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Biology Department
Subject
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
Questions
45
45
100
Marks
180
180
400
Roll No.
XII - A Div
NEET-16
29-Dec-2016
01:00 To 04:00
This is to certify that, the entry of Roll No. has been correctly written and verified.
NEET
Candidate’s Signature
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Invigilator’s Signature
Note :
i) All Questions are compulsory
ii) Darken ( ) the appropriate circle(#) of the most correct option/response with black ball point pen.
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Physics
1)
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The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure
has a constant voltage drop of 0.5 V at all
currents and a maximum power rating of 100
milliwatts. What should be the value of the
resistor R, connected in series with the diode, for
obtaining maximum current ?
As
3)
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor
increases when e.m. radiation of wavelength
shorter than 2480 nm is incident on it. The band
gap in (eV) for semiconductor is :
A) 0.5
4)
B) 0.7
C) 1.1
D) 2.5
Statement I : Two P-N junction diodes placed back
to back work as a P-N-P transistor. Statement II :
A transistor is current operated device while a
triode valve is a voltage operated device.
A) Statement I is true, statement II is false.
2)
A) 1.5 V
B) 5 Ω
B) Statement I is false, statement II is true.
C) 6.67 Ω
D) 200 Ω
C) Statement I is true, statement II is true and
statement II is not correct explanation of
statement II.
D) Statement I is true, statement II is true. Statement
II is correct explanation of statement I.
Keeping the grid voltage constant a change in the
plate potential of 50 V, changes the plate current
by 10 mA. And keeping the plate potential
constant a change in the grid potential of 2V
changes the plate current by 10 mA again, the
amplification factor of the triode will be :
5)
A) 100
6)
B) 25
C) 5
D) 20
The number of functions in a transistor is :
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
For sample of 66 Cu , 7/8 of it decays in 15 min.
The half-life of sample is :
PCB
7)
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A) 5 min
B) 7
1
min
2
A) -1.5 eV
B) 1.5 eV
C) 10 min
D) 14 min.
C) 12.5 eV
D) 37.5 eV
Half−life of a substance is 20 minutes. What is the
time between 33% decay and 67% decay ?
A) 20 minutes
A) 1 m
B) 5 m
C) 10 m
D) 50 m
D) 40 minutes.
Li++
An H2 atom and
ion are both in the second
excited state If lH and lLi are their respective
angular momemtum and EH and ELi are their
energies then :
14) Which of the following does not exhibit shearing?
A) Twisting of wire
A) lH > lLi & EH > ELi
B) Wringling of washed clothes
B) lH = lLi & EH < ELi
C) Bending of beams
C) lH = lLi & EH > ELi
D) Curling of fingers
D) lH < lLi & EH < ELi
9)
13) At what distance should a book be placed from a
50 Cd bulb so that the illuminace on the book
becomes 2 lmm−2
B) 25 minutes
C) 30 minutes
8)
XII - A Div
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A) e
B) N0 log e
log e
C)
N
1
D) 1 −
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10) Which of the following represent γ -decay ?
A)
AX
Z
+ γ = A XZ−1 + a + b
B)
AX
Z
+ 1 n0
C)
AX
Z
→ A XZ + f
D)
AX
Z
+ e−1 → A XZ + g
=
A−3 X
Z−2
15) When a monochromatic source of light is at a
distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the
cut− off voltage and the saturation current are
respectively 0.6 V and 18 mA. If the same source
is placed 0.6 m away from the cell, then
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Fraction of the element decayed during its mean
life will be :
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A) the stopping potential will be 0.2 V
B) the stopping potential will be 1.8 V
C) the saturation current will be 6.0 mA
D) the saturation current will be 2.0 mA
+c
11) When a radiation of wavelength λ1 falls on a
surface, the maximum kinetic energy of the
emitted photoelectrons is K1 . For a radiation of
wavelength λ2 , the maximum kinetic energy is K2 .
If λ1 = λ2 /2, then
16) Two short bar magnets of length 1 cm each have
magnetic moments 1.20 Am2 and 1.00 Am2
respectively. They are placed on a horizontal
table parallel to each other with their N poles
pointing towards the South. They have a common
magnetic equator and are separated by a distance
of 20.0 cm. The value of the resultant horizontal
magnetic induction at the mid−point O of the line
joining their centres is close to (Horizontal
component of earths magnetic induction is
3.6 × 10−5 Wb/m2 )
A) K1 = 2K2
B) K2 = 2K1
A) 2.56 ×10−4 Wb/m2
C) K1 > 2K2
D) K1 < 2K2
B) 3.50 ×10−4 Wb/m2
12) When a photon of energy 7ev is made incident on
a metal then the emitted electron is stopped by a
stopping potential of -5.5 V. The work function of
metal will be
29-Dec-2016
C) 5.80 ×10−4 Wb/m2
D) 3.6 ×10−5 Wb/m2
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17) A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic
field requires W unit of work to turn it through 30°
. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this
position will be :
A)
√
3W
B)
√
3
C)
W
2
W
√
(2− 3)
XII - A Div
A) parallel
B) series
C) mixed grouping
D) any grouping will do
D) 2W
18) An irregular closed loop carrying current has
such a shape that the entire loop cannot lie in a
single plane. If this loop is placed in a uniform
magnetic field, the force acting on the loop :
23) A 5 V battery with internal resistance 2 Cl and 2 V
battery with internal resistance 1 Q. are
connected to a 10 1 resistor as shown in the
figure. The current in the 10 Q resistor is
A) must be zero.
B) can never be zero.
C) can be zero only for one particular direction of the
magnetic field.
D) can not be ascertained.
19) A spherical conductor A of radius r is placed
concentrically inside a conducting shell B of
radius (R > r). A charge Q is given to A, and then
A is joint to B by a metal wire. The charge flowing
from A to will be :
R
r
A) Q
B) Q
R+r
R+r
B) 0.27 A P2 to P1
C) 0.03 A P1 to P2
D) 0.03 A P2 to P1
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C) Q
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A) 0.27 A P1 to P2
24) Figure shows three resistor configuration R1 , R2
and R3 connected to 3 V battery. If the power
dissipated by the configuration R1 , R2 and R3 is
P1 , P2 and P3 , respectively then
D) Zero
As
20) A compass needle whose magnetic moment is
60 amp × m2 pointing geographical north at a
certain place, where the horizontal component of
earths magnetic field is 40µWb/m2 , experiences
a torque 1.2 × 10−3 N × m. What is the declination
at this place ?
A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 25°.
21) Two conductors of same length and
cross-sectional area but different specific
resistances ρ1 and ρ2 , are connected in series.
Then equivalent specific resistance of
combination is :
1
(ρ + ρ2 )
2 1
A) ρ1 + ρ2
B)
C) 2 (ρ1 + ρ2 )
√
D) ρ1 ρ2
22) 81 cells each of e.m.f. 2 V and internal resistance
1.5 ohm are connected to supply a maximum
current through an external resistance of 9 × 10−3
ohm. Then the cells must be connected in :
29-Dec-2016
A) P1 > P2 > P3
B) P1 > P3 > P2
C) P2 > P1 > P3
D) P3 > P2 > P1
25) In the star circuit given below equivalent
resistance between C & D is :
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XII - A Div
r
A)
r
C)
A) 0.62 r
B) 1.4 r
C) 0.82 r
D) None of these
26) The gravitational potential difference between the
surface of planet and a point 20 m above it is 20
J/kg. The work done in moving 10 kg mass by 10
m on a slope 30◦ with the horizontal is :
A) 50 J
B) 200 J
C) 100 J
D) 150 J.
27) Two metal spheres of equal radius "r" are so
placed that their surfaces touch each other the
gravitational force of attraction is proportional to :
A) r2
B)
1
r2
C) r4
r
k2
x
m
r
k1 −k2
x
m
B)
k1 + k2
x
m
D)
32) A lift pump works at 200 V, 10 A. It pumps water at
4◦ C to an average height of 15 m io fill a tank of
volume 3m × 2m × 1m . If g = 10 ms−2 and the
efficiency of the pump is 75%, then the time
required to fill the tank is:
A) 10 minute
B) 20 minute
C) 24 minute
D) 28 minute.
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33) A slab S of mass m is released from a height h0
from the top of a spring of force constant k. The
maximum compression x of the spring is given by
the equation :
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D) r6
28) A man weighs 50 kg at earth"s surface. At what
height above the earth"s surface his weight
becomes half (Radius of earth = 6400 km):
k1
x
m
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A) 2526 km
B) 6400 km
C) 2650 km
D) 3200 km.
As
29) There are two bodies of mass 100 kg, 10000 kg
separated by a distance of 1m. At what distance
from the smaller body the intensity of
gravitational field is zero
1
m
9
1
C)
m
11
A)
B)
1
m
10
D) none of the above.
1 2
kx
2
1
B) mg(h0 −x) = kx2
2
1
C) mgh0 = k(h0 + x)2
2
1
D) mg(h0 + x) = kx2
2
A) mgh0 =
30) If R is the radius of the earth and g the
acceleration due to gravity on the earth"s
surface, the mean density of the earth is :
4πG
A)
3gR
πRg
B)
12G
3g
C)
4πRG
3πR
D)
4gG
31) A block of mass m is attached to two unstretched
springs of spring constants k1 and k2 as shown in
(Fig.). The block is displaced towards right
through a distance x and is released. The speed
of the block as it passes through the mean
position shown is :
29-Dec-2016
34) Two carts on horizontal straight rails are pushed
apart by an explosion of a gun powder placed
between the carts. Suppose the coefficients of
friction between the carts and the rails are
identical. If the 200 kg cart travels a distacne of
36 m and stops, then the distance covered by the
cart weighing 300 kg is :
A) 32 m
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B) 24 m
C) 16m
D) 12m.
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35) A rough inclined plane with inclination 30◦ with
the horizontal has a block of 1 kg being pushed
up the plane by a force of 10 N acting parallel to
the plane. If the coefficient of friction between the
block and the plane is 0.1 and block is pushed
through a distace of 10 m along then incline.
What are the increases in the (i) potential energy
and (ii) kinatic energy of the block ?
A) 50 J ; 41.3 J
B) 40 J ; 31.6 J
C) 100 J ; 81.8 J
D) 25 J ; 20.7 J.
36) A Force of 750 N is applied to a block of mass
102kg to prevent it from sliding on a plane with an
angle of inclination of 30◦ with the horizontal. If
the coefficients of static and kinetic friction
between the block and the plane are 0.4 and 0.2
respectively, then the frictional force acting on the
block is :
A) 750 N
B) 500 N
C) 350 N
D) 250 N.
XII - A Div
39) Two blocks of masses m1 = 6 kg and m2 = 7 kg
are connected by a light string passing over a
light frictionless pulley as shown in fig. The mass
m1 is at rest on the inclined plane and mass m2
hangs vertically. If the angle of incline θ = 30◦
What is the magnitude and direction of the force
of friction on the 6 kg block ? (Take g = 10cm−2 ).
A) 40 N up the plane
B) 40 N down the plane
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C) 90 N up the plane
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D) 90 N down the plane.
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37) What is the maximum value of the force F such
that the block shown in the arrangement, does
not move ?
40) Two blocks of 100 kg and 50 kg connected by a
massless chord passing over a frictionless pulley
rest on a frictionless inclined plane inclined at
angle 30◦ and 60◦ respectively. What is the
acceleration and which way the system moves ?
As
A) 20 N
B) 10 N
C) 12 N
D) 15 N
38) A cylinder rolls up an inclined plane, reaches
some height, and then rolls down (without
slipping throughout these motions). The
directions of the frictional force acting on the
cylinder are :
A) up the incline while ascending and down the
incline while descending
B) up the incline while ascending as well as
descending.
C) down the incline while ascending and up the
incline while descending.
D) down the incline whiel ascending as well as
descending.
29-Dec-2016
A) 1ms−2 left
B) 0.866ms−2 right
C) 0.664ms−2 right
D) 0.446ms−2 left
41) The maximum and minimum tension in the string
whirling in a circle of radius 2.5 m are in the ratio
4 : 3 then its velocity is :
A)
√
98m/s
B) 7 m/s
C)
√
490m/s
D)
√
4.9m/s
42) The angle between two vectors 2î + 3ĵ + k̂ and
3î + 6ĵ is :
A) 0◦
B) 45◦
C) 60◦
D) 90◦
43) A car weighing 500 kg can take a turn of radius 50
m with velocity of 36 km/hr. The centripetal force
is :
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A) 1200 N
B) 1000 N
C) 750 N
D) 250 N.
5)
44) A 120 m long train is moving towards west at a
speed of 10 ms−1 . A small bird flying towards
east at a speed of 5 ms−1 crosses the train. What
is time taken by the bird to cross the train :
A) 4s
B) 8s
C) 12s
6)
D) 24s
45) Drops of water fall from the roof of a building 9 m
high at regular intervals of time, the first drop
reaching the ground at the same instant the
fourth drop starts its fall. What are the distances
of the second and third drops from the roof ?
A) 4 m and 1 m
XII - A Div
B) 13.6,14.6
C) 13.6,13.6
D) 14.6,14.6.
Which pairs of atomic numbers represent
elements which are both "s" block elements ?
A) 3, 15
7)
B) 6 , 12
C) 9, 17
D) 3, 12.
The molecular shapes of SF4 , CF4 and XeF4 are
A) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons
on the central atom respectively.
B) the same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons on
the central atoms respectively.
D) 6 m and 3 m
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C) different with 0,1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on
the central atom respectively.
Chemistry
2)
A) 14.6, 13.6
B) 4 m and 2 m
C) 6 m and 2 m
1)
Which of the following values in electron volt per
atom represent the first ionisation enthalpy of
oxygen and nitrogen respectively ?
The de Broglie wavelength of an electron is 66
nm. The velocity of the electron is (h =
6.6 × 10−34 kgm2 s−1 , m = 9.0 × 10−31 kg)
A) 1.84 × 10−14 ms−1
B) 1.1 × 104 ms−1
C) 5.4 × 103 ms−1
D) 1.1 × 103 ms−1
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The number of d−electrons in Fe2+ (Z = 26) is not
equal to that of the
As
D) different with 1,0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on
the central atom respectively.
8)
Which of the following has the highest polarizing
power ?
A) K+
9)
B) Ca2+
C) Mg2+
D) Na+
The volume of NH3 obtained by the combination
of 10 mL of N2 and 30 mL of H2 is
A) p− electrons in Ne (at. no. = 10)
A) 20 mL
B) 40 mL
C) 30 mL
D) 10 mL
B) d− electrons in Mn (at. no. = 25)
C) d− electrons in Fe
D) p− electrons in F− (at. no. of F = 9).
3)
Given that the abundances of isotopes 54 Fe , 56 Fe
and 57 Fe are 5%, 90% and 5% respectively, the
atomic mass of Fe is
A) 55.85
4)
B) 55.95
C) 55.75
D) 56.05.
20 mL of 10 N HCl are mixed with 10 mL of 36 N
H2 SO4 and the mixture is made 1L. Normality of
the mixture will be
10) A straight glass tube has two inlets X and Y at the
two ends. The length of the tube is 200 cm. HCl
gas through inlet X and NH3 gas through inlet Y
are allowed to enter the tube at the same time.
White fumes first appear at a point P inside the
tube. The distance of P from X is
A) 81.1cm
B) 36.8 cm
C) 58.2 cm
D) 68.2 cm
11) One mole of methanol when burnt in oxygen gives
out 723 kJ mol−1 heat. If one mole of oxygen is
used, what will be the amount of heat evolved ?
A) 0.56 N
B) 0.50 N
A) 723 kJ
B) 964 kJ
C) 0.40 N
D) 0.35 N.
C) 482 kJ
D) 241 kJ.
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12) If CH3 COOH + OH− → CH3 COO− + H2 O + xkJ
H+ + OH− → H2 O + ykJ The enthalpy change for
the reaction : CH3 COOH → CH3 COO− + H+ is
A) x + y
B) x − y
C) y − x
XII - A Div
18) What is the product of the reaction of H2 O2 with
Cl2
A) O2 + HOCl
B) HCl + O2
C) H2 O + HCl
D) HCl + H2
D) x − y/2
13) If H+ concentration of a solution is decreased by
10 times, its pH will
A) decrease by 10
B) increase by 1
C) decrease by 1
D) remains unchanged
19) The factor responsible for highest CO
contamination in air is :
A) forest fires
B) vehicular exhaust
14) The addition of solid sodium carbonate to pure
water causes :
C) volcanic activity
A) increase in H+ ion concentration
D) industrial processes
B) decrease in pH
20) The process of eutrophication is due to
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C) an increase in pH
A) Increase in concentration of insecticide in water
D) no change in pH
B) Increase in concentration of fluoride ion in water
15) Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can
be determined by its titration with KMnO4
solution in the presence of H2 SO4 . The titration
gives unsatisfactory results when carried out in
the presence of HCl because HCl
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C) The reduction in concentration of the dissolved
oxygen in water due to phosphate pollution in
water
D) Attack of younger leaves of a plant by
peroxyacetyl nitrate
A) oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water
As
B) gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine
C) furnishes H + ions in addition to those from oxalic
acid
D) reduces permanganate to Mn 2 +
16) Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y
and Z are - 1.2V, +0.5V and -3.0V respectively. The
reducing power of these metals will be
21) To get n-type doped semiconductor, the impurity
to be added to silicon should have the following
number of valence electrons ?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 3
22) Chromium (atomic mass = 52) crystallizes in a
body centred cubic lattice whose density is 7.20 g
cm−3 The length of the edge of unit cell is 288.4
pm. The Avogadro number corresponding to this
data is
A) Y>Z>X
B) Y>X>Z
A) 6.98 × 1023
B) 6.02 × 1023
C) Z>X>Y
D) X>Y>Z
C) 6.08 × 1024
D) 6.26 × 1023
17) Hydrogen will not reduce
A) Heated cupric oxide
23) Dissolving 120g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 1000g of
water gave a solution of density 1.15g /mL the
molarity of the solution is
B) Heated ferric oxide
A) 1.78M
B) 2.00M
C) Heated stannic oxide
C) 2.05 M
D) 2.22 M
D) Heated aluminium oxide
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D) 1
24) The number of molecules in 4.25 g of ammonia is
approximately
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A) 0.5× 1023
B) 1.5× 1023
1023
1023
C) 3.5×
D) 2.5×
XII - A Div
31) Extraction of silver from Ag2 S by the use of
sodium cyanide is an example of
25) Which of the following solutions will have the
highest specific conductance ?
A) roasting
B) hydro metallurgy
C) electro metallurgy
D) smelting
A) 0.01 M NaCl
32) The process used to concentrate an ore is called:
B) 0.01 M CH3 COOH
C) 0.01 M NH4 Cl
D) 0.01 M K2 SO4
A) Smelting
B) Calcination
C) Benefication
D) Roasting
33) Iodine is soluble in water in the presence of :
26) Copper sulphate cannot be stored in a container
made of zinc because
A) KI
B) Cl2
C) Br2
D) kBr
A) CuSO4 is a good oxidising agent
B) Zn will pass into the solution as Zn2+ and copper
be precipitated
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34) Mark the wrong statement.Carbon differs from
other elements due to:
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A) its ability to form multiple bonds
C) Zinc is not a good metal for storing.
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B) its tendency to catenation
D) Zinc is a non-conductor and current will not pass
27) The rate of decomposition of ammonia is found to
depend upon the concentration of ammonia as:
k1 [NH3 ]
d[NH3 ]
=
when the concentration
−
dt
1 + k2 [NH3 ]
of NH3 is very high and very low, the order will be
respectively
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A) 1,1
B) 0,0
As
C) 0,1
C)
2.303
1
log(1 − )
k
n
B)
2.303
1
log
k
n
D)
2.303
log
k
D) its tendency to form ring compounds
35) Gun metal is an alloy of :
A) Cu
B) Pb
1
(1 −
1
)
n
2.303
nk
D) Fe
36) A mixed oxide of iron and chromium, FeO.Cr2 O3
is fused with sodium carborate in the presence of
air to from a yellow compound (P). On
acidification, the compound (P) forms an orange
compound (Q), which is strong oxidising agent.
(P) and (Q) are respectively
A) Na2 Cr2 O7 , Na2 CrO4
29) Which of the following is an example of liquid
dispersion phase in solid dispersion medium
B) Na2 CrO4 , Na2 Cr2 O7
A) Milk
B) Whipped cream
C) Cr2 O3 , Na2 CrO4
C) Cheese
D) None of these
D) Na2 CrO4 , Cr2 O3
30) In styrene foam, the dispersed phase and
dispersion medium are respectively:
A) Solid, gas
B) Gas, solid
C) Liquid, gas
D) Solid, liquid.
29-Dec-2016
C) Ag
D) 1,0
28) In general, the time required to complete nth
fraction of a first order reaction is
A)
C) its ability to extend its octet.
37) 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3 )5 Br]Cl2 and 0.02 mole of
[Co(NH3 )5 Cl]SO4 are present in 200 cc of a
solution X. The number of moles of the
precipitates Y and Z that are formed when the
solution X is treated with excess silver nitrate and
excess barium chloride are respectively
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XII - A Div
A) 0.02,0.02
B) 0.01,0.02
A) 4-Bromophenol
C) 0.02,0.04
D) 0.04,0.02
B) 2, 4, 6 -Tribromophenol
C) 2-Bromophenol
D) 3-Bromophenol
38) Select the correct statement about the complex
[Co(NH3 )SO4 ]Br
42) The structure of the compound that gives a
tribromo derivative on treatment with bromine
water is :
A) Its ionisation isomer is [Co(NH3 )5 Br]SO4
B) Its gives yellow precipitate with AgNO3
C) Its ionisation isomer gives white precipitate with
BaCl2
D) All the above are correct statements
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43) In the reaction, [A] + CH3 CHO −−−−−−→
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39) What is A in the following reaction?
Heat
Ag(NH3 )2
CH2 = CHCHO −−−−−−→ [B] A and B are :
A) CH3 COCH3 , CH2 = CHCOOH
C
e
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B) HCHO, CH2 = CHCOOH
C) HCHO, CH3 COOH + CO2
As
D) CH3 CHO, CH2 = CHCOOH
44) Hydrolysis of methyl cyanide gives :
40) The conversion of 2,3-dibromobutane to 2-butene
with zinc and alcohol is :
A) Formic acid
B) Acetic acid
C) Acetaidehyde
D) Formaldehyde
45) Diethylamine reacts with nitrous acid to give:
A) Redox reaction
B) α -elimination
A) (C2 H5 )2 NH+ NO−
2
B) (C2 H5 )2 NNO
C) β -elimination
C) C2 H5 OH
D) NH3 and alcohol
Mathematics
D) both α -elimination and redox reaction
1)
41) Phenol is heated with a solution of mixture of KBr
and KBrO3 . The major product obtained in the
above reaction is :
29-Dec-2016
Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease
caused by:
A) Treponema
B) Haemophilus
C) Nlisseiria
D) Chlamydia
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2)
PCB
XII - A Div
7)
If the rate of addition of new members increases
with respect to the individual host of the same
population, then the graph obtained has :
An algae which can be employed as food for
human being is :
A) Ulothrix
B) Chlorella
C) Spirogyra
D) Polysiphonia
A) declined growth
B) exponential growth
8)
3)
C) zero population growth
Who is responsible for obtaining interferons
through recombinant DNA technique ?
D) None of these.
A) A.R. Bounting
Given below are four methods (a-d) and their
modes of action (i-iv) in achieving contraception.
Select their correct matching from the four
options that follow.
B) Eli Lily
C) A. Tiselius.
D) Charles Weissmann
9)
Bam HI, Eco RI, Sma H are the types of :
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A) restriction endooxidases
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B) restriction endonucleases
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A) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
C) restriction exonucleases
B) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
D) restriction polymerases.
eC
C) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
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D) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
4)
A petroleum plant is :
A) potato
As
C) t-RNA
D) Protein.
B) Christian Barnard
D) sugarcane.
6)
B) m-RNA
A) William Harvey
C) maize
C) Har Govind Khorana
Which of the following is liquid hydrocarbon ?
A) Latex
A) DNA
11) First heart transplant was performed by :
B) Euphorbia lathyrus
5)
10) In southern blotting...........is separated by gel
electrophoresis :
B) Resin
C) Tanin
HMP is a bioenergy obtained from :
D) Gum.
D) Walton Lillehel.
12) In Northern blotting RNAs are separated by gel
electrophoresis and the RNA bands are
transferred into a membrane of:
A) Draught animal power
A) Diazobenzyl oxymethyl
B) Animal wastes
B) Diazobenzene
C) Human muscle power
C) Diazobromine
D) None of these.
D) None of the above.
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13) The physiological capacity to produce offsprings
is called:
A) mortality
B) birth rate
C) biotic potential
D) crude natality.
B) Tubectomy
C) Laparoscopy
D) Vasectomy.
B) brain
C) lung
D) liver.
16) Choose the wrong statement
C) Whooping cough
D) Typhoid
A) WBC
B) antibodies
C) liver
D) blood
A) GABA
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Glutamic acid
22) Jojoba is
A) HIV virus has RNA as its genetic material
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A) Crotalaria
B) HIV virus replicates in Th lymphocytes
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B) Simmondsia chinensis
C) Anti-retroviral drugs are only partially effective for
AIDS treatment
eC
D) The time-lag between the infection and
appearance of AIDS symptom may vary from few
hours to a week
17) Symptoms of oedema is
B) Diphtheria
21) Which of the following substances can cure
Parkinson disease?
15) The most important organ damaged by alcohol is
:
A) heart
A) Tetanus
20) Second line of defence is
14) Surgical removal of testes of males to control the
population is:
A) Castration
XII - A Div
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As
A) Swelling of body part especially the legs
B) Pain in the chest
C) Parthenium
D) Leucaena
23) The potential source of natural rubber is
A) Ficus benghalensis (Banyan)
B) Ficus elastica (Rubber plant)
C) Parthenium argentatum (Guayule)
C) Cold
D) All of these
D) Pain in the right leg
18) In human beings retrovirus is considered as a
cause of cancer because
24) Exchange of germplasm is carried mostly
through shoot tips because it is
A) Cheap
A) In their genome oncogene is present
B) Small and handy
B) Their hereditary material made up of single
stranded RNA
C) Virus free
C) They have a gene for reverse transcryptase
D) Genetically stable
D) In their genome there may be cellulor proto
oncogene
19) Which disease is not cured by triple antigens?
29-Dec-2016
25) The technology of biogas production from cow
dung was developed in India largely due to the
efforts of :
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A) Gas Authority of India
XII - A Div
31) Which of the following countries has maximum
average annual milk yield per cow ?
B) Oil and Natural Gas Commission
C) Indian Agricultural Research Institute and Khadi &
Village Industries Commission
D) Indian Oil Corporation.
A) United Kingdom
B) U.S.A.
C) Denmark
D) India.
32) Which of the following diseases in poultry is
caused by nutritional deficiency ?
26) Leghaemoglobin occurs in :
A) Coralloid root
B) BGA
A) Perosis
B) Fowl pox
C) Around bacteriods
D) Mycorrhiza.
C) Coryza
D) Aspergillosus.
27) Match the following list of bioactive substances
and their roles : Choose the correct match :
33) The insect that is not found in the wild state is:
A) Lac insect
C) Honey bee
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B) Cochineal insect
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D) Silk moth.
34) Glycerine is obtained from
A) i b, ii c, iii a, iv d
C) i d, ii a, iii d, iv c
D) i c, ii d, iii b, iv a.
eC
28) The chemical used in National Malaria Eradication
Programme is :
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B) DDT
C) 2,4-D
D) Pyrethoid
B) Molasses
C) Filter mud
D) All the above
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B) i d, ii b, iii a, iv c
A) BHC
A) Bagasse
As
35) Four inbreed lines of maize are crossed. The
cross is
A) Tetraploid cross
B) Double cross
C) Dihybrid cross
29) The brown leaf spot disease of rice is caused by a
fungus called :
A) Phytophthora infestans
D) Tetrahybrid cross
36) The taxon likely to join the category of
endangered category in near future is
B) Helminthosporium oryzae
A) Extinct
B) Rare
C) Vulnerable
D) Living fossil
C) Venturia inaequatus
D) Xanthomonas oryzae.
30) Major drawback of D.D.T. as a pesticide is that
A) organisms at once develop resistance to it.
B) it is significantly less effective than other
pesticides
A) biological magnification
B) gene mutation
C) photochemical smog
C) its cost of production is high
D) it is not readily and rapidly degraded in nature.
29-Dec-2016
37) Contamination with radioactivity is dangerous
because it causes :
D) ozone destruction.
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44) During development of human foetus, the blood
tissue starts developing in the 15 th week. It
starts by the development of :
38) Gigantism and acromegaly are two defects
produced due to improper functioning of
A) thyroid
A) blood plasma
B) blood platelets
C) RBC and WBC
D) blood islands.
B) pituitary
C) thyroid and pituitary
45) The spiral sheath of the sperm is formed by :
D) thyroid, pituitary and thymus
39) Which of the following is not a hydrophytic
angiosperm
A) Chara
B) Hydrilla
C) Lotus
D) Water lettuce
B) Adaptation
C) Mutations
D) Germplasm.
B) centriole
C) golgi bodies
D) mitochondria.
46) In frog pseudocopulation occurs since penis is
absent in the male and fertilization of the egg
occurs :
40) Neo-Darwinism do not appreciate the role in
evolution of :
A) Natural selection
A) nucleus
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A) externally in the water
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B) inside the Bidders canal
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C) when the egg is passing through uterus
41) Now-a-days Lamarckian theory is being reviewed
in the light of modern concept of evolution under
the heading Neo-Lamarckism. Who proved that
the genes are influenced by the physical and
chemical factors, so that they bring remarkable
changes to the offsprings:
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D) when the egg is in the cloaca.
47) Humans are :
A) sexually reproducting
A) Muller
B) Lindsci
B) viviparous
C) Hoffman
D) Haeckel.
C) asexually reproducing
42) Who got the Nobel Prize in medicine in 1995 for
showing how genes control human development
in womb :
D) Both (A) and (B)
48) In human beings the growth in height becomes
nearly constant after the age of :
A) Robert and Philip Sharp
B) Gilman and Rodbell
A) 15 years
B) 20 years
C) Fischer and Krebs
C) 30 years
D) 40 years.
D) Lewis, Volhard and Wieschaus.
43) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched
with regard to the codon and the amino acid
coded by it ?
A) UUU-valine
B) AAA-lysine
C) AUG cysteine
D) CCC-Alanine.
29-Dec-2016
49) Regeneration in which animal was discovered for
the first time ?
A) Sycon
B) Hydra
C) Planaria
D) Pheretima.
50) Which is not connected with theory of ageing ?
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A) Wear and tear
A) Malleus-incus-stapes
B) Neurohormonal changes
B) Columella-stapes
C) Epimorphosis
C) Stapes-malleus-incus
D) Metabolic rate
D) Malleus-stapes-incus.
51) Which one of following statements is correct with
reference to a test tube baby ?
A) Fertilization of the egg is affected outside the
body; the fertilized egg is then placed in the womb
of the mother where the gestation is completed
57) Jacobson"s organs which are additional olfactory
organs are present in :
A) rat
B) man
C) snake
D) All of these.
B) Fertilization of the egg and growth of the embryo
are affected in a large test tube
58) The function of central nervous system :
C) A prematurely-born baby reared in an incubator
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A) controls various functions of body
D) Fertilization of the egg is effected in the female
genital tract; the fertilized egg is then taken out
and grown in a large test tube.
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B) directs various functions of body
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C) controls and co-ordinates the activities of body
52) Chiropterophilous flowers possess :
D) conducts impulses from one part to the other.
C
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A) coloured petals
B) abundant nectar
C) small size
D) less pollen.
As
59) Match the entries in column I with those in
column II and choose the correct combination
from the options given.
53) In albuminous seeds the food is stored mostly in :
A) cotyledons
B) endosperm
C) testa
D) plumule.
54) A person has protruding eyes, tachycardia and
higher body temperature. He is suffering from :
A) Cretinism
A) a − 4 , b − 3 , c − 1, d − 2
B) a − 3 , b − 4 , c − 1, d − 2
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) a − 4 , b − 1, c − 2 , d − 3
C) Diabetes
D) Acromegaly.
D) a − 1, b − 2, c − 3, d − 4
55) Hormone responsible for puberty in man is :
A) thyroxine
B) testosterone
C) cortisol
D) pituitrin.
60) Iliac crest is a feature of frog"s :
56) The sound reaches the inner ear from ear drum
through structures which are in a definite series.
The series is :
29-Dec-2016
A) Pectoral girdle
B) Pelvic girdle
C) Hyoid apparatus
D) Sacrum.
61) In which animals bones have air sacs :
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A) Reptiles
A) which link exergonic to endergonic process
B) Aves
B) produced in respiration
C) Amphibian
C) produced when ATP loses two of its phosphate
groups
D) Terrestrial animals.
D) the oxidation of which releases large amounts of
energy during respiration.
62) The amino acids are excreted as such from the
body in any one of the followings :
68) Bile is :
A) cockroach
B) nereis
A) acidic
B) alkaline
C) pila
D) echinoderms.
C) neutral
D) None of these.
69) A mineral is an atom that can be used by an
animal in a form that is :
63) Which of the following statements about the
kidney is correct ?
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A) an organic molecule
A) The macula densa is a region of the distal tubule
that is closely associated with an afferent
glomerular arteriole
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B) an inorganic molecule or ion
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C) bonded 6 vitamin.
B) Collecting tubules are located in both the medulla
and cortex
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C) Proximal convoluted tubules have an extensive
microvillus (brush) border
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D) All of the above.
As
64) Insulin and glucagon are transported to target
organ by :
D) bonded to several water molecules.
70) Oxidative phosphorylation is formation of :
A) NADPH2 in respiration
B) ATP in respiration
C) NADH2 in photosynthesis
D) ATP in photosynthesis.
A) lymph
B) blood
C) pancreatic duct
D) cystic duct.
71) Pyruvic acid, the key product of glycolysis can
have many metabolic fates. Under aerobic
condition it forms :
65) Heart of fish is :
A) two chambered
B) single chambered
C) four chambered
D) three chambered.
66) The exchange of gases in the lungs is by :
A) Lactic acid
B) CO2 + H2 O
C) Acetyl CoA + CO2
D) Ethanol + CO2
72) CO2 fixation during C4 pathways occurs in the
chloroplast of :
A) guard cells
A) simple diffusion
B) active transport
B) bundle sheath cells
C) passive transport
D) osmosis
C) spongy parenchyma
67) Higher energy compounds are :
29-Dec-2016
D) mesophyll cells.
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73) In the following diagram if A represents water and
carbon dioxide then
XII - A Div
A) Unstriated
B) Striated
C) Voluntary
D) Cardiac
79) Cumulus oophorus refers to :
A) I−is photosynthesis, Il−is respiration and B is
CH2 O and oxygen
A) Heap of oocytes found in the secondary follicle
B) I−is photosynthesis, Il−is respiration and B is CO2
and H2 O
B) Heap of follicular cells around the ovum in the
primary follicle
C) I−is respiration, II is photosynthesis and B is
CH2 O and O2
C) Hill of follicular cells that act as handle to the
ovum in the secondary follicle
D) I−is respiration, II is photosynthesis and B is CO2
and water
D) None of the above.
80) In Frog, oviduct is formed by :
74) Zinc is essential for :
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A) Wolffian duct
A) biosynthesis of chlorophylls
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C) Metanephric duct
B) biosynthesis of 3-I A A
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B) Bidder"s canal
D) Mullerian duct.
81) The main excretory product of cockroach is :
C) stomatal closing
D) oxidation of carbohydrates.
75) The chlorophyll is not formed without:
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A) Potassium
B) Magnesium
C) Calcium
D) Phosphorus.
As
76) If CO2 concentration of atmosphere were to
increase :
A) Urea
B) Ammonia
C) Uric Acid
D) Urine.
82) In floral formula (K) denotes :
A) polysepalous
B) gamosepalous
C) polypetalous
D) gamopetalous.
83) Allium differs from the rest of Lilliaceae in :
A) stomata will close partially
B) respiration will decrease
A) Absence of umbel inflorescence and centric
leaves
C) stomata will open
B) Presence of bulbs and umbel inflorescence
D) photorespiration will increase.
C) Absence of umbel inflorescence and bulb
77) If alcohol treated cell is kept in hypertonic
solution it :
D) Presence of centric leaves and perianth.
84) Companion cells in plants are associated with :
A) Bursts
B) Plasmolysed
C) Remains same
D) None.
78) The long and spindle shaped uninucleate muscle
fibres without dark and light bands are :
29-Dec-2016
A) Vessels
B) Sperms
C) Guard cells
D) Sieve elements.
85) One of the functions of aerial stem is :
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A) fixation
A) a = 5, b = 4, c = 3, d = 2, e = 1
B) absorption of water
B) a = 5, b = 3, c = 4, d = 2, e = 1
C) absorption of water and minerals
C) a = 4, b = 5, c − 1, d = 2, e − 3
D) conduction of water and minerals.
D) a = 3, b = 5, c = 1, d = 2, e = 4
86) In the cell, digestive enzymes are mostly in :
91) The food canal in the proboscis of housefly is
formed of :
A) Lysosomes
B) Cell wall
C) Ribosomes
D) Chromosome
A) abrum, epipharynx and hypopharynx
B) Labial groove and hypopharynx
87) c-AMP mediated "Cascade Model" of enzyme
regulation was proposed by :
C) Right and left mandibles
A) Fischer
B) Sutherland
D) Labella and pseudotrachea.
C) Sumner
D) Koshland
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92) Male cone of Pinus replaces :
88) A mitochondrion possesses a :
es
A) Needles
A) single membrane
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C) Dwarf shoots
B) double membrane
C
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C) three−layered membrane
D) four−layered membrane.
As
89) Match the following with correct combination
B) Scales
D) Long shoots.
93) Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of :
A) stamen and carpel of the same plant
B) upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the
same plant
C) upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the
same plant
D) antheridiphore and archegoniophore on the same
plant.
A) a − 5, b − 3, c − 1, d − 4, e− 2
94) The cyclosis is to ensure that :
B) a − 5, b − 3, c − 2, d − 4, e − 1
A) food material is digested completely
C) a − 2 , b − 3, c − 1, d − 4, e − 5
B) digested food material is distributed uniformly
D) a − 4, b − 3, c − 1, d − 5, e − 2
C) excretory products are removed
90) Match the following :
D) mixing of food with enzymes takes place properly
95) Schizont stage in the life cycle of Plasmodium
occurs in :
29-Dec-2016
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A) erythrocytes of man
B) leucocytes cells of man
C) salivary glands of female Anopheles
D) Stomach of female Anopheles.
96) Tailed bacteriophages are :
A) Motile on surface of bacteria
B) Non- motile
C) Actively motile in water
D) Motile on surface of plant leaves.
97) Bacteria that get their energy by fermentation and
for whom oxygen is lethal are called :
A) obligate anaerobes
B) obligate aerobes
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C) facultative aerobes
D) facultative anaerobes.
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C
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98) Which one of the following shows plant-like and
animal-like characters ?
As
A) Amoeba
B) Frog
C) Slime moulds
D) Mushroom.
99) Leeuwenhoek discovered :
A) Nucleus
B) Cell wall
C) Bacteria
D) Virus.
100)Which of the following is not an adaptive feature ?
A) Phototropism
B) Cell division
C) Hibernation
D) Accommodation.
29-Dec-2016
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PCB
XII - A Div
Correct Answer Sheet
Subject - PCB
Total Questions - 190
Test ID - NEET-16
1
12
23
34
45
56
67
78
89
100
111
122
133
144
155
166
177
188
B
B
D
C
A
C
B
A
B
A
C
A
B
B
A
A
B
C
2
13
24
35
46
57
68
79
90
101
112
123
134
145
156
167
178
189
B
B
C
A
B
C
C
A
B
B
B
B
D
B
A
C
B
C
3
14
25
36
47
58
69
80
91
102
113
124
135
146
157
168
179
190
A
C
A
C
B
B
B
A
D
A
C
B
D
A
D
A
D
B
4
15
26
37
48
59
70
81
92
103
114
125
136
147
158
169
180
Total Marks - 760
B
D
A
A
A
C
D
B
B
C
C
B
A
C
B
C
D
5
16
27
38
49
60
71
82
93
104
115
126
137
148
159
170
181
B
A
C
A
A
D
B
D
C
A
C
C
D
C
B
D
B
6
17
28
39
50
61
72
83
94
105
116
127
138
149
160
171
182
A
B
C
B
B
C
C
D
B
D
C
B
B
C
B
C
C
7
18
29
40
51
62
73
84
95
106
117
128
139
150
161
172
183
s
e
s
s
la
A
A
C
D
D
D
B
C
A
D
D
B
B
B
C
A
C
8
19
30
41
52
63
74
85
96
107
118
129
140
151
162
173
184
t
v
P
B
C
C
A
D
B
C
C
C
A
B
A
C
B
B
B
B
9
20
31
42
53
64
75
86
97
108
119
130
141
152
163
174
185
d
t
L
D
A
C
D
C
C
B
B
B
D
C
C
A
D
C
D
A
10
21
32
43
54
65
76
87
98
109
120
131
142
153
164
175
186
C
B
A
B
A
C
B
C
C
D
D
A
B
D
B
D
A
11
22
33
44
55
66
77
88
99
110
121
132
143
154
165
176
187
C
A
D
B
A
B
C
B
B
A
B
D
B
B
B
A
A
C
e
r
a
qu
As
29-Dec-2016
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PCB
XII - A Div
Solutions/Discription/Hints/Tricks
Subject - PCB
Total Questions - 190
Test ID - NEET-16
1
12
23
34
45
56
67
78
89
100
111
122
133
144
155
166
177
188
B
B
D
C
A
C
B
A
B
A
C
A
B
B
A
A
B
C
2
13
24
35
46
57
68
79
90
101
112
123
134
145
156
167
178
189
B
B
C
A
B
C
C
A
B
B
B
B
D
B
A
C
B
C
3
14
25
36
47
58
69
80
91
102
113
124
135
146
157
168
179
190
A
C
A
C
B
B
B
A
D
A
C
B
D
A
D
A
D
B
4
15
26
37
48
59
70
81
92
103
114
125
136
147
158
169
180
Total Marks - 760
B
D
A
A
A
C
D
B
B
C
C
B
A
C
B
C
D
5
16
27
38
49
60
71
82
93
104
115
126
137
148
159
170
181
B
A
C
A
A
D
B
D
C
A
C
C
D
C
B
D
B
6
17
28
39
50
61
72
83
94
105
116
127
138
149
160
171
182
2)
C
e
r
a
qu
3) Band gap = energy of photon
hc
6.62 × 10−34 × 108
= 0.5eV
=
=
λ
2480 × 10−9 × 1.6 × 10−9
5)
As
6) N = N0 e−λt
t
N
1 T
1
∴
=
, here N = N0 (amount left)
N0
2
8
t
3 t
1
1 T
1
1 T
t
∴ =
⇒
=
∴ =3
8
2
2
2
T
∴ t = 3T ⇒ 15 = 3T ∴ T = 5 min .
2
1
7) N = 67% = , Also N = 33% =
3
3
1
2 1 n
or =
3 3 2
1
1 n
∴ =
or n = 1
2
2
So half−life peried = 20 minutes
8)
1
∴ τλ = 1
λ
Now, N = N0 e−λt ⇒ N = N0 e−λτ
9) τ =
29-Dec-2016
7
18
29
40
51
62
73
84
95
106
117
128
139
150
161
172
183
s
e
s
s
la
1)
4)
A
B
C
B
B
C
C
D
B
D
C
B
B
C
B
C
C
A
A
C
D
D
D
B
C
A
D
D
B
B
B
C
A
C
8
19
30
41
52
63
74
85
96
107
118
129
140
151
162
173
184
t
v
P
B
C
C
A
D
B
C
C
C
A
B
A
C
B
B
B
B
9
20
31
42
53
64
75
86
97
108
119
130
141
152
163
174
185
d
t
L
D
A
C
D
C
C
B
B
B
D
C
C
A
D
C
D
A
10
21
32
43
54
65
76
87
98
109
120
131
142
153
164
175
186
N
1
∴ N = N0 e−1 = 0 ∴ τ =
e
λ
N
1
∴
=
N0
e
So fractional of element decayed is 1 −
C
B
A
B
A
C
B
C
C
D
D
A
B
D
B
D
A
11
22
33
44
55
66
77
88
99
110
121
132
143
154
165
176
187
C
A
D
B
A
B
C
B
B
A
B
D
B
B
B
A
A
1
e
10) In γ -ray emission, there is no change in charge and
mass.
11) K1 =
hc
− W....(1)
λ1
hc
− W....(2)
λ2
Putting λ1 = λ2 / 2 in Eq.(1) and using Eq.(2),
2hc
K1 =
−W
λ2
= 2 (K2 + W) − W
⇒ K1 = 2K2 + W
Hence K1 > 2K2 ,
K2 =
12)
13)
14)
15) The stopping potential depends on the frequency
(or wavelength) of the incident electromagnetic
wave and is independent of the distance of
the source from photocell. Hence the stopping
potential will still be 0.6 V. However, the saturation
current varies as 1/r2 , where r is the distance of the
source from the photocell. Since r is increased by a
Asquare Classes Pvt Ltd
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PCB
PCB
A from P2 and p1
factor of 3, the saturation current will decrease by
a factor of (3)2 = 9, i.e. it will be 18 mA/9 = 2 mA
at r = 0.6 m.
16) ∵ (Magnetic field due to short dipole B =
Bnet = BM1 + BM2 + BH
µ M
µ M
= 0 31 + 0 32 + BH
4πx
4πx
µ0
(M
+ M2 ) + BH
=
1
4πx3
−
7
10
=
× 2.2 + 3.6 × 10−5
10−3
= 2.56 × 10−4 Wb/m2
17) ∵ W = −MB (cos
! θ2 − cos θ1 )
√
3
−1 ........(1)
W = −MB
2
MB
and τ = MB sin θ =
.......(2)
2
XII - A Div
V2
R
1
For constant value of potential difference (V) we have P ∝
R
Case(i)
This is a case of balanced Wheatstone bridge R1 = 1Ω
case (ii)
Clearly the equivalent resistance ( R2 ) will be less than 1Ω
case (iii)
Thus R3 = 2Ω
Since, R2 < R1 < R3
∴ P2 > P1 > P3
24) We know that P =
µ0 M
)
4πx3
s
e
s
s
la
t
v
P
d
t
L
C
e
r
a
qu
18) It is the basic property of the current-carrying loop
when placed in any uniform magnetic field,
it experiences no force, irrespective of the shape of the loop.
19)
20)
As
21) RS = R1 + R2
ρ2l
ρ l
ρ l
= 12 + 22
2
πr
πr
πr
22) If the external resistance is small in comparison to
internal resistance,
the cells should be connected in parallel.
23) Here I = I1 + I2 .....(i)
For a closed loop AP2 P1 DA
−10I1 −2I + 5 = 0
5 = 2I + 10I1 ...(ii)
for closed loop BC, P1 P2 B
2−I2 + 10I1 = 0
2 = I2 −10I1 ...(iii)
Using eqn (i) in eqn. (iii), we have
2 = (I−I1 )−10I1
or 2 = I−1111
or 4 = 21−22I1 ......(iv)
(ii) − (iv) 1 = 32I1
1
⇒ I1 =
= 0.03
32
29-Dec-2016
25) Resistance CD = 2 × OD ( = R)
∴ R = 2r cos 72° = 2r sin 18°
= 2r × 0.3090 = 0.62r
26) Value of acceleration due to gravity = Gravitational field
Intensity
= Gravitational potential gradient.
20
=
= 1m/s2
20
Vertical height to which load is lifted h = 10 sin 300
=5m
∴ Work done = mgh = 10 × 1 × 5 = 50J
Thus correct choice is (a).
27)
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mg"
1
g"
1
= ⇒
=
mg
2
g
2
1
R2
R
1
= ⇒
or
=√
2
2
R
+
h
2
√(R + h)
∴ 2R
=
R
+
h
√
h = ( 2 − 1)R = 0.414 × 6400 = 2650km
Thus correct choice is (c).
XII - A Div
34) Here K.E. = work done against friction
1
or mv2 = µmgs
2
or v2 = 2µgs
or v2 ∝ S ...(i)
Let v1 and v2 be the velocities of two carts and S1 , and S2
be
the distance moved. Applying law of conservation of
momentum
v
300v2 = 200v1 or 2 = 2/3
v1
v22
S
From (i) 2 = 2
S1
v1
2
(2/3v1 )
S
= S2 /S1 = 2
36
v21
∴ S2 = 4/9 × 36 = 16m
Hence (c) is the choice
28)
29) At point C, E1 = E2
GM2
100
10, 000
GM1
=
⇒ 2 =
⇒
x2
(1−x)2
x
(1−x)2
1−x
= 10 ⇒ 11x = 1
x
1
or x =
m
11
Hence correct choice is (c).
GM
G
4
= 2 × πR3 ρ
3
R2
R
3g
∴ρ=
4πRG
So correct choice is (c).
30) g =
31) Here the K.E. is converted into the energy of
compression of the two springs. Thus,
1
1
1
k x2 + k2 x2 = mv2
2 1
2
2
(k1 + k2 ) 2
2
or v =
·x
r m
(k1 + k2 ) 2
or v =
·x
m
Thus (c) is the correct choice.
32) Here Volume of tank V = 6m3
mass of water = 6000kg
Power P = V × A
= 200 × 10
P = 2000 W
75
mgh
× 2000 =
100
t
6000 × 10 × 15
=
t × 60
3
6000 × 10 × 15
or t =
4
60 × 2000
15
=
2
or t = 10 min
∴ (a) is the choice.
s
e
s
s
la
C
e
r
a
qu
As
33) Here P.E. of the fall of the slab through = (h0 + x)
E1 = mg(h0 + x)
Whole of this energy is converted into the
P.E. of compression of the spring given by
1
E2 = kx2
2
∴ E1 = E2
1
or mg(h0 + x) = kx2
2
Hence (d) is the correct choice.
29-Dec-2016
d
t
L
35) Here let ∆U to be the change is P.E. then
∆U = mgh
= 1 × 10 × 5
= 50 J ...(i)
h
(∵
= sin 30◦ and h = 5 m)
10
Also acceleration along the plane
Force
[F−(mg sin θ + µmg cos θ)]
a=
=
m √ #
" mass
1
3
10−(10 × + 0.1 × 10 ×
2
2
=
1
= [10−(5 + 0.5 × 1.732)]
= 10−5.87 = 4.13ms−2
t
v
P
Applying v2 −u2 = 2aS
1
1
We have mv2 − mv2 = maS
2
2
∴ ∆Ek = maS
= 1 × 4.13 × 10 = 41.3J ...(ii)
Hence (a) is correct choice.
36) Force of static friction = µmg cos θ
F3 = 0.4 × 102 × 10 × 0.866 = 353.3 ≈ 350N
(c) is the choice.
37) Here F cos 60◦ = µ(R
+ F sin 60◦ )
√ !
F
3
= µ mg + F ×
2
2
√ !
√
1
3
√
3 × 10 + F ×
2
2 3
F
F
F
= 5 + or = 5 and F=20 N
2
4
4
Hence choice is (a).
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XII - A Div
5
500 × (10)2
∵ v = 36 ×
= 10
=
50
18
=1000 N.
Hence (b) is the correct choice.
44) vt = −10m/s, vb = 5m/s, vbt = 5 − (−10) = 15m/s
120
∴t=
= 8s
15
Thus correct choice is (b).
38) Ascending Mg decreases velocity and friction
decreases ω such that v = rω = constant. Opposite is for
descending
39) Here T = m2 g = 7 × 10 = 70 N
1
and m1 g sin 30◦ = 6 × 10 × = 30N
2
Since Ff < T ∴ It is insufficient to balance T. Thus
force of friction Ff must act down the inclined plane
to keep mass m1 at rest.
∴ Ff + m1 g sin 30◦ = T
⇒ Ff = 70−30 = 40N downwards
Hence correct choice is (b).
s
e
s
s
la
C
e
r
a
qu
(m1 sin θ1 −m2 sin θ2 )g
40) a =
m1 + m2
100 sin 30◦ −50 sin 60◦
a=
× 10
100 + 50 !
√
1
3
100 × −50 ×
× 10
√
2
2
50−25 3
=
=
150
15
2
= 0.446m/s towards left.
Hence the correct choice is (d).
As
41) If F is the centripetal force and TL and TH be
the values of tensions then
TL = F + Mg and TH = F − Mg
TL
5
F + Mg
= =
TH
3
F − Mg
3F + 3Mg = 5F − 5Mg
8 Mg = 2 F
or F = 4 Mg
mv2
But F =
R
v2 = 4rg
√
v =√
2 rg
=√
2 2.5 × 9.8
√
= 4 × 2.5 × 9.8 = 98m/s−1
42)
43) Here, F =
29-Dec-2016
mv2
r
45) For the fourth drop, "t"=0, for the third drop, "t"=t;
For the second drop,"t"=2t; For the first drop,
"t"= 3t.
1
Now, 9 = g(3t)2
2
For the first drop
1
or gt2 = 1
2
For the second drop,
1
1
h2 = g(2t)2 = 4 × gt2 = 4 × 1m = 4m
2
2
1
For the third drop, h3 = gt2 = 1m
2
So, the distances of second and third drops are 4 m
and 1 m respectively.
Hence (a) is the correct choice.
h
6.6 × 10−34
46) λ =
=
mv
9.0 × 10−31 × 66 × 10−9
4
−
= 1.1 × 10 ms 1
t
v
P
d
t
L
47) Fe2+ : [Ar] 3d6 has six d−electrons
Ne : 1s2 2s2 2p6 has six p−electrons
Mn : [At] 3d5 4s2 has five d−electrons
Fe : [Ar] 3d6 4s2 has six d−electrons
F− : [Ne] 3s2 3p6 has six p−electrons.
48) Atomic mass of Fe
5 × 54 + 90 × 56 + 5 × 57
=
100
270 + 5040 + 285
=
100
=55.85
49) N1 V1 + N2 V2 = N3 V3
10 × 20 + 36 × 10 = N3 × 1000
200 + 360 = 1000 N3
560
N3 =
= 0.56 N
1000
50)
51)
52) SF4 ( sp3 d hybridisation) has see saw geometry with 1
lone pair
CF4 ( sp3 hybridisation) has tetrahedral geometry with 0
lone pair
XeF4 ( sp3 d2 hybridisation) has octahedral shape with 2
lone pairs.
53)
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54) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) −→ 2NH3 (g)
1 vol 3 vol −→ 2 vol
10 mL 30 mL−→ 20 mL
65)
55) According to Graham"s law of diffusion,
Rate of diffusion of HCl
Rate
r of diffusion of NH3
Molar mass of NH3
=
Molar mass of HCl
Molar mass of NH3 =17,
Molar mass of HCl = 36.5
Let the distance between P and X = d cm
∴ Distance between P and Y = (200 − d) cm.
Let they meet at P in time t.
d
Rate of diffusion of HCl =
t
r
d/t
17
∴
=
(200 − d) /t
36.5
d
= 0.6824
200 − d
d = (200 − d) (0.6824)
or d + 0.6824d = 200×0.6824
200 × 0.6824
d=
1.6824
= 81.12 cm
67) Let N0 be the Avogadro number
Z×M
d= 3
α × N0
Z = 2(for bcc), M = 52, α = 288.4 × 10−10 cm
d = 7.20 g cm3
2 × 52
7.20 =
(288.4 × 10−10 )3 × N0
2 × 52
or N0 =
= 6.02 × 1023
7.20 × (288.4 × 10−10 )3
120
=2
68) Mole =
60
mass of solution =1120g
1120
112
V=
=
L
1.15 × 1000 115
2 × 115
= 2.05 mol / litre
M=
112
56) 1 mol of O2 =
66)
69) 17gm NH3 = 1 mol
No. of molecules in 1 mol. NH3 = 6 × 1023
No. of molecules in 4.25g NH3
6.02 × 1023 × 4.25
=
=1.5 ×1023
17
2
mol of CH3 OH
3
s
e
s
s
la
70) K2 SO4 because it gives larger number of ions
2
∴ mol of CH3 OH on combustion gives
3
723 × 2
=
= 482 kJ
3
71)
eC
r
a
qu
57) (i)CH3 COOH + OH− → CH3 COO− + H2 O ∆H = −x
(ii)H+ + OH− → H2 O ∆H = −y
Subtracting (ii) from (i),
CH3 COOH → CH3 COO− + H+
∆H = −x + y or y − x
As
58)
59) The solution of sodium carbonate is alkaline and,
therefore,
pH increases.
60) KMnO4 can oxidise HCl also into Cl 2 and itself gets
reduced to Mn 2+
61) As the electrode potential decreases, reducing power
decreases
Z>X>Y
62)
H2 will not reduce heated Al2 O3 .
t
v
P
d
t
L
d[NH2 ]
k1 [NH3 ]
=
dt
1 + k2 [NH3 ]
k1
=
1
+ k2
[NH3 ]
72) −
(i) When conc. of NH3 is very high
negligible in comparison to 1
d[NH3 ]
k
−
= 1 =k
dt
k2
Order of reaction = zero
(ii) When conc. of NH3 is very low,
that k2 can be negligible
1
in comparison to
[NH3 ]
d[NH3 ]
k1
−
=
= k1 [NH3 ]
1
dt
[NH3 ]
Order of reaction = 1
1
becomes
[NH3 ]
1
will be large so
[NH3 ]
73)
74)
75)
63) H2 O2 +Cl2 −→ 2HCl+ O2
76)
64)
77)
29-Dec-2016
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PCB
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XII - A Div
99)
78) Because of the formation of KI3
100)
79)
101)
80)
102)
81) 4Feo.Cr2 O3 + 8Na2 CO3 + 7O2 → 8Na2 CrO4 + 2Fe2 O3
+ 8CO2
103)
2Na2 CrO4 + H2 SO4 → Na2 Cr2 O7 + Na2 SO4 + H2 O
104)
82)
105)
106)
107)
108)
83)
109)
84) Markovnikov rule is followed and therefore, the product
is option (C).
110)
85)
111)
s
e
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t
v
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L
112) Jojoba (Simmondsia chinensis) is shrub, which is
native
of Mexican deserts.
86)
87)
C
e
r
a
qu
dil NaOH
As
Ag(NH )2
88) HCHO + CH3 CHO −−−−−→ CH2 = CHCHO −−−−−3−→
Heat
CHCOOH
113)
114) Shoot tip culture maintains virus free plant. It is used
for
international exchange of germplasm is vegetative
multiplied cultivars, e.g., Banana, Potato.
115)
H2 O
89) CH3 CN −−−→ CH3 COOH
90)
91)
92)
93)
94)
95)
96)
97)
98)
29-Dec-2016
116)
117)
118)
119)
120)
121)
122)
123)
124) The chief by products of sugar industry are molasses
and bagasse. The molasses used in manufacturing
rum, alcohol and Glycerine.
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153)
125)
154)
126)
155)
127)
156)
128)
157)
129) Chara is not a hydrophytic angiosperm, it belongs to
the chlorophyceae or green algae.
130)
158) Bile is alkaline in nature due to presence
of bile salts and helps to maintain
proper-pH in the small intestine,
131)
159)
132)
160)
133)
161)
134)
162)
135)
163)
136)
164)
s
e
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la
137)
165)
138)
C
e
r
a
qu
139)
140)
141)
142)
t
v
P
d
t
L
As
166) CO2 combines with water to form carbonic acid
which lower pH value and stomata close.
167)
168)
169)
170)
143)
171)
144)
172)
145)
173)
146)
174)
147)
175)
148)
176)
149)
177)
150)
151)
152)
29-Dec-2016
178) Mitochondria are made up of two membranes. Outer
membrane
is smooth and inner folded into cristae.
179)
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XII - A Div
180)
181)
182)
183)
184)
185)
186)
187)
188)
189)
190)
s
e
s
s
la
t
v
P
d
t
L
C
e
r
a
qu
As
29-Dec-2016
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