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6AIJ2=FAH111
Type of Exam: JMET
No. of Questions: 150
Total Marks: 150
Time: 2 hr
SECTION I ENGLISH USAGE
Directions (Q. 1–2): In these questions, out of the four
alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for
the given words/sentence.
1. To reduce in quality, value and force
(a) Abate
(b) Annul
(c) Shorten
(d) Deduct
2. A person who easily believes others is
(a) Credulous
(b) Gullible
(c) Foolish
(d) Believer
Directions (Q. 3–5): In these questions, four alternatives
are given for the underlined idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
3. The young businessman was in the red after only
two years in trade.
(a) In debt
(b) Successful
(c) Absolute failure (d) In jail
4. As she was turning out some papers, she came
across the letter she had been looking for.
(a) Saw from a distance
(b) Found unexpectedly
(c) Touched
(d) Read quickly
5. My teacher goes to the movies once in a blue moon.
(a) On full moon nights
(b) Once in two weeks
(c) Very rarely
(d) Everyday
Directions (Q. 6–9): In these questions, some sentences
have errors and some have none. Find out which part of
the sentence (1) or (2) or (3) has an error. If there is no
error, then mark your answer as (d):
6. One of the problems (1) in our business (2) are that
of disposing (3) of the surplus.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) No error
7. Mrs Sharma has not been (1) able to meet her parents (2) since one (3) year.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) No error
8. No other quality for (1) a doctor is more important (2)
as to be kind to (3) his patients.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) No error
9. One of my colleagues (1) is an expert in (2) homeopathic system of treating illnesses (3).
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) No error
Directions (Q. 10–11): These questions are based on the
following paragraph:
Investing in real estate would be a profitable venture
at this time. A survey in House magazine revealed that 85
per cent of the magazine’s readers are planning to buy a
second home over the next few years. A study of the real
estate industry, however, revealed that the current supply
of homes could only provide for 65 per cent of that demand
each year.
10. Which of the following, if true, reveals a weakness in
the evidence cited above?
(a) Real estate is a highly labour-intensive business.
(b) Home builders are not evenly distributed across
the country.
(c) The number of people who want second homes
has been increasing each year for the past 10
years.
(d) Readers of House magazine are more likely than
most people to want second homes.
11. Which of the following, if true, would undermine the
validity of the investment advice in the given paragraph?
(a) Some home owners are satisfied with only one
home.
(b) About half of the people who buy homes are
investing in their first home.
(c) About half of the people who buy homes have
to take out a mortage to do so.
74.2
The Pearson Guide to MBA Entrance Examinations
(d) Only a quarter of those who claim that they
want a second home actually end up purchasing one.
Directions (Q. 12–14): From the four alternatives, choose
the correct one which conveys the meaning of the given
word.
12. A flotilla means
(a) A fleet of small vessels
(b) A flock of birds
(c) A herd of cattle
(d) A crowd of men
13. Omniscient means
(a) One who is all powerful
(b) One who knows everything
(c) One who looks at one side of things
(d) One who is present everywhere
14. Loquacious means
(a) One who talks continuously
(b) One who works continuously
(c) One who reads continuously
(d) One who meets frequently
Directions (Q. 15–17): From the four alternatives given,
choose the correct one which substitutes the given sentence.
15. A person of material outlook and indifferent to culture is a
(a) Philanderer
(b) Philanthropist
(c) Philistine
(d) Philologist
16. One who is unrelenting and cannot be moved by
entreaties is
(a) Inexplicable
(b) Inexorable
(c) Infallible
(d) None of these
17. Eliminating or killing of a whole race is
(a) Gratis
(b) Garrulous
(c) Genocide
(d) Germicide
Directions (Q. 18–23): Each sentence given in these questions is followed by four alternatives. Select from among
the four alternatives the one which most logically compliments the idea contained in the given sentence.
18. Sucrose polyester pours like vegetable oil and
spreads like margarine. You can eat it to your heart’s
delight because
(a) it has maximum fat.
(b) it does not contain calories.
(c) it is artificially produced.
(d) it is not toxic.
19. Somewhat further in the future lies the auspicious
possibility of creating geothermal wells where none
naturally exists. This could be accomplished by
(a) harnessing thermal energy from the seas and
storing it in these wells in unlimited quantity.
20.
21.
22.
23.
(b) building atomic reactors underground which
use the Earth’s heat for fuel.
(c) splitting underground rocks heated naturally
by volcanic activity deep in the Earth and then
pumping in water to produce steam.
(d) altering climatic conditions which would make
it possible to have these wells in any part of the
world.
It is a shame to say but apparently mankind thrives
on conflict.
(a) A nation is never so alert and alive as when it
is a nation at war.
(b) Actually, life originated in conflict.
(c) Peace is an interval between two wars.
(d) Wars in many subtle ways have contributed to
the betterment of human life.
Foods have long been known to affect the body, but
it has come as a complete surprise to scientists that
certain foods influence the brain. You may soon be
eating particular foods to improve memory or enhance concentration and learning.
(a) Liquid foods rather than solid ones would lend
themselves more readily for this purpose.
(b) This is one reason to hope that illiteracy and
ignorance would soon be things of the past.
(c) So, there are reasons to believe that the 21st
century will be the century of enlightenment.
(d) Breakfast may be planned to awaken your creative or analytic skills for a high-powered day.
The toothpaste, deodorant and special spray advertisements are filled with psychological messages that
you must have
(a) glamour; using the products can make you
glamorous .
(b) cleanliness; buying these products can keep
you clean.
(c) purchasing power; if you have no money, you
are of no account.
(d) approval; and the way to get it is to purchase
this particular product.
Under the hot glare of psychology and sociology,
the hero’s heroic qualities
(a) have disappeared.
(b) shine brightly.
(c) have been dissolved into a blur of environmental influences and internal maladjustments.
(d) have been assayed thoroughly, mostly to the
disadvantage of the heroes.
Directions (Q. 24–31): Select the word(s) nearly similar
in meaning to the capitalised word.
24. INFRA
(a) Above
(b) Below
(c) Right
(d) Left
Test Paper III
25. INSOUCLIANCE
(a) Indifference
(c) Guess
26. GAFFE
(a) Passion
(c) Total ignorance
27. ASKEW
(a) Dim and dull
(c) Difficult
28. FILLIP
(a) Complete
(c) Large dose
29. TRAVESTY
(a) Long journey
(c) Parody
30. LEVITY
(a) Flippancy
(c) Pleasantness
31. LISSOME
(a) Dainty
(c) Thin
(b) Indignation
(d) Reluctance
(b) Enthusiasm
(d) Bloomer
(b) Turned to one side
(d) Ugly
(b) Stimulus
(d) Neglect
34.
(b) off colour
(d) Parable
(b) Gentleness
(d) Prophetic
(b) Supple
(d) Lazy
Directions (Q. 32–37): Each of these questions consists of
four sentences followed by four sequential arrangements.
Select the best sequence.
32. 1. How much more depends on the current uses to
which the rupee can be put.
2. Conversely, at a 5 per cent interest rate, a rupee
received a year from now is worth only Rs 1.05,
or 95.2 paise today; at a rate of 10 per cent, 90.90
paise.
3. The theory of discounting the future is simple; a
rupee received today is worth more than a rupee
received tomorrow.
4. If it can earn 5 per cent interest, a rupee today
will be worth Rs 1.05 after a year; if 10 per cent,
then Rs 1.10.
5. The determination of a future rupee’s present
value is, according to the accepted theory, the
appropriate way to compare future benefits with
present costs.
(a) 32145
(b) 35124
(c) 31524
(d) 31425
33. 1. Nearly all of each generation are brought up in
homes where the income is too small to provide
for the luxury of knowledge.
2. The minority acquire education, and have small
families; the majority have no time for education
and have large families.
3. Hence, the perennial futility of political liberalism; the propaganda of intelligence cannot keep
pace with the propagation of the ignorant.
35.
36.
74.3
4. We hardly realise what pranks the birth rate
plays with our theories and our arguments.
5. Voltaire preferred monarchy to democracy on the
ground that in a monarchy it was only necessary to educate one man; in a democracy you
must educate millions, and the grave digger gets
them all before you can educate 10 per cent of
them.
(a) 12435
(b) 43521
(c) 54123
(d) 54321
1. The state replaces spontaneous society and the
corporation replaces the small dealer.
2. The aggregation of people in cities breaks down
neighbourhood morality as a source of spontaneous order.
3. Every egoistic impulse is free in the protecting
anonymity of the crowded.
4. The developing complexity of life has bound us
into a highly integrated whole, and has taken
from us that independence of parts which once
was possible when each family was economically a self-sufficient sovereignty.
5. Where natural order is still powerful, as in
simple rural communities, little law is necessary;
where natural order is weak, as in sprawling cities, legislation grows.
(a) 45321
(b) 54321
(c) 23514
(d) 52143
1. So money is beautiful rather than useful to the
miser.
2. Obviously beauty, as distinguished from use, is
bound up with a certain keenness of satisfaction
that reflects the intensity of desire.
3. Ugliness lowers our vitality, and disturbs our
digestion and our nerves; it may produce nausea, or make poets call for a revolution.
4. Hence, the beauty of light and rhythm and a
gentle touch.
5. Anything takes on beauty, if it stimulates and
invigorates the organism.
(a) 51432
(b) 34521
(c) 43251
(d) 21543
1. The beautiful, then, is in its lowest stages the
sensory aspect of that which satisfies a strong
desire.
2. Anything that meets a fundamental need of our
natures has in it certain aesthetic possibilities.
3. At the bottom it differs from the useful only in
the intensity of our need.
4. To the author who has struggled for years to
find the way into print, his first published page
will seem to him a thing of compelling beauty,
74.4
The Pearson Guide to MBA Entrance Examinations
5.
37.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
but to a farmer or an artisan who has healthier
ambitions than to write books, the same page
may be only a bit of waste to wipe his razor on.
A plateful of food is beautiful to a starving man
as a pretty girl to a young Romeo; let the young
Romeo be starved, and his aesthetic sense will
be dulled even to the loveliest nymph; he will
consider her only as something good to eat.
(a) 12354
(b) 25413
(c) 13425
(d) 54321
To gauge a ship’s weight or displacement at any
time during her loading or unloading, they simply take the average of the bow and stern
drafts—the vertical distances between the waterline and the keel.
The figure is, of course, the precise equivalent
of her own weight plus everything aboard.
Every modern ship has a formal displacement
curve plotted by her architects from the lines
and dimensions of her hull.
This graph is turned over to her officers on her
delivery.
A glance at the graph tells them, in tons, the
amount of water she is displacing.
(a) 14523
(b) 43125
(c) 34512
(d) 34152
Directions (Q. 38–40): Each of these questions consists of
two capitalised words which have a certain relationship
to each other followed by four pairs of words. Choose the
pair, the words of which are not related to each other in
the way the words of the capitalised words are related.
38. IRASCIBLE : PROVOKED
(a) Credulous : Persuaded
(b) Fanatic : Reasoned
(c) Gullible : Fooled
(d) Humorous : Amused
39. SHARD : POTTERY
(a) Splinter : Wood (b) Sliver : Glass
(c) Slab : Concrete (d) Fiber : Cloth
40. WRENCH : MECHANIC
(a) Scythe : Reaper
(b) Axe : Woodcutter
(c) Hammer : Ironsmith
(d) Seeds : Farmer
SECTION I LOGICAL REASONING AND DATA
SUFFICIENCY
41. There is a ring road connecting points A, B, C and
D. The road is in a circular form but having several
kuccha approach roads leading to the centre. Exactly
in the centre of the ring road is a tree, which is 20 km
from point A on the circular road. Presuming that
one has gone round the circular road starting from
point A and finishing at the same point after touching B, C and D, if the person drives 20 km interior
towards the tree from point A, and from there
reaches somewhere between B and C on the ring
road, how much distance would he have to travel
from the tree to the point between B and C?
(1) 20 km
(2) 15 km
(3) 10 km
(4) 25 km
Directions (Q. 42–45): Study the following information
and answer the questions given below.
(i) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are six members in a family. (ii) Of
these, one is a student, one housewife, one doctor, one
teacher, one lawyer and one engineer. (iii) There are two
married couples in the family. (iv) 2 is the teacher and
mother of 3. (v) 4 is the grandmother of 3 and is a housewife. (vi) 6 is a lawyer and is the father of 1. (vii) 3 is
brother of 1. (viii) 5 is the father of 6 and is a doctor.
42. Which of the following statement is definitely true?
(1) 1 is an engineer.
(2) 5 is the father of the teacher.
(3) 4 is the mother of the teacher.
(4) 6 is the father of the engineer.
43. How many female members are there in the family?
(1) Only 3
(2) Only 2
(3) 3 or 4
(4) 2 or 3
44. How is 1 related to 4?
(1) Granddaughter
(2) Grandson
(3) Son
(4) Grandson or granddaughter
45. Which one is the student?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) Either 1 or 3
(4) 6’s son
Directions (Q. 46–50): A company wants to select a team
of four mechanical engineers from its south Indian factory
to transfer to north India, where they are going to set up
a new plant. The company is managed by professional
managers and is very particular about human resources
and industrial relations. There are seven engineers of
equal ability—X, Y and Z (who are in the senior executive cadre), and A, B, C and D (who are in the Junior Executive cadre). The company requires that there should
be two senior executives and two junior executives in
each team. It is also necessary that all the engineers in a
particular team are friendly with each other, in order to
have good team spirit and avoid any industrial relations
problem in the new factory being set up in the north. Following is the situation of relations between the seven engineers.
I. Y and A are not friendly.
II. Z and C are not friendly.
III. A and B are not friendly.
Test Paper III
46. If B is selected and Y is rejected, the team will consist of
(a) X, Z, A and B
(b) X, Z, D and B
(c) X, Z, C and B
(d) Z, C, D and B
47. If A is on the team, then which other engineers must
be on the team as well?
(a) X, Y and D
(b) X, Z and D
(c) X, Z and B
(d) X, Z and C
48. If both Y and Z are selected, which of the other engineers must be on the team with them?
(a) Both C and D
(b) Only D
(c) Both B and A
(d) Both B and D
49. Which statement(s) must be false?
(I) Y and C are never selected together.
(II) Z and B are never selected together.
(III) Z and D are never selected together.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I, II and III
50. Which of the following statement/s is/are true for X?
(I) X must be selected as one of the Senior Executives on the team.
(II) X must be selected if C is selected.
(III) X cannot be selected if both A and C are rejected.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I and II1 only
Directions (Q. 51–56): A goldsmith has five gold rings,
each having a different weight:
Statement 1: Ring D is weighing twice as much as ring E.
Statement 2: Ring E weighs four and one-half times as much
as ring F.
Statement 3: Ring F weighs half as much as ring G.
Statement 4: Ring G weighs half as much as ring H.
Statement 5: Ring H weighs less than ring D but more than
ring F.
Based on the above statements, answer the following
questions:
51. Which of the following represents the descending
order of weights of the rings?
(a) D, E, C, H and F (b) E, G, H, D and F
(c) H, F, G, D and E (d) D, E, H, G and F
52. Which of the numbered statements above is not necessary to determine the correct order of the rings according to their weights?
(a) Statement 1
(b) Statement 4
(c) Statement 3
(d) Statement 5
53. Which of the following is the lightest in weight?
(a) Ring D
(b) Ring E
(c) Ring F
(d) Ring G
54. If these rings are sold according to their weights as
it is, which ring will fetch highest value in rupees?
74.5
(a) G
(b) H
(c) F
(d) D
55. Ring H is heavier than which of the following two
rings?
(a) G and E
(b) G and F
(c) D and F
(d) D and E
56. Ring H is lighter in weight than which of the other
two rings?
(a) G and F
(b) D and E
(c) D and F
(d) G and E
Directions (Q. 57–61): From among the five doctors 1, 2,
3, 4 and 5; four engineers G, H, K, L; and six teachers M,
N, O, P, Q, R, some teams are to be selected. Of these, 1, 2,
G, H, O, P, Q are females and the rest are males. The formation of teams is subject to the following conditions:
Wherever there is a male doctor, there will not be a female teacher. Wherever there is a male engineer, there will
not be a female doctor. There shall not be more than two
male teachers in any team.
57. If the team consists of two doctors, two female
teachers and two engineers, all the following teams
are possible except
(a) 12KLPQ
(b) 12GHPQ
(c) 12GHOQ
(d) OPGH12
58. If the team consists of two doctors, three female
teachers and two engineers, the members of the team
are
(a) 34OPQGH
(b) 12OPQGH
(c) 34KLOPQ
(d) 45GHOPQ
59. If the team consists of three doctors, two male engineers and two teachers, members of the team could
be
(a) 345KLMN
(b) 123KLMR
(c) 345KLPR
(d) 12HMRPQ
60. If the team consists of two doctors, one engineer
and four teachers, the following teams are possible
except
(a) 12GMNOP
(b) 12KNRPQ
(c) 12FIMOPQ
(d) 12HMRPQ
61. If the team consists of two doctors, two engineers
and two teachers, the following teams are possible
except
(a) 35KLNR
(b) 12GHMN
(c) 34KLOP
(d) 12GHOP
62. If south-east becomes north, north-east becomes
west, then what will west become?
(a) North-west
(b) South-east
(c) North-east
(d) South-west
63. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the
fourth, the seventh, the eleventh and the thirteenth
letterrs of the word CATEGORISATION, which of
the following will be the first letter of that word? If
74.6
The Pearson Guide to MBA Entrance Examinations
no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer. If
more than one such word can be made, give ‘M’ as
the answer.
(a) R
(b) T
(c) X
(d) M
Directions (Q. 64–66): In each question given below there
are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Of these statements which one of the following is correct? Mark your answer as
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If A is false but R is true.
64. Assertion (A): Areas near the equator receive rainfall
throughout the year.
Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity
cause conventional rain in most afternoons near the
equator.
65. Assertion (A): Classical Sanskrit literature reached
the pinnacle of glory during the time of Kalidas.
Reason (R): The Gupta Period is the classical period
of Sanskrit literature.
66. Assertion (A): The British sovereignty continued to
exist in free India.
Reason (R): The British sovereign appointed the last
Governor-General of free India.
Directions (Q. 67–68): In the following questions, select
the set of conclusion which logically follows from the
statements.
67. Statements:
I. All phones are scales.
II. All scales are calculators.
Conclusions:
I. All calculators are scales.
II. All scales are phones.
III. All phones are calculators.
IV. Some calculators are phones.
(a) None follows
(b) Only I and II follow
(c) All follow
(d) Only III and IV follow
68. Statements:
I. Some tables are TVs.
II. Some TVs are radios.
Conclusions:
I. Some tables are radios.
II. Some radios are tables.
III. All radios are TVs.
IV. All TVs are tables.
(a) None follows
(b) Only II and, IV follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) All follow
Directions (Q. 69–70): In each question below is given a
statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II
and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for
granted. You have to consider the statement along with
the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is
implicit in the statement. Then, decide which of the alternatives is the correct answer.
69. Statement: Keeping in view the financial constraint, the management institution has decided to
charge at the time of providing employment in various organisations, a placement fee of Rs 25,000 from
the organisation in which the student will be provided the employment.
Assumptions:
I. It will help in increasing the demand for students belonging to the management institution.
II. The amount collected in this way will be purposeful.
III. It may be possible that the organisation providing employment may select less number of students in future.
(a) None follows
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I follows (d) Only I and II follow
70. Statement: The telephone company informed the
subscribers through a notification that those who do
not pay their bills by the due date will be charged
penalty for every defaulting day.
Assumptions:
I. Majority of the people may pay their bills by
the due date to avoid penalty.
II. The money collected as penalty may set off the
losses due to delayed payment.
III. People generally pay heed to such notices.
(a) None is implicit
(b) Only II and III are implicit
(c) Only I and II are implicit
(d) None of these
71. If the position of the fifth and twelfth letters of the
word GLORIFICATIONS is interchanged and likewise the position of the fourth and fourteenth letters,
the third and tenth letters, the second and eleventh
letters and the first and thirteenth letters are interchanged, which of the following will be twelfth letter
from the right end?
(a) T
(b) 0
(c) R
(d) 1
72. The letter in the centre is to be used more than once
while all other letters are to be used only once to
form a meaningful word. The first letter of this meaningful word is the answer. If no such meaningful
Test Paper III
word can be made give ‘X’ as the answer, and if more
than one such meaningful word can be made, give
‘M’ as the answer.
WB
(a) L
(c) X
77.
EL
(b) E
(d) M
Directions (Q. 73–76): In each question below are given
two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the two given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer.
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows.
(d) If neither I nor II follows.
73. Statements:
I. Some doctors are institutes.
II. Some crooks are institutes.
6
6
8
5
7
5
4
3
?
120 126 320
(a) 12
(c) 8
Conclusions:
I. All authors are experts.
II. No expert is an author.
75. Statements:
I. All cars are cats.
II. All fans are cats.
Conclusions:
I. All cars are fans.
II. Some fans are cars.
76. Statements:
I. Many scooters are trucks.
II. All trucks are trains.
Conclusions:
I. Some scooters are trains.
II. No truck is a scooter.
Directions (Q. 77–78): In the questions given below which
one number when placed at the sign of interrogation
shall complete the number matrix?
(b) 16
(d) 4
78.
1
1
2
4
2
4
9
3
6
(a) 16 and 8
(c) 25 and 5
?
4
?
(b) 36 and 4
(d) 49 and 7
Directions (Q. 79–80): In each question given below
which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation
shall complete the matrix?
79.
A
R
E
M
C
U
B
S
F
(a) T
(c) V
80.
(a) P
(c) K
N
D
?
(b) F
(d) R
A
F
?
Conclusions:
I. All institutes are doctors.
II. Some institutes are crooks.
74. Statements:
I. All pilots are experts.
II. All authors are pilots.
74.7
D
I
N
H
M
R
(b) N
(d) O
SECTION III QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
81. Two groups of students, whose average ages are 20
years and 30 years, combine to form a third group
whose average age is 23 years. What is the ratio of
the number of students in the first group to the number of students in the second group?
(a) 5 : 2
(b) 2 : 5
(c) 7 : 3
(d) None of these
82. A train of length 500 m travelling at 72 km/hr approaches a man standing on the platform. How many
seconds are required to completely cross him?
(a) 25
(b) 500/17
(c) 450/11
(d) None of these
83. The monthly incomes of two persons are in the ratio
5 : 4 and their monthly expenditures are in the ratio
9 : 7. If each person saves Rs 500 per month, then
what are their monthly incomes?
(a) Rs 8,000 and Rs 10,000
(b) Rs 3,750 and Rs 3,000
74.8
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
The Pearson Guide to MBA Entrance Examinations
(c) Rs 5,000 and Rs 4,000
(d) None of these
Five persons A, B, C, D and E occupy seats in a row
such that A and B sit next to each other. In how
many possible ways can these five people sit?
(a) 24
(b) 48
(c) 72
(d) None of these
If 3/5 of a number is 23 more than 50% of the same
number, then what will be 80% of the number?
(a) 92
(b) 184
(c) 180
(d) 186
A year ago, a father was four times his son’s age. In
six years, his age will be 9 more than twice his son’s
age. What is the present age of the son?
(a) 10 years
(b) 9 years
(c) 20 years
(d) None of these
A bottle contains 3/4 of milk and the rest water. How
much of the mixture must be taken away and replaced by equal quantity of water so that the mixture
has half milk and half water?
(a) 25%
(b) 45%
(c) 33 + 1/3%
(d) 50%
One kg of tea and one kg of sugar together cost Rs
95. If the price of tea falls by 10% and that of sugar
rises by 20%, then the price of one kg of each combined comes to Rs 90. The original price of tea (in
Rs/kg) is
(a) Rs 72
(b) Rs 55
(c) Rs 60
(d) Rs 80
A sum is invested for 3 years compounded at 5%,
10% and 20%, respectively. In three years, if the sum
amounts to Rs 16,632, then find the sum.
(a) Rs 11,000
(b) Rs 12,000
(c) Rs 13,090
(d) Rs 14,000
Three students try to solve a problem independently
with a probability of solving it as 1/3, 2/5, 5/12 respectively. What is the probability that the problem
is solved?
(a) 1/18
(b) 12/30
(c) 23/30
(d) 1/2
A rectangular piece of cardboard 18 cm ´ 24 cm is
made into an open box by cutting a square of 5 cm
side from each corner and building up the side. Find
the volume of the box in cubic centimetres.
(a) 560
(b) 432
(c) 216
(d) None of these
To make a marriage tent, poles are planted along the
perimeter of a square field at a distance of 5 m from
each other and the total number of poles used is 20.
What is the area (in sq m) of the square field?
(a) 500
(b) 400
(c) 900
(d) None of these
93. 30 men can produce 1,500 units in 24 days working 6
hours a day. In how many days can 18 men produce
1,800 units working 8 hours a day?
(a) 36 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 18 days
(d) None of these
94. The circumference of a circular ground is 88 m. A
strip of land, 3 m wide, inside and along circumference of the ground is to be levelled. What is the
budgeted expenditure if the levelling costs Rs 7 per
sq m?
(a) Rs 1,050
(b) Rs 1,125
(c) Rs 1,325
(d) Rs 1,650
95. The value of a fixed asset depreciates at the rate of
10% on the value at the beginning of each year. If
the value of the asset two years ago was Rs 12,000
more than the value of the asset one year ago, then
find the present value of the asset, given that the
asset was bought two years ago.
(a) Rs 14,520
(b) Rs 96,000
(c) Rs 97,200
(d) Rs 17,520
96. What will be the difference in the compound interest
on Rs 50,000 at 12% for one year, when the interest
is paid yearly and half-yearly?
(a) Rs 500
(b) Rs 600
(c) Rs 180
(d) Rs 360
97. A certain sum amounts to Rs 2,300 in 3 years and Rs
2,500 in 5 years at simple interest. Find the sum and
the rate of interest.
(a) Rs 1,200, 6%
(b) Rs 1,800, 5%
(c) Rs 2,000, 5%
(d) Rs 1,500, 6%
98. If the diagonal of a square is decreased by 15%, then
the area of the square is decreased by
(a) 22.5%
(b) 72.25%
(c) 27.75%
(d) None of these
99. Akash borrows Rs 65,000 at 10% p.a. simple interest
for 3 years and lends it at 10% p.a. compound interest for 3 years. Find his gain after 3 years.
(a) Rs 2,015
(b) Rs 1,330
(c) Rs 1,300
(d) None of these
100. A father divides his property between his two sons
A and B. A invests the amount at compound interest
of 8% p.a. B invests the amount at 10% p.a. simple
interest. At the end of 2 years, the interest received
by B is Rs. 1,336 more than the interest received by
A. Find the share of A in the father’s property of Rs.
25,000.
(a) Rs 12,000
(b) Rs 13,000
(c) Rs 12,500
(d) Rs 10,000
101. What effective rate of interest per annum does a person get who is paid at the rate of 10% p.a. interest
payable half-yearly?
(a) 11%
(b) 10.75%
(c) 10.5%
(d) 10.25%
Test Paper III
102. A tap can fill a tank in 48 min, whereas another tap
can empty it in 2 hours. If both the taps are opened
at 11:40 a.m., then the tank will be filled at
(a) 12:40 p.m.
(b) 1:30 p.m.
(c) 1:00 p.m.
(d) 1:20 p.m.
103. A student was late for school by 20 min when travelling at the speed of 9 kmph. Had he travelled at the
speed of 12 kmph, he would have reached his school
20 min early. Find the distance between his house
and the school.
(a) 12 km
(b) 6 km
(c) 3 km
(d) 24 km
104. Rohit earns an interest of Rs 1,656 for the third year
and Rs 1,440 for the second year on the same sum.
Find the rate of interest if it is lent at compound interest.
(a) 18%
(b) 12%
(c) 15%
(d) None of these
105. Find the greatest number which divides 51, 141 and
276 and leaves the same remainder.
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
106. What is the smallest number with which 1,800 must
be multiplied to make it a perfect cube?
(a) 12
(b) 5
(c) 18
(d) 15
107. In a kilometre race, A beats B by 100 m and B beats
C by 150 m. In the same race, by how many metres
does A beat C?
(a) 250 m
(b) 240 m
(c) 225 m
(d) 235 m
108. The ratio of the circumference of two circles is 2 : 3.
What is the ratio of their areas?
(a) 4 : 9
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 9 : 4
(d) None of these
109. A and B enter into a partnership with Rs 50,000 and
Rs 60,000, respectively. C joins them after X months,
contributing Rs. 70,000, and B leaves, X months before the end of the year. If they share the profit in the
ratio of 20 : 18 : 21, then find the value of X.
(a) 9
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 8
110. Rawat sold a book at 10% loss. Had he sold it for Rs
85 more, then he would have made a profit of 7%.
What was the cost price of the book?
(a) Rs 500
(b) Rs 850
(c) Rs 615
(d) Rs 585
111. The population of a town increases annually by 25%.
If the present population is 1 crore, then what is the
difference between the population 3 years ago and 2
years ago?
(a) 25,00,000
(b) 12,80,000
74.9
(c) 15,60,000
(d) None of these
112. Student A gets 40% of the maximwn marks in an examination and gets 10 marks more than the pass
marks. Student B gets 50% of the maximum marks
and gets 50 marks more than the pass marks. Find the
pass marks.
(a) 150
(b) 250
(c) 400
(d) None of these
113. By what percentage will the area of a square change
if its side increases by 10%?
(a) 10% increase
(b) 21% increase
(c) 10% decrease
(d) None of these
114. Two vessels contain spirit of 0.5 and 0.75 concentrations. If 2 lt from the first vessel and 3 litres from the
second vessel are mixed, then what will be the ratio
of spirit and water in the resultant solution?
(a) 13 : 7
(b) 7 : 17
(c) 15 : 17
(d) 17 : 15
115. A student on his birthday distributed on an average
5 chocolates per student. If on the arrival of the
teacher and the headmaster to whom the student
gives 10 and 15 chocolates, respectively, the average
chocolate distributed per head increases to 5.5, then
what is the strength of the class?
(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 32
(d) None of these
116. The wheel of a cycle covers 660 m by making 500
revolutions. What is the diameter of the wheel (in
cm)?
(a) 42
(b) 21
(c) 30
(d) 60
117. A number when divided by 192 gives a remainder of
54. What remainder would be obtained on dividing
the same number by 16?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
118. A hall is 12 m long and 5 m wide. If the height of the
hall is 10 m, then find the surface area (in sq m) of
the walls of the hall.
(a) 340
(b) 360
(c) 380
(d) None of these
119. A milkman has 3 jars containing 57 lt, 129 lt and 177
lt of pure milk, respectively. A measuring can, after a
different number of exact measurements of milk in
each jar, leaves in the same amount of milk unmeasured in each jar, what is the volume of the largest
such can?
(a) 12 liters
(b) 16 liters
(c) 24 liters
(d) None of the
120. A gardener has to plant trees in rows containing
equal number of trees. If he plants in rows of 6, 8, 10
or 12, then five trees are left unplanted. But if he
74.10
The Pearson Guide to MBA Entrance Examinations
plants in rows of 13 trees each, then no tree is left.
What is the number of trees that the gardener
plants?
(a) 485
(b) 725
(c) 845
(d) None of these
SECTION IV DATA INTERPRETATION
Directions (Q. 121–125): Use the following chart to answer these questions on the age-wise distribution of personal income of a country in the year 2002.
Under 25
years
11%
Over 44
years
45%
25–34 years
24%
35–44 years
20%
Fig.
Rs. 2,499.4 billion = 100%
121. In 2002, what was the approximate personal income,
in billions of rupees, of the age-group 35–44 years?
(a) 500
(b) 600
(c) 1,125
(d) None of these
122. About how many degrees are there in the central
angle devoted to the personal income of the agegroup 35–44?
(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 72
(d) None of these
123. What is the ratio of the personal income of the agegroup 25-34 to that of the age-group 35–44?
(a) 9 : 4
(b) 5 : 6
(c) 8 : 15
(d) None of these
124. If the total income in 2002 was 20% greater than it
was in 2000, then what was the approximate total
personal income in 2000 (in billions of rupees)?
(a) 2,200
(b) 2,100
(c) 2,000
(d) None of these
125. If the total income in the year 2007 is projected to be
one-and-a-half times of its current size, then what is
the assumed annual compound rate of growth in income (in per cent)?
(a) 20
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) None of these
Directions (Q. 126–128): These questions are based on
the data given in the following table which shows the
number of units of toys produced by the employees in a
small-sized company in November 2003.
Units Produced
0 – 50
50 – 100
100 – 200
200 – 500
500 – 800
Number of Employees
20
60
80
30
10
126. The average number of units produced by an employee is
(a) 175
(b) 200
(c) 225
(d) None of these
127. The percentage of workers producing 500 or more
units is
(a) 20
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) None of these
128. The number of employees producing less than 50
units is lower than that producing 200 or more units
by
(a) 50%
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) None of these
Directions (Q. 129–133): These questions are based on
the data given in the following table showing investments
made by five companies over the years (in lakh of rupees):
Years
Company
1998
1999
2000
2001
2002
I
II
III
IV
V
20
29
31
33
15
128
21
31
29
14
17
112
50
23
27
33
32
165
35
46
22
37
39
179
75
42
16
48
47
228
129. Which company made more than 25% of the total
investment made by all the companies in 2001?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) IV
(d) None of these
130. For which company has the amount of investment
made increased continuously over the years?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) None of these
131. For which company has the amount of investment
made decreased continuously over the years?
(a) V
(b) IV
(c) III
(d) None of these
132. In which year, was the amount of investment made
the least as compared to average investment made
by all the companies over the years?
(a) 1998
(b) 1999
(c) 2000
(d) None of these
Test Paper III
Directions (Q. 134–138): These questions are based on
the following pie chart showing percentage of money
spent on household items by a representative family.
15.28%
(Miscellaneous)
34.72%
(Food)
10.28%
(Electricity)
19.44%
(Rent)
20.28%
(Clothing)
134. The ratio between the money spent on rent and food
is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 7 : 5
(c) 14 : 25
(d) None of these
135. If the income of a family is Rs 12,000 p.m., then the
difference between the expenditure (in rupees) on
clothing and electricity is nearly
(a) 8,700
(b) 4,400
(c) 3,300
(d) None of these
136. If the income of a family is Rs 20,000 p.m., then the
ratio of the expenditure on rent and miscellaneous
items is
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 7 : 5
(c) 7 : 6
(d) None of these
137. If the income of a family increases by Rs 1,000 p.m.,
then the amount spent (in rupees) on electricity
should increase by nearly
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 300
(d) None of these
138. If the income of a family is Rs 8,000 p.m., then the
approximate difference of the expenditure on electricity and miscellaneous items is (in per cent)
(a) 18
(b) 12
(c) 5
(d) None of these
Directions (Q. 139–142): These questions are based on
the following bar graph showing the number of employees working in five different companies.
108
114
120
IV
V
90
60
I
II
III
139. Which company has the maximum number of employees?
(a) V
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
140. Which company has the minimum number of employees?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
141. Which company has one-and-a-half times the number of employees as compared to another company?
(a) I
(b) III
(c) V
(d) None of these
142. Which company has nine-tenths the number of employees as compared to another company?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Directions (Q. 143–146): These questions are based on
the following graph on production index of an industrial
product for the years 2002 (Series 1) and 2001 (Series 2)
(Base 2000 = 100).
Index
133. In which year, was the percentage change in the total amount of investment made the highest over its
immediately preceding year?
(a) 2002
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) None of these
74.11
120
100
80
60
40
20
0
Series 2
Series 1
J F M A M J J A S O N D
Month
120
100
80
60
40
20
0
143. How many months’ production in 2002 is higher than
that in 2001?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None of these
144. The largest difference between the indices of 2001
and 2002 is in the month of
(a) January
(b) April
(c) June
(d) None of these
145. As against 2001, the production performance of the
product in 2002 is
(a) Almost same
(b) Inferior
(c) Consistently worse(d) None of them
146. What is the approximate ratio of the highest and the
lowest values of the index in 2002?
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 1
(d) None of these
Directions (Q. 147–150): These questions are based
on the following diagram showing percentage of girls
(Series 1) and boys (Series 2) successfully completing
their undergraduate degree courses in six colleges of
Delhi Universitys.
74.12
The Pearson Guide to MBA Entrance Examinations
70
70
90
80
60
80
60
70
60
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
80
60
40
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(d)
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
(d)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
82.
87.
92.
97.
102.
107.
112.
117.
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
83.
88.
93.
98.
103.
108.
113.
118.
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
84.
89.
94.
99.
104.
109.
114.
119.
(b)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
85.
90.
95.
100.
105.
110.
115.
120.
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(c)
122.
127.
132.
137.
142.
147.
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
123.
128.
133.
138.
143.
148.
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
124.
129.
134.
139.
144.
149.
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
125.
130.
135.
140.
145.
150.
(d)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
Section 2
I
II
III
IV
Series 1
V
Series 2
147. In which college is the difference between the percentage result of girls and boys the maximum?
(a) I
(b) III
(c) V
(d) None of these
148. In which college is the percentage result of boys is
more than the average percentage result of girls?
(a) III
(b) V
(c) VI
(d) None of these
149. In which college is the percentage failure of girls the
highest?
(a) I
(b) III
(c) IV
(d) None of these
150. In which pairs of colleges is the percentage result of
boys better then that of girls?
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) None of these
Answers
Section 1
1. (a)
6. (c)
2. (a)
7. (c)
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
VI
3. (a)
8. (b)
4. (b)
9. (c)
5. (c)
10. (b)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
Section 3
81.
86.
91.
96.
101.
106.
111.
116.
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
Section 4
121.
126.
131.
136.
141.
146.
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(d)
Self-Evaluation Chart
Section
Number
I
II
III
Subject
Area
English
Usage
Logical
Reasoning
and Data
Sufficiency
Quantitative
Aptitude
Questions Answered
Correct
1
11
21
31
41
51
61
71
81
91
101
111
2
3
12
13
22 23
32 33
42 43
52 53
62 63
72 73
82 83
92 93
102 103
112 113
4
5
14
15
24 25
34 35
44 45
54 55
64 65
74 75
84 85
94 95
104 105
114 115
6
16
26
36
46
56
66
76
86
96
106
116
7
8
17
18
27 28
37 38
47 48
57 58
67 68
77 78
87 88
97 98
107 108
117 118
Number of Correctly
Answers
9 10
19
20
29 30
39 40
49 50
59 60
69 70
79 80
89 90
99 100
109 110
119 120
________
________
________
Test Paper III
Section
Number
IV
Subject
Area
Data
Interpretation
Questions Answered
Correct
121 122 123
131 132 133
141 142 143
74.13
Number of Correctly
Answers
124 125 126 127 128 129 130
134 135 136 137 138 139 140
144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Total Correct Answers_______
Total Incorrect Answers_________
(Answers left blank are not counted as correct or incorrect)
Total score = [Total no. of correct answers – 0.25´ no. of incorrect answers] _________
Evaluate Your Performance in This Test
Score
Performance
Analysis of Result
120 – 150
100 – 119
75 – 99
Excellent
Very good
Good
60 – 74
Below 60
Average
Below average
Expect a call from
Expect a call from
Can expect a call with
a little improvement
Needs improvement
________