MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER
PHYSICS
1.
Which one of the following substances possesses the highest elasticity
(a) Rubber
2.
(b)  and L both
2 mA
7.
(d) 20 mA
(b) Joule/s
(c) Joule/m
(d) Joule-s
(b) 4.8 m
(c) 3.2 m
(b) Linear momentum
(c) Angular momentum
(d) Energy
(d) 3.0 m
A moves with 65 km/h while B is coming back of A with 80 km/h. The relative velocity of B with
respect to A is
(b) 60 km/h
(c) 15 km/h
(d) 145 km/h
A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60 o with the horizontal
direction with a velocity of 147 ms–1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal
is 45o is
(b) 10.98 s
(c) 5.49 s
(d) 2.745 s
Moment of inertia of a disc about its own axis is I. Its moment of inertia about a tangential axis
in its plane is
(a)
10.
(c) 2 mA
(a) Mass
(a) 15 s
9.
(b) 10 2 mA
The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of the conservation of
(a) 80 km/h
8.
(d) Neither  nor L
A man weighing 80 kg is standing in a trolley weighing 320 kg. The trolley is resting on
frictionless horizontal rails. If the man starts walking on the trolley with a speed of 1 m/s, then
after 4 sec his displacement relative to the ground will be
(a) 5 m
6.
(c) L only
The unit of Planck's constant is
(a) Joule
5.
(d) Copper
An alternating voltage V  200 2 sin 100 t where V is in volts and t in seconds, is connected to
a series combination of 1 F capacitor and 10 k resistor through an ac ammeter. The reading of
the ammeter will be
(a)
4.
(c) Steel
A uniform heavy disc is rotating at constant angular velocity  about a vertical axis through its
centre and perpendicular to the plane of the disc. A lump of plasticine is dropped vertically on
the disc and sticks to it. Let L be angular momentum of the system. Which will be constant
(a) 
3.
(b) Glass
5
I
2
(b) 3 I
(c)
3
I
2
(d) 2 I
A body is sliding down an inclined plane having coefficient of friction 0.5. If the normal
reaction is twice that of the resultant downward force along the incline, the angle between the
inclined plane and the horizontal is
(a) 15o
(b) 30o
(c) 45o
(d) 60o
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MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER
11.
12.
13.


A vector F1 is along the positive X-axis. If its vector product with another vector F2 is zero then

F2 could be
ˆ
ˆ
(a) 4ˆj
(b) (iˆ  ˆj)
(c) (ˆj  k)
(d) (4i)
When a satellite going round earth in a circular orbit of radius r and speed v, losses some of its
energy. Then r and v change as
(a) r and v both will increase
(b) r and v both will decrease
(c) r will decrease and v will increase
(d) r will increase and v will decrease
R
has moment of inertia I about an axis passing
6
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. It is melted and recasted into a solid sphere.
The moment of inertia of the sphere about its diameter as axis of rotation is
A circular disc of radius R and thickness
(a) I
14.
(b)
16.
(d)
(b) 32 J
(c) 24 J
(a) 2
G
(M1  M 2 )
d
(b) 2
2G
(M1  M 2 )
d
(c) 2
Gm
(M1  M 2 )
d
(d) 2
Gm(M1  M 2 )
d(R 1  R 2 )
I
10
(d) 288 J
The potential energy of a certain spring when stretched through a distance ‘S’ is 10 Joule. The
amount of work (in joule) that must be done on this spring to stretch it through an additional
distance ‘S’ will be
(b) 40
(c) 10
(d) 20
At what temperature the molecules of nitrogen will have the same rms velocity as the molecules
of oxygen at 127°C
(a) 77°C
18.
I
5
The masses and radii of the earth and moon are M1 , R1 and M2 , R 2 respectively. Their centres
are distance d apart. The minimum velocity with which a particle of mass m should be projected
from a point midway between their centres so that it escape to infinity is
(a) 30
17.
(c)
A bomb of 12 kg explodes into two pieces of masses 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity of 8kg mass is 6
m/sec. The kinetic energy of the other mass is
(a) 48 J
15.
2I
8
(b) 350°C
(c) 273°C
A block of mass M is placed on a rough horizontal surface as
shown in the figure. A force F = Mg acts on the block. It is
inclined to the vertical at an angle . The coefficient of friction
is . The block can be pushed along the surface only when
(a) tan   
(b) cot   
(c) tan  / 2  
(d) cot  / 2  
(d) 457°C
F = Mg

M
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MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER
19.
A cylindrical vessel of 90 cm height is kept filled
upto the brim. It has four holes 1, 2, 3, 4 which are
respectively at heights of 20 cm, 30 cm, 45 cm and
50 cm from the horizontal floor PQ. The water
falling at the maximum horizontal distance from
the vessel comes from
(a) Hole number 4
20.
(d) Hole number 1
(b) Sphere
(c) Cube
(d) Cylinder and sphere both
(b) 40°
(c) 60°
(d) 80°
If a simple pendulum oscillates with an amplitude of 50 mm and time period of 2 sec, then its
maximum velocity is
(a) 0.10 m/s
23.
(c) Hole number 2
Q
A centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometer are dipped in boiling water. The water temperature is
lowered until the Fahrenheit thermometer registers 140°. What is the fall in temperature as
registered by the Centigrade thermometer
(a) 30°
22.
P
If a sphere of radius R, cube of side R, and a cylinder of radius R and height R made of same
substance are heated to same temperature and then cooled, then which of above will radiate
maximum
(a) Cylinder
21.
(b) Hole number 3
4
3
2
1
(b) 0.15 m/s
(c) 0.8 m/s
(d) 0.16 m/s
The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related as
(a) Isothermal curve slope = Adiabatic curve slope
(b) Isothermal curve slope =   Adiabatic curve slope
(c) Adiabatic curve slope =   Isothermal curve slope
(d) Adiabatic curve slope =
24.
25.
1
 Isothermal curve slope
2
A liquid does not wet the sides of a solid, if the angle of contact is
(a) Zero
(b) Obtuse (More than 90o)
(c) Acute (Less than 90o)
(d) 90o
The specific heat of hydrogen gas at constant pressure is Cp  3.4 103 cal / kgC and at constant
volume is C v  2.4 103 cal / kgC . If one kilogram hydrogen gas is heated from 10°C to 20°C at
constant pressure, the external work done on the gas to maintain it at constant pressure is
(a) 105 calories
26.
(b) 10 4 calories
(c) 103 calories
(d) 5  103 calories
The total energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is proportional to
(a) Displacement from equilibrium position (b) Frequency of oscillation
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MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER
(c) Velocity in equilibrium position
27.
Standing waves are produced in a 10 m long stretched string. If the string vibrates in 5 segments
and the wave velocity is 20 m/s, the frequency is
(a) 2 Hz
28.
(b) 125°C
(c) 150°C
(d) 200°C
(b)
30 / 2
(c) 0 / 2
(d) 30 / 2
(b) 1/2 sec
(c) 1 sec
(d) 2 sec
Two small bar magnets are placed in a line with like poles facing each other at a certain distance
d apart. If the length of each magnet is negligible as compared to d the force between them will
be inversely proportional to
(a) d
32.
(d) 10 Hz
Two tuning forks have frequencies 450 Hz and 454 Hz respectively. On sounding these forks
together, the time interval between successive maximum intensities will be
(a) 1/4 sec
31.
(c) 5 Hz
Two long parallel wires P and Q are held perpendicular to the plane of paper with distance of 5m
between them. If P and Q carry current of 2.5 amp. and 5 amp. respectively in the same
direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between the wires is
(a)  0 /17
30.
(b) 4 Hz
A lead bullet of 10 g travelling at 300 m/s strikes against a block of wood and comes to rest.
Assuming 50% of heat is absorbed by the bullet, the increase in its temperature is (specific heat
of lead = 150J/kg, K)
(a) 100°C
29.
(d) Square of amplitude of motion
(b) d 2
(c)
1
d2
The diagram shows a capacitor C and a resistor R connected
in series to an ac source. V1 and V2 are voltmeters and A is
(d) d 4
V1
an ammeter
C
Consider now the following statements
R
V2
A
I. Readings in A and V2 are always in phase
II. Reading in V1 is ahead in phase with reading in V2
III. Readings in A and V1 are always in phase which of these statements are/is correct
(a) I only
33.
(c) I and II only
(d) II and III only
The current passing through a choke coil of 5 henry is decreasing at the rate of 2 ampere/sec.
The e.m.f. developing across the coil is
(a) 10 V
34.
(b) II only
(b) – 10 V
(c) 2.5 V
(d) – 2.5 V
A wire coil carries the current i. The potential energy of the coil does not depend upon
(a) The value of i
(b) The number of turns in the coil
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MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER
(c) Whether the coil has an iron core or not (d) The resistance of the coil
35.
A source of sound placed at the open end of a resonance column sends an acoustic wave of
pressure amplitude P0 inside the tube. If the atmospheric pressure is p A , then the maximum and
minimum pressure at the closed end of the tube will be
36.
(a) (PA  P0 ), (PA  P0 )
(b) (PA  2P0 ), (PA  2P0 )
(c) PA , PA
1  
1 

(d)  PA  P0  ,  PA  P0 
2  
2 

Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not
experience any force. The value of
(a) 40G
37.
38.
 0
G
(c)
G
4 0
4 0G
(d)
An ammeter and a voltmeter of resistance R are connected in series to an electric cell of
negligible internal resistance. Their readings are A and V respectively. If another resistance R is
connected in parallel with the voltmeter
(a) Both A and V will increase
(b) Both A and V will decrease
(c) A will decreases and V will increase
(d) A will increase and V will decrease
The angle of dip at the magnetic equator is
(a) 0°
39.
(b)
q
is
m
(b) 45°
(c) 30°
(d) 90°
Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 1 and 2 respectively are placed

1 
at a distance of R metres. The force per unit length on either wire will be  k 

40 

(a) k
40.
21 2
R2
(b) k
21 2
R
(c) k
1 2
R2
(d) k
If in the circuit shown, the internal resistance of the battery
is 1.5  and VP and VQ are the potentials at P & Q
respectively what is the potential difference between P
and Q
1 2
R
20 V
1.5
3
2
P
(a) Zero
(c) 4 volt (VQ > VP)
41.
(b) 4 volts (VP > VQ)
2
3
Q
(d) 2.5 volt (VQ > VP)
In a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius r the electric field is
(a) Zero
(b) Non-zero constant
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MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER
(c) Varies with r
42.
(d) Inversely varies with r
In the figure shows, the potential difference across AB
is 8.5 V. If the internal resistance of the battery is 1 ,
it’s emf is
(a) 18 V
(b) 15 V
(c) 9 V
(d) 6 V
A
B
1
4
6
D
43.
44.
C
7
A body of mass 5 kg explodes at rest into three fragments with masses in the ration 1 : 1 : 3. The
fragment with equal masses fly in mutually perpendicular directions with speeds of 21 metres
per sec. The velocity of the heaviest fragments will be
(a) 11.5 metres per sec
(b) 14.0 metres per sec
(c) 7.0 metres per sec
(d) 9.87 metres per sec
A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 800 ms2 . To give an initial
upward acceleration of 20 ms2 , the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed
thrust will be (g  10 ms2 )
(a) 127.5 kg s 1
45.
(b) 187.5 kg s 1
(c) 185.5 kg s 1
(d) 137.5 kg s 1
Two concentric spheres of radii R and r have similar charges with equal surface densities () .
What is the electric potential at their common centre ?
(a)

0
(b)
R
r 0
(c)

(R  r)
0
(d)

(R  r)
0
ASSERTION & REASON
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below :
(a)
If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b)
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c)
If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d)
If assertion is false but reason is true.
46.
Assertion :
A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built to block an electric field.
Reason
In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point.
47.
:
Assertion :
The frequency of a second pendulum in an elevator moving up with an
acceleration half the acceleration due to gravity is 0.612 s–1.
Reason
The frequency of a second pendulum does not depend upon acceleration due to
gravity.
:
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MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER
48.
49.
50.
Assertion :
When a bottle of cold carbonated drink is opened, a slight fog forms around the
opening.
Reason
Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes lowering of temperature and condensation
of water vapours.
:
Assertion :
The internal energy of an isothermal process does not change.
Reason
The internal energy of a system depends only on pressure of the system.
:
Assertion :
Gauss theorem is not applicable in magnetism.
Reason
Mono magnetic pole does not exist.
:
CHEMISTRY
51.
The correct order of acidity of the following is:
O
(I)
(a) III  IV  I  II
S
O
O
(II)
(III)
(IV)
(b) III  IV  II  I
(c) IV  III  I  II
(d) None of these
52.
Which of the following molecules can act as a nucleophile and an electrophile?
(a) CH3NH2
(b) CH3Cl
(c) CH3CN
(d) CH3OH
53.
Among the following compounds, the one which will not show keto-enol tautomerism is:
O
O
(a)
(b)
CH3
CH3
O
(c)
O
(d)
O
54.
O
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) A meso compound has chiral centres but exhibits not optical activity
(b) A meso compound has no chiral centres and thus are optically inactive
(c) A meso compound has molecules which are superimposable on their mirror images even
through they contain chiral centres
(d) A meso compound is optically inactive because the rotation caused by any molecule is
cancelled by an equal and opposite rotation caused by another molecule that is the mirror
image of the first.
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MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER
55.
Which of the following compounds is optically active?
Cl
Cl
(a)
Cl
(b)
(c)
(d)
Cl
Br
56.
Cl
For the given reaction how many products will obtain (all isomers)?
Br2 /hv

 Pr oducts
(a) 1
(c) 4
57.
Cl
Br
(b) 6
(d) 3
Arrange following compounds in decreasing order of basicity.
O
N
N
N
H
H
(III)
(IV)
N
H
(II)
(I)
(a) IV  I  III  II
(b) III  I  IV  II
(c) II  I  III  IV
(d) I  III  II  IV
CH3
58.
H
D
H3C
H
(a)
Br /hv
2

 Pr oducts :
C2H5
CH3
H
H3C
CH3
(b)
D
H
D
Br
Br
CH3
C2H5
C2H5
(c) Both (a) and (b)
59.
(d) None of these
Among the following the aromatic compound is
(a)
(b)
+
(c)
+
(d)
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MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER
60.
NBS
HBr
Mg

 X 
 Y 
 Z; Z is :
H O, 

2
61.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
CH3
Which of the following is most suitable reagent to distinguish compound III from others?
I. CH3 – C  C – CH3
II. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
III. CH3 – CH2 – C  CH
IV. CH3 – CH = CH2
(a) Bromine in CCl4
(c) Ammonical AgNO3
(b) Ammonical Cu2Cl2
(d) Both (b) and (c)
OH
62.
In the dehydration of
, the products formed are
CH3
CH2
63.
64.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
All the three products are formed
Hydroboration oxidation and acid hydration will not yield the same product in case of:
(a)
(b)
(c) CH2 = CH2
(d) CH3CH = CHCH3
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Hydrogenation of 2-butyne in presence of Na and liquid ammonia yields cis-2-butene
(b) Hydrogenation of 2-butyne in presence of Lindlar’s catalyst yields cis-2-butene
(c) Hydrogenation of 2-butyne in presence of Pt catalyst gives cis-2-butane
(d) None of these
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MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER
65.
Products of the reaction,
CH3

D2 O / D

CH2 
H3C
CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3
(a)
(c)
H3C
CH2D
(b)
H3C
CH2 D
CH3 OD
OD
CH3 H
CH3
H3C
CH3
(d)
H3C
CH2
CH3 D
OD D
OD
66.
Bond order for N2+ and N2– are same. Which relation is correct for N2+ and N2–?
(a) Bond energy of N2+ = Bond energy of N2–
(b) Bond energy of N2+  Bond energy of N2–
(c) Bond energy of N2+  Bond energy of N2–
(d) Bond length of N2+  Bond length of N2–
67.
Dipole moment of K+Cl– is 3.336  10–29 cm and it is 80% ionic in nature. The inter ionic
distance between K+ Cl– is
(a) 1.30Å
(b) 2.60 Å
(c) 3.9 Å
(d) 1.20 Å
68.
How many chiral compound are possible on mono chlorination of 2-methyl butane?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
69.
CH3–CH=CH2 + NOCl  P. Identify the adduct
(a) H3C
CH CH2
Cl
(c)
70.
CH
CH CH2
NO Cl
(d)
CH2 CH CH2
NO
Cl
Cl
Missing of one cation and one anion from the crystal lattice is called
(a) Ionic defect
71.
H3 C
NO
NO
CH 3 CH 2
(b)
(b) Crystal defect
(c) Schottky defect
(d) Frenkel defect
The rate constant ( K ' ) of one of the reaction is found to be double to that of the rate constant
(K" ) of another reaction. Then the relationship between the corresponding activation energies of
the two reactions (Ea ' and Ea" ) can be represented as
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MEDICAL SAMPLE PAPER
(a) E 'a  E "a
72.
(b) E 'a  E "a
(b) 8
(b) 80 %
(d) 4
(c) 92 %
(d) 98 %
Calculate the volume of hydrogen at NTP obtained by passing a current of 0.4 ampere through
acidified water for 30 minutes
(a) 0.0836 litre
75.
(c) 12
The vant Hoff factor of KCl is 1.92. The degree of dissociation of KCl in aqueous solution of
0.005 M KCl will be
(a) 8 %
74.
(d) E 'a  4E "a
Coordination number in case of face centred cubic lattice is
(a) 6
73.
(c) E 'a  E "a
(b) 0.1672 litre
(c) 0.0432 litre
(d) 0.836 litre
(c) –1.14 V
(d) 1.799 V
The emf of the cell
Cr / Cr 3 (1M) || Cd2 (0.1M) | Cd is
o
(EoCr / Cr 3  0.47V,ECd/Cd
2  0.40V)
(a) 0.34 V
76.
(b) 0.07 V
The vapour pressure of pure cyckohexane is 100 mm Hg and cyetopentane is 180 mm Hg at a
certain temperature. What would be the total vapour pressure of the solution if the mole fraction
of cyclohexane in vapour phase is 0.25?
(a) 112.5
77.
(b) 135
(c) 150
(d) 120
Three Faradays electricity was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) bromide. The
weight of iron metal (At. wt = 56) deposited at the cathode (in gm.) is
(a) 56
(b) 84
(c) 112
(d) 168
78.
Which of the following is not disproportionsation?
(a) P4 + 50H–  H2PO4– + PH3
(b) Cl2 + OH–  ClO + ClO–
(c) 2H2O2  2H2O + O2
(d) PbO2 + H2O  PbO + H2O2
79.
Which is true about the rate of nitration of the following compounds
H
D
H
H
D
D
H
H
D
D
H
D
(I)
(II)
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(a) I is faster than II
(b) II is faster than I
(c) They follow the same rate
(d) cannot be determined
80.
The correct order of solubility of fluorides of alkaline earth metals is:
(a) MgF2  BaF2  SrF2  CaF2  BeF2
(b) BeF2  MgF2  CaF2  SrF2  BaF2
(c) BaF2  SrF2  CaF2  MgF2  BaF2
(d) None of these
81.
Which represents nitrolim:
(a) CaCN2 + C
(c) Ca(CN)2 + Ca(NO3)2
82.
Reaction of
(b) CaC2 + N2
(d) None of these
with RMgX followed by hydrolysis will lead to produce
O
83.
84.
85.
86.
(a) RCHOHR
(b) RCHOHCH3
(c) R2CHCH2OH
(d) RCH2CH2OH
A gas system was such that no process could do any work on the system or get any work done by
the system. The system
(a) has adiabatic walls
(b) is a constant energy system
(c) shows no temperature change
(d) has rigid walls.
Heat capacity, boiling point, molar enthalpy, temperature and volume. If ‘E’ stands for extensive
and ‘I’ is for intensive properties. The aforementioned properties are:
(a) I, I, E, E, E
(b) I, E, E, I, E
(c) E, I, E, I, E
(d) E, I, I, I, E.
Find the ratio of work done when a certain amount of ideal gas is isothermally and reversibly
compressed from 10 L to 2.5L first and then further to 500 mL from 2.5L. (Given log 2 = 0.3)
(a) 4/5
(b) 6/7
(c) 8/6
(d) 5/4.
HA and BOH are hypothetical weak acid and base. 0.3 moles of HA on complete neutralization
with a strong base released 10.8 kJ of energy. 0.4 moles of BOH on the other hand released 12.8
kJ of energy with a strong acid. Find the enthalpy change when 0.6 moles each of HA and BOH
neutralizes each other assuming standard enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid and base to be
– 57 kJ/mol.
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87.
(a) – 40.8 kJ
(b) – 20.4 kJ
(c) – 11.4 kJ
(d) – 6.6 kJ.
Consider the following equilibrium and statements that follow
N 2  g   3H 2  g 
2NH 3  g 
Given that equilibrium is attained in a constant pressure container at 43ºC and that 4.5 moles of
neon is introduced at equilibrium, which of the following statements are right?
(i) more H2 is produced
(ii) concentrations of all gases change
(iii) more NH3 is consumed
(iv) less nitrogen – nitrogen bonds remain
88.
89.
90.
91.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv).
A 20 mL 10–4 M NaOH solution is poured into 19.98L water. The pH of the resulting solution is:
(a) between 9 to 10
(b) exactly seven
(c) between 8 and 9
(d) between 7 and 8.
If kb for 2A  B
3C  D is 10–4 and Kf is 10–1. Then the equilibrium constant, Kc, for
6C  2D
4A  2B will be:
(a) 10+3
(b) 10–6
(c) 10–3
(d) 106.
For a tribasic weak acid H3A, pKa1 =3.6, pKa2 = 7.8, pKa3 = 11.4. Find the pH of a 10–2 M
solution of Na2HA.
(a) 5.7
(b) 7.8
(c) 9.6
(d) 7.5.
Which of the following could be a buffer
(a) 10 mL 0.4 M NH4Cl + 10 mL 0.2 M HCl
(b) 20 mL 0.4M CH3COONa + 30 mL 0.4 M HCl
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(c) 30 mL 0.6M HCOONa + 40 mL 0.5 M NaOH
(d) 30 mL 0.2M NH4CN + 20 mL 0.3 M BaSO4.
92.
93.
In hydrogen atom, which of the following transitions emit minimum frequency?
(a) n4  n,
(b) n2  n1
(c) n4  n2
(d) n3  n1
The ratio of area covered by second orbit to the first orbit is
(a) 1 : 2
94.
(b) 1 : 16
(d) 16 : 1
Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom corresponds to increasing values of energy i.e. E A  EB 
EC. If 1, 2 and 3 be the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to
A and C to A, respectively. Then
(a) 3 = 1 + 2
95.
(c) 8 : 1
(b)  3 
1 2
1   2
(c) 1 + 2 + 3 = 0
(d) 32 = 12 + 22
The molality of 15% (wt./vol.) solution of H2SO4 of density 1.1 g/cm3 is approximately
(a) 1.2
(b) 1.4
(c) 1.8
(d) 1.6
In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
96.
If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,
then mark (a)
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (b)
If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c)
If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d)
A: Addition of
Br2
to 1-butene gives two optical isomers.
R: The product contains one asymmetric carbon.
97.
A: Addition of bromine to trans-2-butene yields meso-2, 3-dibromo butane.
R: Bromine addition to an alkene is an electrophilic addition.
98.
A: A reaction is spontaneous only if entropy of the system increases.
R: All naturally spontaneous process have negative Gibb’s energy.
99.
A: Orbitals having xz plane as node may be 3dxy
R: 3dxy has zero radial node
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100.
A: Molarity of a solution and molality of a solution both change with density
R: Density of the solution changes when percentage by mass of solution changes.
BOTANY
101.
Which of the following statement is not correct about different classification systems?
(a) Plant and animal kingdoms have been constant under all different systems
(b) Understanding of what groups/organisms be included under these kingdoms have been
changing.
(c) Number and nature of other Kingdoms have also been understood differently by different
scientists over time
(d) Once an organism is placed to one kingdom than its position is permanent
102.
103.
According to five kingdom classification which of the following grouping is not correct
(a) Chamydomonas and Yeast
(b) Yeast and chlorella
(c) Chlamydomonas and chlorella
(d) Chlorella and Spirullina
Classification undergoes constant modification this is due to
(1) New evidences from different source
(2) Improvement in our understanding of characteristics and evolutionary relationship
(3) Dynamic nature of living organism with respect to time
(4) Country specific nature of classification.
104.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Following are the statement related to flora, out of these how many of them are correct.
(1) It contains recorded description
(2) It also help in correct identification
(3) Contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of given area
(4) These provide the index to the plant species found in particular area
(a) 4
(b) 3
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(c) 2
105.
106.
(d) 1
In R.H. Whittaker five kingdom classification how many kingdom includes heterotrophic
organism and how many kingdom includes autotrophic organisms
(a) 3, 2
(b) 4, 3
(c) 5, 2
(d) 2, 3
Which of the following combination (s) is incorrect?
A.
Kingdom
Monera
Mode of Nutrition
In Blue green algae –
Photosynthetic
B.
Protista
C.
D.
Fungi
Plantae
In Euglena – Photosynthetic as
well as Heterotropic
In all members – Heterotrophic
In spirogyra – Photosynthetic
E.
Animalia
In all members – Heterotrophic
Cell Wall
In bacteria –
Polysaceharide +
Amino acids
In Dinoflagellates –
Cellulosic
In Albugo – chitin
In algae & bryophyta –
Cellulosic
In all members –
Absent
Body organization
In bacteria – Cellular
In chrysophyta – Tissue
level
In Agarius – Multicellular
In all members – Tissue /
organ
In all members – Tissue /
organ / system
Options :
107.
(a) A & B
(b) A & C
(c) A & D
(d) B & C
The soil which is used in polishing filtration of oils and syrups are made of
(a) Cellulosic plates on the surface of Dinoflagellates.
(b) Cell body of desmids.
(c) Cell wall of chrysophytes.
(d) Extremely resistant spores of slime moulds.
108.
How many statements among the given, are true for the phylogenetic classification system
1. It assumes that organisms belonging to the same taxa have a common ancestor
2. This classification was proposed by George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker
3. It is based on evolutionary relationships between various organisms
4. It consider hundreds of characters at the same time
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5. This classification supports when no fossil evidence is available options
109.
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
In which group of algae, frond is present?
(a) Dictyota, Fucus and Laminaria
(b) Polysiphonia, Porphyra & Laminaria
(c) Chara, Fucus and Laminaria
(d) Dictyola, Porphyra, Polysiphonia
110.
Which among the following is not the characteristic of bryophytes?
(a) Bryophtes can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction
(b) Bryophytes are thallus-like and prostrate or erect and attached to the substratum by
unicellular or multicellular rhizoids
(c) Half of the carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by bryophytes through
photosynthesis
(d) The main plant body is haploid, and occur in damp, humid and shaded localities
111.
Which among the following pteridophytes has compact structure strobili formed by sporotphylls
as well as it shows heterospory?
[A]
(a) [A]
112.
[B]
(b) [B]
(c) [C]
[C]
(d) All the above
Identify the stage/phase of cell cycle whose characterisitics are given below.
A. This stage is characterised by the appearance of recombination nodules.
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B. Stage between two meiotic divisions.
C. Cells that do not divide further exit this phase to enter an inactive stage.
D. Homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their
centromeres.
A
B
C
D
(a)
pachytene
interphase
G1 phase
anaphase I
(b) diplotene
interkinesis
G0 phase
anaphase II
(c)
interkinesis
G0 phase
anaphase I
interphase
G0 phase
anaphase II
pachytene
(d) diplotene
113.
114.
Which of the following is not the floral character of family to which Indigofera belongs?
(a) Calyx
- Sepals five, gamosepalous, imbricate aestivation
(b) Corolla
-
Petals five, polypetalous, vexillary aestivation
(c) Androecium
-
Ten, diadelphous, anther dithecous
(d) Gynoecium
-
Bicarpellary, syncarpous, ovary superior,
bilocular, placenta swollen with many ovules.
Study the diagram given below and find correct option.
(a) Cortex is divided into three sub-zones and inner most zone
is collenchymatous.
(b) Endodermis is also refered as starch sheath.
(c) Pericycle is parenchymatous in the form semi-lunar patch.
(d) Vascular bundles are arranged in ring with exarch
protoxylem.
115.
Read the given characteristics and find out the characteristics of parenchyma.
i. Isodiametric
ii. Thick walled
iii. Cells are either closely packed or may have small intercellular spaces.
iv. Walls are made of cellulose.
v. Forms minor component within the organs
vi. Performs function like secretion, storage.
(a)i, iii, iv, vi
(b) i, ii, iii, iv
(c) ii, iii, v, vi
(d) iii, iv, v, vi
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116.
Study the diagram given below and mark a, b, c, and d
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Phellem
Phellogen
Epidermis
Complimentary cell
(b) Phelloderm
Phellogen
Epidermis
Complimentary cell
(c)
Phelloderm
Complimentary cell
Epidermis
Complimentary cell
Epidermis
phelloderm
(a)
Phellogen
(d) Phellogen
117.
118.
Match the following:
I. China rose
- A. Opposite phyllotaxy, epigynous flower
II. Brinjal
- B. Alternate phyllotaxy, , monoadelphous
III. Guava
- C. Zygomorphic flower, diadelphous
IV. Pea
- D. Hypogynous flower, stamens are epipetalous
(a) I-B, II-C, III-D , IV- A
(b) I-B, II- D, III-A, IV-C
(c) I-B, II-A, III-D , IV- C
(d) I-A, II- D, III-B, IV-C
How many statements are correct from the following?
(a) In racemose type of inflorescences the main axis continues to grow, the flowers are borne
laterally in an acropetal succession.
(b) In the dicot root, the vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin.
(c) Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
(d) Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
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(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
119.
In 70 S or 80 S ribosomes, ‘S’ stands for the sedimentation coefficient, it indirectly is a measure
of
(a) density and size
(b) mass and density
(c) density only
(d) mass only
120.
How many of the following statement is/are correct?
(1) Both Rhizobium and Frankia are free living in soil and can fix N2 only under symbiotic
condition.
(2) Root nodules can be best observed before flowering.
(3) Formation of root nodule takes place as a result of division of cortical and pericycle cell.
(4) When Rhizobium is free living it is aerobic but when it is symbiont it becomes anaerobic to
protect Mo-Fe protein.
Options :
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
121.
Find odd one out with respect to Melvin Calvin.
(a) He was professor of chemistry.
(b) Calvin along with J.A.Bassham studied fixation of carbon in plants.
(c) He proposed that plant can convert light energy into chemical energy by transferring
electrons in an organized array of pigment molecules and other substance.
(d) He discouraged use of radioactivity for human welfare.
122.
The universal site of respiration in all the living organism is?
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Chloroplast
123.
Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) Pyruvic acid produced as a result of glycolysis can be handled in three different ways.
(b) As a result of fermentation less than 7% of energy is released, which is stored in glucose.
(c) During alcoholic fermentation death of yeast takes place when alcohol concentration reaches
13%.
(d) Enzyme pyruvic acid dehydrogenase and alcohol decarboxylase is involved in fermentation.
124
After degradation by protease proteins enter into aerobic pathway at which of the following
stage?
(a) Some stage within Kreb cycle
(b) As pyruvate
(c) As acetyl CoA
(d) All the above
125.
Match the following
PGR
Derivative
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(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
126.
Auxin
Cytokinin
ABA
GA3
Options :
A
B
C
(a)
1
2
3
(b)
4
2
3
(c)
4
3
2
(d)
1
4
3
In which of the following
exposure to low temperature.
(a) Sugarbeet
(c) Carrots
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Terpenes
Carotenoides
Purine
Amino acid
D
4
1
1
2
plant flowering is quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on
(b) Cabbage
(d) All the above
127.
The C4 plants are twice efficient with respect to C3 plants because :(a) They have ability to maximize availability of CO2 while minimizing H2O loss.
(b) They have low CO2 requirement with minimum H2O loss.
(c) There stomata remains always open and high water loss.
(d) There stomata open during night, and minimum H2 O loss.
128.
Find out the wrong statement with reference to the plant which propagates commonly from
offset.
(a) It drains oxygen from the water & leads to death of fish
(b) It propagates at the slow rate & confined to few area in water body.
(c) It is the most invasive weed found growing in the water, called “Terror of Bengal”
(d) It was introduced in India because of its beautiful flower & shape of leaves
129.
How many statements are correct w.r.t. sexual reproduction?
(a) Pre-reproductive phase as well as reproductive phase both are of variable durations in
different organism.
(b) Juvenile phase is that period of growth when organism reach to a certain stage of growth &
maturity so that they can reproduce sexually.
(c) The end of vegetative phase or beginning of reproductive phase is shown in the higher plants
by appearance of flower.
(d) Multicellular plants, annual and perennial types, show clear cut vegetative, reproductive and
senescent phases.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
130.
Which among the following is incorrect statement for post fertilization events?
(a) The formation of haploid gametes and diploid zygote is the universal in all sexually
reproducing organisms.
(b) In lower plants, zygote is formed in the external medium usually in water.
(c) In plants with haplontic life cycle, zygote divides by meiosis to form haploid spores that
grow into haploid individuals.
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131.
(d) In algae, fungi and bryophytes zygote develops a thick wall that is resistant to desiccation
and damage.
Study the diagram given below and find out
incorrect statement about this :
(a) Here thalamus contributes in fruit
formation.
(b) Its pollen remains viable for 30 minutes.
(c) Here ovary is perigynous.
(d) PGR GA3 is used for improving fruit shape.
132.
Study the diagram below and mark 1, 2, 3 and 4
1
(a)
133.
2
3
4
Endosperm
Cotyledon
Hypocotyl
axil
root Shoot apical meristem
(b) Endosperm
Catyledon
Shoot
apical Hypocotyl root axis
meristem
(c)
Cotyledon
Endoperm
Shoot
apical Hypocotyl root axis
meristem
(d) Cotyledon
Endoperm
Hypocotyl
axis
root Shoot apical meristem
Seeds offers several advantages to angiosperms except :
(a) Formation of seed is more dependable.
(b) Have better adaptive strategies.
(c) Generates new genetic recombination.
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(d) Exposes embryo to better environmental conditions.
134.
Which of the following statement is not true for apomixis?
(a) In some members of family Asteraceae and grasses seeds are produced without fertilization.
(b) Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction which mimics sexual reproduction.
(c) Gametophytic cells surrounding the embryo sac starts dividing protrude into the embryo sac
and develops into embryo.
(d) If hybrids are made apomictic, cost of production of seeds will come down.
135.
Which of the following statement is not associated with phenomenon of flowering?
(a) Decision for flowering takes place much before actual flower appears.
(b) During flowering several structural and hormonal changes takes place.
(c) During flowering differentiation takes place.
(d) Flowering is independent of environmental factors.
136.
Out of the following four statement how many of them are true?
(1) In chasmogamous flower complete autogamy is rare.
(2) In viola, oxalis and commelina both cleistogamous and chasmogamous flower is present.
(3) Wind pollinated plants has non-sticky, light pollen, with well exposed stamen, and large
feathery stigma.
(4) Flower of wind pollinated plant often have a single ovule in each overy with single flower.
Options :
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
137.
Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) 23S mRNA in bacteria is the enzyme-ribozyme.
(b) RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme in the world.
(c) Severo Ochoa enzyme was helpful in polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a
template independent manner.
(d) Recombinase is the enzyme that is involved in crossing over.
138.
Consider the following statements w.r.t human genome project and select wrong choice
(a) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where SNPs occur
(b) The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases
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(c) The total number of genes is estimated at 80,000
(d) Less then 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins
139.
Which of the following step is incorrect w.r.t DNA fingerprinting?
(a) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.
(b) Isolation of DNA.
(c) Hybridisation using labelled vectors.
(d) Detection of hybridized DNA fragments by autoradiography.
140.
How many disease in the list given below are Mendelian disorders?
Thalassaemia, Klinefelter’s Syndrome, Colour-blindness, Down’s Syndrome,
Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Phynylketonuria, Sickle-cell anaemia.
141.
142.
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Seven
Severo Ochoa Enzyme is involved in
(a) Deoxyribonucleotide polymerization
(b) Amino acid synthesis
(c) Primer dependent DNA system
(d) Template independent RNA synthesis
Stability of the DNA helical structure is conferred by
(a) Stacking of one base pair over the other in addition to H-bonds.
(b) N-glycosidic bond between nitrogen base and sugar.
(c) Presence of 2  OH group at every nucleotide.
(d) Parallel nature of helix.
143.
How many amino acids can be translated from the given sequence of nucleotides in mRNA if 6th
nucleotide is substituted with A?
AUG UGC ACU AUA GCG UAA
144.
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Four
(d) Three
How many of the following statements is / are correct for polygenic inheritance?
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(1) They are spread across a gradient.
(2) Controlled by three or more genes
(3) It also takes into account the influence of environment.
(4) In polygenic inheritance phenotype reflects the contribution of each allele, the effect of
each allele is additive.
Options :
145.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All the above
Match the following:
A. Seals
B. Desert lizards
C. Monarch butterfly
insulator
D. Kangroo rat
(a) A-iii , B-iv, C- i ,D-ii
(c) A-iii , B-iv, C- ii ,D-i
i.
Acquire special chemical by feeding on a
poisonous weed
ii. Meet water requirements through internal fat
oxidation
iii. Thick layer of fat below skin that acts as
iv. Bask in sun and absorb heat when body
temperature drops
(b) A-iv , B-iii, C- ii ,D-i
(d) A-iv , B-iii, C- i ,D-ii
In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(a)
If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,
then mark (a)
(b)
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (b)
(c)
If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c)
(d)
If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d)
146.
A: One species is distinguished from other closely related based on distinct morphological
differences.
R: Species is group of individuals with fundamental similarities.
147.
A: Peroxisomes participate in photorespiration in C4 plants.
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R: Catalase enzyme is present in high concentration in peroxisomes.
148.
A: Meiosis leads to recombinations of genes.
R: Crossing over occurs in pachytene sub-stage of prophase I of meiosis.
149.
A: Hitones are basic proteins of major importance in packaging of eukaryotic DNA. DNA and
histones comprise chromatin, forming the bulk of eukaryotic chromosome.
R: Histones are of five major types H1, H2A, H2B and H3 and H4.
150.
A: Exons and introns are present in split genes.
R: Introns are the information pieces of split genes.
ZOOLOGY
151.
(a)
Chordata
(b)
Pisces
Vertebrata
(c)
d (Fresh water)
In the given cladogram a, b, c d is
(a) Cephalochordata, agnatha, tetrapoda, rohu
(b) Protochordata, gnathostomata, osteichthyes, angel fish
(c) Protochordata, gnathostomata, chondrichtyes, hippocampus
(d) Urochordata, gnathostomata, osteichthyes, clarias
152.
Pick the incorrect match
Characteristic
Chondrichthyes
Osteichthyes
Mouth
Ventral
Terminal
(b) Gill slits
Uncovered
Covered
(c)
Heterocercal
Homocercal
Ammonia
Urea
(a)
Caudal fin
(d) Excretory product
153.
Which of the following is not correct regarding reproductive system of Cockroach?
(a) Spermatophores are formed within the spermatheca.
(b) Ootheca are formed within female genital pouch.
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(c) On an average female produce 9-10 ootheca each containing 14-16 eggs.
(d) The development of P.americana is paurometabolous.
154.
In the given diagram of mouth parts of cockroach a, b, c, d is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a) Mandible, maxilla, labium, hypopharynx
(b) Mandible, maxilla, labrum, hypopharynx
(c) Maxilla, mandible, labium, hypopharynx
(d) Mandible, maxilla, labrum, labium
155.
What are common characteristics between given
diagram a and b?
(1) Both are example of specialized connective
tissue.
(2) Presence of similar ground substance
(3) Presence of lacunae
(4) Presence of collagen fibres
156.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 1, 4 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 only
(d) 1 only
Which of the following statements is/are false about columnar epithelium?
(i) It is made of tall and slender cells
(ii) Free surface may have microvilli
(iii)It is found in stomach and intestine and helps in secretion and absorption
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(iv) Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in hollow structure like bronchioles and Fallopian
tubes
(v) It has apical nucleus
(a) (i) only
157.
158.
159.
(b) (v) only
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
When skeletal muscle contraction occurs
(a) The H and I bands gets smaller
(b) The Z lines move closer together
(c) The width of A bands remain constant
(d) All of these
Functionally, which cellular location is the neuron’s “decision-making site” as to whether or not
an action potential will be initiated?
(a) axonal membranes
(b) axon hillocks
(c) dendritic membranes
(d) presynaptic membranes
Mark the incorrect statement?
(a) All the co-enzymes are co-factors.
(b) Prosthetic group and co-enzymes are organic compounds.
(c) Metal ions form coordination bond with the active site and substrate molecule.
(d) Zinc is a prosthetic group for the enzymes peroxidase and catalase.
160.
Which of the following is correctly matched
(A) Alanine
i.
(B) Palmitic acid
ii.
(C) Adenine
iii.
CH3 – (CH2)16 – COOH
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(D) Uridine
161.
iv.
Pick the incorrect option:
(a) Inulin  polyglycan homopolysaccharide  (1  4)
(b) Chitin – heteropolysaccharide -  (1  4)
(c) Cellulose – polyglycan homopolysaccharide -  (1  4)
(d) Glycogen – polyglycan homopolysaccharide -  (1  4) &  (1  6)
162.
How many statements are true related to human digestive process?
(1) Carbohydrates in the chyme are hydrolysed by pancreatic amylase into disaccharide.
(2) Fats are broken down by gastric lipases with the help of bile into di-and monoglycerides.
(3) Nucleases in the intestinal Juice acts on nucleic acids to form nucleotides and nucleosides.
(4) Dipeptides are formed by the action of proteolytic enzymes of pancreas in the upper part of
small intestine.
163.
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) one
How many of the following statements are correct?
(i) Negative pressure in lungs with respect to the atmospheric air is required for inspiration.
(ii) Volume of the thoracic chamber increases due to contraction of the internal intercostal
muscles.
(iii)Tidal volume is 2500 ml.
(iv) Total lung capacity is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
(a) 1
164.
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Which one of the following is an event during inspiration?
(a) Intercostal muscles relax.
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(b) Volume of thoracic cavity increases by the contraction of external intercostal muscles.
(c) Abdominal muscles contract.
(d) Diaphragm relaxes
165.
Following are the statements regarding the conducting system of heart. Which is incorrect?
(a) SA-node is a nodal musculature having ability to generate action potential without receiving
any external stimuli.
(b) SA- node generates action potential at rate of 70-75 min-1.
(c) Removal of SA- node immediately causes death of man.
(d) Action potential spreads first of all on the walls of the atria.
166.
Mark the incorrect match for the given diagram of
ECG.
(a) P wave – Electrical excitation of atria.
(b) T wave – Return of ventricles from excited to
normal state.
(c) QRS – Depolarization of ventricles.
(d) End of T wave – Marks the end of joint
diastole.
167.
Mark the incorrect statement regarding ECG?
(a) ECG is the electro-cardiograph, which is a machine.
(b) In a normal heart QRS complex appear only after the impulse discharge of SA node.
(c) QRS complex appear after the contraction of ventricles.
(d) By counting the number of QRS we can determine the heart beat of an individual.
168.
The most abundant leucocytes are:
(a) Eosinophils
169.
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Basophils
(d) Lymphocytes
Human heart is myogenic, because
(a) A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac function.
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(b) Normal activities of the heart are regulated intrinsically.
(c) Cardiac function is moderated by adrenal medullary hormones.
(d) Autonomic nervous system can increase or decrease the rate of heart beat.
170.
See the diagram below. Parts are labeled as numerals and the name of the corresponding parts
have been given in the table. Which is the correct combination of numerals and the component
parts of the diagram?
1
171.
2
3
4
(a)
Renal column
Calyx
Medullary
pyramid
Renal pelvis
(b)
Calyx
Medullary
pyramid
Renal pelvis
Renal column
(c)
Renal pelvis
Calyx
Renal column
Medullary
pyramid
(d)
Medullary
pyramid
Calyx
Renal pelvis
Renal column
Mark the incorrect statement regarding vasa-recta?
(1) it is fine branch of efferent arteriole.
(2) it is the branch of afferent arteriole which runs parallel to the Henle’s loop.
(3) it is absent or highly reduced in cortical nephrons.
(4) during countercurrent process, NaCl is returned to the interstitium by ascending portion of
vasa recta
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 4 only
(c) 2, 3 only
(d) 2 only
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172.
Mark the correct match?
(a) Henle’s loop – Maximum reabsorption of water.
(b) PCT – Maximum secretion of urea.
(c) DCT – Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water.
(d) Collecting duct – Maintain pH and ionic balance of body by selective reabsorption of H+ and
K+ ions.
173.
174.
Find the incorrect match
(a) Uremia – abnormal rise in blood urea
(b) Gout-accumulation of uric acid
(c) Ketonuria – ketone bodies in urine
(d) Haematuria – excretion of bile pigments
What is correct for the given diagram?
(1) it represents two molecules of meromyosin
(2) it consists of both ATP and actin binding sites
(3) it consists of both HMM and LMM
(4) its cross arm consists of HMM only
175.
176.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 only
(c) 2, 3 only
(d) 1, 2 only
The ATPase activity is present in :
(a) Myosin and actin filaments
(b) In the head of meromyosin
(c) In the tropomyosin
(d) In troponin
Mark the wrong match?
(a) Pons
–
A part of brain stem which consists of fibrous
tracts that interconnect different regions of the
brain.
(b) Corpora quadrigemina
–
A part of brain stem present in the ventral
portion of midbrain.
(c) Medulla
–
A part of brainstem which controls
cardiovascular reflexes.
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(d) Association area
177.
–
A part of cerebral cortex which performs
memory and communication.
Mark the wrong match?
(a) Thalamus and Hypothalamus – Part of fore brain.
(b) Cerebral aqueduct – Part of mid brain.
(c) Limbic system – A part of hind brain.
178.
(d) Pons and medulla – Part of brain stem.
During nerve impulse conduction, Na+ - K+ pump operate –
(a) To depolarize the membrane.
(b) To repolarise the membrane.
(c) To maintain resting stage potential.
(d) To form action potential.
179.
Compared to viewing a distant object, viewing an object held within 5 cm of the eye requires a
lens that
(a) has been flattened, as a result of contraction of the ciliary muscles
(b) has been made more spherical, as a result of contraction of the ciliary muscles
(c) has been flattened, as a result of relaxation of the ciliary muscles
(d) has been made more spherical, as a result of relaxation of the ciliary muscles
180.
181.
The ear detects sound by the movement of
(a) The cupula that surround the hair cells
(b) The basilar membrane
(c) The tectorial membrane
(d) Fluid in the semi-circular canals
Which of the following is the incorrect, match of organ and its function?
(a) Anterior choroid plexus – secretion of CSF.
(b) Corpus callosum – connects cerebral hemispheres.
(c) Medulla – controls respiration and gastric secretions.
(d) Association area – center of emotions.
182.
Mark the odd one out depending upon chemical nature of hormone?
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183.
184.
(a) Insulin
(b) Glucagon
(c) Hypothalamic hormones
(d) Iodothyronie
Mark the wrong combination?
Hormone
Source
Function
(a)
Glucagon
-cells of many Islets It is a peptide hormone that stimulates
glycogenolysis in the liver cells
of Langerhans
(b)
Catecholamines
Adrenal medulla
Rapidly secreted in response to stress, and
increases sweating
(c)
Melatonin
Pineal gland
Helps to maintain the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle
(d)
ANF
Renal artery
It causes dilation of blood vessels which
decreases blood pressure
The inner layer of retina contains three layers of cells from inside to outside, and it is like
(a) photoreceptor cells – ganglionic cells – bipolar cells.
(b) ganglionic cells – bipolar cells – photoreceptor cells.
(c) bipolar cells – ganglionic cells – photoreceptor cells.
(d) ganglionic cell – photoreceptor cell – bipolar cells.
185.
An animal that is oviparous, reproduces by
(a) giving birth to free living young
(b) producing eggs that develop externally
(c) producing eggs that are fertilized externally
(d) incubating eggs internally while the fetus develops.
186.
Regarding the menstrual cycle of 28 days which is incorrect?
(a) The increased level of FSH and LH is observed before 14th day.
(b) Life span of mature ova is about 6-24 hours.
(c) Highest level of estrogen is observed in between 13-14th day.
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(d) Degeneration of corpus luteum causes over growth of uterine endometrium.
187.
188.
189.
190.
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Androgens are produced by the sertoli cells
(b) Oogenesis takes place in the corpus luteum
(c) Spermatozoa get nourishment from the Sertoli or sustentacular cells
(d) Leydig’s cells are found in ovaries
The layer of zona pellucida around the developing ova can be seen in
(a) Ovary
(b) Fallopian tube
(c) In uterus after implantation
(d) both (a) and (b)
The uterus prepares itself for implantation under the effect of:
(a) FSH
(b) LH
(c) Estrogen
(d) Estrogen & Progesterone
Which of the following is not true for contraceptive pills?
(a) These contain progesterone or a combination of progesterone and estrogen.
(b) These are taken for a period of 21 days with a gap of 7 days if the menstrual cycle is of 28
days.
(c) Saheli is a pill with less side effects and it is a steroidal preparation.
(d) These inhibit ovulation and implantation as well.
191.
Which of the following prevents pregnancy within 72 hours of unsafe coitus?
(i) oral pills containing progestogens only
(ii) oral pills containing both progestogens and estrogen.
(iii) IUD
(iv) Surgical method:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) only
(c) (ii), (iii) only
(d) (iii), (iv) only.
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192.
Some important events that occur during the menstrual cycle are given below. Arrange the
events in a proper sequence and select the correct option.
(i) Proliferation of endometrial wall
(ii) LH surge
(iii)Secretion of estrogen
(iv) Secretion of progesterone
(v) Ovulation
(vi) Growth of corpus luteum
(vii) Degeneration of corpus luteum
(viii) Menstruation
(a) (ii)  (iv)  (iii)  (i)  (vii)  (v)  (viii)  (vi)
(b) (iii)  (i)  (ii)  (v)  (vi)  (iv)  (vii)  (viii)
(c) (v)  (i)  (vi)  (i)  (viii)  (vii)  (iii)  (iv)
(d) (ii)  (v)  (vi)  (i)  (viii)  (vii)  (iii)  (iv)
193.
Which is not true about homologous organs?
(a) Thorn and tendrils of bougainvillea and cucurbita are homologous organs
(b) Homologous organs are the result of divergent evolution.
(c) Homology is observed in the limbs and of heart of vertebrates.
(d) Convergent evolution leads to the development of homologous organs.
194.
195.
Mark the wrong match regarding facts of human ancestor.
(a)
Dryopithecus
Ramapithecus
Existed around 15 mya
They were hairy and walked like
gorillas and chimpanzees.
(b)
Australopithecus
Two mya lived in east
African grass lands
They hunted with stone weapons and
essentially ate meat.
(c)
Homo-erectus
Existed around 1.5 mya
Had a large brain around 900 cc and
probably ate meat.
(d)
Neanderthal man
Lived near east and central
Asia between 100,000 –
40,000 years ago.
Used hides to protect their body and
buried their dead.
and
The Hardy-Weinberg principle cannot operate if
(a) the population is very large
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(b) frequent mutation occur in the population
(c) the population has no chance of interaction with other populations
(d) free interbreeding occurs among all members of the population.
In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(a)
If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then
mark (a)
(b)
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion,
then mark (b)
(c)
If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c)
(d)
If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d)
196.
A: In nearly all animal tissues specialized junctions provide both structural and functional link
between its individual cells.
R: Cell junctions always help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
197.
A: Lipids are essentially ester of fatty acids and glycerol.
R: Lipids are either in the form of monogycerides, diglycerides, and triglycerides.
198.
A: At birth human ovary consists of large number of ovarian follicles with diploid oocytes.
R: During fetal development primary oocytes enter a prolonged diplotene stage of the first
meiotic division and remain in this state until ovulation occurs at puberty.
199.
A: In ECG by counting the number of QRS complexes, that occur in a given time period, one
can determine the heart beat rate of an individual.
R: The QRS complex represents the depolarization of the ventricles which initiate the
ventricular contraction.
200.
A: Even the cartilaginous ring is absent in respiratory bronchioles, these does not collapse
during rapid expiration.
R: Respiratory bronchioles are lined with few surfactant releasing cells.
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