) = 90°
(e) Angular speed of tip of seconds hand
w = 2p radian in 60 s
=
Orbital velocity vo =
\ Linear speed v = Rw
;
p p
=
cm s–1
30 3
å miri
å mi
101. (b) Escape velocity ve =
p
rads -1
30
= 10 ×
total work done
time
99.
Time (t) ®
(e) As ball returns to starting point so displacement is
zero.
95.
(d) Power =
1
é
ù
= kn êQK.E. K = mv2 ú
2
ë
û
C
92.
94.
PA t B 4
=
= = 2 :1
PB t A 2
1
Mv 2 1
æ M
ö
2
= (mv 2 )n çQ = mn ÷
=
è t
ø
t
2
B
O
work done
time
(Q R = 10 cm)
1 cm s–1
(b) As we know, coefficient of friction m =
Þm=
ma a
= (a = 7.35 m s–2 given)
mg g
\m=
7.35
= 0.75
9.8
F
N
\ ve =
2GM
R
GM
R
2vo
102. (a) Height of geo-stationary orbit is 35,800 km
The time period of Earth's satellite about its axis is 24
hours.
103. (e) From stoke's law, F = 6phR1v, and V =
4
æ
3ö
F' = 6phR2v, çè volume 8 V = p(2R) ÷ø
3
= 6ph(2R)v
= 2F
4 3
pR
3
2014-24
104. (b) As we know,
Y = 2G (1 + s)
2014 SOLVED PAPER
113. (b) Bulk modulus
Therefore the fractional decrease in radius
-dp
105. (e) Bulk modulus B =
æ dV ö
çè
÷
V ø
dr dp
p
=
=
r 3B 3B
114. (c) For a dipole placed in a uniform magnetic field, torque
r
ur
is maximum if p is perpendicular to E
æ DV ö
\ Pressure, dp = B çè
÷
V ø
106. (d) The mean free path l =
115. (a) For a uniformly charged infinite length wire,
1
n pd 2
l
2pe 0 r
E=
1
Þ lµ 2
d
Where l is the linear charge density.
Here d is the average diameter of the gas molecule.
107. (e) According to Kinetic theory of gases the collision
between gas molecules are perfectly elastic.
108. (b) According to first law of thermodynamics
Q = DU + W
Given : Q = 2 kcal = 2000 × 4.2 = 8400 J
W = 400 J
\ DU = Q – W
= 8400 – 400
= 8000 J
109. (c) Given, x =
dp
dp
=
DV 3dr
V
r
B=
Y
Y
ÞG=
@
2[1 + s] 3
116. (b) As we know, mass deposited m = ZIt
Z = electrochemical equivalent
when I = 4A current flows for t = 2 minutes = 120s then
m = Z × 4 × 120 = 480 Z
when I = 6A current flows for t = 40s, then
m' = Z × 6 × 40 = 240 Z
From eqn (i) and (ii)
m' =
m
2
9/2W
\ from x = A sin wt
Þ wt = 30°
( 3)
9/2W
1
1
1
1 1
=
+
= +
R R1 R 2 9 9
2 2
pö
æ
\ x = 5 cos ç 2p + ÷
è
4ø
p
5
=
m
4
2
\ R=
i.e., displacement at t = 1s is
5
m
2
111. (c) Longitudinal waves can propagate in solids, liquids
and gases.
112. (c) Speed of sound in air v =
B
A
2
=3
110. (c) Given t = 1s
= 5 cos
...(ii)
117. (c) As we know, Resistance R µ length (l)
A
2
KE
And,
= cot 2 wt =
PE
...(i)
P
=
r
i.e., v increases with humidity.
gRT
M
9
W
4
118. (a) For an alloy used for making resistor temperature
coefficient of resistance is small and positive.
119. (e) Deflection q = BINA/C
Þ qµN
N = no. of turns in the coil.
120. (a) As we know, F = q ( v ´ B )
If v = 0 Þ F = 0
2014 SOLVED PAPER
Paper-II : Biology
1.
(b)
2.
(a) The common name of Niacin or Nicotinic acid is
vitamin-PP (Pellagra Preventive). It acts as coenzymes
in hydrogen transport as NAD/Coenzyme-I and
NADP/Coenzyme-II.
3.
(c) Morphine is alkaloid, curcumin is drug.
4.
(a) Cells shrink in hypertonic solutions and swell in
hypotonic solutions.
5.
(c)
6.
(d) Micro nutrients are nutrients needed by plant body in
relatively small amounts or trace amount (equal or less
than 0.1 mg per gram dry matter). They are mostly
involved in the functioning of enzymes, cofactors or
metal activators. E.g. copper, iron, molybdenum, zinc,
boron, chlorine, nickel, manganese etc.
7.
(a)
8.
(c) NADPH + H+ never formed in cyclic reaction.
9.
(b) Two decarboxylation reaction take place in citric acid
cycle, i.e.
Citricacid ® ketoglutaric acid.
23.
2014-25
(d) The ozone hole over Antarctica develops each year
between late August and early October.
24.
(a)
26.
(d) Pioneer species in xerarch and hydrach are lichens
and phytoplanktons respectively.
27.
(c) Nutrients such as Nitrogen and Phosphorus encourage
the growth of aquatic organisms in the lake.
28.
(b)
29.
(a) In terrestrial ecosystem a larger fraction of energy flows
through detritus food chain.
30.
(b) Antibiotic resistance gene was linked to the native
plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.
31.
(c) Taq polymerase is the thermostable DNA polymerase
enzyme used in PCR.
32.
(b) Bioreactors are large vessels (having a volume of 100
to 1000 litres) in which raw materials are biologically,
converted into specific product by microbes, plant
and animal cells or their enzymes.
33.
(c)
35.
(d) Monograph are taxonomic aids that give
comprehensive information on one family or genus at
a given time.
36.
(a) Rhodophycepe They are commonly called red algae
because of the predominance of the red pigment, rphycoerythrin in the body.
a-ketoglutaric and ® Succinyl CoA
10.
(e) Maize is C4 plants.
11.
(b) Facilitated transport never requires ATP and never
follow uphill transport.
12.
(d)
14.
(d) Rhizobium is symbiotic bacterium. Rhodospirillum is
anaerobic. Nostoc and Anabaena are free living bluegreen algae (cyano-bacteria).
15.
(e) GA increases internode growth in sugar cane.
16.
25. (e)
34. (b)
Mycelium is branded and septate.
13. (e)
37.
(d) Fungi are achlorophyllous, heterotrophic,
gametophytic, haploid, multicellular, eukaryotic
nucleated, spore producing thallophytes which are
surrounded by cell wall of chitin (fungus cellulose).
(a) Non-showy and no nectar are the characters of both
wind and water pollinated flowers.
38
(c) The common members are Polysiphonia, Porphyra,
Gracilaria and Gelidium.
17.
(d)
39.
(e)
18.
(e) When cytokinin is applied externally, the lateral bud
grows even in presence of apical bud. Thus, cytokinins
reverse the auxin induced inhibition of lateral buds
and counteract the apical dominance.
40.
(b) Instead of cell wall euglenoids posses a pellicle layer.
41.
(b) Salvinia and Selaginella are heterosporous
pteridophytes.
19.
(c) Water hyacinth, Yucca and Amorphophallus are
pollinated by insects.
20.
42.
43.
(c) Leaching, humification, catabolism, mineralisation and
fragmentation are the steps seen in decomposition.
(a) Bryophytes can live in soil but are dependent on water
for
44.
(c) In angiosperms zygote develops into embryo.
21.
(d) Very small animals have to spend greater energy.
45.
(a)
22.
(c) In commensalism one species is benefitted and other
is neutral i.e., neither benefitted nor harmed (+ , 0).
The examples of commensalisms are ‘clown fish hiding
in the colony of sea anemone’, ‘orchid growing as an
epiphyte on mango tree’ and the ‘barnacle growing
on the back of whale’. Here, sea anemone, mango tree
and whale derive no benefit from the association.
47.
(b) Parietal : Single chambered ovary ovules are borne
on periphery as in Cruciferae family.
46. (a)
Free-Central: The ovary is one-chambered. The placenta arises from the base of the ovary in the form of a
swollen central axis. The ovules are borne all over the
surface of the placenta, as in Primulaceae, (e.g. Dianthus and Primrose).
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48.
(d) The gynoecium of fabaceae is monocarpellary,
supeuor ovary unilocular with marginal placentation.
49.
(b) Polyarch xylem and casparian strips are seen in dicot
roots.
50.
(a) Solanaceae shows cymose inflorescence and bilocular
ovary.
51.
(d) Cell wall of parenchyma is highly cellulosic.
52.
(d) Monocots posses closed vascular bundles.
53
(a)
54.
(b) Endodermis in dicot root contain suberin deposition.
55.
(a) Vibrio – comma shaped bacteria. Lysosome rich in
hydrolytic enzyme.
56.
(d) Ribosomes are absent in golgi apparatus.
57.
(c)
58.
(a) G.N. Ramachandran discovered the helical structure
of collagen. Collagen is the most abundant protein of
animal world.
59.
(b) Based on the position of centromere there are four
different types of chromosomes metacentric (middle
centromere), sub-metacentric (centromere haprer to
acromcentric (centromere close to end) and tolocentric
(termirel centromed)
60.
(c)
61.
(b) In eukaryotes, genes are split genes which contain
(expressing coding sequence) called exon and altern
with intervening/non coding sequences. Introns do
not code for any protein and are removed during RNA
processing (splicing).
62.
(d) A tRNA has (i) ammino acid (AA) binding (ii)
anticodon loop (iii) TYC loop (iv) DHU loop and (v)
variable extra arm.
63.
(c) Mathew Meselson and Franklin Stahl proved that DNA
replication is a semiconservative process. They
proved that two strands of DNA duplex separate at
time of replication and act as template for synthesis of
new complementary strands i.e. semi conservative.
64.
(a)
67.
(b) They salivary amylase is the starch digesting enzyme
and functions at almost neutral pH, that is at 6.8.
68.
69.
70.
65.
(a)
(b) Vital capacity is the maximum volume of air a person
can breathe in after a forced expiration or the maximum
volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced
inspiration. It varies from 3400 mL to 4800 mL.
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(e) The Thromboplastin or Thrombokinase is released
from injured platelets or injured tissue. This converts
prothrombin into thrombin in the presence of calcium
ions. The thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin, the
latter forms the clot.
72.
(c) The pCO2 and pO2 in oxygenated blood i.e. arterial
blood is 40 mm Hg and 95 mm Hg respectively.
73.
(a) Striated muscle fibres have a large number of myofibrils
in their cytoplasm. Each myofibril has dark and light
bands, which are made up of actin and myosin proteins
and give the myofibril a striated appearance.
74.
(c)
75.
(d) Hyoid bone is a horseshoe-shaped bone situated in
the anterier midline of the neck between the chin and
the thyroid cartilage. It serves as a point of attachment
for some of the muscles of the tongue and floor of the
mouth but does not articulate with any other bone.
76.
(e) In a resting nerve fibre, axoplasm contains a high
concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins
and low concentration of Na+. In contrast, the fluid
outside axon contains a low concentration of K+ and
a high concentration of Na + and thus forms a
concentration gradient. This ionic gradient is
maintained by Na+ – K+ pump. As a result, the outer
surface of axonal membrane possesses a positive
charge while its inner surface is negatively charged
and therefore is polarised.
77.
(e)
78.
(b) Parathyroid hormone or parathormone is released by
parathyroid glands. This hormone regulates the
calcium and phosphate balance between blood and
other tissues. It increases calcium reabsorption in
nephron, mobilises the release of calcium into blood
from bones and hence increases blood calcium level.
79.
(e)
80.
(d) In a myofibril the dark bands (A bands) and light bands
(I bands) are present alternatley. Each I band has at its
centre a dark membrane called Z line. The part of
myofibril between two successive Z lines is called a
sarcomere.
81.
(a) Chylomicrons are lipoprotein molecules which consist
of small fat globules coated with protein.
82.
(c) The relationship between partial pressure of oxygen
and percentage saturation of the haemoglobin with
oxygen is graphically illustrated by a curve called
oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve. Under normal
conditions the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve
is sigmoid or s-shaped.
83.
(d) Hormones of adrenal medulla include noradrenaline
and adrenaline. Nor-adrenaline regulates blood
pressure and cardiac output under normal conditions.
66. (c)
(d) Diaphragm is present below lung and separates
thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity. Its up and down
movement helps in expiration and inspiration during
breathing.
(d)
71.
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84. (b) ADH or antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin increases
the reabsorption of water in the distal convoluted
tubule and collecting ducts of the nephrons of kidney.
As a result, water reabsorption from glomerular filtrate
is increased and urine becomes concentrated.
85.
(e)
86.
(d) The additional type spermatogonia grow into larger
primary spermatocytes which undergo reduction
division to produce two h aploid secon dary
spermatocytes which now undergo second maturation
division to form four haploid division to spermatids.
Spermatids transform into sperms through
spermiogenesis or spermateliosis.
87.
(a) The walls of uterus are composed of three layers
endometrium, myometrium and perimetrium.
Endometrium is inner glandular layer that lines the
uterine cavity and undergoes cyclic changes during
menstrual cycle.
88.
(b)
89.
(e) IVF is in vitro fertilization which is a method of assisted
reproducton for infertile couples.
90.
(d) Biosphere reserves, National Parks and wildlife
sancturies are in-situ conservation methods i.e.
conservation of wildlife in their natural habitat.
91.
(e) Norman E. Borlaug is considered the father of 'Green
revolution' as the semi dwarf varieties of wheat
developed by him increased wheat production
manifolds.
92.
(b) Pencillin was the first antibiotic to be discovered by
Alexander Fleming (1928). The antibiotic was however,
commerically extracted by efforts of Chain and Florey
and was extensively used in treating wounded soldiers
in world war II Fleming, Chain and Florey were awarded
Noble Prize in 1945.
93.
(a)
94.
(b) Baculoviruses mostly of the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus are useful in controlling many insects and
other arthropods. Thus are widely used.
95.
(c) Flipper of penguins and dolphins are examples for
analogy.
96.
(b)
97.
(a) Homo erectus had a brain capacity of 900 cc.
98.
(e) Coelenterates have tissue level organisation.
99.
(c)
100. (e) Polyps produce medusae asexually and medusae form
polyps sexually
101. (a)
102. (e) Proventriculus or gizzard is a part of digestive system
in cockroach.
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103. (c) Male genital pore is present in 18th segment.
104. (e)
105. (d) Venous connection between liver and intestine is called
hepatic portal system.
106. (b) Gap junctions are direct cytoplasm to cytoplasm
connection. They permit transport of ions and small
molecules between cells without leaking into the space
or gap between them.
Tight junctions tie the cells firmly and check the
movement of materials and thus communication
between them.
Adhering junction form a strengthening and
interlocking belt encircling the exterior of adjacent cells
and contribute to the stability and integrity of the cell
layer.
107. (a)
108. (e) Multiple allelism is the condition when more than two
alternate forms of a gene are present on the same locus.
ABO blood groups are caused due to multiple allelism
where three alleles of the gene for blood group i.e. IA
IB and IO are present.
109. (e) Reginald C. Punnett developed Punnett's square where
all possible gametes of one parent are placed vertically
on the checker board and those of other parent are
placed horizontally. Then their combinations are
worked out.
110. (c) Mendel gave the law of independent assortment
stating that two genes always assort independent of
each other. But studies by Morgan proved that genes
show linkage. Linkage is the phenomenon or certain
closely located genes staying together during
inheritance through generatoins without any change
or separation.
Thus, closely located genes generally tend to stay
together and do not show recombination.
111. (d) Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inborn autosomal,
recessive metabolic disorder in which the homozygous
recessive individual lacks the enzyme phenylalanine
hydroxylase needed to change phenylalanine to
tyrosine in liver.
112. (c) A deoxyribonucleotide of DNA is formed by cross
linkage of th ree chemicals-phosphoric acid,
deoxyribose sugar and nitrogen base. The phosphate
group is connected to the 5' carbon of sugar residue
of its own nucleotide and 3' carbon of the sugar residue
of the next nucleotide by 3' – 5' phosphodiester bond.
The sugar is connected with nitrogen base also.
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113. (c) XX-XO type of sex determination is found in
roundworms and some insects like tree bugs,
grasshoppers etc. Here, the females have two sex
chromosome XX, while the males have only one sex
chromosome X. There is no second sex chromosome.
Females show homogamety and produce all X
containing eggs while males show heterogamety and
produce both X containing sperms and sperms
without sex chromosomes.
114. (e) For a biomolecule to act as genetic material it is
important that it should be stable so that it can be
passed on to progenies as genetic information of the
parental traits and traits of the species.
115. (c)
116. (e) Normal haemolgoblin has glutamic acid at its 6th
position of b chain when it is replaced by valine due
to mutation, sickle cell haemoglobin is produced.
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117. (a) UAA is the termination codon and thus no tRNA and
no amino acid is associated with it.
118. (e)
119. (c) Haploid content of human DNA is 3.3 × 109 bp. A
nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar
through a N-glycosidic linkage. DNA is an acidic
substance present in nucleous was first identified by
Friedrich Meischer in 1869. In DNA, the ratios between
Adenine and Thymine, and Guanine and Cytosine are
constant.
120. (b) Charging or aminoacylation of tRNA is, the process
when tRNA specific for the amino acid forms
aminoacyl. The amino acid is linked to 3' – OH and
tRNA through its – COOH group. The tRNA
complexed with amino acid is sometimes called charged
tRNA. This process is essential for protein synthesis.
i.e. polypeptide formation through formation of peptide
bonds between amino acids.