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1
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PHYSICS
Q.1
In the given circuit, diode D is ideal. The
potential difference across 4Ω resistance is –
Q.1
10V
fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa Mk;ksM D vkn'kZ gSA 4Ω izfrjks/k ds
fljksa dk foHkokUrj gS –
10V
D
3Ω
3Ω
4Ω
(1) 10 V
(3) 4 V
Q.2
3Ω
3Ω
D
4Ω
(1) 10 V
(3) 4 V
(2) 5 V
(4) None of these
At a point in space, the electric field points
towards north. In the region surrounding this point,
the rate of change of potential will be zero along(1) North
(2) South
(3) North-South
(4) East-West
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Q.2
(2) 5 V
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
vkdk'k esa ,d fcUnq ij fo|qr {ks=k mÙkj dh vksj
funsfZ 'kr gSA bl fcUnq ds pkjksa vksj ds {ks=k esa foHko ds
ifjorZu dh nj fdlds vuqfn'k 'kwU; gksxh –
(2) nf{k.k
(1) mÙkj
(4) iwo-Z if'pe
(3) mÙkj-nf{k.k
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Q.3
Q.4
20 J of work has to be done against an existing
electric field to take a charge of – 0.1 C from A
to B, then potential difference VB – VA is –
(1) 20 V
(2) 120 V
(3) – 80 V
(4) – 200 V
Q.3
Three capacitors A,B and C each of capacitance
1µF are connected as shown. The charge on
capacitor C is –
Q.4
,d fo|qr {ks=k ds fo:) – 0.1 C ds vkos'k dks A ls B
rd ys tkus esa 20 J dk;Z fd;k tkrk gS] rc foHkokUrj
VB – VA gS –
(1) 20 V
(3) – 80 V
rhu la/kkfj=k A,B rFkk C ftudh izR;sd dh /kkfjrk 1µF
gS]a fp=kkuqlkj tqMs+ gSA la/kkfj=k C ij vkos'k gS –
6V
6V
A
B
A
C
B
Q.5
(2) 6 µC
(4) 2 µC
Equivalent resistance between the points A and B is-
Q.5
(1) 4 µC
(2) 6 µC
(3) 8 µC
(4) 2 µC
fcUnqvksa A rFkk B ds e/; rqY; izfrjks/k gS –
A
A
4Ω
4Ω
4Ω
4Ω
4Ω
4Ω
4Ω
4Ω
4Ω
B
(1) 1Ω
C
18 V
18 V
(1) 4 µC
(3) 8 µC
(2) 120 V
(4) – 200 V
4Ω
B
(2) 2Ω
(3) 3Ω
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(4) 4Ω
(1) 1Ω
(2) 2Ω
(3) 3Ω
(4) 4Ω
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Q. 6
The space between two coaxial cylinders whose
radii are a and b (where a < b) as shown in figure, is
filled with a conducting medium. The specific
Q. 6
σ
gqvk gSA ek/;e dh fof'k"V pkydrk σ gS] σ = 0 ,
σ
conductivity of the medium is σ. σ = 0 , where r is
r
r
tgk¡ r nksuksa csyuksa dh mHk;fu"B v{k ls f=kT;h; nwjh gSA
L >> b ekuk tk;s tgk¡ L csyu dh yEckbZ gS] rc
fudk; dk izfrjks/k gS -
radial distance from common axis of both cylinder.
Assuming L >> b, where L is the length of cylinder,
then resistance of system is –
b
a
nks lek{kh; csyuksa ftudh f=kT;k,sa a rFkk b (tgk¡ a < b)
gS] ds e/; ds LFkku esa fp=kkuqlkj ,d pkyd ek/;e Hkjk
σ
b
Q.7
b−a
b−a
b−a
(2)
(3)
4πLσ 0
2πLσ 0
πLσ 0
(4)
b−a
6πLσ 0
An unknown resistance K1 is connected in series
(1)
Q.7
with a resistance of 10 Ω. This combination is
connected to one gap of a meter bridge, while a
resistance K2 is connected in the other gap. The
balance point is at 50 cm. Now when the 10Ω
resistance is removed, the balance point shifts to
40 cm. The value of K1 is (1) 10 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 40 Ω
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σ
L
L
(1)
a
(4) 60 Ω
b−a
b−a
b−a
(2)
(3)
4πLσ 0
2πLσ 0
πLσ 0
(4)
b−a
6πLσ 0
,d vKkr izfrjks/k K1, 10 Ω ds ,d izfrjks/k ds lkFk
Js.khØe esa tqMk+ gSA ;g la;kstu ,d ehVj czht ds ,d
vUrjky esa tksMk+ x;k gS tcfd izfrjks/k K2 nwljs
vUrjky esa tksMk+ x;k gSA lary
q u fcUnq 50 cm ij gSA
vc tc 10Ω ds izfrjks/k dks gVk nsrs gS] rks lary
q u
fcUnq 40 cm ij foLFkkfir gks tkrk gSA K1 dk eku gS (1) 10 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 40 Ω
(4) 60 Ω
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Q.8
Four identical bulbs A, B, C, D are connected in
a circuit as shown in figure. Now whenever any
bulb fails, then it cannot conduct current through
it. Then –
A
Q.8
B
A
B
D
C
D
C
vkn'kZ
cSVjh
(a) cYc C lcls vf/kd pedsxk
(b) ;fn cYc C [kjkc gksrk gS] rks cYc D dh ped c<+
tkrh gS
(c) ;fn C [kjkc gksrk gS] rks lHkh cYcksa dh ped ogh
cuh jgrh gS
(d) ;fn A [kjkc gksrk gS] rks B ugha tysxk
Ideal
Battery
(a) Brightness of bulb C is highest
(b) If C fails, brightness of bulb D increases
(c) If C fails, brightness of all bulbs remain same
(d) If A fails, B will not glow
(1) a, b
(2) b, d
(3) a, c, d (4) c, d
Q.9
pkj ,d leku cYc A, B, C, D fp=k esa n'kkZ;suqlkj
ifjiFk esa tqMs+ gSaA vc tcfd dksbZ Hkh cYc [kjkc gks
tkrk gS] rc blesa ls /kkjk dk pkyu ugha gks ikrk gS]
rc -
An electron moving with velocity v along the
axis approaches a circular current carrying loop
as shown in the figure. The magnitude of
magnetic force on electron at this instant is-
(1) a, b
Q.9
(2) b, d
(3) a, c, d (4) c, d
,d bysDVªkWu v{k ds vuqfn'k v osx ls xfr djrk
gqvk fp=kkuqlkj ,d o`Ùkkdkj /kkjkokgh ywi dh vksj
tk jgk gSA bl {k.k ij bysDVªkWu ij pqEcdh; cy dk
ifjek.k gS -
i
–eV
X
i
–eV
R
X
R
(1)
µ0
eviR 2 X
eviR 2 X
(2) µ0
Z (X 2 + R 2 ) 3 / 2
(X 2 + R 2 ) 3 / 2
(1)
µ0
eviR 2 X
eviR 2 X
(2) µ0
Z (X 2 + R 2 ) 3 / 2
(X 2 + R 2 ) 3 / 2
(3)
µ0
eviR 2 X
(4) 0
4π ( X 2 + R 2 ) 3 / 2
(3)
µ0
eviR 2 X
(4) 0
4π ( X 2 + R 2 ) 3 / 2
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Q.10
Which one of the following graphs represents the
Q.10
behaviour of magnetic susuptibility (χ) of the
paramagnetic substance with the temperature T ?
χ
fuEu esa ls dkSulk vkjs[k rki T ds lkFk vuqpqEcdh;
inkFkZ dh pqEcdh; izo`fr (χ) ds O;ogkj dks lgh
n'kkZrk gS ?
χ
χ
+
+
(1)
T
T
–
T
+
(4)+
–
–
Q.11
(2) εr = 1.5, µr = 0.5
(3) εr = 0.5, µr = 0.5
(4) εr = 1.5, µr = 1.5
A copper disc of radius 0.1 m is rotated about its
centre with 20 revolution per second in a
uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T with its plane
perpendicular to the field. The emf induced
across the radius of the disc is (1)
π
volt
20
(3) 20 π millivolt
(2)
(4)+
–
T
,d inkFkZ dh vkisf{kd pqEcd'khyrk rFkk ikjxE;rk
dkSulk ,d izfrpqEcdh; inkFkZ ds fy, lgh gS ?
Q.12
π
volt
10
(1) εr = 0.5, µr = 1.5
(2) εr = 1.5, µr = 0.5
(3) εr = 0.5, µr = 0.5
(4) εr = 1.5, µr = 1.5
0.1 m f=kT;k dh ,d rk¡cs dh pdrh dks 0.1 T ds ,d
,dleku pqEcdh; {ks=k esa mlds dsUnz ds ifjr%
20 ?kw.kZu izfr lsd.M ds lkFk ?kqek;k tkrk gS] mldk
ry pqEcdh; {ks=k ds yEcor~ gSA pdrh dh f=kT;k ij
izsfjr fo-ok-cy gS (1)
(4) 100 π millivolt
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T
Øe'k% εr rFkk µr gSA bu jkf'k;ksa ds fuEu ekuksa esa ls
following values of these quantities are allowed
for a diamagnetic material ?
(1) εr = 0.5, µr = 1.5
χ
χ
–
T
Relative permittivity and permeability of a
T
T
(3)
material εr and µr, respectively. Which of the
Q.12
(2)
–
χ
χ
(3)
Q.11
(1)
(2)
+
χ
π
oksYV
20
(3) 20 π feyhoksYV
(2)
π
oksYV
10
(4) 100 π feyhoksYV
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Q.13
A current I = 10 sin(100π t) amp. is passed in
first coil, which induces a maximum e.m.f of 5π
volt in second coil. The mutual inductance
between the coils is (1) 10 mH
(2) 15 mH
(3) 25 mH
(4) 5 mH
Q.13
Q.14
In series LCR circuit voltage drop across
resistance is 8 volt and across capacitor is 12 volt
and across inductor is 6 V. Then (1) Voltage of the source will be leading current
in the circuit
(2) Voltage drop across each element will be less
than the applied voltage
(3) Power factor of circuit will be 4/3
(4) None of these
Q.14
Js.kh LCR ifjiFk esa izfrjks/k ds fljksa ij foHko iru
8 oksYV rFkk la/kkfj=k ds fljksa ij 12 oksYV ,oa izsjd
ds fljksa ij 6 V gSA rc (1) L=kksr dk foHko ifjiFk esa /kkjk ls vxzxkeh gksxk
(2) izR;sd vo;o ds fljksa ij foHko iru vkjksfir
foHko ls de gksxk
(3) ifjiFk dk 'kfä xq.kkad 4/3 gksxk
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.15
Figure shows a plane figure made of a conductor
located in magnetic field along the inward
normal to the plane of the figure. If the magnetic
field starts diminishing, the induced current -
Q.15
fp=k esa ,d pkyd inkFkZ ls cuk ,d ry n'kkZ;k x;k
gS tks fd fp=k ds ry ds yEcor~ vUnj dh vksj
funsZf'kr ,d pqEcdh; {ks=k esa fp=kkuqlkj fLFkr gSA
;fn pqEcdh; {ks=k ?kVuk 'kw: gks tkrk gS rks izsfjr
/kkjk gksxh -
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
P
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
R
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Q
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/kkjk I = 10 sin(100π t) ,sfEi;j izFke dq.Myh eas
izokfgr gS tks fd f}rh; dq.Myh esa vf/kdre 5π oksYV
dk fo-ok-cy izsfjr djrh gSA dq.Mfy;ksa ds e/;
vU;ksU; izsj.k gS (1) 10 mH
(3) 25 mH
(2) 15 mH
(4) 5 mH
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
P
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
R
x x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Q
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(a) at point P is clockwise
(b) at point Q is anti-clockwise
(c) at point Q is clockwise
(d) a point R is zero
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, d
Q.16
A car is moving along a straight horizontal road
with a speed v0. If the coefficient of friction
between the tyres and the road is µ, then the
shortest distance in which the car will come to
stop (on switching off the engine) is (1)
v 02
/µg
(2)
(3) µ v 02 /g
Q.17
(a) fcUnq P ij nf{k.kkorhZ
(b) fcUnq Q ij okekorhZ
(c) fcUnq Q ij nf{k.kkorhZ
(d) fcUnq R ij 'kwU;
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, d
v 02
Q.16
xfreku gSA ;fn Vk;jks rFkk lM+d ds e/; ?k"kZ.k
xq.kkad µ gks] rc y?kqÙke nwjh ftlesa dkj (b±tu cUn
djus ij) fojke esa vk tk;sxh] gksxh -
/2µg
(4) v0/µ
Two blocks of masses 2.9 kg and 1.9 kg are
suspended from a rigid support S by two
inextensible wires each of length 1 m. The upper
wire has negligible mass and the lower wire has
a uniform mass of 0.2 kg/m.
,d dkj ,d lh/kh {kSfrt lM+d ij v0 pky ls
Q.17
(1) v 02 /µg
(2) v 02 /2µg
(3) µ v 02 /g
(4) v0/µ
2.9 kg vkSj 1.9 kg ds nks CykWd] nks vforkU; rkjksa]
izR;sd 1 m yEckbZ dk mi;ksx dj fp=kkuqlkj ,d
n`<+ vk/kkj ls yVdk;s x;s gSaA Åij okys rkj dk
nzO;eku ux.; gS rFkk uhps okys rkj dk nzO;eku ,d
leku 0.2 kg/m gSA
A
A
2.9 kg
2.9 kg
B
B
1.9 kg
1.9 kg
The whole system of block, wires and support have
an upward acceleration of 0.2 m/s2 (g = 9.8 m/s2).
The tension at the mid-point of lower wire is (1) 20 N (2) 30 N (3) 40 N (4) 50 N
Q.18
The angular velocity of a seconds hand of a
watch in rad/sec will be (1) π/30 (2) π/60
(3) π
(4) 2π
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lEiw.kZ fudk; (CykWd] rkj vkSj vk/kkj) Åij dh vksj
0.2 m/s2 ds Roj.k ls xfr dj jgk gS (g = 9.8 m/s2)A
uhps okys rkj ds e/; fcUnq ij ruko gS (1) 20 N
Q.18
(2) 30 N
(3) 40 N
(4) 50 N
?kM+h dh lsd.M dh lqbZ dk dks.kh; osx] rad/sec esa
gksrh gS (1) π/30
(2) π/60
(3) π
(4) 2π
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Q.19
The moment of inertia of a ring X of mass M
and radius r about the axis AB shown in figure is
-
Q.19
M nzO;eku rFkk r f=kT;k dh ,d oy; X dk fp=k esa
iznf'kZr v{k AB ds lkis{k tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gS A
A
r
r
B
(1) Mr2
Q.20
(2) 2 Mr2
(3) 3 Mr2
1
(1) Mr2
3
(4) Mr2
2
Six identical balls are lined in a straight groove
made on a horizontal frictionless surface as
shown in figure. Two similar balls each moving
with a velocity v collide with the row of six balls
from left. What will happen ?
v
Q.20
6
(1) One ball from the right rolls out with a speed
2v and the remaining balls will remain at rest
(2) two balls from the right roll out with speed v
each and the remaining balls will remain
stationary
(3) All the six balls in the row will roll out with
speed v/6 each and the two colliding balls
will come to rest
(4) The colliding balls will come to rest and no
ball rolls out from right
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X
B
X
(2) 2 Mr2
(3) 3 Mr2
(4)
3 2
Mr
2
?k"kZ.kghu {kSfrt lrg ij cus ,d [kkaps (groove) esa
,d tSlh N% xsansa vkil esa lVk dj j[kh gqbZ gSA oSlh
gh nks xsansa] izR;sd v osx ls xfr djrh gqbZ] bu N% xsanks
dh iafDr ls izR;kLFk Vôj djrh gSA rc Vôj ds ckn ?
v
1
6
(1) nk;ha vksj ,d xsan 2v osx ls vkxs xfr djsxh
vkSj vU; xsansa fLFkj voLFkk esa jgsaxh
(2) nk;ha vksj ls nks xsansa] izR;sd v osx ls vkxs xfr
djsaxh vkSj ckdh xsansa fLFkj jgsaxh
(3) iafDr dh lHkh xsansa] izR;sd v/6 osx ls vkxs xfr
djsaxh vkSj ckdh (Vdjkus okyh) xsansa fLFkj jgsaxh
(4) Vdjkus okyh xsansa fLFkj voLFkk esa vk tk;sxh vksj
nk;ha vksj okyh dksbZ Hkh xsan xfr ugha djsxh
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Q.21
Keeping the principle of conservation of
Q.21
laosx laj{k.k ds fl)kUr dks /;ku esa j[krs gq,] fuEu
momentum in mind, which of the following
fp=kksa esa ls dkSulk fp=k nks d.kksa dh Vôj ds fy,
collision diagram may not be correct -
lgh ugha gks ldrk -
m1
(1)
m1
m1
θ
φ
m2
(1)
m1
θ
φ
m2
m2
m2
m1
m1
90º
(2)
m1
90º
(2)
φ
m2
m1
φ
m2
m2
m2
m1
m1
θ
(3)
m1
m2
θ
(3)
φ
m1
m2
φ
m2
m2
m1
(4)
m1
90º
m1
m2
(4)
m2
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90º
m1
m2
m2
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Q.22
A wire of length L, area of cross-section A and
Q.22
Young's modulus Y is stretched by a length x,
rkj esa x yEckbZ ls nh?khZdj.k fd;k x;k gSA bl
then the amount of work done per unit volume in
nh?khZdj.k esa izfr ,dkad vk;ru fd;k x;k dk;Z gS -
stretching is -
Q.23
L yEckbZ, A dkV-{ks=kQy vkSj Y ;ax xq.kkad okys ,d
1
(1) Yx2
2
1
(2) Yx2 /L
2
(1)
1
Yx2
2
(2)
1
Yx2 /L
2
1
(3) Yx2 /L2
2
1
(4) Yx2L2
2
(3)
1
Yx2 /L2
2
(4)
1
Yx2L2
2
The potential energy U of a diatomic molecule as
a function of the interatomic separation r, is –
U
+ U
0
+
Q.23
,d f}ijek.kqd v.kq ds fy, ijek.kqvksa ds e/; nwjh r
ds Qyu ds :i esa fLFkfrt ÅtkZ U fdl vkjs[k
}kjk n'kkZ;h tkrh gS U
r
+ U
0
+
r (2) –
(1) 0
U
+
(3) 0
r (4)
–
Q.24
+ U
0
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U
+
(3) 0
–
Wave nature of light was proposed by (1) Huygen
(2) Young
(3) Fresnel
(4) Maxwell
r (2) –
(1) 0
r
–
Q.24
r
r (4)
+ U
0
r
–
izdk'k dh rjax izd`fr dks fdlds }kjk izfrikfnr
fd;k x;k Fkk (1) gkbxsUl
(2) ;ax
(3) Ýsuy
(4) eSDlosy
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10
Q.25
Q.26
A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on
one surface of a prism of small angle A and
emerges normally from the opposite surface. If
the refractive index of the material of the prism
is µ, the angle of incidence i is nearly equal to (1) µA
(2) µA/2 (3) A/µ
(4) A/2µ
Q.25
The horizontal acceleration that should be given
1
to a smooth inclined plane of angle sin–1   to
l
keep an object stationary on the plane relative to
the plane is g
(1)
(2) g l 2 − 1
2
l −1
Q.26
(3)
Q.27
l2 −1
g
(4)
(1) µA
(2) µA/2
(3) A/µ
(4) A/2µ
1
>qdko dks.k sin–1   ds ,d fpdus vkur ry dks
l
fn;k x;k {kSfrt Roj.k fdruk gksuk pkfg, ftlls
ry ds lkis{k vkur ry ij ,d oLrq fLFkj jgs (1)
g
(3)
l2 +1
A 10 kg shell, initially at rest, explodes into three
fragments of masses 4 kg, 4 kg and 2 kg. If the
two fragments of equal mass move towards north
and towards west with equal speeds 4 m/s,
velocity of the 2 kg fragment will be (1) 8 m/s along north-west
Q.27
(2) 8/ 2 m/s along south-west
(3) 8 m/s along north-east
(4) 8/ 2 m/s along south-east
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,d y?kq fizTe dks.k A ds fizTe dh ,d viorZd i`"B
ij ,d izdk'k fdj.k i vkiru dks.k ls vkifrr gks jgh
gSA ;g fdj.k fizTe ls xqtjus ij nwljh viorZd lrg
ds yEcor~ ckgj fudyrh gSA ;fn fizTe ds inkFkZ dk
viorZukad µ gS] rc vkiru dks.k i gS] yxHkx -
g
2
l −1
l2 −1
g
(2) g l 2 − 1
(4)
g
2
l +1
10 kg dk ,d dks'k tks izkjEHk eas fLFkj gS] 4 kg,
4 kg rFkk 2 kg nzO;eku ds rhu VqdM+ks esa foLQksfVr
gks tkrk gSA ;fn leku nzO;eku ds nks VqdM+s mÙkj
dh vksj rFkk if'pe dh vksj leku pky 4 m/s ds
lkFk xfr djs] rc 2 kg ds VqdM+s dk osx gksxk (1) 8 m/s mÙkj-if'pe fn'kk ds vuqfn'k
(2) 8/ 2 m/s nf{k.k-if'pe fn'kk ds vuqfn'k
(3) 8 m/s mÙkj-iwoZ fn'kk ds vuqfn'k
(4) 8/ 2 m/s nf{k.k-iwoZ fn'kk ds vuqfn'k
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Q.28
Q.29
Q.30
The moment of inertia of a thin uniform circular
disc about one of the diameters is I. Its moment
of inertia about an axis perpendicular to the plane
of the disc and passing through its centre is -
Q.28
(1) ( 2 ) I
(2) 2 I
(1) ( 2 ) I
(2) 2 I
(3) I/2
(4) I / 2
(3) I/2
(4) I / 2
For a particle of a rotating rigid body v = rω. So (a) ω ∝ (1/r)
(b) ω ∝ v
(c) v ∝ r
(1) a, b
(3) c, d
(d) ω is independent of r
(2) b, c
(4) b, d
If angle of prism is 60º and refractive index
2
Q.29
Q.32
In case of refraction of light (a) frequency changes (b) phase changes
(c) speed changes
(d) wave length changes
Correct option is (1) a, c
(2) c, d
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, d
The ratio of 1 kWh to 1 MeV is (1) 2.25 × 1017
(2) 2.25 × 1019
23
(3) 2.25 × 10
(4) 2.25 × 4.4 × 109
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,d ?kw.khZr n`<+ oLrq ds ,d d.k ds fy, v = rω gks] rc (a) ω ∝ (1/r)
(c) v ∝ r
(1) a, b
(3) c, d
Q.30
then angle of minimum deviation (1) 30º
(2) 45º
(3) 60º
(4) 90º
Q.31
,d iryh ,dleku o`Ùkkdkj pdrh dk blds ,d
O;kl ds ifjr% tM+Ro-vk?kw.kZ I gSA pdrh ds ry ds
yEcor~ rFkk blds dsUnz ls xqtjus okyh v{k ds
ifjr% tM+Ro-vk?kw.kZ gksxk -
(b) ω ∝ v
(d) ω, r ls Lora=k gS
(2) b, c
(4) b, d
;fn fizTe dks.k 60º rFkk viorZukad
2 gks] rc
U;wure fopyu dks.k gksxk (1) 30º
Q.31
(2) 45º
(4) 90º
izdk'k ds viorZu dh fLFkfr esa (a) vko`fÙk ifjofrZr gksrh gS
(b)
dyk
ifjofrZr gksrh gS
(c) pky ifjofrZr gksrh gS (d) rjaxnS/;Z ifjofrZr gksrh gS
lgh fodYi gS (1) a, c
(3) a, b, c
Q.32
(3) 60º
(2) c, d
(4) a, b, d
1 kWh dk 1 MeV ds lkFk vuqikr gS (1) 2.25 × 1017
(2) 2.25 × 1019
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Q.33
Q.34
Q.35
Q.36
A diver is 10 m below the surface of water. The
approximate pressure experienced by the diver
is(1) 105 Pa
(2) 2 × 105 Pa
5
(4) 4 × 105 Pa
(3) 3 × 10 Pa
When temperature increases, the frequency of a
tuning fork (1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains same
(4) increases or decreases depending on the
material
A body executes simple harmonic motion. The
potential energy (P.E.), the kinetic energy (K.E.)
and total energy (T.E.) are measured as a
function of displacement x. Which of the
following statements is true ?
(1) P.E. is maximum when x = 0
(2) K.E. is maximum when x = 0
(3) T.E. is zero when x = 0
(4) K.E. is maximum when x is maximum
Forks A and B produce 6 beats/s. A and C
produce 2 beats/s. Forks B and C will produce
….. beats/s.
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5
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(3) 2.25 × 1023
Q.33
(4) 2.25 × 4.4 × 109
,d xksrk[kksj ikuh dh lrg ls 10 m uhps gSA xksrk[kksj
}kjk vuqHko fd;k x;k yxHkx nkc gS (1) 105 Pa
(2) 2 × 105 Pa
(3) 3 × 105 Pa
(4) 4 × 105 Pa
Q.34
tc rki c<+k;k tkrk gS] rks ,d Lofj=k f}Hkqt dh
vko`fr (1) c<+rh gS
(2) ?kVrh gS
(3) ogh jgrh gS
(4) c<+uk ;k ?kVuk inkFkZ ij fuHkZj djrk gS
Q.35
,d oLrq ljy vkorZ xfr dj jgh gSA fLFkfrt ÅtkZ
(P.E.), xfrt ÅtkZ (K.E.) rFkk dqy ÅtkZ (T.E.)
foLFkkiu x ds ,d Qyu ds #i esa ekih xbZ gSA fuEu esa
ls dkSulk dFku lgh gS ?
(1) P.E. vf/kdre gksrh gS tc x = 0 gks
(2) K.E. vf/kdre gksrh gS tc x = 0
(3) T.E. 'kwU; gksrh gS tc x = 0 gks
(4) K.E. vf/kdre gksrh gS tc x vf/kdre gks
Q.36
Lofj=k A rFkk B, 6 foLiUn/lsd.M mRiUu djrs gSA
A rFkk C, 2 foLiUn/lsd.M mRiUu djrs gSA Lofj=k
B rFkk C mRiUu djsxas …… foLiUn/lsd.MA
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Q.37
What is the velocity of sound in water if bulk
modulus of water is 2.0 × 1010 dyne cm–2 ?
(1) 2 × 105 cm s–1
(2)
(3) 1.4 2 × 300 m s–1 (4)
2 m s–1
(1) 2
Q.37
–1
2 × 332 m s
Q.39
Q.40
Q.41
If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles,
its deBroglie wavelength changes by the factor 1
1
(1) 2
(2)
(3) 2
(4)
2
2
Which stable nucleus has radius one-third of that
of Os189 ?
(1) Be9
(2) Li7
19
(3) F
(4) none of these
The total energy of electron is the ground state of
hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The potential energy
of an electron in the ground state of Li2+ ion will
be (1) 122.4 eV
(2) – 122.4 eV
(3) 244.8 eV
(4) – 244.8 eV
A rocket is moving away from the earth at a
speed of 6 × 107 ms–1. The rocket has blue light
in it. What will be the wavelength of light
recorded by an observer on the earth ?
(Given : wavelength of blue light = 4600 Å.)
(1) 4600 Å
(2) 5520 Å
(3) 3680 Å
(4) 3920 Å
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(3) 3
2 × 105 cm s–1
(2)
(3) 1.4 2 × 300 m s–1 (4)
Q.38
(2)
–1
2 × 332 m s
1
2
(3) 2
(4)
1
2
fdl LFkk;h ukfHkd dh f=kT;k Os189 dh f=kT;k dh
,d frgkbZ gS ?
(1) Be9
(3) F19
Q.40
2 m s–1
;fn ,d eqDr bysDVªkuW dh xfrt ÅtkZ nksxuq h dj nh
tk;s] rks Mh-czksXyh rjaxnS/;Z fdl xq.kd }kjk ifjofrZr
gksrh gS (1) 2
Q.39
(4) 5
ikuh esa /ofu dk osx D;k gS] ;fn ikuh dk vk;ru
izR;kLFkrk xq.kkad (cYd ekikad) 2.0 × 1010 Mkbu lseh–2
gS ?
(1)
Q.38
(2) 4
(2) Li7
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
gkbMªkstu ijek.kq dh ewy voLFkk esa bysDVªkWu dh dqy
ÅtkZ –13.6 eV gSA Li2+ vk;u dh ewy voLFkk esa ,d
bysDVªkWu dh fLFkfrt ÅtkZ gksxh (1) 122.4 eV
(3) 244.8 eV
Q.41
(2) – 122.4 eV
(4) – 244.8 eV
,d jkWdsV 6 × 107 ms–1 dh pky ls i`Foh dh lrg
ls nwj tk jgk gSA jkWdsV ds vUnj uhyk izdk'k gSA
i`Foh ij ,d izs{kd }kjk Kkr dh xbZ izdk'k dh
rjaxnS/;Z D;k gksxh ?
(fn;k gS : uhys izdk'k dh rjaxnS/;Z = 4600 Å)
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Q.42
Which of the substances A, B or C has the
highest specific heat ? The temperature vs time
graph is shown –
Q.42
fdldh gS ? rki vs le; xzkQ fp=k esa n'kkZ;k x;k
gS B
A
C
B
rki (T)
Temperature (T)
A
Time (t)
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All have equal specific heat
Q.43
Q.44
(1) 4600 Å
(2) 5520 Å
(3) 3680 Å
(4) 3920 Å
inkFkksZ A, B vFkok C esa ls lcls vf/kd fof'k"V Å"ek
C
le; (t)
A given quantity of an ideal gas is at pressure P
and absolute temperature T. The isothermal bulk
modulus of the gas is –
(1) (2/3)P
(2) P
(3) (3/2)P
(4) 2P
P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic
processes are shown in the figure. Plots 1 and 2
should correspond respectively to-
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) lHkh leku fof'k"V Å"ek gS
Q.43
,d vkn'kZ xSl dh nh xbZ ek=kk nkc P rFkk ije rki
T ij gSA xSl dk lerkih; vk;ru izR;kLFkrk xq.kkad
gS –
(1) (2/3)P
(3) (3/2)P
Q.44
P
(2) P
(4) 2P
:)ks"e izØe ds v/khu nks xSlksa ds P-V vkjs[k fp=k
esa n'kkZ;s x;s gSA oØ 1 rFkk 2 Øe'k% fdlds laxr
gksus pkfg,s -
1
2
V
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(1) He and O2
(3) He and Ar
Q.45
P
(2) O2 and He
(4) O2 and N2
Weight of a man of mass 80 kg in a lift is:
Column-I
Column-II
(A) 600 N
(P) lift is moving up with
5 m/s
(B) 1200 N
(Q) lift is falling freely
(C) zero
(R) lift is moving down
with 2.5 m/s2
(1) A → R ; B → P ; C → Q
(2) A → P ; B → Q ; C → R
(3) A → Q ; B → P ; C → R
(4) None of these
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1
2
V
(1) He
(3) He
Q.45
O2
Ar
(2) O2
(4) O2
He
N2
,d fy¶V esa 80 kg nzO;eku ds ,d O;fDr dk Hkkj gS:
LrEHk -I
LrEHk -II
(A) 600 N
(P)
5 m/s
(B) 1200 N
(C) 'kwU;
(Q) fy¶V eqä :i ls fxj jgh gS
(R) fy¶V 2.5 m/s2 ds lkFk uhps
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CHEMISTRY
Q.46
The pair of species/molecules having tetrahedral
geometry is -
Q.46
(a) CH4 and NH +4
(a) CH4 rFkk NH +4
(b) XeF4 and SF4
(b) XeF4 rFkk SF4
(c) [FeCl4]–2 and [NiCl4]2–
(c) [FeCl4]–2 rFkk [NiCl4]2–
+2
(d) Ni(CO)4 and [Cu(NH3)4]
(d) Ni(CO)4 rFkk [Cu(NH3)4]+2
(1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d (3) a, c, d (4) a, c
Q.47
Lih'kht/v.kqvks ds dkSuls ;qXe dh prq"Qydh; T;kfefr
gksrh gS -
[Ni(CN)4]2– and [NiCl4]2– have dissimilarity but
not in -
(1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d (3) a, c, d (4) a, c
Q.47
[Ni(CN)4]2– rFkk [NiCl4]2– vlekurk j[krs gS ysfdu
fuEu esa ugha -
(1) Magnetic moment
(1) pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ
(2) Coordination number and oxidation state
(2) milgla;kstu la[;k rFkk vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk
(3) Structure
(3) lajpuk
(4) Colour
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(4) jax
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Q.48
Q.49
Q.50
Q.51
Q.52
Q.53
In solid phase, PBr5 exists as (1) PBr4+ , PBr6–
(2) PBr4+ , Br –
(3) PBr5
(4) PBr3, Br2
Q.48
Which of the following halogen has highest bond
dissociation energy -
Q.49
Bksl voLFkk esa, PBr5 fuEu :i esa ik;k tkrk gS (1) PBr4+ , PBr6–
(2) PBr4+ , Br –
(3) PBr5
(4) PBr3, Br2
fuEu esa ls dkSuls gSykstu esa mPpre ca/k fo;kstu
ÅtkZ gksrh gS -
(1) Cl–Cl
(2) F–F
(1) Cl–Cl
(2) F–F
(3) Br–Br
(4) I–I
(3) Br–Br
(4) I–I
Which of the following do not electron deficient -
Q.50
fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd bysDVªkWu U;wu ugha gksrk gS -
(1) B2H6
(2) Al2H6
(1) B2H6
(2) Al2H6
(3) Al2(CH3)6
(4) Al2Cl6
(3) Al2(CH3)6
(4) Al2Cl6
Q.51
In which ion bond angle is minimum -
dkSuls vk;u esa U;wure ca/k dks.k gS -
(1) H3O+
(2) NH2–
(1) H3O+
(2) NH2–
(3) BeF3–
(4) BF4–
(3) BeF3–
(4) BF4–
Amongst the following ions which one has the
highest paramagnetism ?
Q.52
fuEu esa ls dkSuls vk;uks dk vuqpqEcdRo vf/kdre
gksrk gS ?
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
(4) [Cu(H2O)6]2+
(3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
(4) [Cu(H2O)6]2+
Following triad has approximately equal size (1) Na+, Mg+2, Al+3 (iso-electronic)
(2) F–, Ne, O–2 (iso-electronic)
(3) Fe, Co, Ni
(4) Mn+, Fe+2, Cr(iso-electronic)
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Q.53
fuEu esa ls dkSuls f=kyd dk vkdkj yxHkx leku gS(1) Na+, Mg+2, Al+3 (lebysDVªkWfud)
(2) F–, Ne, O–2 (lebysDVªkWfud)
(3) Fe, Co, Ni
(4) Mn+, Fe+2, Cr(lebysDVªkWfud)
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fuEu esa ls dkSulk okLrfod ijkWDlkbM gS -
Which of the following is a true peroxide (1) NO2
(2) PbO2 (3) MnO2 (4) BaO2
Q.54
Q.55
The atomic number of potassium is 19 and that
of manganese is 25. Although [MnO4–] has a
dark violet colour, that K+ is colourless. This is
due to the fact that (1) Mn is a transition element, while K is not
(2) [MnO4–] is negatively charged species while
K+ has a positive charge
(3) The effective atomic number of Mn in
[MnO4–] is 26 while for K+ the effective
atomic no. is 18
(4) The Mn is a high positive oxidation state
allows charge transfer transition
Q.55
ikSVsf'k;e dk ijek.kq Øekad 19 gS rFkk eSaXuht dk
ijek.kq Øekad 25 gSA ;|fi [MnO4–], xk<+s cSaxuh jax dk
gksrk gS tcfd K+ jaxghu gksrk gS gSA bldk dkj.k gS (1) Mn laØe.k rRo gS] tcfd K ugha
(2) [MnO4–] _.kkosf'kr Lih'kht gS tcfd K+
/kukRed vkos'k j[krk gS
(3) [MnO4–] esa Mn dk çHkkoh ijek.kq Øekad 26 gS
tcfd K+ dk çHkkoh ijek.kq Øekad 18 gSA
(4) Mn dk mPp /kukRed vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk j[krk
gS] ftlls vkos'k LFkkukUrj.k laØe.k gksrk gS
Q.56
The chemical composition of slag formed during
the smelting process in the extraction of copper
is (1) Cu2O + FeS
(2) FeSiO3
(3) CuFeS2
(4) Cu2S + FeO
Q.56
dkWij ds fu"d"kZ.k esa çxyu çØe ds nkSjku fufeZr
/kkrqey dk jklk;fud la?kVu gS -
Correct order decreasing O–O bond length is (1) BaO2 > O2 > KO2 > O2 [AsF4]
(2) KO2 > BaO2 > O2 > O2 [AsF4]
(3) O2 > KO2 > BaO2 > O2 [AsF4]
(4) BaO2 > KO2 > O2 > O2 [AsF4]
Q.57
Q.54
Q.57
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(1) NO2
(2) PbO2 (3) MnO2 (4) BaO2
(1) Cu2O + FeS
(2) FeSiO3
(3) CuFeS2
(4) Cu2S + FeO
O–O ca/k yEckbZ dk ?kVrk gqvk lgh Øe gS (1) BaO2 > O2 > KO2 > O2 [AsF4]
(2) KO2 > BaO2 > O2 > O2 [AsF4]
(3) O2 > KO2 > BaO2 > O2 [AsF4]
(4) BaO2 > KO2 > O2 > O2 [AsF4]
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Q.58
Q.59
Q.60
Q.61
Q.62
Which orbital notation does have spherical node (a) n = 2, l = 0
(b) n = 3, l = 1
(c) n = 3, l = 0
(d) n = 1, l = 0
(1) a, b, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, c
Q.58
The ratio of time periods (T1/T2) in second
orbital of hydrogen to third orbit of He+ ion is (1) 8/27
(2) 32/27 (3) 27/32 (4) 24/36
Q.59
The shortest wavelength in hydrogen spectrum
of Lyman series when RH = 109678 cm–1 is -
Q.60
(1) 1002.7 Å
(2) 1215.67 Å
(3) 1127.30 Å
(4) 911.7 Å
What volume of hydrogen will be liberated at
NTP by the reaction of Zn on 50 mL of dilute
H2SO4 of specific gravity 1.3 and having purity
40% ?
dkSulk d{kd xksyh; uksM n'kkZrk gS (a) n = 2, l = 0
(c) n = 3, l = 0
(1) a, b, d
(3) a, c, d
gkbMªkstu ds f}rh; d{kd ls He+ vk;u ds r`rh;
d{kd esa le; vkorZ (T1/T2) dk vuqikr gS (1) 8/27
Q.61
(b) n = 3, l = 1
(d) n = 1, l = 0
(2) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c
(2) 32/27 (3) 27/32
(4) 24/36
ykbeu Js.kh ds gkbMªkstu LiSDVªe esa y?kqÙke rjaxnS/;Z
D;k gksxh] tc RH = 109678 cm–1 gks (1) 1002.7 Å
(2) 1215.67 Å
(3) 1127.30 Å
(4) 911.7 Å
NTP ij fof'k"V Zn dh vfHkfØ;k }kjk fof'k"V xq:Ro
1.3 rFkk 40% 'kq)rk ds ruq H2SO4 ds 50 mL ij
eqDr gkbMªkstu dk vk;ru D;k gksxk ?
(1) 3.5 litre
(2) 8.25 litre
(1) 3.5 litre
(2) 8.25 litre
(3) 6.74 litre
(4) 5.94 litre
(3) 6.74 litre
(4) 5.94 litre
In an experiment, 4g of M2Ox oxide was reduced
to 2.8 g of the metal. If the atomic mass of the
metal is 56 g mol–1, the number of oxygen atoms
in the oxide is (1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
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Q.62
(4) 4
,d ç;ksx esa] 4g M2Ox vkWDlkbM dk 2.8 g /kkrq esa
vip;u gksrk gSA ;fn /kkrq dk ijek.kq Hkkj
56 g mol–1 gS rks vkWDlkbM esa vkWDlhtu ijek.kqvksa
dh la[;k gS (1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
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Q.63
The relative rates of effusion of O2 to CH4
through a container containing O2 and CH4 in
3 : 2 mass ratio will be (1)
(3)
Q.64
3 2
4
(2)
3
(1)
3
4 2
(3)
Gases possess characteristic critical temperature
which depends upon the magnitude of intermolecular
forces between the particles. Following are the
critical temperatures of some gases
Gases :
H2
He
O2 N2
5.3
154.3
Critical temperature
(in Kelvin)
O2
(4) none of these
2 2
33.2
126
(2) He, O2, H2, N2
(3) N2, O2, He, H2
(4) O2, N2, H2, He
The pair of compounds having highest oxidation
state with the metals is (2)
3 2
4
(2)
3
3
4 2
(4)
2 2
H2
He
O2 N2
Økafrd rki
(dsfYou esa)
33.2
5.3
154.3
126
mijksDr vkadM+ks ls bu xSlksa dsUæh;dj.k dk Øe D;k
gksxk ?
Q.65
(1) H2, He, O2, N2
(2) He, O2, H2, N2
(3) N2, O2, He, H2
(4) O2, N2, H2, He
mPpre vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk okys /kkrqvksa ds ;kSfxdksa
dk ;qXe gS (1) MnO2, FeCl3
CrO2Cl2
(2) MnO4–, CrO2Cl2
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Co(CN)3]
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Co(CN)3]
(4) [NiCl4]2–, [CoCl4]2
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CH4
xSlsa :
(1) MnO2, FeCl3
MnO4–,
CH4
uhps dqN xSlksa ds Økafrd rki fn;sA gq;s gSa -
Start writing the order from the gas liquefying
first (1) H2, He, O2, N2
O2
Q.64
From the above data what would be the order of
liquefaction of these gases ?
Q.65
3:2
Q.63
(4) [NiCl4]2–, [CoCl4]2
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21
Q.66
Q.67
Q.68
Q.69
Two moles of HI were heated in a sealed tube at
440ºC till the equilibrium was reached. HI was found
to be 22% decomposed. The equilibrium constant for
dissociation is- (reaction 2HI
H2 + I2)
(1) 0.282
(2) 0.0796
(3) 0.0199
(4) 1.99
Q.66
tc rd lkE;koLFkk izkIr gksrh gSA HI 22% fo;ksftr
gksrk gSA fo;kstu dk lkE;koLFkk fLFkjkad gksxk(vfHkfØ;k 2HI
H2 + I2)
(1) 0.282
(3) 0.0199
The molality of 15% by wt solution of H2SO4 is:(1) 1.8
(2) 2.2
(3) 1.2
(4) 2.8
Q.67
At STP 1.12 litre of H2 is obtained on flowing a
current for 965 seconds in a solution. The value of
current is-
Q.68
(1) 10 amp
(2) 1.0 amp
(3) 1.5 amp
(4) 2.0 amp
Hkkjkuqlkj 15%, H2SO4 foy;u dh eksyyrk gS&
(1) 1.8
(2) 2.2
Q.69
(3) 1.2
(4) 2.8
,d foy;u esa 965 lSd.M rd fo|qr /kkjk izokfgr
djus ij STP ij 1.12 yhVj H2 xSl mRiUu gksrh gSA
/kkjk dk eku gS&
(2) 1.0 amp
(4) 2.0 amp
E rFkk log [Mn+] ds e/; lEcU/k E = Eº +
0.0591
n
log [Mn+] ds :i esa çnf'kZr fd;k tkrk gSA (n) dk
eku gksxk &
E
θ = tan–1(0.0295)
θ = tan–1(0.0295)
1.10V
1.10V
log [Mn+]
log [Mn+]
(1) 3
(3) 4
(2) 0.0796
(4) 1.99
(1) 10 amp
(3) 1.5 amp
The relation between E and log [Mn+] is
0.0591
represented as E = Eº +
log [Mn+]
n
The value of (n) will be-
E
440ºC ij] ,d cUn ik=k esa HI ds 2 eksy xeZ djrs gSa
(1) 3
(3) 4
(2) 2
(4) None of these
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(2) 2
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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Q.70
Q.71
Q.72
Q.73
In a cube, atom A is present at every corner and B
is present at alternate face centre and atom C is
present at the body centre, then the simplest
molecular formula of the compound will be(1) ABC
(2) A8B2C
(3) AB2C
(4) A2BC
Find out the osmotic pressure of 0.1M Na2SO4
solution at 27ºC. Assuming 100% ionisation of
electrolyte
(1) 4.38 atm
(2) 7.38 atm
(3) 10.38 atm
(4) 1.38 atm
Q.70
0.01 M solution of H2A has pH equal to 4. If Ka,
for the acid is 4.45 × 10–7, the concentration of
HA– ion in solution would be(1) 0.01 M
(2) 4.45 × 10–5
(3) 8.0 × 10–5
(4) Unpredictable
Q.72
In the reaction, A(s) + B(g) + Heat
2C(s) + 2D(g)
equilibrium is established. The pressure of B is
doubled to re-establish the equilibrium. The factor
by which D is change is-
Q.73
(1) 2
Q.74
(2) 3
(3)
2
(4)
(1) ABC
(2) A8B2C
(3) AB2C
(4) A2BC
27ºC ij 0.1M Na2SO4 foy;u dk ijklj.k nkc Kkr
dhft;sA ;g ekurs gq, fd oS|qr vi?kV; dk 100%
vk;uu gksrk gSA
(1) 4.38 atm
(3) 10.38 atm
(2) 7.38 atm
(4) 1.38 atm
0.01 M H2A foy;u dk pH 4 gSA ;fn vEy ds fy;s
Ka, 4.45 × 10–7 gks rks bl foy;u esa HA– vk;uksa dh
lkUnzrk gksxh&
(1) 0.01 M
(2) 4.45 × 10–5
(3) 8.0 × 10–5
(4) Kkr ugah dj ldrs
vfHkfØ;k esa fuEu izdkj lkE; LFkkfir gS
A(s) + B(g) + Heat
2C(s) + 2D(g) iqu% lkE;
LFkkfir djus ds fy;s B dk nkc nqxuq k fd;k x;k gSA
vc D fdl xq.kkad }kjk ifjofrZr gksxk &
3
An aqueous solution of non-electrolyte
containing 3.01 × 1023 molecules of solute in 250
gm of water will freeze at
(Kf = 1.86 k kg mol–1)
(1) 273 K
(2) 271.14 K
(3) 269.28 K
(4) 274.1 K
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Q.71
?ku esa] ijek.kq A izR;sd dksus ij rFkk ijek.kq B ,dkUrj
Qyd dsUæksa ij rFkk ijek.kq C dk; dsUnz ij fLFkr gks]
rks ;kSfxd dk ljyre v.kq lw=k gksxk&
(1) 2
Q.74
(2) 3
(3)
2
(4)
3
250 xzke ty esa 3.01 × 1023 foys; v.kq ;qDr
oS|qr-vuvi?kV~; tyh; foy;u fdl rki ij tesxk
(Kf = 1.86 k kg mol–1)
(1) 273 K
(2) 271.14 K
(3) 269.28 K
(4) 274.1 K
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An electric discharge is passed through a mixture
containing 50 cc of O2 and 50 cc of H2. The
volume of the gases formed
(i) at room temperature, (ii) at 110ºC will be
(1) (i) 25 cc (ii) 50 cc
(2) (i) 50 cc (ii) 75 cc
(3) (i) 25 cc (ii) 75 cc
(4) (i) 75 cc (ii) 75 cc
Q.75
Q.76
Q.77
For the cell,
Zn(s) | Zn2+ (aq) | | Cu2+ (aq) | Cu(s)
The cell potential Ecell can be increased :
(a) by increasing [Cu2+]
(b) by increasing [Zn2+]
(c) by decreasing [Cu2+]
(d) by decreasing [Zn2+]
(1) a, b
(2) a, d (3) b, c
(4) b, d
Match the Column-I with Column-II.
Column-I
Column-II
Q.75
(1) (i) 25 cc (ii) 50 cc
(2) (i) 50 cc (ii) 75 cc
(3) (i) 25 cc (ii) 75 cc
(4) (i) 75 cc (ii) 75 cc
Q.76
(b) Λm
(c) κ (kappa)
(r) Λºm Ca3(PO4)2
(a) [Cu2+] esa o`f) gksus ij
(b) [Zn2+] esa o`f} gksus ij
(c) [Cu2+] esa deh gksus ij
(d) [Zn2+] esa deh gksus ij
(1) a, b
Q.77
= 3λº Ca2+ + 2λº PO43–
1000
M
(d) α
(s) κ ×
(1) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
(3) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p
(2) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r
(4) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s
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lsy Zn(s) | Zn2+ (aq) | | Cu2+ (aq) | Cu(s) ds fy;s
lsy foHko Ecell esa o`f) gksxh :
(a) Kohlrausch law (p) Λm/Λºm
l
1
(q)
×
R A
,d fo|qr foltZu esa ls 50 cc, O2 rFkk 50 cc, H2 ;qDr
feJ.k dks xqtkjk tkrk gS] rks fufeZr xSlksa dk vk;ru
gksxk &
(i) dejs ds rki ij (ii) 110ºC ij
(2) a, d
(3) b, c
(4) b, d
LrEHk-I dk LrEHk-II ds lkFk feyku dhft;sA
LrEHk-I
LrEHk-II
(a)
(p) Λm/Λºm
(b) Λm
(q)
(c) κ (kappa)
(r) Λºm Ca3(PO4)2
= 3λº Ca2+ + 2λº PO43–
1000
(s) κ ×
M
(2) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r
(4) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s
(d) α
(1) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
(3) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p
l
1
×
R A
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Q.78
Which carbocation is most stabilised among
following ?
?
Q.78
⊕
⊕
(1)
⊕
(3)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(3)
⊕
⊕
Q.79
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OH
OH
Cl
OH
Br
⊕
?
(2)
(1)
Cl
OH
F
OH
(4)
(3)
(4)
Q.79
(2)
F
OH
(2)
⊕
Which of the phenol derivative is most acidic ?
OH
OH
(1)
⊕
(4)
(3)
I
Br
I
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25
Q.80
Which of the following pairs of compounds is a
ring-chain isomer ?
(1) CH3–CH–CH–CH3 and
OH OH
CH2Cl
Q.80
(1) CH3–CH–CH–CH3 rFkk
OH
OH
OH OH
CH2Cl
Cl
and
(2)
CH3
OH
COOH
(2)
(1)
O
I
CH3
OH
Q.81
COOH
I
O
rFkk
(3) CH2=CH–CH2–OH rFkk
CH3
CH2CH3
rFkk
(4)
CH3
Major product is :
I2/NaHCO3
COOH
(2)
O
COOH
I
O
I
I
eq[; mRikn gS :
I2/NaHCO3
(1)
I
O
O
I
O
(3)
OH
OH
Cl
(2)
(3) CH2=CH–CH2–OH and
CH3
CH2CH3
and
(4)
CH3
Q.81
fuEu esa ls ;kSfxdks dk dkSulk ;qXe oy;-J`a[kyk
leko;oh gS ?
(3)
(4)
O
O
I
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I
O
(4)
O
O
I
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Q.82
CH3
D
C=C
CH3
D
2 , Ni
H
→ Product is :
CH3
CH3
(1) D
H
Q.82
H
D
(2) H
D
CH3
D
H
CH3
D
CH3
D
2 , Ni
H
→ mRikn gS :
CH3
CH3
(1) D
H
CH3
H
D
(2) H
D
CH3
CH3
(3) H
H
C=C
D
D
(4) All of these
D
H
CH3
CH3
(3) H
H
CH3
D
D
(4) mijksDr lHkh
CH3
Q.83
Two gases P and Q both decolourise aqueous
bromine but only one of them gives white ppt
with Tollen’s reagent. P and Q are likely to be -
Q.83
nks xSls P o Q nksuksa tyh; czksehu dks jaxghu djrh
gS ijarq buesa ls dsoy ,d VkWysu vfHkdeZd ds lkFk
(1) H2C=CH2 and CH3–C≡C–CH3
'osr vo{ksi nsrh gSA P o Q gks ldrs gS -
(2) HC≡CH and CH3–CH2–C≡CH
(1) H2C=CH2 rFkk CH3–C≡C–CH3
(3) HC≡CH and CH3–C≡CH
(2) HC≡CH rFkk CH3–CH2–C≡CH
(4) CH3–CH2–C≡CH and CH3–C≡C–CH3
(3) HC≡CH rFkk CH3–C≡CH
(4) CH3–CH2–C≡CH rFkk CH3–C≡C–CH3
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27
OH
Q.84
.H 2SO 4
Conc

→ Major product is ∆
OH
Q.84
∆
(1)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these
(3)
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
O
O
Q.85
PhMgBr ( excess )
 ⊕ → (X); Product (X) is Cl–C–Cl
Q.85
PhMgBr ( excess )
Cl–C–Cl  ⊕ → (X); mRikn (X) gS H3O
H3O
O
O
O
O
(1) Ph–C–Cl
OH
(2) Ph–C–Ph
O
(1) Ph–C–Cl
OH
(2) Ph–C–Ph
O
(3) Ph–C–Ph
(4) Ph–C–O–Ph
(3) Ph–C–Ph
(4) Ph–C–O–Ph
Ph
Ph
Q.86
.H 2SO 4
Conc

→ eq[; mRikn gS -
In the following reaction the most probable
product will be Br
H
CH3 OH
SN2
H3C
H
C2H5
OH
CH3
CH
H
3
OH
(2) H
(1)
H 3C
H
H3C
H
C 2H 5
C2H5
CH3
C 2H 5
CH3 (4) HO
H
(3) H
H 3C
H
H 3C
H
OH
C2H5
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Q.86
fuEu vfHkfØ;k esa lokZf/kd laHkkfor mRikn gksxk Br
H
H3C
CH3
H
C2H5
OH
SN2
OH
(1) H
H 3C
CH3
H
C 2H 5
(3) H
H 3C
C 2H 5
CH3
H
OH
CH3
OH
(2) H
H3C
H
C2H5
(4) HO
H 3C
CH3
H
H
C2H5
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Q.87
What would be the major product of the
following reaction O
CH3O
H3C
H
CH3OH
Ph
(3) H3C
Ph
(1)
(3)
O
(a)
(2)
(1)
(4) No reaction
(3)
(b)
Q.89
(c)
(d)
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H (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
OCH3
(2)
O
(4) vfHkfØ;k ugha
fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd HNO2 ls mipkfjr fd;s
tkus ij f}rh;d ,YdksgkWy cukrk gS ?
NH2
(1)
NH2
Ph
KMnO4
→ ?
OH  
Q.88
(2)
NH2
O
O
NH2
CH3
OH
(2) Ph
C C H
Ph
OCH3
OCH3
(3) H3C
Ph
Which one among the following is expected to
form a secondary alcohol on treatment with
HNO2 ?
NH2
H Ph
OCH3
Ph
KMnO 4
→ ?
OH  
Q.88
Ph
(1) H3C
Ph
H (4) None of these
OCH3
CH3O
CH3OH
H
OH
CH3
OH
(2) Ph
C C H
Ph
OCH3
OCH3
OCH3
O
Ph
H Ph
(1) H3C
Ph
fuEu vfHkfØ;k dk eq[; mRikn D;k gksxk H3C
Ph
OH
Q.89
Q.87
(3)
NH2
NH2
(4)
NH2
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Q.90
(1) only d
(2) a and b
(1) dsoy d
(2) a o b
(3) c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
(3) c o d
(4) a, b, c o d
Which of the following is the strongest bronsted
acid ?
Q.90
N
(1)
NH2
(2)
fuEu esa ls dkSulk izcyre czksULVsM vEy gS ?
N
(1)
NH2
N
N H
(2)
H
(4)
NH2
O
O
(3)
NH2
N
(4)
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(3)
N H
N
N
H
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BIOLOGY
Q.91
Q.92
In one strand of DNA the sequence of bases is
AAATGGCCCTT, then the complementary
sequence of bases on the other side of the strand
would be (1) ATATGGCCCCA (2) TTTACCGGGAA
(3) TTTTGGCCAAA (4) TTTTGGCCCAA
Q.91
You take E. coli that has grown in a medium
containing only heavy nitrogen (15N) and
transfer a sample to a medium containing light
nitrogen (14N). After allowing time for two
generation, you centrifuge the sample in cesium
chloride density gradient. Which band location
would support the semiconservative DNA
replication after two generation -
Q.92
DNA
dh
,d
LVªs.M
esa
{kkjdksa
dk
AAATGGCCCTT gS] rks LVªs.M ds nwljs rjQ
{kkjdksa dk lEiwjd Øe gksuk pkfg, (1) ATATGGCCCCA (2) TTTACCGGGAA
(3) TTTTGGCCAAA (4) TTTTGGCCCAA
bZ- dksykbZ
( N) okys ek/;e esa of/kZr fd;k x;k rFkk gYds
ukbVªkstu (14N) okys ek/;e esa LFkkukUrfjr fd;kA
nks ihf<+;ksa dh vof/k ds ckn vkius uewuk lhft;e
DyksjkbM ?kuRo izo.krk esa vidsUnz.k fd;kA nks ih<+h
ds ckn dkSulh cS.M fLFkfr v)Zlajf{kr DNA
izfrd`frdj.k dks lkeF;Z nsxh 15
(1)
(1)
15
N15N
15
N15N
(2)
(2)
14
N15N
14
N15N
(3)
(3)
14
N14N
14
N14N
14
N15N
14
N15N
(4)
(4)
14
N14N
14
N15N
14
N14N
15
N15N
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Øe
14
N15N
15
N15N
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Q.93
Cymose inflorescence is identified by (1) Basipetal arrangement of flowers on the
main axis (peduncle)
(2) The limited growth of the main axis in a
flower
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Presence of sessile flower
Q.93
llhek{kh iq"iØe igpkuk tkrk gS (1) eq[; v{k (iq"ikoyh o`Ur) ij iq"i ds
rykfHklkjh foU;kl }kjk
(2) iq"i esa eq[; v{k dh lhfer o`f) }kjk
(3) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
(4) vo`Urh iq"i dh mifLFkfr }kjk
Q.94
At the two ends of the embryonal axis, are
present in dicot seeds (1) The endosperm
(2) Coleorrhiza and coleoptile
(3) Radicle and plumule
(4) Epicarp
Q.94
f}chti=kh chtksa esa Hkzw.kh; v{k ds nksuksa fljksa ij
mifLFkr gksrk gS (1) Hkzw.kiks"k
(2) ewykadqj pksy rFkk izkadqj pksy
(3) ewykadqj rFkk izkadqj
(4) ckáQy fHkfÙk
Q.95
Grass stem elongates after initial growth due to (1) Lateral meristem
(2) Secondary meristem
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) Apical meristem
Q.95
izkjfEHkd o`f) ds ckn ?kkl LrEHk of/kZr gksrk gS (1) ik'ohZ; foHkT;ksrd ds dkj.k
(2) f}rh;d foHkT;ksrd ds dkj.k
(3) vUroZs'kh foHkT;ksrd ds dkj.k
(4) 'kh"kZLFk foHkT;ksrd ds dkj.k
Q.96
The correct order of chemical composition of
living tissues / cells in term of % of the total
cellular mass is (1) Nucleic acid > Proteins > H2O > Carbohydrate
> Ions > Lipid
(2) H2O > Proteins > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate >
Lipid > Ions
(3) H2O > Proteins > Carbohydrate > Nucleic
acid > Lipid > Ions
(4) Lipid > Ions > Carbohydrate > H2O >
Proteins > Nucleic acid
Q.96
dqy dksf'kdh; lagfr izfr'krrk ds vFkZ ds lanHkZ esa
thfor Årdksa@dksf'kdkvksa ds jklk;fud laxBu dk
lgh Øe gS (1) U;qfDyd vEy > izksVhu > H2O > dkckZsgkbMªsV >
vk;u > fyfiM
(2) H2O > izksVhu > U;qfDyd vEy > dkckZsgkbMªsV >
fyfiM > vk;u
(3) H2O > izksVhu > dkckZsgkbMªsV > U;qfDyd vEy >
fyfiM > vk;u
(4) fyfiM > vk;u > dkckZsgkbMªsV > H2O > izksVhu >
U;qfDyd vEy
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Q.97
Which of the following statements was not
explained in the cell theory given jointly by
Schleiden and Schwann ?
(1) All living organisms are composed of cells
and products of cells
(2) Cell is the structural and functional unit of
living organisms
(3) Explanation of formation of new cells
(4) None
Q.97
'ykbMu rFkk 'oku }kjk la;qä :i ls fn;s x,
dksf'kdk fl)kar esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku ugha
le>k;k x;k gS ?
(1) lHkh ltho dksf'kdkvksa rFkk dksf'kdk ds mRiknksa
ds cus gSa
(2) dksf'kdk lthoksa dh lajpukRed rFkk dk;kZRed
bdkbZ gS
(3) ubZ dksf'kdkvksa ds fuekZ.k dh O;k[;k
(4) dksbZ ugha
Q.98
RNA is found in all of the following structures
except (1) Prokaryotic cell
(2) Nucleus, chloroplast and mitochondria
(3) Vacuole
(4) Ribosomes, HIV, TMV
Q.98
fdlds vfrfjä RNA fuEu lHkh lajpukvksa esa ik;k
tkrk gS (1) izksdsfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk
(2) dsUnzd] gfjryod rFkk ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k
(3) fjfädk
(4) jkbckslkse, HIV, TMV
The importance of synapsis and the formation of
chiasmata is that (1) Reciprocal exchange of chromosomal
sections occurs
(2) The DNA on homologous chromosomes mix
(3) As a result an increase in the variation of
progeny occurs
(4) All of the above
Q.100 How many generations are looked in a
gymnospermic seed (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
Q.99
fluSfIll ds egRo rFkk dk,Tek ds fuekZ.k esa (1) xq.klw=kh; [k.Mksa dk O;qRØe fofue; gksrk
gS
(2) letkr xq.klw=kksa ij DNA fefJr gksrs gSa
(3) ifj.kkeLo:i larfr dh fofHkUurk esa o`f) gksrh
gS
(4) mijksä lHkh
Q.99
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Q.100 vuko`rchth; cht esa fdruh ihf<+;k¡ fn[kkbZ nsrh
gSa (1) ,d
(2) nks
(3) rhu
(4) pkj
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Q.101 Which of the following will form torula stage in
excess of sugary substances (2) Rhizopus
(1) Yeast
(3) Penicillium
(4) Neurospora
Q.101 fuEu esa ls dkSu 'kdZjk inkFkZ dh vf/kdrk esa
Vks:yk voLFkk cuk,xk (1) ;hLV
(2) jkbtksil
(3) isfuflfy;e
(4) U;wjksLiksjk
Q.102 Fertilization tube is formed in case of (1) Planogametic copulation
(2) Gametangial copulation
(3) Gametangial contact
(4) Spermatization
Q.102
Q.103 Number of species that are known and described
is (1) 15 to 16 million (2) 16 to 17 million
(3) 1.7 to 1.8 million (4) 18 to 19 million
Q.103 tkfr;ksa dh la[;k tks Kkr rFkk of.kZr gS -
Q.104 Taxonomic hierarchy was introduced by (1) Ernst Mayr
(2) John Ray
(3) Linnaeus
(4) A.P. de Candolle
Q.104 ofxZdh inkuqØe izLrqr fd;k x;k (1) vULVZ es;j }kjk
(2) tkWu js }kjk
(3) fyuh;l }kjk
(4) ,-ih- Mh dUMksys }kjk
Q.105 In slime moulds cell wall is present in (1) Plasmodium
(2) Pseudoplasmodium
(3) Spores
(4) All of these
Q.105 Lykbe ekWYM~l esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk mifLFkr gksrh gS (1) IykTeksfM;e esa
(2) dwV IykTeksfM;e esa
(3) chtk.kqvksa esa
(4) mijksä lHkh
Q.106 Reduction division in Funaria occurs in (1) Antheridial cell
(2) Archgonial cell
(3) Spore mother cell
(4) Zygote
Q.106 ¶;qusfj;k
(1)
(2)
(3)
`
(4) ;qXeut esa
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) 15 ls 16 fefy;u
(2) 16 ls 17 fefy;u
(3) 1.7 ls 1.8 fefy;u (4) 18 ls 19 fefy;u
-
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Q.107 A. Pteris and Cycas resemble in presence of
pollen tube.
B. Fern differs from Selaginella in occurence
of homospory.
(1) A & B both are correct
(2) A & B both are incorrect
(3) A correct & B incorrect
(4) A incorrect, B correct
Q.108 Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
answer List-I
List-II
(Common name)
(Scientific name)
A. White rust
e. Puccinia graminis
B. Yellow rust
f. Puccinia triticina
C. Brown rust
g. Puccinia glumarum
D. Black rust
h. Albugo candida
(1) A = h, B = f, C = g, D = e
(2) A = g, B = f, C = h, D = e
(3) A = h, B = g, C = f, D = e
(4) A = g, B = f, C = e, D = h
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Q.107 A.
B.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A
A
A
A
B
B
B
B
Q.108 lwph-I dks lwph-II ds lkFk lqesfyr dhft, rFkk lgh
mÙkj pqfu;s lwph-I
lwph-II
(lkekU; uke)
(oSKkfud uke)
A.
e. ifDlfu;k xzsfeful
B.
f. ifDlfu;k fVªfVfluk
C.
g. ifDlfu;k Xyqesje
D.
h. ,Ycqxks dsfUMMk
(1) A = h, B = f, C = g, D = e
(2) A = g, B = f, C = h, D = e
(3) A = h, B = g, C = f, D = e
(4) A = g, B = f, C = e, D = h
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Q.109 Match the different-types of spores listed under
column-I with the names of the organism given
under column-II. Choose the answer which
gives the correct combination of the alphabets of
the two columns -
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
List-I
(Spores)
Ascopores
Endospore
Auxospore
Basidiospore
A = s, B = r,
A = s, B = p,
A = s, B = p,
A = s, B = p,
-I
Q.109
-II
-I
List-II
(Organisms)
p. Diatoms
q. Agaricus
r Bacteria
s. Neurospora
C = p, D = q
C = r, D = q
C = q, D = r
C = r, D = q
-II
(chtk.kq)
(vo;o)
A.
p.
B.
q.
C.
r
D.
s.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A = s,
A = s,
A = s,
A = s,
-
B = r,
B = p,
B = p,
B = p,
C = p,
C = r,
C = q,
C = r,
D=q
D=q
D=r
D=q
CO2
-
Q.110 The CO2 acceptor molecule in Calvin-Benson
pathway is (1) Phospho-glyceric acid
(2) Phospho-enol pyruvic acid
(3) RuBP
(4) OAA
Q.110
Q.111 How many oxidations reactions during one kreb's
cycle leads to reduction of Coenzyme NAD (1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 8
(4) 5
Q.111 ,d ØsCl pØ esa fdruh vkWDlhdj.k vfHkfØ;kvksa ls
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(1)
(2)
-
(3) RuBP
(4) OAA
dks,atkbe NAD dk vip;u gksrk gS (1) 6
(3) 8
(2) 3
(4) 5
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Q.112 During the oxidative phosphorylation the ATP
are synthesized when (1) Electrons are influxed to mitochondrial
matrix
(2) Protons are effluxed to perimitochondrial
space
(3) Electrons are effluxed to perimitochondrial
space
(4) Protons are influxed to mitochondrial matrix
Q.112 vkWDlhdkjh QkWLQksfjyhdj.k ds nkSjku ATP la'ysf"kr
gksrs gSa tc (1) bysDVªkWuksa dk ekbVksdksafMª;y esfVªDl esa varZokâ
Q.113 A characteristic feature of ripening of some
fruits like banana is a sudden increase in
respiration which is known as (1) Climacteric
(2) Anthesis
(3) Climatic
(4) Photorespiration
Q.113 'olu esa vpkud o`f) dqN Qyks ds idus tSlsdsyk dk yk{kf.kd y{k.k ('olu esa o`f)) gSA bls
Q.114 Which 5-carbon organic acid of the Krebs' cycle
is a key compound in the N2 metabolism of a
cell ?
(1) Citric acid
(2) Fumaric acid
(3) Oxalosuccinic acid
(4) α-ketoglutaric acid
Q.114 ,d dksf'kdk ds N2 mikip; esa ØsCl pØ dk
dkSulk 5-c dkcZfud vEy dqath ;kSfxd gksrk gS \
Q.115 Ringing experiment proved that (1) Water conduction by xylem
(2) Food conduction by phloem
(3) Ascent of sap by cortex
(4) Root pressure
Q.115 oy;dj.k iz;ksx izekf.kr djrk gS fd :
(1) tkbye ds }kjk ty lapj.k gksrk gS
(2) ¶yks,e ds }kjk [kk| lapj.k gksrk gS
(3) oYdqV ls jl dk vkjksg.k gksrk gS
(4) ewy nkc
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gksrk gS
(2) çksVkWuksa dk ijk ekbVksdksafMª;y vodk'k esa
cfgZokâ gksrk gS
(3) bysDVªkWuksa dk ijkekbVksdkafMª;y vodk'k esa
cfgZokâ gksrk gS
(4) çksVkWuksa dk ekbVksdkasfMª;y esfVªDl esa varZokâ
dgk tkrk gS &
(1) DykbesDVsfjd
(3) DykbesfVd
(2) ijkxd.kksa dk cuuk
(4) çdk'kh; 'olu
(1) flVªhd vEy
(2) ¶;wesfjd vEy
(3) vkDlsykslDlhfud vEy
(4) α-fdVksX;qVsfjd vEy
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Q.116 Choose the odd match (1) Ophyres orchid – ophyres bee
(2) Yucca moth – Yucca plant
(3) Sea anemone – clown fish
(4) Copepodes – marine fishes
Q.116 fo"ke lqesy dks pqfu;s (1) vksQfjl vkWfdZM+ – vksQfjl eD[kh
(2) ;Ddk eksFk – ;Ddk ikni
(3) leqnzh ,fueksu – Dyksu eNyh
(4) vfj=kikn – leqnzh ehu
Q.117 '0/–' the given kind of community interaction is
(1) Commensalism
(2) Amensalism
(3) Competition
(4) Parasitism
Q.117 '0/–' fn x;h lkeqnkf;d vUrZfØ;k dk izdkj gS (1) lgHkksftrk
(2) varjtkrh; ijthfork
(3) Li/kkZ
(4) ijthfork
Q.118 How many of the following statements are
correct regarding functions of ecosystem A. Only 3-4 trophic levels are possible in a
ecosystem
B. A organism can occupy more than one
trophic levels at a time in ecosystem
C. Detritous food chains are major conduit of
energy transfer in aquatic ecosystems
D. Nitrogen is chief nutrient acts as limiting
factor for productivity of oceans
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1
Q.118 ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k ds dk;Z ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls
Q.119 Which of the following is not a in situ
conservation strategy (1) Biosphere reserves
(2) Sacred grooves
(3) Germplasm collection
(4) National parks
Q.119
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fdrus dFku lR; gSa A. ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k esa dsoy 3-4 iks"kd Lrj gh
lEHko gSSA
B. ,d tho] ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k esa ,d gh le; ij
,d ls vf/kd iks"kd Lrjksa ij jg ldrk gSA
C. tyh; ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k esa vijn [kk| J`a[kyk
ÅtkZ LFkkukUrj.k dk eq[; lUuky gSaA
D. ukbVªkstu leqnz dh mRikndrk ds fy, eq[; iks"kd gS
tks fd lhekdkjh dkjd dh rjg dk;Z djrk gSA
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1
-
fuEu esa ls dkSulh Lo LFkkus
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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Q.120 Which of the following U.V. rays are most
harmful for organisms (1) U.V.A.
(2) U.V.B
(3) U.V.C
(4) None
Q.120 fuEu esa ls dkSulh U.V. fdj.ksa tho ds fy,
lokZf/kd gkfudkjd gSa (1) U.V.A.
(2) U.V.B.
Q.121 From the total incident light the percent of light
energy conserved in biomass of plants is (1) 50 %
(2) 1-5 %
(3) 2-10 %
(4) 0.8-4 %
Q.121 dqy vkirhr izdk'k esa ls fdruh izfr'kr izdkf'kd
Q.122
Q.122
(3) U.V.C.
ÅtkZ dk ikniksa ds tSoHkkj esa laj{k.k gksrk gS (1) 50 %
(3) 2-10 %
(2) 1-5 %
(4) 0.8-4 %
A
A
C
D
C
D
B
B
The labelled A B C D respectively represents(1) Egg cell, synergids, antipodals, polar
nuclei
(2) Synergids, polar nuclei, antipodals, egg
cell
(3) Antipodals, synergids, polar nuclei, egg
cell
(4) Polar nuclei, synergids, antipodals, egg
cell
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(4) dksbZ ugha
js[kkafdr A B C D Øe'k% iznf'kZr djrs gS (1) vaM dksf'kdk, lgk;d dksf'kdk, izfreq[kh dksf'kdk,¡,
/kqoz h; dsUnzd
dksf'kdka,, /kqoz h; dsUnzd, izfreq[kh
dksf'kdk,, vaM dksf'kdk
(3) izfreq[kh dksf'kdk,¡, lgk;d dksf'kdka,, /kqo
z h;
dsUnzd, vaM dksf'kdk
(4) /kqo
z h; dsUnzd, lgk;d dksf'kdka,, izfreq[kh
dksf'kdk,¡, vaM dksf'kdk
(2) lgk;d
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Q.123 Biofortification is not associated with (1) Improving protein content and quality
(2) Improving oil content and quality
(3) Improving vitamin content
(4) Improving resistance against abiotic stresses
Q.123 tSoiqf"Vdj.k fuEu ds lkFk lacaf/kr ugh gS (1) izksVhu dh ek=kk o xq.koÙkk esa mUUkfr
(2) rsy dh ek=kk o xq.koÙkk esa mUUkfr
(3) foVkfeu dh ek=kk esa mUufr
(4) vtSfod ncko ds fo:) izfrjks/kdrk esa mUufr
Q.124 The viability of pollen grains of rice and wheat
after their release is(1) 1 - 2 day
(2) 10 - 15 days
(3) 1/2 - 1 Hr
(4) One month
Q.124 pkoy o xsgw¡ ds ijkx.k eqDr gksus ds i'pkr~ mudh
thou {kerk gksrh gS (1) 1 - 2 fnu
(2) 10 - 15 fnu
(3) 1/2 - 1 ?kUVk
(4) ,d eghuk
Q.125 A-Pusa komal and B-Pusa sadabahar are the
crop varieties of (1) A-cowpea B-Brassica
(2) A-Chilli B-Cowpea
(3) A-Cowpea B-Chilli
(4) A-Chilli B-Cauliflower
Q.125 A-iqlk dksey o B-iqlk lnkcgkj] fuEu Qly dh
fdLesa gS (1) A-p¡oyh B-czsfldk
(2) A-fephZ B-p¡oyh
(3) A-po¡yha B-fephZ
(4) A-fephZ B-QwyxksHkh
Q.126 The nitrogenase enzyme catalysed reaction is (1) α-ketoglutarate + NH4+ + NADPH2 →
Glutamate + H2O + NADP
(2) N ≡ N → 2NH3
(3) OAA + Glutamate → Aspartate +
α-ketoglutarate
–
(4) NO3 → NH3
Q.126 ukbVªksftust ,Utkbe ls mRizsfjr vfHkfØ;k gS (1) α-dhVksXywVsjsV + NH4+ + NADPH2 →
XywVsesV + H2O + NADP
(2) N ≡ N → 2NH3
(3) OAA + XywVsesV → ,LijVsV +
α-dhVksXywVsjsV
–
(4) NO3 → NH3
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Q.127 The cell maturation activity of plant growth is
represented by which point of given growth
curve ?
Q.127 fn;s x;s o`f) oØ esa ikniksa dh o`f) dh dksf'kdk
ifjiDou fØ;k fdl fcUnq }kjk n'kkZ;h x;h gS ?
C
C
B
B
A
A
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) None of the above
Q.128 Lack of pulmonary surfactant causes (1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Cystic fibrosis
(4) Respiratory distress syndrome
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(1) A
(3) C
(2) B
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.128 iYeksujh lQZsDVsUV ugha gksus ds dkj.k gksrk gS (1) vLFkek
(2) ,EQk;lhek
(3) flfLVd Qksbczksfll
(4) 'oluh; fMLVªsl flaMªkse
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Q.129 This question is based on following diagram of a
mammalian nephron -
I.
II.
III.
IV.
(1)
Q.129 fuEu iz'u Lruh; usÝksu ds fp=k ij vk/kkfjr gS -
Name the part in which the cells contain
numerous mitochondria ?
Which has the highest concentration of
proteins ?
Which is the target of ADH ?
Name that contains increasing osmotic
gradient ?
I
II
III
IV
B, D, E
A
E
C
I.
ml Hkkx dk uke fyf[k, ftldh dksf'kdkvksa esa
dbZ lkjs ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k ik;s tkrs gSa ?
II. fdlesa lokZf/kd izksVhu dh lkanzrk gS ?
III. ADH dk y{; dkSulk gS ?
IV. ml vo;o dk uke fyf[k;s tks ijklj.k izo.krk
dks c<+krk gS ?
I
(1) B, D, E
II
A
III
E
IV
C
(2) B, D, C
A
E
D
(2) B, D, C
A
E
D
(3) A, D, E
B
E
C
(3) A, D, E
B
E
C
(4) A, D, E
B
D
C
(4) A, D, E
B
D
C
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Q.130 The diagram below shows how things get to and
Q.130 fn;s x, ;d`r ds fp=k esa lajpuk – a, b, c, d, e o f
from the liver. They are labelled as a, b, c, d and
ds izos'k ,oa fu"dklu dks n'kkZ;k x;k gSA fuEu esa ls
f. Which one of the following labellings is the
correct one ?
dkSulk vadu lgh gS &
(1) 'a' is the hepatic portal vein and 'e' is the
hepatic vein
(2) 'c' is the intestine and 'f' is the hepatic vein
(3) 'd' is the hepatic portal vein and 'f' is the
hepatic vein
(4) 'b' is the pancreatic artery and 'e' is the
hepatic artery
(1) 'a' fgisfVd iksVZy f'kjk gS rFkk 'e' fgisfVd f'kjk
Q.131 Match the following A. Outermost layer 1.
B. Gives scent
2.
C. Protects from
3.
UV rays
D. Produces sebum 4.
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(3) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-4
(4) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-4
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gS
(2) 'c' vkar gS rFkk 'f' fgisfVd f'kjk gS
(3) 'd' fgisfVd iksVZy f'kjk gS rFkk 'f' fgisfVd f'kjk
gS
(4) 'b' vXuk'k;h /keuh gS rFkk 'e' fgisfVd /keuh
gS
Q.131 fuEu dk lqesfyr dhft;s -
Anal gland
Melanocytes
Sebaceous gland
A. ckgjh ijr
B. lqxa/k nsrs gSa
C. UV fdj.kksa
Stratum corneum
ls lqj{kk
D. lhce mRiknu
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A-1,
A-4,
A-4,
A-4,
B-2,
B-1,
B-1,
B-2,
1. ,uy xzafFk
2. feysukslkbV
3. flcsf'k;l xzafFk
C-3,
C-2,
C-3,
C-3,
4. LVªsVe dksfuZ;e
D-4
D-3
D-4
D-4
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Q.132 Which one of the following acids was produced
by fermentation ?
(1) Citric acid
(2) Lactic acid
(3) Acetic acid
(4) All above
Q.132 fd.ou ds }kjk dkSulk vEy mRiUu fd;k x;k ?
(1) flfVªd vEy
(2) ysfDVd vEy
(3) ,sflfVd vEy
(4) mijksDr lHkh
Q.133 Following is used in the production of leavened
bread (1) Aspergillus
(2) Rhizopus
(3) Saccharomyces (4) None above
Q.133 [kehj czsM ds mRiknu esa fdldks mi;ksx esa fy;k
tkrk gS (1) ,sLijftyl
(2) jkbtksil
(3) lSdjksek;flt
(4) dksbZ ugha
Q.134 What are important products of yeast
fermentation ?
(1) Ethanol and acetic acid
(2) Butanol, glycerol and pyric acid
(3) Phenylethanol, amylalcohol and caproi
acid
(4) All of the above
Q.135 Biogas contains (2) Traces of CH4
(1) 50-70% CH4
(3) 30-40% CH4
(4) 80% C2H6
Q.134 ;hLV fd.ou dk eq[; mRikn D;k gS ?
(1) bFksukWy ,oa ,lhfVd vEy
(2) C;qVsukWy, Xyhljksy ,oa ik;jhd vEy
(3) fQuk;ybFksukWy, ,ek;y,Ydksgy ,oa dsizksbZ vEy
(4) mijksDr lHkh
Q.136 A major component of gobar gas is (1) Ammonia
(2) Methane
(3) Ethane
(4) Butane
Q.136 xkscj xSl dk eq[; vo;o gS (1) veksfu;k
(2) feFksu
(3) bFksu
(4) C;qVsu
Q.137 The first step in production of insulin using
E. coli is (1) Isolation of mRNA transcribing for insulin
from pancreas cell
(2) Isolation of nucleotides transcribing for
insulin from pancreas cell
(3) Isolation of gene producing insulin from
human DNA
(4) Attachment of gene producing insulin from
human DNA to plasmid using ligase
Q.137 bUlqfyu ds bZ- dksykbZ ds mi;ksx }kjk mRiknu dk
izFke pj.k gS (1) mRNA dk i`FkDdj.k vXuk'k;h dksf'kdk }kjk
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Q.135 ck;ksxSl esa gksrk gS (1) 50-70% CH4
(3) 30-40% CH4
(2) Traces of CH4
(4) 80% C2H6
bUlqfyu ds fy;s
(2) U;qfDy;ksVkbM dk i`FkDdj.k vXuk'k;h dksf'kdk
}kjk bUlqfyu ds fy;s
(3) bUlqfyu fuekZ.k djus okys thu dk i`FkDdj.k
ekuo DNA ls
(4) blqfyu fuekZ.k djus okys thu dk layXu ekuo
DNA ls IykfTeM esa ykbxst ds mi;ksx }kjk
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Q.138 Maximum application of animal cell culture
technology today is in the production of (1) Insulin
(2) Interferons
(3) Vaccines
(4) Edible proteins
Q.138 tUrq dksf'kdk lao/kZu rduhd dk vf/kdre vuqiz;ksx
mRiknu }kjk (1) bUlqfyu ds
(2) bUVjQsjkWu
(3) osDlhu
(4) [kk| izksVhu
Q.139 A. Yeasts such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae
are used in paking industry
R. Carbon
dioxide
produced
during
fermentation causes bread dough to rise by
thermal expansion
(1) A is correc and R is its explanation
(2) A is correct and R is not its expansion
(3) A is correct and R is wrong
(4) A and R both are wrong
Q.139 A.
Q.140 The first cloned sheep is (1) Dolly
(2) Polly
(3) Molly
(4) Holly
Q.140
Q.141 In sexual reproduction, fusion of gametes lead
to formation of (1) Zygote
(2) Morula
(3) Ovum
(4) Blastula
Q.141 ySafxd tuu esa] ;qXedksa dk ;qXeu fuekZ.k djrk gS -
Q.142 Capacitation means (1) Spermiogenesis
(2) Formation of ovum coverings
(3) Development of egg to meet the sperm
(4) Activation of sperm to fertilize the egg
Q.142 lkeF;Zdj.k dk vFkZ gS (1) 'kqØk.kqtuu
(2) v.M vkoj.k dk fuekZ.k
(3) 'kqØk.kq ls feyus ds fy;s v.M dk fodkl
(4) v.M fu"ksfpr djus ds fy;s 'kqØk.kq dk lfØ;.k
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lSdsjksekbflt lfoZlht
R.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A
A
A
A
R
R
R
R
-
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(1) ;qXeut
(2) eks:yk
(3) v.M
(4) CykLVqyk
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Q.143 Parturition is controlled by (1) Oxytocin
(2) FSH
(3) Relaxin
(4) Oestrogen
Q.143
Q.144 The mammalian corpus luteum produces (1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Luteotropic hormone
(4) Luteinizing hormone
Q.144 Lruh; dkiZl Y;qfV;e mRiUu djrk gS (1) bLVªkstu
(2) izkstsLVsjksu
(3) Y;qfV;ksVªksfQd gkekZsu
(4) Y;qfVukbftax gkekZsu
Q.145 Copper-T acts (1) By suppression of fertilization by forming a
membrane
(2) By disturbing the site of implantation of
blastocyst
(3) As a barrier
(4) None of these
Q.145 dkWij-T dk;Z djrk gS -
Q.146 Profuse, yellowish, greenish frothy smelling
discharge from vagina is due to infection of (1) Troponema pallidum
(2) Chlamydia
(3) Trichomonas vaginalis
(4) Neisseria
Q.146 vR;f/kd ek=kk es]a ihyk] gjk] fof'k"V xa/k okyk L=kko
;ksfu ls fdlds laØe.k ds dkj.k L=kkfor gksrk gS (1) Vªksiksfu;k isfyMe
(2) DysekbfM;k
(3) Vªkbdkseksukl csftusfyl
(4) fuLlsfj;k
Q.147 One of the following causes ovulation (1) LH
(2) ADH
(3) FSH
(4) Thyroxine
Q.147
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(1)
(3)
(2) FSH
(4)
(1) f>Yyh fuekZ.k }kjk fu"kspu lanfer djds
(2) CykLVksflLV jksi.k okys LFky dks fopfyr
djds
(3) ck/kk ds :i esa
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(1) LH
(2) ADH
(3) FSH
(4)
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Q.148 Development of amnion and chorion occurs
after which stage ?
(a) Gastrulation
(b) Neurulation
(c) Cleavage
(d) Blastulation
Which is correct
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (b)
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (d)
Q.148 ,fEu;ksu ,oa dksfj;ksu dk fodkl fdl izkoLFkk ds
i'pkr~ gksrk gS ?
(a) xsLVªwfyHkou
(b) raf=kdkHkou
Q.149 Seminal fluid consists of the following I. Spermatozoa
II. Spermatids
III. Seminal plasma IV. Semen
Pick the correct one.
(1) I
(2) II
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I and II
Q.149 lsfeuy nzo cuk gksrk gS II. LiZesfVM
I. LiZesVkstksvk
Q.150 The H-zone in a sarcomere contain (1) Actin but no-myosin
(2) Myosin but no actin
(3) Both actin & myosin
(4) Neither actin nor myosin
Q.150 lkdkZseh;j esa H-{ks=k cuk gksrk gS (1) ,fDVu ysfdu ek;ksflu ds ugha
(2) ek;ksflu ysfdu ,fDVu ds ugha
(3) nksuksa] ,fDVu rFkk ek;ksflu
(4) u rks ,fDVu ds vkSj u gh ek;ksflu ds
Q.151 Harderian gland are absent in (1) Frog
(2) Birds
(3) Man
(4) Man and rabbit
Q.151 gkjfMjh;u xzfa Fk;k¡ fdlds us=kksa esa vuqifLFkr gksrh gSa (1) esa<d esa
(2) if{k;ksa esa
(3) euq"; esa
(4) euq"; rFkk [kjxks'k esa
Q.152 Receptor for protein hormone are found (1) On the surface of mitochondria
(2) On the surface of nucleus
(3) Inside the cytoplasm
(4) On the surface of cell membrane
Q.152 izksVhu gkWekZsu ds fy;s xzkgh ik;s tkrs gSa (1) ekbVksdksfUMª;k dh lrg ij
(2) dsUnzd dh lrg ij
(3) dksf'kdknzO; ds Hkhrj
(4) dksf'kdk dyk dh lrg ij
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(c) fonyu
(d) CykLVwfyHkou
dkSulk lgh gS
(1) (a) o (c)
(3) (a) o (b)
(2) (b)
(4) (d)
III. lsfeuy IykTek
IV. oh;Z
lgh dks pqfu;s
(1) I
(3) I, III o IV
(2) II
(4) I o II
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Q.153 Which part of brain is absent in frog (1) Hypothalamus
(2) Corpus albicans
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Medulla oblongata
Q.153 efLr"d dk dkSulk Hkkx esa<+d esa vuqifLFkr gksrk gS(2) dkWiZl ,fYcdsUl
(1) gkbiksFkSysel
(3) lsfjcsye
(4) esM~;wyk vkWCykasxsVk
Q.154 In the stomach, maximum gastric glands are
present in (1) Cardiac part
(2) Fundic part
(3) Pyloric part
(4) All the above
Q.154 vkek'k; esa vf/kdre tBj xzafFk;k¡ ik;h tkrh gSa -
Q.155 Three secretions meeting the food in small
intestine are (1) Bile, gastric juice and saliva
(2) Bile, pancreatic juice and gastric juice
(3) Pancreatic juice, intestinal juice and gastric juice
(4) Bile, pancreatic juice and sucus intericus
Q.155 rhu [k.M tks Hkkstu dks NksVh vka=k esa feykrs gSa -
Q.156 In the internal ear, the "organ of Corti" bearing
hair cells is located in (1) Scala media
(2) Scala tympani
(3) Scala vestibuli
(4) Sacculus
Q.156 vkUrfjd d.kZ esa] "dksVhZ ds vax" ;qä jkse dksf'kdk,a
fLFkr gksrh gS (1) Ldsyk ehfM;k
(2) Ldsyk fVEisuh
(3) Ldsyk osLVhcqyh
(4) lsD;qyl
Q.157 The waxy substance secreting sebaceous glands
present in skin of external auditory meatus are (1) Zeis gland
(2) Harderian gland
(3) Meibomian gland
(4) Ceruminous gland
Q.157 eksfe; inkFkZ L=kkfor djus okyh flcsf'k;l xazfFk tks
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(1) dkfMZ;d Hkkx esa
(2) QafMd Hkkx esa
(3) ikbyksfjd Hkkx esa
(4) mijksä lHkh esa
(1) fiÙk] tBj jl ,oa ykj
(2) fiÙk] vXuk'k;h jl ,oa tBj jl
(3) vXuk'k;h jl, vkaf=k; jl ,oa tBj jl
(4) fiÙk] vXuk'k;h jl ,oa ldl bUVsfjdl
fd ckgjh Jo.k feV~l dh Ropk esa mifLFkr gksrh gSa
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
t+hl xzafFk
gkMZsfj;u xzafFk
fecksfe;u xzafFk
fl:feul xzafFk
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Q.158 Place in the correct order the action of water
soluble hormones e.g. FSH
I. Physiological response e.g. ovarian growth
II. Biochemical response
III. Generation of second messenger
IV. Response-I
V. Hormone binds to plasma membrane bind
(1) I → II → III → IV → V
(2) V → IV → III → II → I
(3) V → IV → II → III → I
(4) I → II → V → III → IV
Q.158 ty foyk;d gkekZsu tSls FSH dh fØ;k dks lgh
Øe esa jf[k, I. dkf;Zdh; vuqfØ;k mnk0 v.Mk'k;h o`f)
II. tSo jlk;fud vuqfØ;k
III. f}rh;d lans'kokgd dh ih<+h
IV. vuqfØ;k-I
V. gkekZsu IykTek f>Yyh ls ca/krk gS
(1) I → II → III → IV → V
(2) V → IV → III → II → I
(3) V → IV → II → III → I
(4) I → II → V → III → IV
Q.159 Match the following structures of human eye
with their respective functions ?
Column-I
Column-II
A. Cornea
I. Provides opening for
light to enter
B. Iris
II. Transduces blue, green
and red light
C. Lens
III. Control the amount of
light that enters
D. Optic nerves IV. Alters the shape
of lens
E. Pupil
V. Transmit information
to the CNS
F. Ciliary
VI. Focus light directly on
muscles
retina
G. Fovea
VII. Bends light and
protects inner eye
Q.159 ekuo us=k dh lajpuk dk muds lEcfU/kr dk;Z ls
feyku dhft, ?
LrEHk-I
LrEHk-II
A.
I.
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B.
II.
C.
III.
D.
IV.
`
E.
V.
CNS
F.
VI.
G.
VII.
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A-VII, B-III, C-VI, D-V, E-I, F-IV, G-II
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V, F-VI, G-VII
A-VII, B-VI, C-V, D-IV, E-III, F-II, G-I
A-VII, B-IV, C-VI, D-V, E-I, F-III, G-II
Q.160 Observe the above diagram. Identify 1 to 8 -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
1
Q.160
(1) 1 – Temporal bone, 2 – Malleus,
3 – Incus, 4- Stapes, 5 – Cochlea,
6 – Eustachian tube, 7 – tympanic
membrane, 8 – External auditory canal
(2) 1 – Tympanic membrane, 2 -Malleus,
3 – Incus, 4 – Stapes, 5 – Cochelea,
6 – Eustachian tube, 7 – Temporal bone,
8 – External auditory canal
(3) 1 – Temporal bone, 2 – Incus, 3 – Malleus,
4 – Stapes, 5 – Cochlea, 6 – Eustachian
tube, 7 – Tympanic membrane,
8 – External auditory canal
(4) 1 – Temporal bone, 2 – Malleus, 3 – Incus,
4 – Cochlea, 5 – Stapes, 6 – Eustachian
tube, 7 – tympanic membrane,
8 – External auditory canal
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A-VII, B-III, C-VI, D-V, E-I, F-IV, G-II
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V, F-VI, G-VII
A-VII, B-VI, C-V, D-IV, E-III, F-II, G-I
A-VII, B-IV, C-VI, D-V, E-I, F-III, G-II
(1) 1 –
3–
6–
8–
(2) 1 –
3–
6–
8–
(3) 1 –
4–
7–
(4) 1 –
4–
, 4-
,4–
8
-
,2–
,5–
,7–
,
,2,5–
,7–
,
,
,
,
,2–
,3–
,6–
,8–
,2–
,3–
,5–
,6–
,
,
,5–
,
,
,
7–
,8–
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Q.161 Which is correct sequence ?
(1) Schizont → sporozoite → cryptozoite →
cryptomerozoite
(2) Sporozoite → cryptomerozoite →
cryptozoite → trophozoite
(3) Schizont → schizogony→ cryptomerozoite
→ metacryptomerozoite
(4) Schizont → schizozoite → cryptozoite →
cryptomerozoite
Q.161
→
→
→
(3)
(4)
(1) Arneth count is related to all granulocytes
(2) Monocytes can be stained by a neutral dye
(3) Leucopenia is lowering of monocyte and
neutrophil count only
→
→
→
→
→
→
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(4) All of the above
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→
→
(2)
Q.162
Q.162 Which is not correct w.r.t. Leucocytes ?
?
→
(1)
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Q.163 Which of the following RNA polymerase
catalyses the formation of t-RNA in eukaryotes?
(1) RNA polymerase I
(2) RNA polymerase II
(3) RNA polymerase I and II
(4) RNA polymerase III
Q.163
Q.164 Transcription refers to the (1) Transfer of genetic code or sequences of
DNA into RNA
(2) Formation of DNA from RNA
(3) Formation of protein
(4) Polymerisation of RNA in cell-free system
Q.164
Q.165 The chain initiating codon is (1) AUG
(2) UAG
(3) UAA
(4) UUA
Q.165
Q.166 Which one is correct ?
(1) DNA replication occurs before mitosis,
meiosis and amitosis
(2) The polarity of DNA template on which
leading strand forms is 3' → 5'
(3) The products of gene may be rRNA, tRNA
and mRNA
(4) All of the above
Q.166
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RNA
t-RNA
(1) RNA
(2) RNA
(3) RNA
(4) RNA
?
I
II
I
III
II
(1) RNA
(2) RNA
(3)
(4)
DNA
DNA
RNA
`
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
AUG
UAG
UAA
UUA
?
(1) DNA
(2) DNA
3' → 5'
(3)
`
rRNA, tRNA
mRNA
(4)
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Q.167 If T = tall and t = short, the genotype of an
animal with the ‘short’ phenotype must be (1) Tt
(2) TT
(3) tt
(4) t
Q.167
Q.168 If a person has one copy of each of two different
alleles for a given gene, the person is ..............
for that trait (1) Heterozygous
(2) Homozygous
(3) Recessive
(4) True-breeding
Q.168
Q.169 Which of the following statements is a basic
summary of Mendel's law ?
(1) All good human genetic traits are dominant,
and harmful traits are recessive
(2) The pattern of inherited characteristics of
organisms is not predictable
(3) Alleles separate into different gametes
during meiosis, and the separation of alleles
for one gene does not affect the separation
of alleles for other genes
(4) Recessive alleles cause the death of the
gamete
Q.169
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T=
t=
-
(1) Tt
(3) tt
(2) TT
(4) t
..............
-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
?
(1)
kh vPNs ekuoh; vkuqoaf'kd y{k.k izHkkoh rFkk
gkfudkjd y{k.k vizHkkoh gksrs gSa
(2) tUrqvksa ds oa'kkxr y{k.kksa dk isVuZ iwoZ
vuqekfur ugha gksrk
(3) v)Zlw=k.k ds nkSjku ;qXefodYih fHkUu&fHkUu
;qXedksa esa i`Fkd gksrs gSa rFkk ,d thu ds fy,
;qXefodfYi;ksa dk i`FkDdj.k vU; thu ds
fy, ;qXefodfYi;ksa ds i`FkDdj.k dk izHkko
ugha
Mkyrk
(4) vizHkkoh ;qXefodYih ;qXedksa dks ekj nsrs gSa
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Q.170 Which of the following statements is generally
true ?
(1) A dominant allele determines the phenotype
when paired with a recessive allele
(2) A recessive allele is weaker than a
dominant allele
(3) A recessive allele does not make its gene
product when paired with a dominant allele
(4) A dominant allele is always better for an
organism
Q.171 Which of the following represents the gametes
that can be formed by an individual with the
genetic makeup : FfGgHH
(1) FGH, FgH, fGH, fgH
(2) Ff, Gg, HH
(3) FG, FH, Fg, fH, fG, fg, GH, gH
(4) FfGhHH, FFGGHH, ffgghh
Q.172 In Mendel's model of particulate inheritance,
what he called ‘‘particles’’ we now refer to as (1) Genes
(2) Chromosomes
(3) Homozygotes
(4) Heterozygotes
Q.173 In a two hybrid cross punnet square represent (1) Allele segregation
(2) Blending inheritance
(3) Environmental influences on genes
(4) Independent assortment of factor
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Q.170 fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lkekU; :i ls lR; gS ?
(1) izHkkoh ;qXefodYih y{k.k iz:i dks fu/kkZfjr
djrk gS] tc vizHkkoh ;qXefodYih ds lkFk
;qfXer gksrk gS
(2) vizHkkoh ;qXefodYih izHkkoh ;qXefodYih dh
vis{kk detksj gksrk gS
(3) ,d izHkkoh ;qXefodYih vius thu mRikn ugha
cukrk] tc ;g izHkkoh ;qXefodYih ds lkFk
;qfXer gksrk gS
(4) izHkkoh ;qXefodYih thoksa ds fy, lnSo vPNk
gksrk gS
Q.171 fuEu esa ls dkSu ,slk ;qXed iznf'kZr djrk gS] tks
vkuqoaf'kd FfGgHH okys fo'ks"kd }kjk cuk gks
ldrk gS
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
FGH, FgH, fGH, fgH
Ff, Gg, HH
FG, FH, Fg, fH, fG, fg, GH, gH
FfGhHH, FFGGHH, ffgghh
Q.172 esaMy ds df.kdh; oa'kkxfr iz:i esa mlus ‘‘d.k’’
fdls dgk tks vc tkus tkrs gSa (1) thu
(2) xq.klw=k
(3) le;qXeut
(4) fo"ke;qXeut
Q.173 f}ladj ØkWl esa iqUusV LDok;j iznf'kZr djrk gS (1) ;qXefodYih i`FkDdj.k
(2) CysfMax oa'kkxfr
(3) thuksa ij okrkoj.kh; izHkkfork
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Q.174 Allergic condition caused by pollen grains of
certain flowers causing inflammation of the
nose is called (1) Laryngitis
(2) Rhinitis
(3) Pharyngitis
(4) Bronchities
Q.175 The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to (1) Thalamus
(2) Tonsil
(3) Thymus
(4) Thyroid
Q.176 Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism in
E coli and propsed operon concept, which is
applicable to (1) All prokaryotes
(2) All prokaryotes and some eukaryotes
(3) All prokaryotes and all eukaryotes
(4) All prokaryotes and some protozoans
Q.177 Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to
the (1) Entire codon
(2) First member of codon
(3) Second member of codon
(4) Third member of codon
Q.178 Which is most common problem of adolescence?
(1) Hypochondria
(2) Neuroasthenia
(3) Acne
(4) phobia
Q.179 Most common virus that infect human (1) Retro virus
(2) Adeno virus
(3) Rhino virus
(4) Pox virus
Q.180 HIV attach with CD-4 cell receptor by (1) GP-41
(2) P-18
(3) GP-120
(4) P-24
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(4) dkjdksa dk LorU=k viO;wgu ¼Lora=k la;ksx½
Q.174 dqN iq"iksa ds ijkxd.kksa }kjk ,yftZ gksrh gS] tks
ukd esa tyu djrh gS] dgykrh gS (1) ysfjaftfVl
(2) fjfufVl
(3) QsfjaftfVl
(4) czkWUdkbfVl
Q.175 T- fyEQkslkbV~l esa T dk vfHkizk; gS (1) Fksysel
(2) VkWfUly
(3) Fkkbel
(4) Fkk;jkWbM
Q.176 tSdc ,oa eksukWM us bZ- dksykbZ esa ysDVksl mikip;
dk v/;;u fd;k ,oa vksisjksu
tks fd ykxw gksrh gS (1) lHkh çksdsfj;ksV~l ij
(2) lHkh çksdsfj;ksV~l ,oa dqN
(3) lHkh çksdsfj;ksV~l ,oa lHkh
(4) lHkh çksdsfj;ksV~l ,oa dqN
ladYiuk çLrqr dh]
;qdsfj;ksV~l ij
;wdsfj;ksV~l ij
çksVkstksvu ij
Q.177 vkuqokaf'kd dwV dk viál gksus ds fy;s mÙkjnk;h gS (1) lEiw.kZ dksMksu
(2) dksMksu dk çFke lnL;
(3) dksMksu dk f}rh; lnL;
(4) dksMksu dk r`rh; lnL;
Q.178 fd'kksjkoLFkk dh vfrlkekU; leL;k dkSulh gS ?
(1) gkbiksdkasfMª;k
(2) U;wjks,LFksfu;k
(3) ,dus
(4) Qksfc;k
Q.179 lcls lkekU; fo"kk.kq tks ekuo dks laØfer djrk gS (1) fjVªks fo"kk.kq
(2) ,fMuks fo"kk.kq
(3) jkbuks fo"kk.kq
(4) iksDl fo"kk.kq
Q.180 HIV, CD-4 dksf'kdk xzkgh ls fdlds }kjk tqM+rk gS
(1) GP-41
(3) GP 120
(2) P-18
(4) P 24
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