DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
General Ability Test- Paper
Time Allowed: Two Hours
Maximum Marks: 200
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
INSTRUCTIONS
IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C, OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN
THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers).
You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there
is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
You have to mark all you responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
All items carry equal marks.
Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i)
There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii)
If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question
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1
PART-A
SYNONYMS
Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of words in capital letters, followed by four
words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word or
group of words in capital letters:
1.
STARK
(A) Brave
(B) Complete or utter
(C) Angry
(D) Dangerous
2.
IMPROVIDENT
(A) Shabby
(B) Incapable of proof
(C) Prophetic
(D) Thriftless
3.
ADJUDICATE
(A) To accuse
(B) To determine judicially
(C) To determine the boundaries of
(D) To renounce
4.
OSTRACIZE
(A) To exclude
(B) To show off
(C) To point out
(D) To offend
5.
CAPTIOUS
(A) Fault finding
(B) Insecure
(C) Changeable
(D) Vain
6.
TOUR DE FORCE
(A) Long journey
(B) FEAT of skill
(C) Spectacle
(D) Show of force
7.
TRENCHANT
(A) Incisive
(B) Greedy
(C) Temporary
(D) Arduous
8.
HOLLER
(A) Primise
(B) Gamble
(C) Yell
(D) Punish
9.
EXTORTIONATE
(A) Excessive
(B) Kidnap
(C) Extinguish
(D) Extract
10.
PROVIDENTIAL
(A) Thrifty
(B) Provisional
(C) occuring at right time (D) Provocation
ANTONYMS
Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of
words. Select the word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital letters.
11.
LAMPOON
(A) Darken
(B) Praise
(C) Abandon
(D) Sail
12.
NEBULOUS
(A) Clear
(B) Fundamental
(C) Porous
(D) Vague
13.
TRUCULENT
(A) Juicy
(B) Peaceful
(C) Brittle
(D) Determined
14.
TYRO
(A) Infant
(B) Personnel
(C) Expert
(D) Imbecile
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15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
TRACTABLE
(A) Immoral
ETHEREAL
(A) Long-lasting
RICKETY
(A) Honest
JADED
(A) Upright
LATENT
(A) Abandon
SPUNK
(A) Success
(B) Unmanageable
(C) Imaginary
(D) Potent
(B) Earthy
(C) Critical
(D) False
(B) Stable
(C) Affluent
(D) Nervous
(B) stimulated
(C) void
(D) aspiring
(B) praise
(C) darken
(D) obivious
(B) lack of intelligence
(C) Timidity
(D) loss of prestige
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and
each one is labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any
underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the
underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the approximate
space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’
response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than
one response, your answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms.
There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the Answer
Sheet.
Example ‘P’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE)-P:
The young child
singed
A very sweet song.
No error
A
B
C
D
Explanation:
In item P, the word ‘signed’ in wrong. The letter under this part is (B) so (B) is the correct answer.
Mother baffling change
that I notice in him now - a - days
is that he avoids to speak to me
21.
.
A
B
C
No error
.
D
I asked him how could he go out if it started raining No error
22.
.
.
A
B
C
D
23.
One of the state in which Satyagraha was offered was Rajkot where Gandhi had spent his youth No error
,
.
D
B
C
A
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24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
Hardly the inspector had arrived there
to investigate the crime
when the house was set ablaze
.
A
B
C
No error
.
D
Since his arrival at his native town he is trying to the best of his power
A
B
to spread education among the poor masses No error
.
.
C
D
In various parts of the country ponds just dry down in the scorching heat of summer No error
.
.
A
B
C
D
He lay the watch on the table and then forgot all about it when he went out No error
.
A
B
C
D
Although he draws a reasonably good salary he has a large family to support
,
,
A
B
and he finds it difficult to make both ends meet No error
.
.
C
D
While it is apparent that biotechnology offers significant benefits
,
A
B
adequate attention has not been focussed to this vital area No error
.
.
C
D
Being a sunny day I decided to skip work and stay at home No error
.
.
A
B
C
D
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Directions (For the 5 items which follow):
In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and final sentence (S6)
are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are
labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences and mark
accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
(EXAMPLE): X
S1: There was a boy named Jack
S6: At least she turned him out of the house
P: So the mother asked him to find work
Q: They were very poor
R: he lived with his mother
S: But Jack refused to work
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(A) R – Q – P – S
(B) P – Q – R – S
(C) Q – P – R – S
(D) R – P – S - Q
31.
S1 : The declaration of independence was the instrument by which the thirteen colonies declared
their independence from Great Britain.
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32.
33.
34.
S6 : Then the delegates added their signatures as their individual states confirmed the action of the
Congress.
P : It was signed originally by only the President and Secretary of the Continental Congress.
Q : When the declaration was originally voted on June 28, 1776; the delegates from Pennsylvania
and South Carolina refused to approve it until it carried an amendment.
R : The declaration was written by Thomas Jefferson, who was one member of a special committee
of five assigned by the Congress to draw up a from of declaration.
S : The declaration was finally approved on July 4.
The proper sequence should be
(A) R Q S P
(B) S P R Q
(C) R P S Q
(D) S Q R P
S1 : We owe some of our notions of radar to scientific observation of bats.
S6 : This principle whereby they fly safely was found to be similar to the main principle of radar.
P : Keen eyesight could not be the reason for their flying the was they do, since bats are blind.
Q : Scientists started to observe them more minutely.
R : Scientists noticed that bats rarely collided with anything in their erratic flight.
S : It was found that bats keep sending out noises inaudible to people and that they hear the echoes
of those noises.
The proper sequence should be
(A) R S Q R
(B) Q P R S
(C) R P Q S
(D) Q S R P
S1 : Even when I was an atheist and, therefore, against all religions, I had no problems in the
appreciation of their mystical tradition.
S6 : The spiritual paradoxes of the Bhagawat Gita acquired a profound meaning for me.
P : When I dropped my atheism, I did not switch over to complete belief, but religion certainly
seems to me to have a stronger base in human nature, and in the nature of life.
Q : This is because they seemed to me then perfectly acceptable as poetry if not as emotional truth.
R : The Vedas and the Upanishads, to my eyes, moved closer to the Ultimate Truth.
S : Once I had arrived at that general position, I developed a more positive attitude towards the
Indian heritage.
The proper sequence should be
(A) Q P S R
(B) S R Q P
(C) Q R S P
(D) S P Q R
S1 : It was the police who suppressed one of the favourite sweets of my childhood.
S6 : The sweets never tasted quite the same afterwards.
P : As a result, the infants of the town bought a shilling’s worth of the stuff in the hope of
discovering three pence.
Q : One of the chief inducements to by them was that, if you were lucky, you might find a three
penny bit sandwiched between two of the sweets.
R : Then a moralist heard of this dangerous incitement to gambling, and suppressed the pretty
custom as a lottery.
S : This was a flat honey-flavoured sweet, one sweet standing on the top of another in the packet.
The proper sequence should be
(A) S R P Q
(B) P Q S R
(C) S Q P R
(D) P R S Q
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35.
S1 : The women of ancient India, like the great majority of women in this country today, possessed a
calm philosophy and a tranquil outlook on life.
S6 : The picture of Sita alone is enough to cause a thrill of wonder and reverence to the reader of The
Ramayana.
P : Time and again we almost hold our breath at the extraordinary goodness of the heroines
described in the epics.
Q : They were capable of enduring untold hardships or receiving the highest honours that could be
paid to moral beings with the same equanimity.
R : Prosperity did not turn their heads or misfortunes deflect them from the path of duty.
S : The one did not make them bitter or the other conceited.
The proper sequence should be
(A) Q S R P
(B) R P Q S
(C) Q P R S
(D) R S Q P
ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Directions: ( For the five items which follow)
In the following five items some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange
these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and
mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Example Z :
the effect is very bad on children of cinema
It is well-known that
P
R
S
Q
The proper sequence should be
(A) P S R Q
(B) S P Q R
(C) S R P Q
(D) Q S R P
Explanation: The proper way of writing the sentence is ‘It is well-known that the effect of cinema on
children is very bad.’ This is indicated by the sequence P S R Q and so ‘a’ is the correct answer.
to skip the small talk he meets anyone
36.
Before
,
P
Q
37.
38.
he requires something in writing that establishes the facts, defines the problem, and allows him
R
S
The proper sequence should be
(A) R Q P S
(B) Q R S P
(C) R Q S P
(D) Q R P S
since the flaw affected so few users a technical standpoint,
From
Q
P
that there was no need to replace all flawed chips logic and reason would argue
R
S
The proper sequence should be
(A) Q S P R
(B) S Q R P
(C) S Q P R
(D) Q S R P
who refused to take time off from the gambling table
All of us
P
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without giving a thought to their noble inventor, the Earl of Sandwich,
Q
39.
40.
to eat a regular meal
R
eat sandwiches at one time or another
S
The proper sequence should be
(A) S R P Q
(B) P Q S R
(C) S Q P R
(D) P R S Q
whose jobs are being eliminated
but by any organization that downsizes
A dilemma faced
P
Q
not only by large bureaucracies is how to be as fair as possible to employees
R
S
The proper sequence should be
(A) S P R Q
(B) R Q S P
(C) S Q R P
(D) R P S Q
without having contributed to their development who are forced to use them
But,
Q
P
as is often the case such efforts are scoffed at by those
R
S
The proper sequence should be
(A) R S Q P
(B) Q P R S
(C) R P Q S
(D) Q S R P
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 14 items which follow):
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on
the passage. First, read and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select
your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Example ‘T’ and ‘J” are solved for you
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE):
In our approach to life be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakable
is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make
up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such
as human beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and
security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection
against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other
creature.
I.
The author’s remains point is that
(A) different forms of life are found on earth
(B) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(C) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(D) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
J.
Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author’s
position?
(A) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal
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I.
J.
(B) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire of peace
(C) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(D) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death.
The idea which represents the author’s main point is “peace and security are the chief goals of all
living being”, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer.
The best assumption underlying the passage in “The will to survive of a creature is identified with a
desire for peace”, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer
PASSAGE – I
Job enlargement stems from the thinking of industrial engineers. The idea is to break up the monotony of a
limited routine and work cycle by increasing a job’s scope. Work functions from a horizontal slice of an
organizational unit are combined, thereby giving each employee more operations to perform. For example,
the work from two or more positions may be combined to restore some sense of the wholeness of the job.
Another basic strategy was inspired by motivational theory. Job enrichment tries to deal with dissatisfied
workers by increasing the depth of their jobs. Work activities from a vertical slice of the organizational unit
are combined into one position to give employees more autonomy on the job. The idea is to develop a
stronger sense of accountability by allowing workers to set their own work pace, correct their own errors,
and decide the best way to perform various tasks. Workers may also be shifted routinely from job to job
within the same company so that they can develop a variety of skills. Job rotation of this sort motivates
workers by challenging them and enabling them to learn new skills. Job rotation may be combined with job
enlargement and job enrichment.
41.
Job rotation
(A) increases workers’ punctuality
(B) spurs the workers to learn new skills
(C) enables the management to reduce losses
(D) increases an organization’s competitive edge
42.
Job enrichment
(A) motivates the workers to decide the best way to perform different tasks
(B) enhances the quality-consciousness of the workers
(C) is best developed during brain-storming sessions
(D) helps the workers to get enhanced wages
43.
Job enlargement is practiced mainly
(A) to increase volume of sales
(B) to combine work functions so as to increase job’s scope
(C) to reduce the manpower requirement
(D) to stimulate workers’ innovative thinking
44.
Select the correct statement :
(A) Job enlargement increases the depth of the job for dissatisfied worker
(B) A basic premise of job enrichment is that it permits the workers to set their own work pace
(C) Job enlargement and job enrichment are synonyms for the same approach
(D) Job enlargement and job rotation cannot be combined
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PASSAGE – II
Our busy and absent-minded father would never worry about us children; our mother did worry. Yet she
allowed us to go off into the hills immediately after breakfast, and did not complain when we came back
long after supper-time. Though she had a bad head for heights, she never restrained us from climbing in
dangerous places; and we never got hurt. Having a bad head for heights myself, I trained myself deliberately
and painfully to overcome it.
45.
The children regularly went to the hills
(A) for the greater part of the day
(B) for a couple of hours
(C) for the afternoon only
(D) after sunset till supper-time
46.
In this passage, ‘restrained’ implies:
(A) Refused
(B) Suspected
(C) Forced
(D) Held back
47.
The phrase ‘deliberately and painfully’ implies:
(A) Pleasure
(B) Fear
(C) Determination
(D) Effort
48.
The father did not worry about the children because
(A) he was involved in his business
(B) he knew their mother did
(C) he did not care about them
(D) men worry less than women do
49.
Which of the following statements best expresses the main thought in this passage?
(A) The indifference of the parents led to the children’s growing up wild.
(B) The mother trusted her children and in spite of normal anxiety, gave them freedom to explore
the countryside and they came to no harm.
(C) His mother’s fear of heights spurred on the author to conquer the same fear in himself.
(D) The mother never complained when her children were climbing.
PASSAGE – III
As time passed, signs of age and weariness started showing in Galatea’s appearance. This made Pygmalion
very unhappy for he believed that beautiful creations must remain permanent. Pygmalion foresaw her
inevitable fate and when night came he took his chisel and struck her bosom a blow and lol Galatea returned
to the original marble. All that night he chiseled. Next morning he saw something quite different compared
to the original. The lips had lost their great beauty the eyes told of the grief of living; the whole body was
bent towards the earth. The whole night in the dark he had been sculpting the very face of grief.
And Pygmalion wept.
50.
Galatea’s face started showing signs of
(A) satisfaction
(B) happiness
(C) age and weariness
(D) fun and frolic
51.
Pygmalion believed like a true artist that
(A) perfect beauty was impossible
(B) beautiful creations must remain permanent
(C) ugliness was the real thing
(D) all art was meaningless
52.
The artist reconverted Galatea to stone because
(A) he was jealous of her exceptional beauty
(B) he was tired of her
(C) he had fallen in love with another person
(D) she was growing old and haggard
53.
Pygmalion re-chiselled Galatea’s statue
(A) to make it more beautiful
(B) to make it more real with a look of suffering and grief
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54.
(C) to make it look like a Goddess (D) to give it a funny look
Pygmalion wept after recasting the statue because
(A) he had realized that human life was a drama of pain
(B) he was extremely upset at having destroyed his original creation
(C) he could not bear his self-inflicted loss
(D) he was happy and the tears indicated his joy
ANALOGY
Directions (For the 6 items which follow):
In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of::
and one word is given on another side of : :while another word to be found from the given alternatives,
having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
Lemur : Monkey : : Rook : ?
(a) Cat
(b) Crow
(c) Vulture
(d) Owl
Exp: Lemur belongs to the family of monkey and rook belongs to the family of crow.
Vestry : Church: : Dispensary : ?
(a) Laboratory
(b) Hospital
(c) School
(d) Monastery
Exp: Second is a higher institution than the first.
Visitor : Invitation: : Witness : ?
(a) Subpoena
(b) Permission
(c) Assent
(d) Document
Exp: A Visitor is given an invitation to attend an occasion. Witness is delivered a subpoena
providing for attendance at the court.
Mash : Horse : : Mast : ?
(a) Cow
(b) Monkey
(c) Chimpanzee
(d) Pig
Exp: First is a food for the second.
Good : Bad : : Virtue : ?
(a) Blame
(b) Sin
(c) Despair
(d) Vice
Exp: The words in each pair are opposites of each other.
Igloos: Canada: : Rondavels : ?
(a) Africa
(b) Rangoon
(c) Russia
(d) Indonesia
Exp: First is the type of houses most commonly found in the second.
PART-B
Who is the winner of Australian Open-2013 in women single?
(A) Maria sarapova
(B) Serena william
(C) Victorai Azarenka
(D) Sara irrani
Rajkeshwar Purryag who was the chief guest at “Pravasi Bhartiya Divas 2013” is the prime minister
of which country?
(A) Belarus
(B) Mauritius
(C) Maldives
(D) Kenya
Recently “World Economic Forum” was held at:
(A) Newyork
(B) New Delhi
(C) Davos
(D) Tokyo
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64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
Recently who is appointed new “Comptroller and Auditor General of India?”
(A) Sashi Kant sharma
(B) V.K. Shungulu (C) R.K. Sinha
(D) Vivek sharma
th
What is theme of International women’s day 2013 (8 March):
(A) Empowerment of women
(B) Time for action to end violence against women
(C) Women literacy
(D) Time for independent women
World environment day is celebrated on which date?
(A) 31st December
(B) 1st June
(C) 8th June
(D) 31st October
G-8 summit in 2012 was held in which city?
(A) Davos Switzerland
(B) Camp David USA
(C) Chicago (D) Berlin
Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by:
(A) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(B) Carbon mono oxide and carbon dioxide
(C) Ozone and carbon dioxide
(D) Nitrous oxide and sulphur oxide
A particular state in India has the following characteristics:
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through Northern Rajasthan
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes protected area network in the state
Which of the followings state has all above characteristics?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Assam
A dead lock between Loksabha and Rajya sabha calls for a joint sitting of parliament during the
Passage of:
(A) Ordinary bill
(B) Money bill
(C) Constitution amendment bill
(D) None
How much allocation is given for “Nirbhaya fund” in Union budget 2013-14
(A) Rs. 500 Crore
(B) Rs. 750 Crore
(C) Rs.1000 Crore
(D) Rs.2000 Crore
In 2013-14 what is the approximate revenue expected from “Direct Taxes”
(A) 75 Billion rupees (B) 95 Billion rupees (C) 100 Billion rupees
(D) 133 Billion rupees
How Much money is allocated for Ministry of rural development in 2013-14?
(A) Rs.25560 Crore (B) Rs. 80,194 Crore (C) 121400 Crore
(D) 150000 Crore
Indira Gandhi National award for National integration 2012 was given to:
(A) Gulzar
(B) Shaban Azmi
(C) Shiv Bhatia
(D) Ravi Shankar
ICC-2012 cricketer of the year award was given to whom?
(A) Virat kohli
(B) M.S.Dhoni
(C) Kumar shangkara
(D) Sachin tendulkar
Nobel prize 2012 for literature is give to :
(A) Mo yan
(B) Alvin roter
(C) J.garden
(D) Tyan ki
Book “Bend in the river” is written by:
(A) Amrita Preetam (B) V.S.Naipaul
(C) Harisen
(D) Bikram Seth
Who is the present chief Election commissioner of India?
(A) T.K. Nair
(B) S. Rao
(C) V.S. Sampath
(D) Harisekhar Brahma
Who is the chairman of National commission for schedule caste?
(A) Dr.Buta Singh
(B) Ms.urmila Singh (C) S.C.Maurya
(D) M.K.Singh
“Kanzi ram” a Hindu from Pakistan was in news:
(A) He was killed by terrorist
(B) He was murdered in prision
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81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
(C) He became member of Punjab assembly
(D) He became chairman of minority commission in Pakistan
Consider the following statements about Venus:
1. Venus is the hottest planet because 97% of its atmosphere is Carbon Di oxide
2. Venus is the brightest planet
3. Venus rotates from west to east
Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) 1 & 2 only
(B) 2 & 3 only
(C) 1 & 3 only
(D) 1, 2 & 3
The Parliament of India consists of:
(A) The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the office of the President of India only
(B) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the office of the Prime Minister of India only
(D) The Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, the office of the President of India and the office of the Prime
Minister of India
The permanent headquarters of SAARC secretariat is located at:
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Dhaka
(C) New Delhi
(D) Islamabad
Which country had helped India in Green Revolution Technology for agricultural development and
self-sufficiency in food?
(A) U.S.S.R.
(B) U.K.
(C) Germany
(D) USA
Who of the following was the leader of a society popularly known as ‘Red Shirts’?
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(C) Muzaffar Ahmed
(D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
Which one of the following districts is well known for the cultivation of coffee?
(A) Balasore
(B) Chikmagalur
(C) Guntur
(D) Khurda
In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet Secretariat?
(A) The Prime Minister of India
(B) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(C) The Union Home Minister
(D) Any Cabinet Minister to whom the Prime Minister allocates the charge
Which of the following characteristics of virus best benote its unique mature?
1. It can attach bacteria
2. It can be crystallized
3. It can replicate
4. It can invade human body.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
A deficiency in the secretion of hormone from the thyroid gland leads to
(A) Sluggishness and growth retardation
(B) high blood pressure
(C) Delayed development of secondary sec characteristics
(D) Defective carbohydrate metabolism
During an accident, a person received injury on the head. On medical examination, it was found that
the cerebellum had been injured. The injury would affect the victim’s
(A) Hearing
(B) muscular coordination
(C) memory
(D) vision
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91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
Mineral deposits on the ocean-floor are characterized by the occurrence of
(A) Calcium bearing minerals
(B) phosphorus bearing minerals
(C) Petroleum
(D) manganese nodules
The organ, of the body which is mainly damaged in hepatitis, is
(A) Kidney
(B) spleen
(C) liver
(D) lung
Azolla, used as a biofertilizer for rice cultivation, has a symbiotic relationship with
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Azospirillum
(C) Aulosira
(D) Anabaena
When it is 12 noon in Allahabad (India), the time in Wellington (New Zeeland) would be close to
(A) 4.30 pm (B) 4.30 pm of previous day
(C) 6.30 pm (D) 6.30 pm of previous day
By which Constitutional Amendment the powers of the President were curtailed and he was bound to
accept the advice given by the Council of Ministers?
(A) 24th
(B) 25th
(C) 41st
(D) 42nd
Match List – I (Part of a living body) with List – II (Description) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
List I
List II
(Part of a living body)
(Description)
A. Eustachin tube
1. The principle excretory organ of most insects.
B. Fallopian tube
2. The air-filled connecting duct between ear and pharynx in human
C. Malpighian
D. Seminiferous tubule
97.
98.
3. Cells lining this give rise to male gametes.
4. The female gamete released from ovary is conveyed through this
to uterus.
Codes: A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(A)
2
4
3
1
(B)
4
2
3
1
(C)
2
4
1
3
(D)
4
2
1
3
When a tide enters the narrow and shallow estuary of river, the front of the tidal wave appears to be
vertical owing to the piling up of water of the river against the tidal wave and the friction of the river
bed. The appropriate name of this vertical wall of water is.
(A) Tidal Current
(B) Tidal Bore
(C) Tidal Bulge
(D) Tidal Loop
The shaded areas in the given map show the main areas of concentration for the cultivation of
(A) Cotton
(B) Groundnut
(C) Millets
(D) Maize
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99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
During the Indian Nationalist Movement who among the following made an attempt on the life of
Kingsford a District Judge?
(A) Chidambaram pillai
(B) Damodar and Balkrishna Chapekar
(C) Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki
(D) Vanchi Aiyar
Which one of the following is NOT a Baltic state?
(A) Belarus
(B) Estonia
(C) Latvia
(D) Lithuania
In the human body, angiotensin is substance that stimulates the
(A) pancreas to release digestive enzymes (B) adrenal gland to release aldosterone
(C) Lacrimal glands to release tears
(D) pituitary to release antidiuretic hormone
In India, the Judge of the High Court of a State are appointed by
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Chief Justice of India
(D) The Governor
Among the following states, which one has the higher number of seats allocated for the legislative
Assembly?
(A) Bihar
(B) Karnataka
(C) Maharashtra
(D) West Bengal
Consider the following statements:
1. The resignation of the Prime Minister of India means the resignation of the whole Union Cabinet.
2. The President of India can dismiss the Prime Minister on the grounds of bad performance even
when he enjoys the support of the majority in the parliament.
3. It is on the advice of the Prime Minister that the President of India summons and prorogues the
Parliament and dissolves the Lok Sabha.
Which among the following is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only
Which among the following is the smallest State area-wise ?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Mizoram
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Manipur
Match List – I (Port) with list – II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the Lists:
List – I
List – II
(Port)
(State)
A. Jawaharlal Nehru Port
1. Gujarat Port
B. Kandia Port
2. Maharashtra
C. Paradeep Port
3. Orissa
D. Tuticorin Port
4. Tamil Nadu
Codes: A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(A)
4
1
3
2
(B)
2
1
3
4
(C)
4
3
1
2
(D)
2
3
1
4
With reference to human nutrition, consider the following:
1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B2
3. Vitamin E
For which of these are green leafy vegetables rich sources ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
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108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
In the above map four regions are marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match them with the A, B, C and D given
in the List showing different amounts of annual rainfall and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List
(Rainfall)
A. 0 – 40 cm
B. 40 – 60 cm
C. 100 – 200 cm
D. 400 – 800 cm
Codes: A
B
C
D
(A)
1
3
4
2
(B)
1
4
3
2
(C)
2
3
4
1
(D)
2
4
3
1
Which one of the following clouds has the greatest vertical extent which brings convectional rain
accompanied by lightning and thunder?
(A) Altocumulus
(B) Cirrocumulus
(C) Cirrostratus
(D) Cumulonimbus
Which Article of the Indian Constitution says ‘There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall
consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the
House of the People’?
(A) Article 69
(B) Article 79
(C) Article 89
(D) Article 99
The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a period of
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 6 years
Consider the following statements:
In the human body
1. the oxygenated blood I brought to the heart by pulmonary arteries
2. the oxygenated blood from lungs directly enters the left ventricle of the heart
3. the impure or deoxygenated blood from the tissues enters the right atrium of the heart
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 3 only
Consider the following States:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Uttar Pradesh
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of these States in terms of the increasing order of
their geographical area?
(A) 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
(B) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
(C) 4 – 3 – 1 – 2
(D) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
Through which one among the following groups of States does the river Narmada flow?
(A) Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
(B) Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
(C) Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
(D) Gujarat, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
In which one of the following cities is the monument ‘Gol Gumbaj’ located?
(A) Bijapur
(B) Delhi
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Lucknow
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116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Battle of Khanua:
Babar vs./ Rama Sanga
(B) Battle of Bilgram (Kanauj):
Sher Shah vs. Humayun
(C) Second Battle of Panipat:
Akbar vs. Himu
(D) Battle of Haldighat:
Aurangzeb vs. Dara
In the given map of India the shaded areas show the main distribution of which one of the following?
(A) Bajra
(B) Maize
(C) Mustard
(D) Ragi
Who among the following discharges the functions of the President of India when the offices of the
President and the Vice-President are vacant?
(A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The chief Justice of India
Match List – I (Place) with List – II (Event in the Life of Buddha) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the Lists:
List – I (Place)
List – II (Event in the Life of Buddha)
A.
Bodh Gaya
1.
Birthplace of Siddhartha Gautama
B.
Kusinagara
2.
Place where Siddhartha obtained Enlightenment
C.
Lumbini
3.
Place where Gautama Buddha delivered his First Sermon
D.
Sarnath
4.
Place where Gautama Buddha passed away
Codes: A
B
C
D
(A)
3
4
1
2
(B)
2
4
1
3
(C)
3
1
4
2
(D)
2
1
4
3
Which one of the following States is represented by only one member in the Lok Sabha?
(A) Manipur
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Sikkim
(D) Tripura
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Answers: General Ability Paper-1(Full Mock Test-2)
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
B
D
B
A
A
B
A
C
A
C
B
A
B
C
B
B
B
B
D
C
C
B
A
A
A
B
A
D
A
D
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
A
C
A
C
A
B
D
C
B
B
B
A
B
B
A
D
D
C
C
C
C
D
B
C
B
B
A
D
D
A
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
C
B
C
A
B
C
B
D
A
A
C
D
B
A
C
A
B
C
A
C
A
A
A
D
B
B
A
A
A
B
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
D
C
D
C
D
C
B
B
C
A
B
A
D
C
A
B
A
A
D
B
D
D
A
A
A
D
A
D
B
C
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