University of Mosul
College: Medicine
Dept.Medical Physiology
Second Class
Subject:
Medical
Physiology
Medical
Medical
Mid-Year Exam (1st Trial)
Time: 2 Hours
Date: 26/1/ 2016
Lecturer: Teaching Staff
member / Dept.of
Medical physiology
Mark the most appropriate choice in each of the following multiple
choice questions (MCQ'S) by placing a circle around the letters a, b, c,
d, or e. There is one correct choice for each question.
1. Pacinian corpuscles are considered as specific receptors for.
a. Pain.
b. Pressure.
c. Temperature.
d. High frequency vibration.
2. Pain receptors are.
a. Free nerve endings.
b. Meissner's corpuscles.
c. Small unmyelinated nerve fibers.
d. Electromagnetic receptors.
3. Which of the following bet fits with cold receptors?
a. They are free nerve endings.
b. Not identified.
c. Small nerve fibers.
d. Merkle's discs.
4. Nerve conduction velocity is directly proportional to.
a. Thickness of the nerve fiber.
b. Length of the nerve fiber.
c. Myelination of the nerve fiber.
d. Both ( a and c) .
5. Pain is an unpleasant sensation characterized by all of the following EXCEPT.
a. It represents an alarm to the body about some damaging process.
b. It can be fast or slow.
c. Fast pain is conducted by small type-C unmyelinated fibers.
d. It can be induced by mechanical, thermal, and chemical stimuli.
6. One of the following is not a site of pain perception.
a. Spinal cord.
b. Brain stem.
c. Thalamus.
d. Somatosensory cortex.
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7. The dorsal medial-lemniscal system mediates.
a. Pain.
b. Temperature.
c. Sexual sensations.
d. Tactile sensation.
8. One of the following is not mediated by the anterolateral spinothalamic
system.
a. Pain.
b. Temperature.
c. Fine touch.
d. Sexual sensations.
9. Visceral pain is vague and poorly localized to start with, later on it becomes
highly localized due to.
a. Spread of the disease process to involve the parietal peritoneum.
b. Involvement of the visceral peritoneum with the disease process.
c. The brain will be apprized about the disease process.
d. Involvement of more pain receptors with the disease process.
10. Referred pain of the heart is usually felt on.
a. The right shoulder.
b. The chest wall overlying the heart.
c. The abdomen.
d. The inner surface of the left arm and the left shoulder.
11. Muscle stretch reflexes are.
a. Nonfunctional jerky muscle contractions.
b. Functional purposeful muscle contractions.
c. Integrated at the level of the cerebral motor cortex.
d. Decreased with anxiety.
12. One of the following cannot exaggerate muscle stretch reflexes.
a. Increased descending excitatory signals from the higher centers.
b. Emotional stress.
c. Hypothyroidism.
d. Anxiety.
13. Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of migraine headache?
a. The headache comes all of a sudden.
b. Usually preceded by aura.
c. It might last for 24-48 hours.
d. Affecting females more than males.
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14. When the body leans to one side, it is the role of the following area of the
brain to resume body position.
a. Medullary reticular nuclei.
b. Vestibular reticular nuclei.
c. Pontine reticular nuclei.
d. Deep cerebellar nuclei.
15. The cerebellum plays a key role in controlling.
a. Rapid transmission of movements from one to the next.
b. Planning complex patterns of movements.
c. Sequencing multiple successive and parallel movements.
d. Direction of movements.
16. The basal ganglia plays a key role in controlling.
a. Timing of movements.
b. Rapid transmission of movements.
c. Turn-on turn-off signals to the agonist and antagonist muscles.
d. Sequencing of multiple successive and parallel movements.
17. One of the following is not a clinical manifestation of cerebellar diseases.
a. Resting tremor.
b. Hypotonia.
c. Dysmetria and ataxia.
d. Dysdiadochokinesia.
18. One of the following is not a mean of heat dissipation.
a. Shivering.
b. Sweating.
c. Vasodilation.
d. Evaporation.
19. Regarding cold sensation one of the following is not true.
a. There are 3-10 times as many cold receptors as warmth receptors.
b. Cold receptors are distributed immediately under the skin.
c. Cold receptors are more concentrated on the trunk than on the lips.
d. Ladies are less sensitive to cold than gentle, because of the uniformly
distributed temperature insulator (subcutaneous fat) all over the body.
20. Regarding the analgesia system one of the following is not true.
a. The paraventricular nuclei and periaqueductal gray are part of it.
b. The above mentioned nuclei send their projections to the dorsal horn of
the spinal cord.
c. Raphe Magnus nuclei are part of the analgesia system.
d. The system is designed to inhibit pain signals at the entry gait.
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21. Regarding memory, one of the following is not true.
a. Codification is necessary for storage of memories.
b. Rehearsal converts intermediate long-term memories into long-term
memories.
c. Memories are stored randomly in the memory store house.
d. Trauma to the head can cause loss of the recent memories.
22. Rapid eye movement sleep is characterized by.
a. Deep restful sleep.
b. Active dreaming.
c. Slow waves of the brain.
d. Decreased brain activity by 20%.
23. One of the following best describes Grand Mal epilepsy.
a. The seizure lasts for few seconds up to 3-4 minutes.
b. The brain waves are of spike and dome pattern.
c. Muscle contractions usually begin around the mouth and spreading to the
muscles of the body.
d. Three to thirty seconds of diminished consciousness.
24. The most important area of the entire brain regarding language based
intelligence is.
a. Wernicke's area.
b. Prefrontal area.
c. Somatosensory area.
d. Limbic cortex.
25. Difficulty in producing words (aphasia) can result from damage to.
a.Wernicke's area.
b. Broca's area.
c. Auditory area.
d. Visual area.
26. Slow wave sleep is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT.
a. It is exceedingly restful.
b. Associated with decreased vegetative functions of the body.
c. Associated with active dreaming.
d. It is dreamless sleep.
27. The most striking characteristic of the autonomic nervous system.
a. It helps control blood pressure.
b. It helps control respiration.
c. It helps control digestion and absorption.
d. The rapidity and intensity with which it can change visceral functions.
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28. Strong parasympathetic stimulation to the heart can cause.
a. Increased heart rate.
b. Mild decrease in heart rate.
c. Cardiac arrest (standstill).
d. Cardiac arrhythmia.
29. Antithrombin III acts as anticoagulant which inactivates.
a. Fibrinogen.
b. Hagman facto
c. Thrombin r.
d. Protein C
30. Hb A2 is comprised about of.
a. 2.5% of adult Hb.
b. 30% of adult Hb.
c. 97 % of adult Hb.
d. 90% of adult Hb.
31. If the wound is minor, arrest of bleeding is caused by.
a. Releasing of clotting factors.
b. local vasoconstriction.
c. Plateletes plugs formation.
d. b +c.
32. Immunoglobulins or antibodies are formed by.
a. Neuroplils
b.T-lymphocytes.
c. Red blood cells.
d. B-lymphocytes.
33. A man of blood group AB, Rh –postive has.
a. Agglutinogens A, B, and D, and agglutinin A, B, D.
b. Agglutinogens A ,B only.
c. Agglutinogens A, B, and agglutinins A,B.
d. Agglutinogens A, B, and D only.
34. Oncotic or osmotic pressure is mainly the function of plasma protein.
a. Fibrinogen.
b. Globulin.
c. Albumin.
d. Plasminogen.
35. When blood is exposed to an oxidizing agent, the compound formed is called.
a. Oxyhemoglobin.
b. Carboxyhemoglobin.
c. Carbaminohemoglobin.
d. Methemoglobin.
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36. In patients with bacterial infection, the number of which of the following cells
is elevated?
a. Basiophils.
b. Monocytes.
c. Lymphoctes.
d. Neutrophils.
37. Stuart –Prower factor is actived by.
a. Plasminogen.
b. Prothrombin
c. Fibrinogen.
d. None of the above.
38. Frequent nosebleeds in infants is due to the deficiency of.
a. Vitamin E.
b. Vitamin C.
c. Vitamin B12.
d. Vitamin K.
39. EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) prevents clot formation by binding
to.
a. Calicium.
b. Potassium
c. Magnessium
d. Sodium.
40. The blood cells responsible for the structural integrity of the vessels wall are.
a. Thrombocytes.
b. Red blood cells.
c. White blood cells.
d. Mast cells.
41. Vitamins required for maturation of RBC are.
a. Folic acid.
b. Vitamin K.
c. Vitamin B12
d. a + c.
42. Clotting factors that adhere to the opening on the outer surface of platelets
are.
a. Fibrinogen (factor I).
b. labile factor (factor V).
c. Antihemophilic factor A(factor VIII).
d. All of the above.
43. The most potent vasoconstrictor released by platelets at the site of injury is.
a. Serotonin
b. Endothelin.
c. Throbaxane A2.
d. Histamine.
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44. The major protein of fibrinolytic system in vivo is.
a. Fibrinogen.
b. Plasminogen.
c. Thrombopoeintin.
d. Thromboplastin.
45. The Warfarin suppresses the production of the clotting factor.
a. Vitamin K.
b. Factor II.
c. Factor IX.
d. All of the above.
46. The normal level of glycosylated Hb (HbA1c) in adults is.
a. 10%.
b. 20%.
c. 9%.
d. 5%,
47. Regarding the Extracellular Fluid Compartment(ECF), all are true EXCEPT.
a. It represents all the fluids outside the cells.
b. The interstitial fluid makes up more than 3/4 of the extracellular fluid.
c. The plasma makes up almost 1/4 of the extracellular fluid.
d. It is about 28 liters of fluid in the body (40 % of the total body weight).
48. Regarding Simple diffusion, which one of the following statements is INCORRECT.
a. Movement of molecules or ions through the cell membrane openings occur
from the area of high concentration of ions to the area of low concentration.
b. It needs carrier proteins.
c. Can occur through the lipid bilayer for lipid soluble substance.
d. Many of the channel proteins can be opened or closed by gates.
49. In secondary active transport, counter-transport.
a. Uses energy that is released from the ATP directly.
b. Sodium ions attempt to diffuse to the interior of the cell because of their
large concentration gradient.
c. The substance to be transported is on the inside of the cell and must be
transported to the outside.
d. The sodium ion and the substance to be transported binds to the same carrier
protein.
50. Diffusion of water through selectively permeable membrane is called.
a. Primary active transport.
b. Osmosis.
c. Secondary active transport.
d. Pinocytosis.
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51. Depolarization of the nerve cell means.
a. Closure of voltage-gated Na channels.
b. Increased K permeability by opening voltage-gated K channels.
c. Inside cell returns back to negative.
d. Increased Na permeability by opening voltage-gated Na channels.
52. What causes the plateau in cardiac muscle?
a. Opening of slow Ca-Na channels and decrease permeability for K ion.
b. Opening of fast Na channels.
c. Opening of K channels.
d. Opening of Cl channels.
53. Calmodulin is most closely related both structurally and functionally to which of the
following proteins?
a. Actin.
b. Troponin I.
c. Troponin C.
d. Tropomyosin.
54. Relaxation of smooth muscle occurs by which one of the following?
a. Calcium ions are pumped back again to the ECF and to the sarcoplasmic
reticulum.
b. Troponine tropomyosine complex uncover the active sites.
c. Activation of myosin head.
d. Calcium ions bind with calmodulin.
55. In myelinated axons, the following statements are correct EXCEPT.
a. Action potential will jump from one node of Ranvier to another, a process
called saltatory conduction.
b. It is slower than the unmyelinated fiber.
c. Repolarization starts at the point of original stimulus and spreads in the
same direction of depolarization.
d. The conduction velocity is directly proportional to the axon diameter.
56. Excitation contraction coupling in skeletal muscle involves all of the following events
EXCEPT.
a. Increase in the permeability of the muscle fiber to Na.
b. ATP hydrolysis.
c. Binding of Ca to calmodulin.
d. Depolarization of transverse tubule.
57. Regarding the motor unit of skeletal muscle.
a. All the muscle fibers which are innervated by a single motor nerve.
b. Muscle that react rapidly for precise function may have 100 muscle fibers in
motor unit.
c. Muscle that doesn’t need precise function and may have 2-3 muscle fiber in
motor unit.
d. Does not obey all or none law.
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58. Regarding multi-unit smooth muscle, all are true EXCEPT.
a. Non-syncytial.
b. Each fiber operates independently of the others.
c. Contraction does not spread widely therefore they are needed for fine
graded contraction.
d. Cell membranes are adherent to one another by gap junction.
59. At the end of the contraction the acetylcholine should be.
a. Removed rapidly by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
b. Remains accumulated in synaptic cleft.
c. Changes to another neurotransmitter.
d. Should be up taken by the muscle fiber.
60. Very large particles enter the cell by.
a. Primary active transport.
b. Secondary active transport( co-transport ).
c. Secondary active transport (counter- transport).
d. Endocytosis.
61. Regarding absolute refractory period, the following statements are true EXCEPT.
a. It is the period from firing level until repolarization is about half completed.
b. It is long period in cardiac muscle.
c. It is stronger than the threshold stimulus is required to produce a response.
d. It is a short period in skeletal muscle.
62. Tetanic contraction of skeletal muscle results from accumulation in the sarcoplasm of
which ion?
a. Na ion.
b. K ion.
c. Cl ion.
d. Ca ion.
63. Which of these statements about the adrenal cortex is true?
a. It is not innervated by nerve fibers.
b. It secretes some androgens.
c. The zona glomerulosa secretes aldosterone.
d. The zona fasciculata is stimulated by ACTH.
e. All of these are true.
64. The secretion of which of these hormones would be increased in a person
with endemic goiter?
a. TSH.
b. Thyroxin.
c. Triiodothyronine.
d. All of above.
e. Both (b + c).
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65. Which of these hormones uses cAMP as a second messenger?
a. Thyroxin.
b. Cortisol.
c. Insulin.
d. TSH.
e. Both (c + d).
66. Target cells response to low blood level of a certain hormone.
a. Increase the number of their receptors for that hormone.
b. Decrease the number of their receptors for that hormone.
c. Increase the affinity and number of their receptors for that hormone.
d. Decrease the affinity and number of their receptors for that hormone.
e. Keep the affinity and number of their receptors for that hormone constant.
67. When the combined effect of two hormones is more than the sum of
individual effects, the relation between these hormones is described as.
a. Permissiveness.
b. Synergism.
c. Trophic effect.
d. Agonism.
e. Both (a + b).
68. The following hormone(s) are synthesized and secreted by neurohypophysis.
a. Vasopressin.
b. Melatonin.
c. Oxytocin.
d. Both (a + c).
e. None of the above.
69. The homeostatic response to low level of blood calcium.
a. Renal activation of vitamin D3 is stimulated.
b. Osteoclasts are inhibited.
c. Decreased Ca++ reabsorption in the kidney.
d. Calcitonin release is stimulated.
e. None of the above.
70. The most powerful stimulus for aldosterone secretion is.
a. Hypovolemia and/or low blood pressure.
b. High plasma Na+.
c. Hyperkalemia.
d. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).
e. Low blood Ca++.
71. The following hormone(s) has/have anti-immune effect.
a. Insulin.
b. Glucagon.
c. Aldosterone.
d. Gonadocorticoids.
e. Glucocorticoids.
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72. During lactation, which hormone is associated with milk ejection?
a. Dopamine.
b. Prolactin.
c. Estrogen.
d. Oxytocin.
e. Vasopressin.
73. Lipolysis, inhibition of insulin activity, and stimulation of amino acid uptake by cells,
these metabolic effects can result from the action of the following hormone(s).
a. Prolactin.
b. Aldosterone.
c. Growth hormone.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
74. Which of these hormones may have a primary role in many circadian
rhythms?
a. Gonadocorticoids.
b. Cortisol.
c. ACTH.
d. Melatonin.
e. Thyroid releasing hormone (TRH).
75. Which of the following is NOT a stimulus for GH secretion?
a. Low blood levels of GH.
b. Hypoglycemia.
c. Exercise.
d. Obesity.
e. Decreased secretion of somatostatin.
76. Insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) are produced mostly in the.
a. Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
b. Kidneys
c. Liver.
d. Adrenal cortex.
e. Lungs.
77. Which of the following processes are likely to be enhanced shortly after a
carbohydrate-rich meal?
a. Gluconeogenesis.
b. Glycogenesis.
c. Lipolysis.
d. Ketogenesis.
e. Glycogenolysis.
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78. The following hormone(s) have hyperglycemic action.
a. Epinephrine.
b. Glucagon.
c. Growth hormone.
d. Both (a + b).
e. All (a + b +c).
79. A person has been on hunger for one week. Which of the following
statements will apply to him?
a. Increase plasma glucose level.
b. Increase plasma insulin level.
c. Increase lipogenesis.
d. Increased blood level of cortisol.
e. Decreased plasma catecholamine levels.
80. Which of the following stimulate insulin secretion?
a. Exercise.
b. Sympathetic stimulation.
c. Somatostatin.
d. Parasympathetic stimulation.
e. Sleep.
GOOD LUCK
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