Chemistry Final Review - Fall Semester
KEY
1. Which of the following is a mixture?
a. Carbon
b. Air
c. Water
d. Ice
2. Classify the following as a heterogeneous, a homogenous mixture, or compound.
a. Milk
Homogenous mixture
b. Brass ( copper and zinc)
Homogeneous mixture
c. Water
Compound
d. Air
Homogeneous mixture
e. Ocean water
Heterogeneous mixture
f. Chocolate milk with marshmallows
Heterogeneous mixture
g. CO2
Compound
3. What element has 23 protons, 23 electrons and 28 neutrons?
Vanadium
4. Consider the following elements ,Carbon -14, Carbon-13, Carbon-12
a. How many protons, neutrons, and electrons does each carbon contain?
Carbon-14: 6 protons, 8 neutrons, 6 electrons
Carbon-13: 6 protons, 7 neutrons, 6 electrons
Carbon-12: 6 protons, 6 neutrons, 6 electrons
b. What subatomic particle is different in each of these forms of carbon?
Neutrons
c. Why is the atomic mass on the periodic table 12.01, when none of these carbon atoms have 12.01 as
its mass?
12.01 is a weighted average of the different isotopes of carbon, C-12 being the most abundant
because the atomic mass is closest to 12.
d. What are the same elements, with differing atomic masses called? Isotopes
5. Give an example of an element that has a larger atomic radius when it becomes an ion.
Any anion (negative charge) will have a larger atomic radius because they gain electrons.
6. Give an example of an element that has a smaller atomic radius when it becomes an ion.
Any cation (positive charge) which are metals
7. Write a formula and name two elements that form a type III compound.
Transition metals will form type II compounds when combined with a nonmetal.
8. Write a formula and name two elements that form a type I compound.
A metal in the s block or in the “island” will for type I compounds when combined with a nonmetal.
9. How can you recognize the formula of an acid?
Acids always start with H in their formula (although not all formulas that start with H are an acid,
such as H2O)
10. Explain when you need to use parenthesis around a polyatomic ion that is in a binary compound.
If the charge of the cation is greater than one and/or different from the charge on the polyatomic
ion, then you need parentheses around it to indicate how many of those polyatomic ions need to
be in the formula.
11. Give 4 examples of compounds that are formed with polyatomic ions, each compound must require a
parenthesis around the polyatomic. Here are a few, but there are many more
• Ca(NO3)2
• Mg(OH)2
• Cu3(PO4)2
• (NH4)2O
12. Name the following:
a. Ba(OH)2
Barium hydroxide
b. MgCl2
Magnesium chloride
c. FeSO4
Iron (II) sulfate
d. HCl
Hydrochloric acid
e. H3PO4
Phosphoric acid
f. H2SO3
Sulfurous acid
g. Cu3N
Copper (I) nitride
h. Cu(NO3)2 Copper (II) nitrate
i. O3S5
Trioxygen pentasulfide
j. H2S
Hydrosulfuric acid
k. P6Br7
Hexaphosphorus heptabromide
13. Which atomic sub particle is responsible for giving an element its chemical properties? Electrons
14. Which atomic sub particle determines the identity of the element?
Protons
15. Calculate the atomic mass of silicon. The three silicon isotopes have atomic masses and relative
abundances of 27.9769 amu (92.2297%), 28.9765 amu (4.6832%) and 29.9738 amu (3.0872%).
�
92.2297
100
× 27.9769� + �
4.9832
100
× 28.9765� + �
3.0876
100
× 29.9738� = 28.1724 amu
16. Bromine has two naturally occurring isotopes. Bromine-79 has a mass of 78.918 amu and is 50.69%
abundant. Using the atomic mass reported on the periodic table, determine the mass of bromine-81, the
other isotope of bromine.
100 – 50.69 = 49.31%
�
50.69
100
× 78.918� + �
49.31
100
× 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵� = 79.904
40.00 + .4931Br = 79.904
.4931Br = 39.90
Br-81 = 80.918 amu
17. Gallium has two naturally occurring isotopes. The mass of gallium-69 is 68.9256 amu and it is 60.108%
abundant. The mass of gallium-71 is 70.9247 amu and it is 39.892% abundant. Find the atomic mass of
gallium.
�
60.108
100
× 68.9256� + �
39.892
100
× 70.9247� = 69.723 amu
18. a. Where are the metals and nonmetals located on the periodic table?
Metals
To the left of the line of separation
Nonmetals To the right of the line of separation
b. Give two examples of metals and the ions they form.
Metals form cations (positive charge)
c. Give two examples of nonmetals and the ions they form.
Nonmetals form anions (negative charge)
e. Where are the transitional metals located on the periodic table?
The d block (middle of periodic table)
f. Name two compounds that contain a transitional metal.
Type II compounds
19. The atomic number of an element is used to find the number of which subatomic particle?
a. Neutron
b. Electron
c. Proton
d. Isotope
20. Which statement correctly describes the change of a neutral atom to its ion?
a. Oxygen loses two electrons
b. Aluminum gains three electrons
c. Calcium loses one electron
d. Barium loses two electrons
21. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. The current model of an atom is a nucleus that contains protons and neutrons.
b. The electrons surround the nucleus, but are not part of it.
c. The nucleus has a positive charge that attracts the electrons
d. The electrons orbit the nucleus in specific paths
e. The electrons orbit the nucleus in areas of high probability, but with no specific path.
22. How many protons, neutrons and electrons are in the following:
Protons – 17, Neutrons – 18, Electrons – 17
23. How many protons and electrons are in the following:
Protons – 8, Neutrons – 8, Electrons – 10
24. Chris is driving his new car, which gets 25 mi/ gal. What is the gas mileage in km/L? ( 1km = .62mi and 1
gal = 3.79L)
25 mi
1 gal
1 km
.62 mi
1 gal
3.79 L
= 10.64 km/L
25. The Webers are going on a vacation to Mexico to go scuba diving. The plane travels at an average speed
of 920 km/ hr . The distance between Colorado Springs and Cozumel, Mexico is 1,658 miles. How ,many
hours will it take to get to Cozumel?
1,658 mi
26. 1cm3 = 1 mL
1 km
.62 mi
1 hr
920 km
= 2.91 hours
27. 1 x 106mm = 1×103 m
28. 60km= 60,000,000 mm
29. An object has a density of 3.6g/mL, will it float, sink or be neutral in water? The density of water is 1g/mL.
Sink
30. A graduated cylinder has 26mL of water in it. A piece of aluminum is put into the graduated cylinder. The
water level rose to 36mL. The mass of the aluminum is 5.0g
a. Why does the water rise 10mL? Because the piece of aluminum was put into the graduated cylinder
and displaces the water.
b. What does the 10mL represent? The volume of the piece of metal
c. What is the density of the aluminum?
5.0 g ÷ 10 mL = 0.5 g/mL
31. A piece of zinc weighs 29.3g. The density of zinc is 33.4g/mL. What is the volume of the zinc?
29.3 g
1 mL
33.4 g
= 0.88 g/mL
32. Identify the following bonds as ionic, pure covalent or polar covalent.
Define:
• Ionic – A bond between two elements that have VERY different electronegativity (metal and
nonmetal); electrons are being transferred
• Pure covalent – A bond where electrons are shared between two elements with VERY similar
electronegativity (usually identical elements)
• Polar Covalent – A bond where electrons are shared between two elements with different
electronegativity
a. HCl
Ionic
b. Ba(OH)2
Ionic
c. F2
Pure Covalent
d. H2O
Polar Covalent
e. CO2
Polar Covalent
f. I2
Pure Covalent
g. CaCl2
Ionic
33. Circle the letter of all the statements that are true. Correct the false statements.
a. Pure covalent bonds share electrons equally
True
b. Ionic bonds share electrons unequally
False – Ionic bonds don’t share electrons, electrons are
transferred
c. Polar covalent bonds are bonds between metals
False – All covalent bonds are always between
two or more nonmetals
34. Choose the atomic radius that is larger.
a. Ca or As
b. Cl or I
c. O or P
35. Which of the following are in order of increasing electronegativity (least to greatest)?
a. I<Br<F<Cl
b. Br<I<Cl<F
c. F<Cl<Br<I
d. I<Br<Cl<F
36. Write the valence configuration for the following elements:
a. Sb
5s25p3
b. Al
3s23p1
c. As
4s24p3
d. Br
4s24p5
37. Write the complete configuration for the following elements:
a. N
1s22s22p3
2b. S
1s22s22p63s23p6 (2 electrons are added because of the charge)
c. Mg2+
1s22s22p6 (2 electrons are removed because of the charge)
d. F
1s22s22p5
e. Ar
1s22s22p63s23p6
38. The “s” orbital can hold how many electrons?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
39. The “d” orbital can hold how many electrons?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 10
40. The “p” orbital can hold how many electrons?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
41. Lithium burns red in a flame, copper burns green in a flame. Explain how wavelength and energy are
related to color.
The more energy there is, the wavelength will be shorter. Green has a shorter wavelength than
red, so copper burns with more energy than lithium.
42. We see the visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum. List the colors we see in order from greatest
energy to least energy.
(Greatest)
Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red
(Least)
43. Write the configuration for the valence shell of the following:
a. Ca 4s2
b. P 3s23p3
c. As 4s24p3
d. Br 4s24p5
e. Te 5s25p4
f. Cl 3s23p5
g. Ge 4s24p2
44. Write the complete configuration for the following;
a. Si 1s22s22p63s23p2
b. Be 1s22s2
c. P 1s22s22p63s23p3
d. Ca2+
1s22s22p63s23p6 (loses two electrons)
3e. N
1s22s22p6 (gains three electrons)
45. Draw the Lewis structure of the following and name the molecular geometry:
a. CO2
Molecular Geometry Linear
b. N2
Molecular Geometry
Linear
c. CH4
Molecular Geometry
Tetrahedral
d. NH3
Molecular Geometry Trigonal Pyramidal
46. The electron pair would be closer to which atom in the following compounds (think about
electronegativity).
a. H---Cl
Chlorine
b. C---F
Fluorine
c. I---Br
Bromine
d. C—N
Nitrogen
e. P—Cl
Chlorine
47. A chemistry student, Chris, received an awesome review for his chemistry final. For some unknown
reason, Chris did not think it was awesome review, in fact he was mad at his sweet Mom due to the
length of the review. The review contained 3.5 questions per concept. For every concept it took 0.25
hours to study. Chris covered 13.5 concepts.
a. How many questions did he do?
13.5 con
3.5 ques
1 con
= 47.25 question
b. How many hours did he spend angry at his dear, wonderful mother?
13.5 con
.25 hr
1 con
= 3.375 hours
c. What was Chris’s rate in questions per hour?
47.25 ques
3.375 hr
= 14 questions/ hour