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Gleim Airline Transport Pilot FAA Knowledge Test
2012 Edition, 1st Printing
Updates
August 2012
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Study Unit 2 – FAR Part 91, Civil Aviation Security, Hazardous Materials
Page 40, Subunit 2.1, 91.3: New material added on PIC responsibility.
91.3 Responsibility and Authority of the Pilot in Command
1. The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to,
the operation of that aircraft.
a. This responsibility is in force regardless of whether the aircraft is operating in the air or
on the ground.
Page 45, Subunit 2.1: New question regarding the pilot in command was added.
91.3 Responsibility and Authority of the Pilot in Command
The pilot in command (PIC) of an aircraft must always?
A. follow ATC instructions regardless of the PIC’s
perceptions of the aircraft’s situation.
B. abide by ATC instructions, even if the instructions do
not make sense to the pilot.
C. remember the PIC is the final authority as to the
operation of the aircraft in the air or on the ground.
Answer (C) is correct. (FAR 91.3)
DISCUSSION: The pilot in command of an aircraft is
directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the
operation of that aircraft.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The instructions given by ATC do
not supersede the responsibilities taken on by the PIC. It is
the PIC who is directly responsible for the operation of the
aircraft in the air and on the ground. Answer (B) is incorrect.
The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for,
and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
The PIC is not required to accept instructions from ATC if
(s)he does not understand them or believes complying with
those instructions could put the aircraft, its crew, or
passengers, at risk.
Study Unit 3 – Federal Aviation Regulations: Part 121
Page 71, Subunit 3.1, 121.97: New material added concerning ETOPS.
121.97 Airports: Required Data
1. As of February 15, 2008, for ETOPS beyond 180 minutes or operations in the North and
South Polar area, public protection requirements that are sufficient to protect the
passengers from the elements and see to their welfare are mandated.
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Page 83, Subunit 3.1: New question regarding ETOPS was added.
121.97 Airports: Required Data
After February 15, 2008, ETOPS operations beyond 180
minutes or operations in the North and South Polar areas
will require
A. runways for diversion operations and maintenance
facilities.
B. sufficient facilities/on or in immediate area of the
airfield to protect passengers from elements and
see to their welfare.
C. adequate runways, ramp space, air traffic control
facilities, and maintenance personnel for diversion
operations.
Answer (B) is correct. (FAR 121.97)
DISCUSSION: As of February 15, 2008, for ETOPS
beyond 180 minutes or operations in the North and South
Polar area, public protection requirements sufficient to
protect the passengers from the elements and see to their
welfare, are mandated.
Answer (A) is incorrect. No changes were made to
diversion operations or maintenance facilities that are
pertinent to ETOPS operations in the Polar regions.
Answer (C) is incorrect. The changes outlined in this answer
option have not been implemented as a February 2008 in
reference to ETOPS operations in the Polar regions.
Study Unit 5 – Aerodynamics and Airplanes
Page 175, Subunit 5.4, 5.f.: New material on aerodynamics added regarding flaps and the
boundary layer.
5. Flaps are secondary flight control systems that are installed on the inboard section of the
wing along the trailing edge.
a. Flaps are the most common high-lift devices used on aircraft.
b. The four common types of flaps are
1)
2)
3)
4)
Plain
Split
Slotted
Fowler
c. When fully extended, both plain and split flaps produce high drag with little additional lift.
d. The split flap produces a slightly greater increase in lift than the plain flap; however,
more drag results due to the turbulent air pattern produced behind the airfoil.
e. Fowler flaps generate the most lift and drag of any flaps when fully extended.
1) When extended, Fowler flaps also cause the greatest downward pitching moment of
all flap types.
f. Thick wings benefit from the greatest increase in lift when flaps are extended.
1) Thin swept wing airfoil sections impose distinct limitations on the effectiveness of
flaps.
g. In most airplanes, the first 50% of flap deflection provides over half of the total lift
capability of the flaps.
1) The last 50% of flap deflection provides over half of the total drag increase of the
flaps.
6. Boundary layer separation from the upper surface of the airfoil leads to an aerodynamic stall,
but this can be delayed by injecting a high speed jet of air into the boundary layer.
a. By using compressor bleed air, this high-lift device can help maintain the laminar flow of
air across the upper wing surface, even at high angles of attack.
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Page 175, Subunit 5.5, 1. and 4.: New aerodynamics material added to address new FAA
questions.
5.5 ANGLE OF ATTACK/LIFT
1. Lift is proportional to the square of the airplane’s velocity; e.g., an airplane at 200 kt. has four
times the lift of the same airplane at 100 kt.
a. The coefficient of lift is a number used by aerodynamicists to model for the complex
variables that come into play in the creation of lift.
b. The lift coefficient will be at its maximum value at the speed the airplane stalls.
2. At high altitudes, a higher true airspeed is required for any given angle of attack because the
air density decreases with altitude.
3. While in ground effect, an airplane needs a lower angle of attack to produce the same lift as
when out of ground effect.
4. Angle of attack controls the airplane’s lift, airspeed, and drag.
a. Once above the stall speed, an increase in airspeed requires a decrease in both the
angle of attack and the coefficient of lift.
5. Turbine powered airplanes differ from propeller powered airplanes in a stall.
a. Propeller driven airplanes can generate considerable lift at high power settings due to air
accelerated by the propellers’ passing over airfoils, effectively increasing the maximum
lift angle of attack.
b. For turbine powered airplanes, the angle of attack at stall is essentially the same
whether power on or power off.
Page 175, Subunit 5.6, 1.: New material added regarding L/DMAX.
5.6 DRAG
1. When airspeed decreases below the maximum L/D airspeed, total drag increases due to
increased induced drag.
a. Any angle of attack lower or higher than that for L/DMAX increases the total drag for a
given airplane.
a b. At maximum L/D, a propeller-driven airplane enjoys maximum range and maximum
engine-out glide distance.
c. Because L/DMAX is an aerodynamic constant for a given angle of attack and lift
coefficient, it is unaffected by changes in weight.
d. In order to achieve maximum glide performance (i.e., distance or range), the glide speed
must vary with the weight of the airplane. Increases in airplane weight require
increases in the glide speed.
e. If flight at L/DMAX is maintained, an aircraft will have the same glide range regardless of
weight.
2. When an airplane leaves ground effect, it will require an increase in angle of attack to
maintain the same lift coefficient due to an increase in induced drag.
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Page 176, Subunit 5.7, 2. through 6.: New material added regarding stalls.
5.7 STALL SPEEDS
1. Wing-mounted vortex generators reduce the drag caused by supersonic airflow over portions
of the wing.
a. This delays the onset of drag divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron
effectiveness at high speeds.
2. Indicated stall speed is affected by bank, weight, load factor, and power, but not by angle of
attack or air density.
a. Two variables common to maximum lift conditions are angle of attack and pressure
distribution.
b. The use of angle of attack indicators and stall warning devices that sense pressure
distribution on the wing provide reliable indications of an impending stall.
c. An airplane stall warning device must also sense the relative wind since the angle of
attack is the angle between the chord line of the wing and the relative wind.
3. The stalling speed of an aircraft is higher during a level turn than during straight-and-level
flight.
3 4. An airfoil can stall at a higher airspeed when turbulent air results in an abrupt change in
relative wind.
4 5. Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators, making the
wing surface rough and/or directing high-pressure air over the top of the wing or flaps
through slots.
6. To recover from a stall, you must decrease the wings’ angle of attack.
Page 180, Subunit 5.14, 6.f.: New material added regarding premature rotation during
takeoff.
f. Takeoff Speeds, V1, VR, and V2 (see Figures 237 and 238 on pages 217 and 218) can
be determined for different flap settings, takeoff weights, and various field and
atmospheric conditions. Use the following guidelines for these charts:
1) All speeds should be rounded to the nearest 1 kt., EXCEPT that VR should always
be rounded up any time it has a decimal of 0.1 or more. Use temperatures to
within 5°C of OAT.
2) Pressure altitude should be estimated to the nearest 500 ft. and interpolated for
speed adjustments. Take care in rounding correctly for interpolations, particularly
for negative speed adjustments (i.e., subtracting). Note that rounding up when
adjusting speed by subtracting means subtracting less, not more. For example, if
adjusting an airspeed of 140 kts. for 5,000 ft., and the adjustment is –2 kts. for
4,000 ft. and –3 kts. for 6,000 ft., then the adjustment for 5,000 ft. is –2.5. First
subtract 2.5 from 140 kts. to find 137.5 kts., then round up to 138 kts. So
effectively, you have subtracted 2 kts. rather than 2.5 kts.
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3) Only V1 should be adjusted for runway slope and head/tailwind.
4) Note that V1 must not exceed VR, so any time V1 is found to be greater than VR,
these speeds should be equal.
5) Premature rotation can increase takeoff distance. Attempting to force the aircraft
into the air before it has sufficient airspeed to fly may result in the aircraft settling
back to the runway.
Page 182, Subunit 5.21, 8.: New material and image added to better explain Mach speed
calculations.
7. Dutch roll describes gusts causing a sweptwing-type airplane to roll in one direction while
yawing in another. Dutch roll is a combined rolling/yawing oscillation caused by gusts.
a. The response of the airplane to disturbances such as gusts is a combined rolling yawing
oscillation, where the roll is phased to precede the yawing motion and the rolling
tendency is stronger than the yaw.
b. When the airplane rolls back toward level flight (due to its dihedral), it rolls back too far
and sideslips the other way.
1) Without devices such as yaw dampers, the airplane would continue to oscillate this
way, as the airplane overshoots each time because of the strong dihedral effect.
8. To obtain TAS from a given Mach value, use the calculator side of your flight computer and
set the OAT over the Mach index (inside innermost open window). Find the Mach number
on the “minutes” scale and read TAS above on “miles” scale.
a. In the example below, for an OAT of -30 degrees C, a speed of Mach .75 results in a
TAS of 460 kt.
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Page 190, Subunit 5.4: Four new aerodynamics questions were added.
One method of boundary layer control is accomplished by Answer (C) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
injecting
DISCUSSION: Boundary layer control devices are an
additional means of increasing the maximum lift coefficient of
A. a jet of air into the leading edge to energize the
a section of the airfoil. Injecting a high speed jet of air into the
boundary layer.
boundary layer when operating at high angles of attack can
delay the onset of a stall.
B. a low speed jet of air into the boundary layer.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Injecting air into the leading edge
does not aid in preventing boundary layer separation. In fact,
C. a high speed jet of air into the boundary layer.
this may increase boundary layer separation by decreasing
the laminar flow of air across the upper wing surface.
Answer (B) is incorrect. An injection of low speed air into the
boundary layer will not have any impact on preventing
boundary layer separation.
On most airplanes, the first 50% of flap deflection causes
A. less than 50% of the total change in lift.
B. more than 50% of the total change in lift.
C. linear lift increases at the AFM specified speed.
Swept wings causes a significant
A. increase in effectiveness of flaps.
B. reduction in effectiveness of flaps.
C. flap actuation reliability issue.
Compared to a straight wing, swept wing flaps are
A. as effective.
B. less effective.
C. more effective.
Answer (B) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
DISCUSSION: In most airplanes, the first 50% of flap
deflection provides over half of the total lift capability of the
flaps. The last 50% of flap deflection provides over half of the
total drag increase of the flaps.
Answer (A) is incorrect. In most airplanes, the first 50%
of flap deflection provides over half, not less than half, of the
total lift capability of the flaps. Answer (C) is incorrect. In
most airplanes, the first 50% of flap deflection provides over
half of the total lift capability of the flaps, not a linear lift
increase.
Answer (B) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
DISCUSSION: Swept wings cause a reduction in
effectiveness of flaps.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Swept wings suffer from a
reduction of flap effectiveness, not an increase in their effect.
Answer (C) is incorrect. Flap actuation is not a reliability
issue in swept wings, although the effectiveness of the flaps
is reduced by the wing sweep.
Answer (B) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
DISCUSSION: The use of swept wings renders the
effectiveness of trailing edge control surfaces and high lift
devices.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The swept wing reduces the
effectiveness of flaps. They are not equally effective to flaps
installed on a straight wing. Answer (C) is incorrect. The
swept wing reduces the effectiveness of flaps. They are not
more effective than flaps installed on a straight wing.
Page 190, Subunit 5.5: Four new questions regarding stalls were added.
In a jet powered airplane (fan or pure jet) the angle of
attack at stall is
A. variable only with altitude.
B. very different from power on and power off.
C. essentially the same power on or power off.
Answer (C) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
DISCUSSION: For turbine-powered airplanes, the angle
of attack at stall is essentially the same whether power on or
power off.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The reason the angle of attack is
essentially the same for turbine-powered airplanes whether
power on or power off is the lack of accelerated airflow
moving over the wing surfaces. Altitude is not as significant a
factor. Answer (B) is incorrect. The angle of attack at stall is
essentially the same whether power on or power off in a
turbine-powered airplane, not different depending on the
power setting.
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Page 7 of 15
An increase in airspeed above the stall speed will require
A. a relative decrease in the relative wind.
B. a corresponding decrease in angle of attack and coefficient of lift.
C. a corresponding increase in co-efficient of lift and
drag.
Lift coefficient must be maximum at the
A. airplane stall speed.
B. airplane maximum maneuvering (VA) airspeed.
C. maximum mach operating limit (VMMO)
When at high angle of attack the boundary layer tends to
A. stagnate and stop.
B. loop around the upper camber line.
C. decrease air pressure along the chord.
Answer (B) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
DISCUSSION: An increase in airspeed above the stall
speed requires a decrease of both angle of attack and the
coefficient of lift.
Answer (A) is incorrect. An increase in airspeed will
result in an increase in relative wind, not a decrease.
Answer (C) is incorrect. An increase in airspeed above stall
speed will require a decrease in the coefficient of lift, not an
increase. Although it is true, as this distractor answer
suggests, that total drag will increase as speed increases.
Answer (A) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
DISCUSSION: The lift coefficient will be at its maximum
value at the speed the airplane stalls.
Answer (B) is incorrect. The airplane’s maximum
maneuvering speed is based on a stall speed that occurs
prior to an increase in load factor that would exceed the limit
load for the aircraft. It is not predicated on maximum lift
coefficient. Answer (C) is incorrect. VMMO is an operational
limit speed, not a speed that corresponds to the maximum
coefficient of lift, or the airplane’s stalling speed.
Answer (B) is correct. (PHAK Chap 4)
DISCUSSION: The boundary layer gives any object an,
“effective” shape that is usually slightly different from the
physical shape. At high angles of attack the boundary layer
may separate from the body (the upper wing camber) which
causes a dramatic decrease in lift and an increase in drag.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The boundary layer changes
shape at high angles of attack, but it does not stagnate or
stop. Answer (C) is incorrect. As the boundary layer
separates from the body (curving above the upper camber of
the wing) the pressure rises, resulting in a loss of lift as the
critical angle of attack is reached.
Page 191, Subunit 5.6: Two new questions regarding L/DMAX were added.
An airplane flying at L/DMAX will have
A. the same glide speed for all weights.
B. different glide ratios dependent on gross weight.
C. the same glide performance at all weights.
Any angle of attack lower or higher than L/DMAX
A. increases total drag.
B. requires less thrust for steady state flight.
C. means less maneuvering margin before stalling.
Answer (C) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
DISCUSSION: Maximum glide performance (i.e.,
distance or range) is found at L/DMAX. Because this
aerodynamic reference is determined at one specific angle
of attack and lift coefficient, weight does not affect glide
performance as long as the correct speed is maintained
during the glide.
Answer (A) is incorrect. An airplane’s glide speed
increases with increases in weight. Answer (B) is incorrect.
The maximum glide ratio for an airplane is found at L/DMAX.
L/DMAX is a fixed aerodynamic point and does not vary based
on weight.
Answer (A) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
DISCUSSION: Any angle of attack lower or higher than
that for L/DMAX increases the total drag for a given airplane.
Answer (B) is incorrect. A lower or higher angle of attack
will result in an increase in drag, which will require more
thrust to maintain steady state flight, not less. Answer (C) is
incorrect. An airplane can stall at any airspeed, in any
attitude, based on exceeding the critical angle of attack, not a
margin of maneuverability that exists between L/DMAX and a
published stalling speed.
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Page 8 of 15
Page 193, Subunit 5.7: Five new questions regarding stalls were added.
Stall warning devices must sense
A. static pressure.
B. pressure distribution.
C. dynamic pressures.
An airplane stall warning device must sense
A. relative wind.
B. coincident wind.
C. angle of attack.
An aircraft in a steady state, constant altitude turn
A. exhibits normal airspeed indication errors.
B. experiences no changes in stall speeds.
C. experiences higher stall speeds.
Fundamental recovery from a stall requires
A. increasing power.
B. increasing airspeed.
C. decreasing the angle of attack.
The stall speed of an airplane
A. is constant regardless of weight or airfoil
configuration.
B. is affected by weight and bank angle.
C. is not affected by dynamic pressures and lift
coefficient.
Answer (B) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
DISCUSSION: Stall warning devices must sense
pressure distribution on the wing in order to reliably indicate
an impending stall.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Static pressure is not a factor in
determining when a stall is imminent. Answer (C) is incorrect.
The measurement of dynamic pressures is important to the
indication of airspeed, not stall warnings. This is primarily
because the stall occurs as a result of exceeding an angle of
attack at a specified pressure distribution. The combination
that results in a stall can occur at any airspeed.
Answer (A) is correct. (ANA Chap 1)
DISCUSSION: The aircraft stalls when the critical angle
of attack is exceeded. The angle of attack is measured as the
angle between the chord line and the relative wind. In order
to accurately warn of an impending stall, a stall warning
device must sense the relative wind.
Answer (B) is incorrect. Coincident wind is not a factor in
determining that a stall is imminent. Answer (C) is incorrect.
A stall warning device does not directly measure angle of
attack. However, angle of attack indicators are frequently
employed to avoid situations that would cause the stall
warning system to initiate a warning.
Answer (C) is correct. (PHAK Chap 4)
DISCUSSION: The stalling speed of an aircraft is higher
in a level turn than in straight-and-level flight. This is due to
the higher angle of attack required to maintain altitude,
because a portion of vertical lift has been re-directed to
horizontal lift.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Airspeed indication errors result
from a variety of factors, including excessive angle of attack,
which is not typically experienced during a steady state,
constant altitude turn. Answer (B) is incorrect. An airplane in
a steady state, constant altitude turn will experience a stall at
a higher airspeed than the same airplane in straight-and-level
flight.
Answer (C) is correct. (AFH Chap 4)
DISCUSSION: To recover from a stall, you must
decrease the angle of attack. While this action may involve
lowering the pitch of the nose, increasing airspeed, and/or
increasing power, decreasing the angle of attack is the
fundamental way to recover from a stall.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Increasing power alone will not
cause the airplane to recover from a stall. Answer (B) is
incorrect. Increasing airspeed alone will not cause the
airplane to recover from a stall.
Answer (B) is correct. (PHAK Chap 4)
DISCUSSION: The stalling speed of an airplane is
affected by both weight and bank angle. For example, the
stalling speed of an aircraft is higher in a level turn than it is
in straight-and-level flight.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The stall speed of an airplane is
not constant. Stall speed is affected by bank, weight, load
factor, and power. Answer (C) is incorrect. Dynamic pressure
and coefficient of lift are both considerations in wing design
and performance. Their relationship does indeed have an
effect on the stall speed of an airplane.
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Page 9 of 15
Page 216, Subunit 5.14: Two new questions regarding takeoffs were added.
One typical takeoff error is
A. delayed rotation which may extend the climb
distance.
B. premature rotation which may increase takeoff
distance.
C. extended rotation which may degrade acceleration.
Answer (B) is correct. (AFH Chap 5)
DISCUSSION: Premature rotation may increase takeoff
distance. If the aircraft does not have sufficient airspeed to
fly, it may settle back onto the runway.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Delayed rotation will result in a
higher takeoff speed, not an extended climb distance.
Answer (C) is incorrect. An extended rotation does not
degrade acceleration, although over-rotation can create
additional drag that can degrade acceleration. Establishing
an appropriate attitude for VX or VY will allow the aircraft to
safely leave ground effect and accelerate normally.
You touchdown long with a speed of 145 knots on a
9,001 foot runway and the braking is not working, so you
decide to takeoff and climbout. The engines require 5
seconds to spool up and then the airplane requires 10
seconds of acceleration to liftoff again. The 5,000 foot
markers flash by. Do you have enough runway to liftoff?
(Use 142 knots for average groundspeed due to the tailwind.)
Answer (B) is correct. (PHAK Chap 15)
DISCUSSION: Given that 1 NM = 6,076.1 feet, use the
following formula to determine the distance covered during
the 15 seconds required for the engines to spool up to takeoff
thrust and for the airplane to accelerate to V2:
A. Yes, there will be a margin of about 850 feet with
almost 3 seconds of decision time.
× Number of seconds = Distance in feet
Average speed in knots × 6,076.1 feet per NM
3,600 seconds per hour
[142 × 6,076.1 ÷ 3,600 ] × 15 = 3,595 feet
B. Yes, there will be a margin of almost 1,401 feet which Since 5,000 ft. of runway remains, you have a margin of
allows about 5.8 seconds of decision time.
about 1,405 ft. of runway length. At the speed you are
moving down the runway, you will have a little less than 6
C. No, the runway is 1,104 feet too short and my
seconds of time to make and implement this decision.
decision is about 3 seconds too late.
Answer (A) is incorrect. This answer would require
approximately 17 seconds of delay instead of 15 seconds.
Answer (C) is incorrect. This answer would require an
average speed of 242 kt. instead of 142 kt.
Page 226, Subunit 5.21: New question on Mach speed calculation was added.
A jet airplane operating at a cruise speed of .75 Mach with Answer (B) is correct. (PHAK Chap 4)
outside air temperature of –42 degrees C has a true airspeed
DISCUSSION: To obtain TAS from .75 Mach, use the
of
calculator side of your flight computer and set OAT at –42°C
over the Mach index. Find the Mach number on the “minutes”
A. 429 knots.
scale, and read TAS above on “miles” scale, or 446 kt.
Answer (A) is incorrect. A TAS of 429 kt. would be
B. 446 knots.
correct for an OAT of –60 degrees C. Answer (C) is
incorrect. A TAS of 455 kt. would be correct for an OAT of
C. 455 knots.
–35 degrees C.
Study Unit 6 – Airspace and Airports
Page 240, Subunit 6.3, 4.: New material on the runway boundary sign was added.
4. A runway boundary sign, (Fig. 156 on page 386), which faces the runway and is visible to the
pilot, indicates a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the runway.
a. After landing, you may stop the airplane on the taxiway after the tail of the airplane is
clear of the runway boundary sign and the surface painted boundary sign.
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Page 10 of 15
Page 241, Subunit 6.4, 9.: New material on the Runway Status Light System was added.
7. A military airport is identified by a green and white beacon light with dual flashes of the white.
8. A lighted heliport is identified by a green, yellow, and white beacon light.
9. The Runway Status Light System (RWSL) is a fully automated system that provides runway
status information to pilots and surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when it is
unsafe to enter, cross, take off from, or land on a runway.
a. The RWSL system processes information from surveillance systems and activates
runway entrance lights (REL), takeoff hold lights (THL), runway intersection lights (RIL),
and the final approach runway occupancy signal (FAROS) in accordance with the
position and velocity of the detected traffic.
b. THLs are used at the runway departure area and provide an indication to aircrews and
vehicle operators that the runway is unsafe for takeoff.
Page 252, Subunit 6.3: Two new questions on runway/taxiway markings were added.
(Refer to Figure 157 below and in color on page 386.) The Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 2-3-8)
current airport weather is 600 and 1 mile. As you taxi, this
DISCUSSION: Given the weather conditions, it is safe
sign comes into view, you
to assume that the ILS would, in fact, be operational. You
should remain clear of the ILS critical area and request
A. can expect to ignore the sign since you are just
clarification instructions from ATC.
taxiing to the compass rose.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Taxiing through the ILS critical
area when the ILS is in operation could cause an arriving
B. should hold short and request clarification of your
aircraft to perform a missed approach. When instrument
taxi instructions from ATC.
approach operations are being conducted, you should always
remain clear of the ILS critical area and ask for clarification
C. should expect taxiing past this point since the
from ATC. Answer (C) is incorrect. The weather does not
weather is better than 200 and 3/4 mile.
have to be at ILS minimums for the ILS to be in operation.
Whenever the weather is below visual approach minimums
you should remain clear of the ILS critical area and request
clarification instructions from ATC.
Upon landing you
A. may stop on the runway until you determine which
taxiway you should use.
B. may stop on the taxiway when your aircraft tail is
clear of the boundary line.
C. should continue on to the ramp without delay without
further ATC authorization.
Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 4-3-20)
DISCUSSION: After landing, the pilot should exit the
runway at the first available taxiway or on a taxiway as
instructed by ATC. The pilot is expected to taxi clear of the
landing runway by taxiing beyond the runway holding position
markings associated with the landing runway, even if that
requires the aircraft to protrude into or across another
taxiway or ramp area.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The pilot should not stop on the
runway after landing to consider taxiway options. Answer (C)
is incorrect. The pilot should not taxi beyond the point they
have cleared the runway without clearance from ATC or, in
the case of a non-towered airport, until they can assure their
way is clear and taxiing will not impact any other aircraft,
structures, or obstacles along their path to the ramp.
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Page 11 of 15
Page 258, Subunit 6.4: New question on taxiway hold lights was added.
The illumination of the “THL” indicates
A. lack of ATC takeoff clearance.
B. another vehicle on the runway.
C. terminal holding procedures are in effect.
Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 2-1-6)
DISCUSSION: The THL (Takeoff Hold Lights) system is
designed to warn aircrews and vehicle operators that the
runway is unsafe for takeoff. Another vehicle on the runway
could trigger the illumination of the THL.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The THL is illuminated because
the runway is unsafe for takeoff, not because a takeoff
clearance has not yet been issued. Answer (C) is incorrect.
An illuminated THL indicates the runway is unsafe for takeoff,
not that terminal holding procedures are in effect.
Study Unit 8 – IFR Navigation Equipment, Holding, and Approaches
Page 284, Subunit 8.1, 9.: New material regarding autopilot use was added.
8. Under the stabilized approach concept, the maximum acceptable descent rate during the
final stages of an approach is 1,000'/min. for precision or non-precision approaches.
9. When using an autopilot, engage the desired autopilot function(s) and verify that the selected
modes are engaged by monitoring the annunciator panel.
a. Be prepared to fly the aircraft manually to ensure proper course/clearance tracking in
case of an autopilot failure or misprogramming error.
Page 305, Subunit 8.1: New question regarding autopilot use was added.
When flying an aircraft with advanced avionics
A. the pilot should fly by engaging the autopilot as first
choice.
B. the pilot should know what autopilot modes are
engaged.
C. engaging the autopilot is the safe flight control
activation.
Answer (B) is correct. (AAH Chap 4)
DISCUSSION: The pilot should engage the autopilot,
then verify that the selected modes are engaged by
monitoring the annunciator panel.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The autopilot is a tool, not a
crutch. The autopilot should not be assumed to be free of
error or misprogramming until the pilot verifies it is tracking
the course/clearance as anticipated. Answer (C) is incorrect.
The pilot should always be prepared to fly the airplane
manually if the autopilot fails or is not tracking the
course/clearance as expected.
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Page 12 of 15
Study Unit 12 – Boeing 737 Operating/Performance Data
Page 668, Subunit 12.11: New question regarding B737 performance calculations was
added.
(Refer to Figure 73 on page 665, Figure 74 on page 667,
and Figure 75 on page 665.) What is the maneuvering speed
for operating conditions L-4?
A. 138
B. 130
C. 127
Answer (A) is correct. (FTW Chap 8)
DISCUSSION: Refer to operating conditions L-4 in
Fig. 73. Fig. 74 provides a wind component chart and Fig. 75
provides a chart to determine the maneuvering speed.
Find the flap position of 40° at the left side of the flap
extension/maneuvering speed chart (Fig. 75, lower left), and
move right to the normal maneuver column to determine the
maneuvering speed of VREF. Use the landing speed chart to
determine VREF.
Find the gross weight of 105,000 (105) lb. at the left side
of the landing speed chart (Fig. 75, lower right) and move
right horizontally to the 40° flap setting column to determine
VREF of 134 kt. At the bottom of the chart, the note states the
wind factor (1/2 of the headwind component) is added to
VREF.
The headwind component is determined by using the
chart in Fig. 74. Find the 50° angle between the wind
direction and runway (30° – 340°), and move down and to
the left to the 10-kt. wind velocity arc. Then move horizontally
to the left edge of the chart to determine a headwind
component of 7 kt. Thus, the wind factor is 3.5 kt. (7 ÷ 2).
The corrected VREF is 137.5 kt. (134 + 3.5).
Answer (B) is incorrect. A speed of 130 kt. would be
determined if the wind correction factor were subtracted
rather than added to VREF. Answer (C) is incorrect. A speed of
127 kt. would be determined if the total wind speed, rather
than the wind correction factor, were subtracted rather than
added to VREF.
Study Unit 13 – Boeing 727 Operating/Performance Data
Page 710, Subunit 13.9: New question regarding B727 performance calculations was added.
(Refer to Figure 92 on page 706.) How much thrust is
required to maintain a 3° glideslope at 140,000 pounds, with
gear down, flaps 30°, and an airspeed of VREF plus 20 knots?
A. 14,800 pounds.
B. 15,300 pounds.
C. 21,400 pounds.
Answer (A) is correct. (FTW Chap 15)
DISCUSSION: Fig. 92 provides a chart to determine the
landing thrust required at a gross weight of 140,000 lb. The
3° glide slope curve is shown as a dashed line. There are two
3° glide slope curves, and the curve for 30° flaps and gear
down is the lower curve. Find VREF on the curve, which is
depicted as a circle with a line through it, and then move
down vertically to determine an airspeed of 127 kt. At the
bottom of the chart, find 147 kt. (127 + 20) and move up
vertically to the 30° glide slope curve with flaps 30° and gear
down. Note that this is greater than the maximum speed to
maintain the glide slope. Using the airspeed of 147 kt., move
horizontally to the left edge of the chart to determine a
required thrust of 14,800 lb.
Answer (B) is incorrect. This is the thrust required to
maintain a 3° glide slope with gear down, flaps 30°, and an
airspeed of VREF + 30 kt., not VREF + 20 kt. Answer (C) is
incorrect. This is the thrust required to maintain level flight,
not a 3° glide slope.
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Page 13 of 15
Study Unit 15 – Weather Reports and Forecasts
Page 746, Subunit 15.10, 9.: New material regarding public severe thunderstorm watches
was added.
7. A convective outlook (AC) provides perspectives of both general and severe thunderstorm
activity during the following 24 hr.
8. PIREPs, AIRMETs, and SIGMETs reflect the most accurate information on current and
forecast icing conditions.
9. The National Weather Service may issue a public severe thunderstorm watch, which is
defined by conditions that are favorable to winds of 58 mph (50 kt.) or greater and/or hail at
the surface of 1 inch or greater in diameter.
Page 768, Subunit 15.9: New question regarding TAF interpretation was added.
(Refer to Figure 147 on page 769.) At what time is fog
predicted to decrease the ceiling to 100 feet at KLBB?
A. 2100Z.
B. 0900Z.
C. 1600Z.
Answer (C) is correct. (AWS Sect 7)
DISCUSSION: The TAF entry for 1600Z predicts a
broken layer at 4,000 feet, visibility of 1/8 mile, and fog that
constitutes a total obscuration with vertical limits to visibility
of 100 feet.
Answer (A) is incorrect. The 2100Z forecast makes no
mention of either fog or a ceiling of 100 feet. The final entry
on the line suggest an overcast layer at 300 feet. Answer (B)
is incorrect. The 0900Z forecast is for fog and a ceiling of
200 feet, not 100 feet as the question poses.
Page 772, Subunit 15.10: New question regarding public severe thunderstorm watches was
added.
A public severe thunderstorm watch implies
A. 58 mph winds or greater and/or surface hail of 1 inch
or more in diameter.
B. 45 mph winds or greater and/or surface hail of 1 inch
or more in diameter.
C. 50 knots or greater and/or surface hail of 1/2 inch or
greater.
Answer (A) is correct. (AWS Sect 6)
DISCUSSION: The National Weather Service may issue
a public severe thunderstorm watch when conditions are
favorable to winds of 58 mph (50 kt.) or greater and/or
surface hail of 1 inch or more in diameter.
Answer (B) is incorrect. The threshold for winds that
would trigger a severe thunderstorm watch is 58 mph, not
45 mph. Answer (C) is incorrect. Both the wind and hail
values for a severe thunderstorm watch exceed those
provided by this answer option. The correct values are
58 mph or greater and a 1 inch diameter or larger.
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Page 14 of 15
Study Unit 17 – Aeromedical Factors and Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)
Page 798, New Subunit 17.8: New subunit was added to address resource management and
ADM in the flight environment.
17.8 CRM/DRM AND ERROR MANAGEMENT
1. Part 121 certificate holders are required to provide CRM training for pilots and flight
attendants as well as dispatch resource management (DRM) training for aircraft
dispatchers.
2. CRM training focuses on situational awareness, communication skills, teamwork, task
allocation, and decision making within a comprehensive framework of standard operating
procedures (SOP).
3. CRM training is comprised of three components:
a. initial indoctrination/awareness,
b. recurrent practice and feedback, and
c. continual reinforcement.
4. It is understood that pilot errors cannot be entirely eliminated.
a. It is desirable to prevent as many errors as possible, but since they cannot all be
prevented, detection and recovery from errors should be addressed in training.
b. Evaluation should recognize that since not all errors can be prevented, it is important
that errors be managed properly.
5. Detection error is one crew error that can be easily avoided by following established
procedures.
a. An example of detection error would be failing to cross-check the runway heading with
the indicated heading and attempting to takeoff from the wrong runway.
6. Crew monitoring is a function that encourages and trains crews to cross-check each other.
This practice can enhance flight safety and prevent CFIT accidents.
Page 802, Subunit 17.6: New question regarding visual illusions was added.
You have just touched down hard on a narrower than
usual runway at night. You realize you just experienced
A. the runway width illusion.
B. the runway elevation illusion.
C. a featureless terrain illusion.
Answer (A) is correct. (PHAK Chap 16)
DISCUSSION: A hard landing implies a late flare, which
can be caused by runway width illusion. A narrower-thanusual runway can create the illusion that the airplane is at a
higher-than-actual altitude.
Answer (B) is incorrect. There is no defined runway
elevation illusion; however, the runway width illusion can give
a pilot the impression (s)he is at a higher altitude than (s)he
is, leading to a hard landing due to a late flare for landing.
Answer (C) is incorrect. The featureless terrain illusion
assumes the runway is not in proximity to any visible ground
features. This illusion can result from overwater landings,
snow covered landscapes, or dark ground. A hard landing on
a narrow runway implies the pilot suffered from the runway
width illusion, not a featureless terrain illusion.
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Page 15 of 15
Page 806, Subunit 17.8: Four new questions for new outline material on resource
management and ADM were added.
17.8 CRM/DRM and Error Management
A pilot does not perceive the difference between the
assigned takeoff runway heading and the indicated heading.
This is an example of
A. Experience error.
B. Insight error.
C. Detection error.
CRM training refers to
A. the two components of flight safety and resource
management, combined with mentor feedback.
B. the three components of initial indoctrination
awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and
continual reinforcement.
Answer (C) is the best answer. (AC 120-51E)
DISCUSSION: Faulty cross-check prior to takeoff can
result in a takeoff from the wrong runway. This faulty crosscheck is a detection error on the part of the pilot and/or crew.
Answer (A) is incorrect. While a lack of experience may
lead to errors such as this, the root cause of the error is faulty
cross-check on the part of the pilot and/or crew. Faulty crosscheck is a detection error. Answer (B) is incorrect. While
technically accurate in this case, insight error implies that
verifying the takeoff heading against the indicated heading is
something that a pilot should think of or decide to do out of
an inclination rather than as a requirement of established
procedure. Because this procedure should be routine when
taking the runway, this faulty cross-check is better described
as a detection error.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 120-51E)
DISCUSSION: CRM training is comprised of three
components: initial indoctrination/awareness, recurrent
practice and feedback, and continual reinforcement.
Answer (A) is incorrect. CRM training is comprised of
three components, not two. Answer (C) is incorrect. CRM
training is comprised of three components, not five.
C. the five components of initial indoctrination
awareness, communication principles, recurrent
practice and feedback, coordination drills, and
continual reinforcement.
Error management evaluation
A. should recognize not all errors can be prevented.
B. may include error evaluation that should have been
prevented.
C. must mark errors as disqualifying.
The crew monitoring function is essential,
A. particularly during high altitude cruise flight modes to
prevent CAT issues.
B. particularly during approach and landing to prevent
CFIT.
C. during RNAV departures in class B airspace.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 120-51E)
DISCUSSION: Error management is an important
addition to CRM training, which acknowledges that not all
errors can be prevented.
Answer (B) is incorrect. Error management evaluation
recognizes that not all errors can be prevented. It does not
identify errors that should have been prevented. Answer (C)
is incorrect. Error management evaluation recognizes that
not all errors are preventable, hence, errors are not
considered a disqualifying event.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 120-51E)
DISCUSSION: Effective crew monitoring is an important
tool that can enhance the ability of a crew member to
recognize an error and break the chain of events that could
lead to an accident.
Answer (A) is incorrect. Crew monitoring has been
identified as an effective method of preventing or breaking
the chain of events that can lead to an accident, not to
prevent CAT issues. Answer (C) is incorrect. Crew monitoring
has been most effective in avoiding potential hazards and
accident scenarios on approach and landing. While the
concept is valid on departure, RNAV does not play a
pertinent role in the concept, nor does the aircraft's presence
in Class B airspace.
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