Pierce College
Putman/NUTR& 101
Unit 04 Practice Exam: Carbohydrates
1. Which is not a monosaccharide?
a. lactose
b. glucose
c. fructose
d. galactose
2. Used for immediate energy in the body:
a. carbohydrates
b. fats
c. glucose
d. maltose
3. Most adults can’t digest:
a. galactose
b. lactose
c. starch
d. maltose
4. Which can you obtain through eating and digesting liver?
a. glucose
b. fructose
c. starch
d. sucrose
5. Bacteria can digest in the gut via fermentation; we cannot digest.
a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. soluble fiber
d. insoluble fiber
6. Minimum amount of digestible carbohydrate an individual needs in her diet:
a. 30 g
b. 65 g
c. 100 g
d. 130 g
7. Which food source contains the most insoluble fiber?
a. steak
b. whole wheat bread
c. white bread
d. potatoes
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8. Sweeter than glucose; body tends to store as fat rather than use it for energy:
a. maltose
b. galactose
c. starch
d. fructose
9. A structural element in leaves, stems, seeds, roots and fruit.
a. fiber
b. starch
c. glycogen
d. maltose
10. The average American should eat more sugars and white flour.
a. True!
b. False!
11. Including fiber in the diet helps people lose weight and maintain a healthy weight.
a. Yes, that’s right!
b. No, that’s wrong!
12. This sugar combines with glucose to make lactose and is, itself, turned into glucose by the
liver:
a. galactose
b. amylase
c. fructose
d. maltose
13. Found in sugar cane, sugar beets and most fruits:
a. lactose
b. glycogen
c. sucrose
d. galactose
14. The best source of dietary glucose:
a. pure glucose
b. sucrose
c. complex carbohydrates
d. fiber
15. A good source of soluble and insoluble fiber:
a. legumes
b. whole-grain barley and wheat
c. apples, bananas and pears
d. all the above!
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16. Part of milk sugar:
a. glucose
b. galactose
c. fructose
d. a and b
17. A disaccharide product of starch digestion:
a. maltose
b. sucrose
c. lactose
d. amylase
18. What percent of your total daily calories should come from carbohydrates?
a. 10 to 35%
b. 45 to 65%
c. less than 10%
d. about 65 to 75%
19. Glucose is stored as _____ in the liver and muscles.
a. lactose
b. starch
c. amylase
d. glycogen
20. Sugar has no nutritive value, except for calories.
a. True
b. False
21. Glucose joined by indigestible bonds:
a. starch
b. maltose
c. fiber
d. galactose
22. A very good source of soluble fiber.
a. dairy products
b. apples & oatmeal
c. white bread
d. white rice
23. About how many grams of fiber should be included in the diet of an adult?
a. 10 g
b. 20 g
c. 30 g
d. 45 g
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24. About what percent of your carbohydrate choices should be whole grains?
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 10%
d. 25%
25. Not easily fermented by bacteria.
a. soluble fiber
b. insoluble fiber
c. glucose
d. lactose
26. Energy source for the brain and nervous system.
a. fat
b. glucose
c. soluble fiber
d. lactose
27. Women should consume more fiber than men.
a. True
b. False
c. Only if they’re pregnant
d. Only if they’re anemic or underweight
28. Which is not a result of eating fiber-rich foods?
a. lowers blood cholesterol
b. products from bacterial fermentation of soluble fibers inhibit the production of
cholesterol by the liver.
c. slows release of glucose into blood, so is good for diabetics
d. increases rates of nutrient absorption, so is good for losing weight
29. Which has 5 to 9 g of fiber?
a. a salad made of ½ cup chopped tomatoes and 1 cup chopped romaine lettuce
b. ½ cup of lentil beans
c. 1 slice of white bread
d. 1 slice of whole-wheat bread
30. Sugars and white flour, although not fat themselves, increase blood triglyceride (fat) levels.
a. True
b. False
c. Only in diabetics
d. Only in PKU patients
31. Colon bacteria ferment insoluble fiber, producing butyric acid; butyric acid is absorbed by
cells lining the colon, causing them to decrease rates of cell division.
a. True
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b. False
32. Elderly people who eat proper amounts of fiber are more likely to maintain colon health.
a. True
b. False
33. Which food has the least amount of fiber?
a. 1 slice white bread
b. 1 slice whole-grain rye bread
c. ½ cup cooked white rice
d. ½ cup pea soup
34. If you’re trying to cut down on your “bad fat” consumption, it’s okay to eat products
containing lots of sugar and/or white flour.
a. True!
b. False!
35. Soluble fiber decreases colon cancer risk by producing fermentation products that cause cells
lining the colon to divide faster, thus slough off faster, before becoming cancerous.
a. True
b. False
36. Which has about 1.5 g of fiber?
a. 1 slice of whole-grain, rye bread
b. ½ cup of navy beans
c. ½ cup of chopped broccoli, carrots or squash
d. 1 slice of white bread
37. Which food has about 2.5 grams of fiber?
a. 1 slice of whole-wheat bread
b. ½ cup cooked oatmeal
c. ½ cup cooked white rice
d. a and b!
38. A person who eats a diet that includes a lot of whole foods rich in fiber is likely to eat too
much fiber.
a. True
b. False
39. Which group should monitor closely the amount of fiber they eat so they don’t get too much?
a. elderly
b. vegan children
c. undernourished
d. all the above!
40. Whole grain consists of all of the following except which?
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a.
b.
c.
d.
endosperm
bran
germ
husk
41. About 75% of all adults can’t digest lactose.
a. True
b. False
42. Which is not a possible effect of eating too much fiber?
a. Constipation/intestinal blockage
b. Dehydration
c. Increased nutrient absorption from foods
d. Absorption of fewer calories
43. The only way you are likely to consume too much fiber in your diet is by supplementing your
diet with extra fiber such as oat or wheat bran.
a. True
b. False
44. Which part(s) of a seed are indigestible by humans?
a. endosperm + husk
b. husk + bran
c. bran + husk + endosperm
d. endosperm + husk + bran
45. What is added back to refined flour to make it enriched?
a. folate, ribose sugar, iodine, niacin, thiamin
b. thiamin, riboflavin, iron, folate, niacin
c. magnesium, calcium, B6, B12 and iron
d. zinc, calcium, iron, folate and B12
46. People who eat too much fiber may suffer from iron, calcium and zinc deficiencies.
a. True
b. False
47. Unbleached refined flour is more nutritious than bleached refined flour.
a. That’s not true!
b. Absolutely true!
48. Adults who can’t digest milk no longer produce the enzyme
a. protease
b. lipase
c. lactase
d. milkase
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49. Many people who cannot drink milk, because of lactose intolerance, can eat cheeses,
especially hard cheeses.
a. True
b. False
50. Chitin is a form of fiber from crab and shrimp shells that inhibits the absorption of fat from
the food you eat.
a. Yes, that’s right!
b. No, that’s wrong!
51. Contains most of the good oils found in the grain.
a. bran
b. husk
c. endosperm
d. germ
52. Formula is available for lactose-intolerant infants; however, it is better to treat breast milk
with lactase so that baby can drink breast milk!
a. True
b. False
53. The whole grain consists of the
a. bran + husk + endosperm
b. germ + bran + endosperm
c. endosperm + germ + husk
d. germ + bran + husk
54. Highest in fiber
a. bran
b. endosperm
c. germ
d. endosperm + germ
55. Ground into refined flour and is later “enriched.”
a. endosperm only
b. germ + endosperm only
c. germ + bran only
d. germ + endosperm + bran
56. Which is removed from the whole grain for animal fodder?
a. bran
b. husk
c. endosperm
d. germ
57. Whole-grain flour (such as whole wheat) is made from the
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a.
b.
c.
d.
endosperm only
bran + endosperm only
bran + germ only
bran + germ + endosperm
58. Whole-wheat flour is richer in nutrients than enriched wheat flour.
a. True
b. False
59. Which flour is highest in fiber?
a. enriched white
b. whole wheat
c. dark rye
d. cornmeal
60. Contains mostly starch.
a. chaff
b. endosperm
c. bran
d. germ
61. Which has the highest nutrition?
a. whole-wheat flour
b. flour made from 100% wheat
c. unbleached wheat flour
d. they’re all the same!
62. Which is not a symptom of lactose intolerance?
a. diarrhea
b. abdominal pain
c. constipation
d. gas
63. Lactose intolerance can lead to calcium deficiency, if dairy is avoided.
a. Yes, that’s true!
b. No, that’s false!
64. Yogurt made from live cultures contains little lactose, so generally can be eaten by lactoseintolerant people.
a. True
b. False
65. Which is not true? If excess glucose is included in the diet,
a. liver stores some as glycogen.
b. pancreas secretes insulin, causing fat cells and muscle cells to absorb glucose.
c. fat cells turn glucose into fat.
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d. muscle cells turn glucose into fat.
66. In lactose intolerance, the presence of pain and gas is due to
a. the inability to digest milk sugar
b. bacteria in the gut that can digest milk sugar
c. bacteria in the gut that produce a compound that stimulate your gut cells to ferment the
milk sugar into gas
d. food allergies
67. Lactose-free dairy products come from
a. genetically-modified cows
b. goats
c. milk that has been treated with enzymes to predigest milk sugar
d. milk that has been treated with special bacteria
68. How can athletes load muscles with glucose?
a. eat large carbohydrate meal about 2 days before the event
b. eat complex carb snack about 2 hours before event
c. eat large carbohydrate meal of complex carbs about 15 minutes before the event
d. eat a huge submarine sandwich about 2 minutes before the event
69. Foods high in fructose are generally high on the glycemic index.
a. True
b. False
70. High glycemic index foods increase blood glucose, stimulating insulin release, which
stimulates the liver to release _____ that increase the risk of _____.
a. fructose, obesity
b. cholesterol, heart disease
c. sat fats, heart disease
d. glucose, diabetes
71. Which is not true about diabetes?
a. sixth most common cause of death in U.S.
b. prevalence is becoming epidemic
c. type I diabetes is an autoimmune, genetic disease
d. type II diabetes can be caused or prevented by life style choices
e. is not a major public health concern
72. If an individual who is physically fit eats a sandwich of bread, cheese and salami, what
happens to the fat in the sandwich?
a. immediately burned for energy
b. immediately stored as fat
c. metabolized into muscle tissue
d. turned into glucose
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73. If there is inadequate glucose in the blood, which is what happens after a low-carb meal,
what happens first?
a. muscle tissue metabolized to form glucose
b. glycerol (from fatty acids) turned into glucose
c. fatty acids clipped into two-carbon units that are turned into glucose
d. liver metabolizes glycogen, releases glucose
74. Which is not a symptom of ketoacidosis?
a. breath smells like acetone; respiration rate increases
b. bone loss
c. markedly increased absorption of thiamin and iron
d. increased risk of kidney stones
75. Foods that have a very high glycemic index are always very sweet.
a. True!
b. False!
76. A food that contains lots of glucose is by definition high on the glycemic index.
a. True, because the glycemic index compares glucose content of foods.
b. False, because the glycemic indix compares both the glucose content of foods and the
ability of the glucose to be released during digestion.
77. If there is no available glucose in the body, which happens in people who follow low-carb
diets, what happens?
a. proteins broken down into glucose, depressing immune system
b. glycerol from fatty acids turned into glucose
c. excess fatty acids turn into ketone bodies, possibly causing ketoacidosis
d. all the above
78. Which of the following foods has the highest glycemic index?
a. cornflakes
b. baked potato
c. jellybeans
d. peanuts
79. Fiber is made of pure glucose. Where would it be on the glycemic index?
a. very high
b. high
c. low
d. very low
80. Foods higher on the glycemic index are always less nutritious than foods lower on the
glycemic index.
a. True
b. False
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81. A diet high in complex carbs lowers the risk of heart disease because it lowers the amount of
sat fats produced by the liver and secreted into the blood.
a. True
b. False
82. The average American consumes about twice the recommended amount of sugar each day.
a. True
b. False
83. Type II diabetes is preventable and reversible, if caught early.
a. True
b. False
84. Which is not true about sugar?
a. causes or contributes to ADHD
b. can lead to obesity
c. can increase risk of diabetes
d. can cause heart disease
85. About how long does it take for bacteria in the mouth to feed on sugar and secrete the acid
that begins to eat tooth enamel?
a. 10 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 60 minutes
86. Which is not a major risk factor for type II diabetes?
a. overweight; lack of exercise
b. African American, Native American or Hispanic
c. age 35
d. parents have diabetes
87. Most of the sugar Americans consume is in
a. diet drinks
b. carbonated beverages
c. canned fruits
d. ice cream
88. Sugar and refined carbohydrates cause heart disease, both directly and indirectly, if eaten in
high amounts.
a. True
b. False
89. Honey and molasses are significantly more nutritious than white table sugar.
a. True
b. False
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90. Which foods are most likely to cause dental caries?
a. cheese, milk and other dairy products
b. breads and crackers
c. apples and pears
d. artificial sweeteners
91. Which artificial sweetener must be avoided by PKU patients?
a. mannitol
b. aspartame
c. stevia
d. saccharine
92. Which is not true about artificial sweeteners?
a. do not contribute to obesity
b. are safe to use by diabetics
c. do not contribute to dental caries or heart disease
d. some do cause cancer in humans, so should be avoided; sugar is best!
93. Artificial sweetener that can be used in baking.
a. aspartame
b. sucralose
c. saccharine
d. mannitol
94. Babies who are given orange juice in a bottle as a pacifier are likely to develop
a. dental caries
b. malformed teeth
c. diabetes
d. a and b
95. Which artificial sweetener, although good for humans, causes liver and kidney damage in
dogs, even if ingested in small amounts?
a. sucralose
b. sorbitol
c. xylitol
d. aspartame
96. Sorbitol, found in sugar-free gum, inhibits dental caries.
a. True
b. False
97. All artificial sweeteners approved by the FDA have been shown to be very safe for human
use, even more safe than sugar, considering the health effects of eating too much sugar.
a. True
b. False
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Unit 04 Practice Exam KEY
1a, 2c, 3b, 4a, 5c, 6d, 7b, 8d, 9a, 10b, 11a, 12a, 13c, 14c, 15d, 16d, 17a, 18b, 19d, 20a, 21c, 22b,
23c, 24b, 25a, 26b, 27b, 28d, 29b, 30a, 31b, 32a, 33c, 34b, 35a, 36c, 37d, 38b, 39d, 40d, 41a,
42c, 43a, 44b, 45b, 46a, 47a, 48c, 49a, 50a, 51d, 52a, 53b, 54a, 55a, 56b, 57d, 58a, 59c, 60b,
61a, 62c, 63a, 64a, 65d, 66b, 67c, 68b, 69b, 70c, 71e, 72b, 73d, 74c, 75b, 76b, 77d, 78b, 79d,
80b, 81a, 82b, 83a, 84a, 85c, 86c, 87b, 88a, 89b, 90b, 91b, 92d, 93b, 94d, 95c, 96a, 97a.
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