2014-15 progress exam - School of Earth Sciences

UNIVERSITY OF BRISTOL
January 2015 Examination Period
School of Earth Sciences
YEAR 1 Progress Examination
EXAM PAPER CODE EASC10001 & EASC10003J
GEOLOGY 1 and PLANET EARTH
Time allowed:
1 hour
This paper contains 40 questions.
All students must answer all questions.
All questions carry equal weight.
OTHER INSTRUCTIONS
Please read and follow the instructions for filling in the OMR sheet very carefully.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
Non-programmable and non-graphing calculators are permitted in this examination.
TURN OVER ONLY WHEN TOLD TO START WRITING
1-3. From the list below select the appropriate chemical formula.
A. Fe3O4
B. Fe2O3
C. SiO2
D. Fe2SiO4
E. CaMgSi2O6
F. FeCO3
G. CaMg(CO3)2
H. FeMgSi2O6
I. CaAl2Si2O8
J. Mg2SiO4
K. NaAlSi3O8
L. Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2
1. Forsterite
2. Anorthite
3. Coesite
4. The isotope of rhenium has atomic number 75. What are the atomic number (Z) and
atomic mass (A) of the isotope to which 187Re decays by emission of a beta particle?
A. Z=76, A=187
B. Z=76, A=188
C. Z=75, A=187
D. Z=75, A=188
E. Z=73, A=187
F. Z=73, A=188
G. Z=73, A=183
H. None of the above
5. At which of the following seismic discontinuities does P-wave velocity drop to zero?
A. The core-mantle boundary
B. The Moho
C. The inner core-outer core boundary
D. 670 km discontinuity
E. 410 km discontinuity
F. None of the above
G. All of the above
6. What is the essential structural unit of the sorosilicates?
A. [SiO2]
B. [SiO3]2C. [SiO3]3D. [SiO4]2E. [SiO4]3F. [SiO4]4G. [Si2O7]5H. None of the above
7. In Bowen’s Reaction Series, which of the following minerals occurs in the continuous
series?
A. Biotite
B. Orthoclase
C. Calcite
D. Dolomite
E. Garnet
F. Olivine
G. Plagioclase
H. Quartz
I. Orthopyroxene
J. Clinopyroxene
K. All of the above
L. None of the above
8. The half-life of 187Re is 41.6 Ga. What is its decay constant?
A. 41.6 Ga
B. 0.024 Ga-1
C. 1.666 x 10-11 a-1
D. 83.2 Ga-1
E. 2.404 x 10-11 a-1
F. 4.16 x 10-11 a-1
G. Depends on the decay mechanism
H. Depends on the temperature
9. Which one of the following mineral pairs below is isomorphic?
A. Enstatite and Diopside
B. Forsterite and Perovskite
C. Graphite and Carbon Dioxide
D. Periclase and Perovskite
E. Cristobalite and Tridymite
F. Albite and Anorthite
G. None of the above
H. All of the above
10. With what is Bath canal engineer William Smith accredited?
A. Discovery of the Unconformity
B. The Principle of Uniformitarianism
C. Catastrophism
D. The first Geological Map
E. Evolution
F. Plate Tectonics
G. Neptunism
H. The first radiometric Age of the Earth
I. The Theory of Gaia
J. Radioactivity
K. None of the above
11-13. The binary system A-B, which is similar to the system diopside-anorthite, is
shown graphically in Figure 1. Study the phase diagram and answer the
following questions.
Figure 1
11. Composition X is known as:
A. Peritectic
B. Liquidus
C. Melting point
D. Freezing point
E. Curie Point
F. Eutectic
G. Liquidus
H. None of the above
12. Component A melts at:
A. 1100 °C
B. 1120 °C
C. 1250 °C
D. 1300 °C
E. 1400 °C
F. 1420 °C
G. 1600 °C
H. None of the above
13. On cooling, composition Y will be completely crystallised at what temperature?
A. 1000 °C
B. 1100 °C
C. 1120 °C
D. 1280 °C
E. 1300 °C
F. 1380 °C
G. 1400 °C
H. None of the above
14. Which of the following words best describes the variation in temperature with
depth within the Earth?
A. Isotope
B. Geochron
C. Isobar
D. Isopleth
E. Isostatic gradient
G. Geotherm
H. Isotherm
I. None of the above
J. All of the above
15. At which of these locations is magnetic inclination lowest?
A. In Bristol
B. Along mid-ocean ridges
C. At the equator
D. At the North Pole
E. At the Tropics
F. In areas of thickest continental crust
G. In areas of thinnest continental crust
H. It is the same everywhere
16. What is the pressure at the base of a column of rock 500 m thick with a density of
3000 kg m-3 (assume acceleration due to gravity is 10 m s-2)?
A. 15 Newtons
B. 1500 Newtons
C. 1500 Pa
D. 15 MPa
E. 600 Pa
F. 6.00 MPa
G. 6.00 GPa
H. None of the above
17. Which of the following rock types are associated with low pressure/high
temperature metamorphism of basalts/gabbros?
A. Hornfels
B. Pelites
C. Blueschists and Eclogites
D. Greenschists and Amphibolites
E. Buchan zones.
18. Which is the correct order for metamorphic textures in decreasing grade?
A. Slate, gneiss, phyllite, schist
B. Slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss
C. Phyllite, gneiss, slate, schist
D. Gneiss, schist, phyllite, slate
E. Gneiss, phyllite, schist, slate
19. The Barrovian Metamorphic Zones in Scotland are defined by:
A. Textural observations
B. The first appearance of an index mineral
C. The last appearance of an index mineral
D. Changes in protolith chemistry.
20. Which of the following minerals are commonly found in pelitic rocks?
A. Kyanite
B. Olivine
C. Muscovite
D. Glaucophane
E. Calcite
F. Quartz
G. 3 of the above
H. 4 of the above
I. all of the above
21. Which is the high-temperature polymorph of the aluminosilicates?
A. Kyanite
B. Biotite
C. Sillimanite
D. Andalusite
E. Garnet
22. Which of the following are characteristics of impact metamorphism?
A. Shocked quartz
B. Mylonites
C. Laminated spherule layers
D. A spike in Iridium
E. A fulgurite
F. An impact crater.
G. Three of the above
H. Four of the above.
23. Millook Haven in Cornwall was voted as one of the UK’s top 10 geosites in 2014.
How would you describe the folding seen in this photo?
Millook Haven
A. Tight, recumbent, sub-angular, symmetrical
B. Upright, symmetrical, open, angular
C. Recumbent chevron folds.
D. Inclined, clockwise-verging, rounded, close
24. If a belemnite that was originally 8 cm long is broken and is now 9 cm long, what is
the linear strain?
A. 1 cm
B. 9 cm
C. 12.5 %
D. 125%
E. 1 %
F. 9 mm
25. Which of the following are examples of structures formed by brittle deformation:
A. Folds
B. Faults
C. Joints
D. Mylonites
E. 2 of the above
F. 3 of the above
26. Ductile deformation…
A. …is favoured by high temperatures
B. …occurs at depths less than 10 km
C. …is recoverable
D. … produces normal faults
E. …occurs below the yield strength
27. If a strike slip fault is not straight, it may produce
A. A restraining bend
B. A flower structure
C. A releasing bend
D. Local dip-slip faults
E. All of the above
28. Which of the following should be included in a good field sketch of structural
relationships?
A. Orientation
B. Vegetation
C. Lithological units
D. Scale
E. Location
F. Three of the above
G. Four of the above
H. Five of the above
29. and 30. Examine Figure 2, which shows the 9 different surface tractions acting on a
cube
Figure 2
29. Which arrow represents 11?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
G. G
H. H
I. I
30. Which arrow represents 23?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
G. G
H. H
I. I
31. The Pettijohn classification scheme for clastic rocks relies upon relative
percentages of which components?
A. Olivine, plagioclase and quartz.
B. Calcite, aragonite and quartz.
C. Quartz, feldspar and lithic grains.
D. Lithic grains, quartz and pyroxene.
E. Calcite, quartz and feldspar.
32. What age will a biosparite grainstone containing fragments of tabulate corals and
stromatoporoids be?
A. Proterozoic
B. Palaeozoic
C. Caenozoic
D. Archaean
E. Mesozoic
33. Which suite of subaqueous bedforms will develop if the Froude Number of a flow is
>1?
A. Dunes, antidunes and ripples.
B. Upper stage plane beds, antidunes and ripples.
C. Ripples, antidunes and flute marks.
D. Dunes, ripples and flat beds.
E. Upper stage plane beds and antidunes.
34. Which of the sequences below is arranged in order of increasing fluid viscosity?
A. Ice, water, air, water-sediment mix.
B. Air, water, ice, water-sediment mix.
C. Water-sediment mix, air, ice, water.
D. Air, water, water-sediment mix, ice.
E. None of the above.
35. The Clifton Down Limestone Formation is an example of a deposit formed in which
of the following environments?
A. Carbonate ramp.
B. Epeiric platform.
C. Rimmed shelf.
D. Isolated platform.
E. Drowned platform.
36. Assuming suitable pore water composition during diagenesis, under what
conditions will a calcite cement replace an earlier quartz cement?
A. pH >10.
B. pH <7.
C. Temperature >200°C.
D. Temperature >300°C
E. Burial pressure >7 kbar
37. Which deposits typify alluvial fans?
A. Transverse bar sands, overbank silts and crevasse splay sands.
B. Rippled sandstones and horizontally laminated mudstones.
C. Debris flow, sheet flood and sieve deposit conglomerates.
D. Rockfalls and olistostromes.
E. None of the above.
38. Which process results in the formation of clay minerals?
A. Physical weathering in upland areas.
B. Chemical weathering of limestones.
C. Chemical weathering of olivines and pyroxenes.
D. Chemical weathering of amphiboles, feldspars and micas.
E. Chemical weathering of olivines, amphiboles, feldspars and micas.
39. If a sandstone contains 80% non-undulatory quartz of 1.5mm grain size, which of
the following is its most likely source rock?
A. Gabbro
B. Granite
C. Schist
D. Gneiss
E. Rhyolite
40. Which of the following may be found in a modern reef environment?
A. Stromatoporoids, scleractinian corals, rugose corals and crinoids.
B. Tabulate corals, stromatoporoids and crinoids.
C. Archaeocyathids, rugose corals and tabulate corals.
D. Archaeocyathids, bryozoans and crinoids.
E. Scleractinian corals, bryozoans, crinoids and calcareous algae.