CAT MODEL PAPER Section I : Number of questions – 30 Time: 70 minutes 1.
A runner is practicing for a marathon by running along the perimeter of a field in the form of an equilateral triangle of side 100 m. The runner starts off by running at a speed of 5 m/s. Each time the runner turns a corner, she increases her speed to 10 m/s, then 15 m/s, then 20 m/s, and so on. What approximately is her average speed for the fifth round around the field? 1. 39.75 m/s
2. 23.5 m/s
3. 52.4 m/s
4. 69.6 m/s 2.
16 contestants are participating in a chess tournament. In the first round, every contestant plays a game with every other contestant and the top 8 contestants move on to the second round. From the second round onwards, the contestants are paired up and the winner of each game advances to the next round. If there are no ties, what is the total number of games played before the winner of the tournament is decided? 1. 15
2. 127
3. 152
4. 22 DIRECTIONS for questions 3 and 4: In their Geometry class, Rahul and Saurabh are given two equal square sheets of paper of side 20 each. Rahul takes one sheet and makes one diagonal cut at each of the corners to form a regular octagon. Saurabh takes the other sheet and makes two diagonal cuts at each of the corners to make a regular dodecagon (12­sided polygon). 3.
What is the difference between the perimeter of the octagon and the perimeter of the dodecagon? 1. 40
2. 24
3. 12
4. 6 4.
What is the difference between the area of the dodecagon and the area of the octagon? 1. 15
2. 62
3. 25
4. 12 5.
The largest possible number divides four numbers, 5688, 6552, 7848 and 8712 to leave the same remainder in each case. What is the remainder? 1. 864
2. 72
3. 64
4. 432 6.
Pipe A is connected to Vessel A and Pipe B is connected to Vessel B. If the volumes of vessel A : vessel B :: 26 : 9 and they get filled in 2 minutes and 13 minutes respectively, find the ratio of the diameter of pipe A : pipe B, assuming that volume of water flowing through a pipe is proportional to the square of its diameter. 1. 13 : 3
2. 169 : 9
3. 13 : 9
7.
Which of the following statements are definitely true? I. The maximum value of (x + 5)(x + 2) / (x + 1) is 9, for x > ­1. 4. 13 : 27 II. One side of a right angled triangle is 18. Let X and Y denote the maximum and minimum possible areas of this triangle. If the sides of the triangle are integers, then X – Y > 600. III. A square of maximum possible area is drawn in an equilateral triangle of side (2 + 3). The area of the circle inscribed in the square is less than 2. 1. I and II
2. II and III
3. I, II and III
4. None of these 8.
A man standing at point A observes the top of a tower at an angle of 45 . The man walks 10 m up a path sloping up towards the tower at an angle of 30 . After this, the slope of the path becomes steeper and the man reaches the top after walking another 10 m. What is the horizontal distance of point A from the base of the tower? 1. 5( 3 + 1) m
2. 5 m
3. 10 2 m
4. 5 2 m 9.
Set A is defined as the set of all positive integers from 1 to 1000, both inclusive, such that the integer is divisible by 5 but not by 2. What are the last three digits of the sum of all the integers in A? 1. 125
2. 050
3. 000
4. 200 10.
From a solid iron right circular cone of base radius 2 cm, a hemisphere of diameter 2 cm and centre coinciding with the centre of the base is scooped out. The resultant object is then dropped into a right circular cylinder of inner diameter 6 cm and height 10 cm. Water is then poured into the cylinder to fill it up to the brim. If the height of the cone is 5 cm, what is the volume of the water poured into the cylinder? 1. 80 cm3
2. 250 /3 cm3
3. 270 /4 cm3
4. 84 cm3 11.
What is the remainder when is divided by 34? 1. 13
2. 21
3. 15
4. 9 12.
A survey of 104 students, who study Physics or Mathematics or Chemistry, revealed that 38 did not study Physics, 30 did not study Mathematics and 40 did not study Chemistry. Also 40 studied Chemistry and Physics, 50 studied Chemistry and Mathematics and 44 studied Physics and Mathematics. What is the difference between the number of students who studied Mathematics and the number of students who studied exactly two of the three subjects? 1. 66
2. 32
3. 38
4. 42 13. In ABCD, E is the point of intersection of the diagonals AC and BD. If BAC = 50 , CAD = 60 , CBD = 30 and BDC = 25 , what is AEB? 1. 35
2. 75
3. 85
4. 95 14.
The mid­points, P, Q and R, of triangle ABC are joined to form triangle PQR at the centre and three other triangles on the sides PQ, QR and PR. Then the mid­points of triangle PQR are joined to form another central triangle along with three other triangles on its sides. This process of joining the mid­points of the central triangle is repeated infinite times. If the area of triangle ABC is 6 cm2 then what is the sum of the areas of all the new triangles formed in the figure? 1. 8 cm2
2. 12 cm2
3. 16 cm2
4. 18 cm2 15.
A person in a balloon ascends vertically from flat land at sea level. After some time, he observes the angle of depression of a ship at anchor to be 30 . He then descends vertically for 600 metres and observes the angle of depression of the ship to be 15 . What was the initial height of the balloon and the distance between the ship and the point of ascent respectively? Given: sin 15 = ( 3 – 1)/2 2. 1. 519.6 m, 1039.2 m
2. 1639.2 m, 1419.6 m 3. 1119.6 m, 1939.2 m 4. 2007.6 m, 2239.2 m DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 19: The following is the readership data for Town PQR for 4 major papers. The town has a population of 1,456,635 and there are no other papers sold. It is known that only 2 of every 3 people in the town read a newspaper. 16.
How many more people read paper A than paper C? 1. 145,663
2. 291,327
3. 436,991
4. 203,543 17.
The next month, paper C ran a marketing campaign. Due to this campaign, 20,000 more people started reading newspapers, and paper C increased its share to 21% now. What is the number of people reading paper C after the campaign? 1. 194,367
2. 203,929
3. 223,453
4. 208,129 18.
After paper C’s successful marketing campaign, D tried the same, but this time had disastrous results. While the total number of readers did not change, paper D’s market share actually dropped from the 8% before paper C’s campaign to 4% now. How many readers did paper D lose as a result of the two campaigns? 1. 39,644
2. 38,043
3. 38,843
4. 77,687 19.
The promoters of paper D are now planning another campaign to regain the lost readers. They know they can increase their percentage by only 2%. How many new readers will they have to be added to the population to regain their lost readers? 1. 234,234
2. 303,693
3. 15,672
4. 35,298 DIRECTIONS for questions 20 to 22: The following graph is the graph for the average temperatures and rainfall seen in Delhi over the past 10 years every month. Referring to this graph, answer the questions below. 20.
An extreme month is defined as that which has a big gap between the highest and lowest temperatures. Which is the most extreme month amongst the following? 1. January
2. November
3. September
4. May 21.
What is the average rainfall received by Delhi every month? 1. 6.3 mm
2. 5.75 mm
3. 63 cm
4. 57.5 mm 22.
Which month shows the largest percentage decrease in maximum temperatures? 1. July
2. November
3. December
4. October DIRECTIONS for questions 23 to 27: The following is the Australian scorecard from the recently concluded quarterfinal against India in the cricket World Cup 2011. The batsmen came out to bat in the order specified in the scorecard. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. Abbreviations used: Batting chart: R­ Runs scored, M­Minutes played, B­Balls faced, 4s – Number of fours hit, 6s – Number of sixes hit, SR – strike rate (Runs scored per 100 balls faced) Bowling Chart: O – Overs bowled, M – Maiden overs bowled, R – Runs conceded, W – Wickets taken, Econ – Economy rate (Runs per over given) Scorecard Australia’s innings (50 overs maximum) SR Watson BJ Haddin RT Ponting MJ Clarke MEK Hussey CL White DJ Hussey MG Johnson Extras Total R M B 4s 6
s S R b R Ashwin c S Raina b Y Singh c Z Khan b R Ashwin c Z Khan b Y Singh b Z Khan 25 53 104 8 3 39 95 172 30 15 38 62 118 19 9 5 6 7 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 65.78 85.48 88.13 42.10 33.33 c & b Z Khan not out not out (lb 2, w 9) (6 wickets; 50 overs; 220 mins) 12 38 6 11 260 36 44 7 22 26 6 0 3 0 0 1 0 54.54 146.15 100 (5. 20 run
s per ove
r) Did not bat: B Lee, J Krejza, SW Tait Fall of wickets: 1­40 (SR Watson, 9.6 ov), 2­110 (BJ Haddin, 22.5 ov), 3­140 (MJ Clarke, 30.4 ov), 4­150 (MEK Hussey, 33.3 ov), 5­190 (CL White, 41.2 ov), 6­245 (RT Ponting, 48.3 ov) Bowling Analysis O M R R Ashwin Z Khan H Singh MM Patel Y Singh SR Tendulkar 10 10 10 7 10 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 52 53 50 44 44 9 W Econ Extra
s 2 5.20 (5w) 2 5.30 0 5.00 (4w) 0 6.28 2 4.40 0 4.50 V Kohli 1 0 6 0 6.00 23.
In the Australian innings, who had the highest percentage of his runs scored in 4s and 6s? 1. RT Ponting
2. BJ Haddin
3. DJ Hussey
4. SR Watson 24.
What was the minimum number of dot balls (balls on which no run was made) faced by RT Ponting? 1. 43
2. 45
3. 40
4. 54 25.
How long did MEK Hussey have to wait from the start of the match before he got his chance to bat? 1. 125 min
2. 336 min
3. 164 min
4. 140 min 26.
It is known that MM Patel bowled the most expensive over of the innings, the 8th over. What was the maximum possible this could have been? (One over being 6 balls) Assume that the Indian fielding was good and there were no overthrows. 1. 36 runs
2. 24 runs
3. 27 runs
4. 26 runs 27.
After the Australian innings, the match was called off on account of rain. The ICC declared the match as a draw, and decided to declare the Man of the Match award, even though India did not get a chance to bat. In order to adjudicate the Man of the Match award, the ICC has come up with the following point system: 1 point for every run scored 25 points for every wicket taken 10 points for every catch taken 20 bonus points for a 50, 40 bonus points for a 100 20 bonus points for taking 2 wickets in an innings, 40 bonus points for taking 4 wickets in an innings. According to the above criteria, which of the following is the correct order of the top three runners for this award? 1. RT Ponting, Y Singh, BJ Haddin
2. RT Ponting, BJ Haddin, Z Khan / Y Singh / R Ashwin tied
3. RT Ponting, Z Khan, BJ Haddin
4. RT Ponting, BJ Haddin, Z Khan DIRECTIONS for questions 28 to 30: Each question below is followed by two statements marked I and II. As your answer, Mark 1, if the question can be answered by using information contained in statement I alone, but not by the information contained in statement II alone; Mark 2, if the question can be answered by using information contained in statement II alone, but not by the information contained in statement I alone; Mark 3, if the question can be answered by using the information contained in both statements together; and, Mark 4, if the question cannot be answered even by using the information contained in both statements together. 28.
What is the value of integer x? I. x2 = 4x II. x 0 ≥ 29.
Last year, in order to lure customers to open DEMAT accounts, a bank offered every new customer one of three gifts – a pen, a wrist watch or a personal organiser, each autographed by a well known cricketer. If only new customers were gifted these items, how many more new customers were gifted autographed pens than either autographed wrist watches or autographed personal organisers? I. For every new customer who was gifted an autographed personal organiser, five new customers were gifted autographed pens or autographed wrist watches. II. A sixth of the 2208 new customers were gifted autographed wrist watches and four times as many new customers were gifted autographed pens. 30.
What is the value of positive number x? I. 40 < 6x < 45. II. 19 < 3x < 23. Section II: Number of questions ­ 30 Time – 70 minutes DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 35: The passage below is followed by five statements. Classify these and mark: 1: if the statement is a premise, a stated reason or piece of evidence that supports the passage. 2: if the statement is an assumption, an unstated premise. 3: if the statement is an inference, which is known to be true based on the information presented in the passage 4: if the statement is a judgment, an opinion that implies approval or disapproval of persons, situations or events. The rail budget quantifies the already known turnaround story of the Indian Railways (IR). However, from the projected numbers for 2007­08 it is clear that the efficiency gains have been almost squeezed out completely and IR would have to enhance capacity quickly if it is to benefit from rapid economic growth. The freight­driven 16% growth in traffic receipts and a sharply lower 9.6% in working expenses – captured in a remarkable 78.7% operating ratio – is the essence of the turnaround story. This has largely been driven by higher realization from freight, as the revenue growth of 16.6% in 2006­ 07 (RE) is nearly double the increase in the freight volume. Clearly, while IR has not effected across­the­board freight hikes, it has managed to hike rates through mid­year reclassifications. Part of the improvement has also accrued from increase loading of freight trains, better turnaround time and capacity addition to passenger trains through additional coaches. Since freight rates are already high, any more increase is not feasible. Further improvements would, therefore, have to come from larger volumes where IR is constrained by shortage of rolling stock and crowded track infrastructure. The projected lower 11% freight revenue growth and the much lower 7.7% increase in net revenue in 2007­08 along with a marginally poor operating ratio of 79.6% adequately capture the constraints. The higher surplus for the year have, however, allowed IR to increase the annual plan by over 30% and substantially step up investment on higher capacity rolling stock. While this should address the short­term capacity constraints, the track constraints are sure to hit IR soon. It is, therefore, important that IR approaches the freight corridor issue expeditiously, and not be reluctant about taking on a private partner, if needed. On the passenger side, however, IR continues to bungle along. The lower­than projected higher­class earnings in 2006­07, perhaps justify the fare cut but there was no case for lowering the highly subsidized second­class fares. This is akin to creating a shock therapy at some stage, as there is a limit to reducing per unit cost through capacity increase in existing trains. The improvement in passenger amenities such as cushioned seats in second class and special cars for the disabled are welcome. In all it is a budget that dips heavily into the gains of the past but does not offer much by way of any outline for sustaining the run. On the passenger side, however, IR continues to bungle along. 31. If IR raises freight rates, it will suffer a loss of freight traffic 32. 33. Non­budgetary measures are available to IR to effect an increase in freight rates. 34. IR has achieved a remarkable operating ratio through increased traffic receipts and sharply lower working expenses. 35. IR must invest in rolling stock and track infrastructure in order to achieve further improvements in performance. DIRECTIONS for questions 36 and 37: Each question below consists of six statements marked A, B, C, D, E and F followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid agreement, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements. 36.
A. All green objects are trees.
B. All trees are flowers.
C. All flowers smell sweet.
D. Some flowers are pink. E. All pink objects smell sweet. F. Some trees are pink. 1. ABF
3. BDF
2. ABC
4. None of these 37.
A. Sachin scored more than Sehwag.
B. Kaif scored less than Pathan.
C. Pathan scored more than Yuvraj.
D. Yuvraj scored more than Kaif. E. Sachin scored more than Yuvraj. F. Sehwag scored more than Yuvraj. 1. EFA
3. AFE
2. BCD
4. DBC DIRECTIONS for questions 38 to 40: Refer to the information below and answer the questions that follow. Every day of the week, Charu has to conduct four sessions in her English class – Sentence Completion, Reading Comprehension, Sentence Correction and Critical Reasoning. She does not conduct these sessions in the same order every day. However, she always conducts Sentence Completion before Reading Comprehension and Sentence Correction before Critical Reasoning. 38.
Which of the following is not an order in which Charu can conduct her sessions? 1. Sentence Completion, Reading Comprehension, Sentence Correction, Critical Reasoning
2. Sentence Completion, Sentence Correction, Reading Comprehension, Critical Reasoning
3. Sentence Correction, Reading Comprehension, Sentence Completion, Critical Reasoning
4. Sentence Correction, Sentence Completion, Reading Comprehension, Critical Reasoning
39.
Which of the following conditions will ensure that Charu conducts her sessions in the exact same order every day? 1. She always conducts Reading Comprehension before Critical Reasoning 2. She always conducts Sentence Completion before Sentence Correction 3. She always conducts Critical Reasoning before Sentence Completion
4. She always conducts Sentence Completion before Critical Reasoning 40.
One day, in addition to the four sessions, Charu had to conduct a session on Essay Writing. If she conducted the Essay Writing session immediately after the Sentence Completion session and immediately before the Critical Reasoning session, which of the following cannot be true? 1. Charu conducts the Sentence Correction session first
2. Charu conducts the Reading Comprehension session last
3. Charu conducts the Sentence Completion session second
4. Charu conducts the Critical Reasoning session last DIRECTIONS for question 41: In the following question there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option. B.
C.
D.
E.
41.
A.
As a Math teacher I find it interesting to see how children cope with my subject. Some pick up every new topic very quick while others take a rather longer time to catch on. Some have to grapple on the topic for a long time but eventually understand it well. Some find it goes better if they are presented with the whole picture right from the beginning, whereas others like me to breakdown a topic into small bite­sized chunks. Then they gradually piece it all together for themselves. 1. A and E
2. B and E
3. B, C and D
4. D and E DIRECTIONS for question 42: Each sentence is labelled with a letter A through E. Choose the most logical order of sentences from amongst the four choices given to construct a coherent paragraph. 42.
A. By contrast, in the Andean cordillera, with its extreme topographic and climatic features, regional projections are difficult. B. For example, with increasing distance south of the equator the seasonality of precipitation increases, whereas the total annual amount generally decreases. C. In regions of gentle topography, regional climatic variation can be determined from a few widely­spaced measurements. D. Nevertheless, some general climatic patterns are discernable. E. For example, while air temperature generally decreases with increasing altitude, variability of mountain topography can produce much lower than expected air temperatures. 1. ABDCE
2. CAEDB
3. DBCAE
4. CABDE DIRECTIONS for question 43: In each of the five sentences a pair of words has been italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. Then from the options given, choose the most appropriate one. 43.
Rulers who are loved and praised are eventually (A) / ultimately (B) feared and ultimately (A) / eventually (B) despised. He sent us a small remembrance (A) / reminiscence (B), a bell, of his visit to Switzerland She ignored her father’s look of reproof (A) / reprove (B). The Board of Directors will agree with (A) / agree to (B) your joining the team on certain conditions. 1. AAAAB
2. AABBA
3. BBBAB
4. BBAAA DIRECTIONS for question 44: In the following paragraph, a part of the paragraph is left unfinished. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. Choose the best alternative amongst the four. 44. A very old and learned doctor friend and I once shared a conversation about marriage. He opined that marriage should be viewed and treated as a business; that in marriage, just as in any business, if two equal partners contribute equal input, it will thrive; ___________ 1. if one of the party has an input which is significantly more than the other, then that party tends to dominate as he/she has a higher shareholding in the “marital business”. 2. the emotional bonds that a marriage creates have economic returns for society at large. 3. No marriage I know of has ever experienced one success after another without defeats, failures, disappointments, and frustrations galore along the way. 4. if one or the other or both parties shirk major responsibilities, it will collapse into "bankruptcy." DIRECTIONS for question 45: In the following question there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option. 45.
A. From ancient times, people commonly believe that life arose repeatedly by spontaneous generation B. from nonliving material in addition to parental reproduction. C. For example, frogs appeared to arise from damp earth, mice from petrified matter, D. insects from dew, and maggots from decaying meat. E. Warmth, moisture, sunlight and even starlight often was mentioned as factors that encouraged spontaneous generation of living organisms. 1. A and C 2. A, C and E 3. D and E
4. B and C DIRECTIONS for questions 46 to 48: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. PASSAGE I Nationalism is not to be confused with patriotism. Patriotism is of its nature defensive, both militarily and culturally. Nationalism, on the other hand, is inseparable from the desire for power. The abiding purpose of every nationalist is to secure more power and more prestige, NOT for himself but for the nation or the other unit in which he has chosen to sink his own individuality. A nationalist may be a positive or a negative nationalist­­that is, he may use his mental energy either in boosting or in denigrating­­but at any rate his thoughts always turn on victories, defeats, triumphs and humiliations. He sees history, especially contemporary history, as the endless rise and decline of great power units, and every event that happens seems to him a demonstration that his own side is on the upgrade and some hated rival is on the downgrade. Every nationalist is capable of the most flagrant dishonesty, but he is also­­since he is conscious of serving something bigger than himself­­ unshakeably certain of being in the right. As nearly as possible, no nationalist ever thinks, talks, or writes about anything except the superiority of his own power unit. All nationalists have the power of not seeing resemblances between similar sets of facts. Every nationalist is haunted by the belief that the past can be altered. He spends part of his time in a fantasy world in which things happen as they should and he will transfer fragments of this world to the history books whenever possible. Indifference to objective truth is encouraged by the sealing­off of one part of the world from another, which makes it harder and harder to discover what is actually happening. There can often be a genuine doubt about the most enormous events. Probably the truth is discoverable, but the facts will be so dishonestly set forth in almost any newspaper that the ordinary reader can be forgiven either for swallowing lies or failing to form an opinion. Although endlessly brooding on power, victory, defeat, revenge, the nationalist is often somewhat uninterested in what happens in the real world. What he wants is to feel that his own unit is getting the better of some other unit, and he can more easily do this by scoring off an adversary than by examining the facts to see whether they support him. All nationalist controversy is at the debating­society level. Excerpted from “George Orwell ­ Notes on Nationalism” 46.
All of the following show that the nationalist does not see resemblances between similar sets of facts EXCEPT 1. A British Tory will defend self­determination in Europe and oppose it in India. 2. The Liberal NEWS CHRONICLE published photographs of Russians hanged by the Germans saying they were barbaric and a year or two later published with warm approval almost exactly similar photographs of Germans hanged by the Russians. 3. Churchill forced Bengal to export rice so that England could build up a reserve which could be used during the war while at the same time starving millions in Bengal to death. 4. Britain distinguishing between its own people – the English, the Welsh and the Scots. 47.
Which of the following is true according to the passage? 1. The nationalist spends his energy only on boosting the interests of his unit. 2. The nationalist looks at events objectively and takes a rational decision. 3. The nationalist is deeply selfish and is only interested in denigrating others while exalting his own unit. 4. The nationalist is very much grounded in reality and is always in search of the truth. 48.
With which of the following is the author of the passage most likely to agree with? I.
In writing history books, the nationalist will suppress material facts, alter dates and remove quotations from their context so as to change their meaning. II. Nationalism is power­hunger tempered by self­deception. III. All nationalists consider it a duty to spread their own language to the detriment of rival languages. 1. I only
2. I and II only
3. II and III only
4. All of them DIRECTIONS for question 49: In each of the five sentences a pair of words has been italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. Then from the options given, choose the most appropriate one. 49.
Hooligans often take care to evade (A) / avoid (B) police escorts and slip into rival territories. They admit to deep frustration in the face of massive government corruption and collusion (A) / cooperation (B) on the part of many police and officials in the drug trade. You will notice that some of the houses have been designed especially (A) / specially (B) for older people. Users are not a homogenous (A) / homogeneous (B) group and their needs may conflict. Members of the last parliament were not immune to (A)/ immune from (B) prosecution for corruption even if they had been re­elected. 1. AAABA 2. ABAAB
3.AABAB
4. AABAA DIRECTIONS for questions 50 to 52: Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer for each of the questions that follow it. PASSAGE II And what is Life? An hour­glass on the run, A mist retreating from the morning sun, A busy, bustling, still­repeated dream. Its length? A minute's pause, a moment's thought. And Happiness? A bubble on the stream, That in the act of seizing shrinks to nought. And what is Hope? The puffing gale of morn, That of its charms divests the dewy lawn, And robs each flow'ret of its gem – and dies; A cobweb, hiding disappointment's thorn, Which stings more keenly through the thin disguise. And what is Death? Is still the cause unfound? That dark mysterious name of horrid sound? A long and lingering sleep the weary crave. And Peace? Where can its happiness abound? Nowhere at all, save heaven and the grave. Then what is Life? When stripped of its disguise, A thing to be desired it cannot be; Since everything that meets our foolish eyes Gives proof sufficient of its vanity. 'Tis but a trial all must undergo, To teach unthankful mortals how to prize That happiness vain man's denied to know, Until he's called to claim it in the skies. Poem by John Clare 50.
What is the mood displayed in the poem? 1. 2.
3.
4.
Fervent and ecstatic Dejection and despair Melancholy and pensive Contended and satisfying 51.
According to the first stanza, which of the comparisons is incorrect? 1. 2. 3.
4.
He has compared life with the sand clock. He has compared life with a haze or cloud He has compared life with a dream He has compared life with a water bubble. 52.
All of the following are TRUE according to the poem, except 1. Hope is like the blowing of a strong wind robbing the beauty of the green lawn covered with dewdrops. 2. Hope is illusion and its thorn is disappointment. 3. Happiness can be known, only when man ascends to heaven. 4. Death comes to man as he becomes weary but it is not desired by man. DIRECTIONS for question 53: Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from amongst the four choices given to construct a coherent paragraph 53.
A. The government plans a raft of public offers in the coming months, including Shipping Corporation of India, Power Grid Corporation, Manganese Ore and Hindustan Copper. B. If, as the finance minister proposes, the fiscal deficit is to be slashed to 4.1 per cent of GDP by 2012­13, raising revenue through reform is a must. C. Equity sale is also envisaged for SAIL, IOC and ONGC, giant firms that could beat CIL's record at the bourses. D. CIL's splendid show at the market indicates the bonanzas to be scripted via sale of PSU shares. E. Should divestment be fast­tracked, 2010­11's revenue target for equity sale can easily be surpassed. 1. DBACE
2. DBCAE
3. CEADB
4. ECDBA DIRECTIONS for questions 54: In the question, phrasal words have been used in sentences. Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate. 54.
1.We tried to cut down on the money we were spending on entertainment. 2. I often think back on my childhood with great pleasure. 3. The boys promised to check up on the conditions of the summer house from time to time. 4. We were going to look on my brother­in­law, but he wasn't home. DIRECTIONS for question 55: In the following paragraph, a part of the paragraph is left unfinished. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of completing the paragraph are indicated. Choose the best alternative amongst the four. 55.
Telecom operators prize mobile­phone subscribers who spend a lot, but some thriftier customers, it turns out, are actually more valuable. Known as influencers, these subscribers frequently persuade their friends, family and colleagues to follow them when they switch to a rival operator. The tricks to identify them include all of the following, EXCEPT They get more calls when social event are most often organized, such as Friday afternoons. They generally make long calls, while the calls they receive are generally short. They worry about calling other people late at night. They receive quick call­backs. 1.
2.
3.
4.
DIRECTIONS for question 56: In the following sentences there is one sentence that is incorrect in terms of grammar and usage. Choose that option as your answer. 56.
1. The microscopic size of the fracture made it more impossible to detect, even with special instruments. 2. We were unsuccessful in our attempt to extract the chemical from the venom. 3. For nearly the entire semester, I felt so inhibited that I never so much as raised my hand in class. 4. He needed his friends more than ever, but they had forsaken him. DIRECTIONS for questions 57: Each sentence is labelled with a letter A through E. Choose the most logical order of sentences from amongst the four choices given to construct a coherent paragraph. 57.
A. The symbols which define an organization's culture may be determined through focus group discussions rather than personal interviews. B. While group discussions generally should be avoided in organizational measurement to guarantee respondent anonymity, they may be acceptable for cultural analysis under certain conditions. C. In situations with little sub­cultural differentiation, where there is substantial agreement on the cultural definitions of the critical symbols, it may be appropriate to have groups discuss the organization's values, language, rites and rituals, heroes and villains, and folk history. D. These groups should be composed of diagonal slices of the organization to insure a representative cross section of its members. E. The investigator should limit his or her participation to an initial stimulus question, such as, "What is it like to work here at ?" 1. ABCDE
2. ABDCE
3. EABCD
4. CDEAB DIRECTIONS for questions 58 to 60: Read the following passage and answer the questions. PASSAGE III What is more likely to be the cause of death in the U.S.: being killed by a shark or by pieces falling from an airplane? Most people will answer that shark attacks are more probable. Shark attacks receive far more publicity that deaths from falling plane parts, and they are certainly far more graphic to imagine, especially if you've seen JAWS. Yet dying from falling airplane parts is thirty times more likely than being killed by a shark attack. This is an example of availability, a heuristic which causes major investor errors. As with most heuristic, or mental shortcuts, availability usually works quite well. By relying on availability to estimate the frequency or probability of an event, decision­makers are able to simplify what might otherwise be very difficult judgments. This judgmental shortcut is accurate most of the time because we normally recall events more easily that have occurred frequently. Unfortunately our recall is influenced by other factors besides frequency, such as how recently the events have occurred, or how salient or emotionally charged they are. The chances of being mauled by a grizzly bear at a national park are only one or two per million visitors and the death rate is lower. Casualties from shark attacks are probably an even smaller percentage of swimmers in coastal waters. But because of the emotionally charged nature of the dangers, we think such attacks happen much oftener that they really do. It is the occurrence of disaster, rather than their probabilities of happening, that has an important impact on our buying of casualty insurance. The purchase of earthquake and airline insurance goes up sharply after a calamity, as does flood insurance. As a result, the availability rule of thumb breaks down, leading to systematic biases. The bottom line is that availability, like most heuristics, causes us to frequently misread probabilities, and get into investment difficulties as a result. Recently, saliency, and emotionally charged events often dominate decision­making in the stock market. Statements by experts, crowd participation, and recent experience strongly incline the investor to follow the prevailing trend. In the 1990's small­capitalization growth stocks rocketed ahead of other equities. By early July 1996 this was almost the only game in town. The experience is repeated and salient to the investor, while the disastrous aftermath of the earlier speculation in aggressive growth issues in the sixties, seventies, and eighties has receded far back into memory. The tendency of recent and salient events to move people away from the base­rate or long­term probabilities cannot be exaggerated. Time and again, we toss aside our long­term valuation guidelines because of the spectacular performance of seemingly sure winners. As psychologists have pointed out, this bias is tenacious. A moment's reflection shows that this judgmental bias reinforces the others. Recent and salient events, whether positive or negative, strongly influence judgments of the future. People, it appears, become prisoners of such experience and view the future as an extension of the immediate past. The more memorable the circumstances, the more they are expected to persist, no matter how out­of­line with prior norms. Excerpted from “Heuristics in Investor Decision Making” by David Dreman. 58.
All of the following are Availability Heuristic examples, except 1. A person claims to a group of friends that drivers of red cars get more speeding tickets. The group agrees with the statement because a member of the group, "Jim," drives a red car and frequently gets speeding tickets. 2. People think murders occur all the time because of news coverage and television shows, but far more people die because of suicide. 3. If I meet three people from a company and they are all aggressive, I will assume that the company has an aggressive culture and that most other people from that firm will also be aggressive. 4. Someone is asked to estimate the proportion of words that begin with the letter "R" or "K" versus those words that have the letter "R" or "K" in the third position. The immediate answer is that words that begin with "R" or "K" are more common. 59.
According to the passage which of the following best describes the “Availability” heuristic? 1. People predict the frequency of an event, or a proportion within a population, based on how easily an example can be brought to mind. 2. People deduce the frequency of an event using the information they have in hand. 3. People appraise the intervals of frequency of an event in order to form judgements. 4. People reject the events which occur frequently in order to come up with a unique solution. 60.
According to the passage which of the following is /are true? I. People tend to use others’ experiences to predict future events. II. People recall good or bad events out of proportion to their actual frequency. III. Immediacy and Saliency are more important than frequency in judging the probability of occurrence of an event. 1. I only
2. I and II
3. I, II and III 4. I and III Bull CAT 04
ANSWER KEY 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 4 2 3 3 2 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 4 2 3 4 3 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 1 4 1 3 4 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 4 3 3 3 4 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 3 4 4 1 3 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 1 2 1 4 2 16 17 18 19 20 2 4 2 2 4 46. 47. 48. 49.. 50. 4 3 4 1 3 21. 22. 4 3 51. 52. 4 4 23. 24. 25. 4 3 1 53. 54. 55. 1 4 3 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 4 3 4 2 4 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 1 1 3 1 4 Bull CAT 04 EXPLANATIONS
1. The speeds along each of the sides form an AP with 1st term 5 and common difference 5. So the speeds along the three sides in the 5th round will be 5 13 = 65 m/s, 5 14 = 70 m/s and 5 15 = 75 m/s respectively. The average speed for this round will be 2. 3. 4. = 69.76 m/s. The number of games played in the first round is (15 16)/2 = 120. From the second round onwards, there are 8 contestants. 7 of these should be eliminated to decide the winner. So there must be 7 other games played. Thus the total number of games played is 120 + 7 = 127. Suppose the side of the regular octagon is x 2. At each corner of the square, we can form 45 ­45 ­90 triangles. The hypotenuse of the triangle will be the side of the octagon. So, the sides of the triangle will be x each. So, the side of the original square is 20 = x + x 2 + x = x(2 + 2). From this, we get x = 20/(2 + 2) = 10(2 – 2). So the perimeter of the octagon is 80(2 – 2) = 160 – 80 1.4 48. Suppose the side of the dodecagon is 2y. At each corner of the square, we can form two 30 ­60 ­90 triangles as shown above. The hypotenuse of this triangle will be the side of the dodecagon and the other two sides will be y and y 3 respectively. So, the side of the original square is 20 = y + y 3 + 2y + y 3 + y = y(4 + 2 3). From this we get y = 20/(4 + 2 3) = 5(4 – 2 3). So the perimeter of the dodecagon is 60(4 – 2 3) = 240 – 120 1.7 36. Thus the difference between the perimeters is 48 – 38 = 12. 4 congruent isosceles right triangles are cut from the corners of the sheet to make the octagon. These 4 triangles make up 2 congruent squares of side x each. So the area of the octagon is 202 – 2x2 = 400 – 2[10(2 – 2)]2 400 – 2(10 0.6)2 5. 6. 7. 8. = 400 – 72 = 328. When making the dodecagon, the figure formed at the corners is made up of 2 triangles and a square. The two triangles form a rectangle with sides y y 3 and the square has side y. So the area of the dodecagon is 202 – 4(y2 3 + y2) = 400 – y2 (1.7 + 1) = 400 – 4[5(4 – 2 1.7)]2 (2.7) 400 – 97.2 = 302.8. Thus the required difference is 328 – 302.8 = 25.2. Suppose the remainder is R. Then the divisor must be the HCF of (5688 – R), (6552 – R), (7848 – R) and (8712 – R). This divisor must be the HCF of the difference of the numbers. 6552 – 5688 = 864, 7848 – 6552 = 1296 and 8712 – 7848 = 864. So, the divisor must be the HCF of 864 and 1296. Now, 864 = 432 2 and 1296 = 432 3. So the divisor must be 432. We can write 8712 = (432 20) + 72. Thus the remainder must be 72. Let the volume of vessel A be 26x, vessel B = 9x. The volume of water flowing through pipe A = 26x/2 and the volume of water flowing through pipe B = 9x/13. So, . Suppose x = 0. Then the value of the expression in the first statement is 10/1 = 10 > 9. So statement I is false. In order to find the maximum area, we need to make the smallest side of the triangle as 18. Since the sides are integers, they could be 18, 24, 30 or 18, 80, 82. In the first case, the area of the triangle will be 216. Since X = 216, X – Y cannot exceed 600. In the second case, the area of the triangle will be 720 and X – Y could be greater than 600. So statement II is not definitely true. The largest square that will fit in the triangle will have side 3. So the area of the circle inscribed in the square will be ( 3/2)2 = 9.42/4 > 2. So statement III is false. In APR, PAR = 30 . Since AP = 10, using properties of a 30 ­60 ­90 triangle, we get AR = 5 3 and PR = 5. Similarly, TPQ is also a 30 ­60 ­90 triangle where TP = 10, PQ = 5 and TQ = 5 3. 9. Now, PQBR is a square of side 5. Therefore AB = 5 3 + 5 = 5( 3 + 1). Set A contains all multiples of 5 but not multiples of 10. From 1 to 1000, there are 1000/5 = 200 multiples of 5 and 1000/10 = 100 multiples of 10. The sum of the multiples of 5 is = 100500 and the sum of all multiples of 10 is 10. 11. 12. 13. = 50500. So the sum of the integers in A is 100500 – 50500 = 50000. Thus the last three digits of the sum are 000. The volume of the water can be calculated as the volume of the cylinder less the volume of the conical shape left. After scooping out the hemisphere, the volume of the conical shape is 1/3 4 5 – 2/3 = 6 . The volume of the cylinder is 9 10 = 90 . So the volume of the water is 84 . 45647 when divided by 34 leaves a remainder of 19. Subsequent powers of 45647, from 456472 to 456478 when divided by 34 will leave remainders of 21, 25, 33, 15, 13, 9 and 1 respectively. So the remainder cycle has length 8. Since the sum of the 1st n squares is n(n + 1)(2n + 1)/6, we have 12 + 22 + 32 + … + 252 = 25 26 51/6 = 5525. So, we need to find the remainder when 456475525 is divided by 34. Now, 5525 = (8 690) + 5. So the remainder when 456475525 is divided by 34 is the same as the remainder when 456475 is divided by 34, i.e., the remainder is 15. Since 38 did not study Physics, 104 – 38 = 66 studied Physics. Since 30 did not study Mathematics, 104 – 30 = 74 studied Mathematics. Since 40 did not study Chemistry, 104 – 40 = 64 studied Chemistry. Suppose the number of students studying all three subjects is x. So, 104 = 66 + 74 + 64 – 50 – 40 – 44 +x x = 34. So, the number of students who studied exactly 2 of the 3 subjects is (50 – 34) + (40 – 34) + (44 – 34) = 16 + 6 + 10 = 32. Since 74 students studied Mathematics, the required difference is 74 – 32 = 42. Extend AB, AC and AD to meet the circumference in points E, F and G respectively. BDC is inscribed in arc BC. So arc BC = 50 = BAC. Similarly, DBC is inscribed in arc DC. So arc DC = 60 = DAC. From this we can conclude that A is the centre of the circle. Since a circle is 360 , using vertically opposite angles, DAC = FAG = 60 CAB = EAF = 50 and EAD = GAB = 70 . Therefore, AEB = ½(arc FGB + arc DC) = ½(60 + 70 + 60 ) = 95 . 14. 15. 16. It is obvious that we are going to get a GP for successive areas. The first triangle gets divided into 4 equal areas such that the sum of these four areas equals the area of the triangle. Then the central triangle gets divided into 4 equal areas and so on. So we get a GP with common ratio ¼. So the sum of this GP is 6/(1 – ¼) = 8. It is given that sin 15 = ( 3 – 1)/2 2. So, assuming a right­angled triangle with side opposite 15 as ( 3 – 1) and hypotenuse 2 2, we get cos 15 = ( 3 + 1)/2 2 and tan 15 = (2 ­ 3). Now, suppose the distance between the ship and the point of ascent is SL = x and the height of the balloon in the second case is DL = y as shown. BSL = 30 and DSL = 15 . Then, tan 15 = (2 ­ 3) = DL/SL = y/x or y = (2 ­ 3)x. Also, tan 30 = 1/ 3 = BL/SL = (600 + y)/x. Substituting for y from the first equation in the second equation yields x = 1939.2 metres. So, y = (2 ­ 3)x = 519.6 metres. The initial height of the balloon is BL = BD + DL = 600 + 519.6 = 1119.6 metres. The distance between the ship and point of ascent is SL = x = 1939.2 metres. 30% more readers prefer A to C (45%­15%). Total population is 1,456,635. 2 in 3 people read, so total population that reads is 2/3 x 1,456,635 = 971,090. 30% of this is 291,327. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. The total population that read before was 971,090. 20,000 more read now, so total reading population now is 991,090. 21% of this read paper C, so 208,129 read paper C. Initially, D had 8% of 971,090 or 77,687 readers. Now, they have 4% of 991,090 or 39,644 readers. So the drop is 38,043 readers. D initially had 77,687 readers. It is said that they can increase their %age by only 2%. So this would now be 6%. If 77,687 is 6%, the population would have to be 1,294,783. So they would need to add more 1,294,783 – 991,090 = 303,693 readers What is asked is the most extreme month amongst the following only. Check for options, May has the max gap between the two. To find this, find the total, and divide by 12. The total rainfall every yr is 2+2+1+1+1+6+20+20+13+1+1+1 = 69 cm. So average is 5.75 cm. So it will be 57.5 mm Be careful about the units here. July sees a drop from 40 to 33, so a drop of 17.5%. November drops from 32 to 27, so a drop of about 15%. December drops from 27 to 21, so a drop of 22%, while October is a marginal drop from 33 to 32, so about 3%. Ponting = 34/104, Haddin = 30/53, Hussey = 18/38, Watson = 20/25. Hence Watson. Ponting scored 104 runs in 118 balls. 34 of those runs were scored in 8 balls. So remaining are 70 runs with 110 balls. Minimum number of dot balls would be if he scored 70 off 70 balls. So there are 40 balls left without scoring. At the start of the match, Watson and Haddin walked out to bat. After 39 min, Watson got out and Ponting replaced him. At min 95, Haddin got out and Clarke replaced him. Clarke was the next to get out (as per fall of wickets), 30 min after that, so at min 125, which was when Hussey walked out to bat. It also should be noted that there were 9 wides in the match, and no no­balls. So Patel bowled all legal deliveries in all of his overs, and no extras. The maximum possible in one over is 36 runs (6 sixes). The 8th over was the maximum, so it was Watson and Haddin batting (As Watson got out in the 10th over), and in total, they have hit eleven 4s, and one 6. So the maximum possible could be if Haddin hit his one 6 and five of his six 4s, giving a total of 26 runs. Going by the choices, it is obvious that Ponting is the top scorer. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. We just need to rank Ashwin, Y Singh, Khan and Haddin. Haddin has 53 points for runs and 20 bonus for the 50, giving a total of 73. Ashwin and Y Singh have 50 for the 2 wickets and 20 bonus for taking 2 wickets each, so a total of 70 each. Khan has 50 for the 2 wickets and 20 bonus for taking 2 wickets and also 30 points for 3 catches, so a total of 100. So option 3 is right. From statement I, we get x = 4 or x = 0. So statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. From statement II, we only know that x is a non­negative integer. So statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Even if we combine the two statements, x = 0 or x = 4. Thus even both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question. Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question since the total number of new customers is not know. From statement II, since we know the total number of new customers, we can find out the number of customers who were gifted the three items respectively. Thus statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. From statement I, we get 40/6 < x < 45/6 6.66 < x < 7.5. Since x can take all values between 6.66 and 7.5, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. From statement II, we get 19/3 < x < 23/3 6.33 < x < 7.66. Since x can take all values between 6.33 and 7.66, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. If we combine both statements, we get 6.66 < x < 7.5, i.e., x can take all values between 6.66 and 7.5. Thus even the two statements together are not sufficient to answer the question To 'bungle' is to do something badly or without skill. By saying that IR is bungling along, the author is expressing his opinion of the performance of IR on the passenger side which is a judgment. This statement is used to support an argument that further improvement can come only from investments in infrastructure. However this statement is hypothetical, since the further freight hike has yet to happen. Hence it is an assumption. This can be inferred from the statement 'it has managed to hike rates through mid­year reclassifications. NB: All cargo loaded by IR is divided into various classes and freight rates depend on this classification. IR can increase or decrease the freight rates of any commodity by moving it from one class to another. ‘a remarkable turnaround...' draws on the data related to traffic receipts and working expenses. Yet 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. the word ‘remarkable’ indicates an opinion – and the data that is supporting it is in the statement itself. Hence the judgment option is the best one. This can be inferred from '.. completely squeezed out and IR would have to enhance capacity..' None of the options is correct since they violate rules of syllogisms. Since Sachin has scored more than Sehwag who has scored more than Yuvraj, Yuvraj must have scored less than Sachin. Check all the options with the conditions given. In option 3, Sentence Completion is not conducted before Reading Comprehension and therefore cannot be the order in which the sessions cannot be conducted. If she conducts Critical Reading before Sentence Completion, she must conduct Sentence Correction first and Reading Comprehension last. Hence option 3. Charu conducts Sentence Completion immediately followed by Essay Writing immediately followed by Critical Reasoning. Since Sentence Correction is conducted before Critical Reading and Reading Comprehension is conducted after Sentence Completion, the correct order of the sessions will be Sentence Correction, Sentence Completion, Essay Writing, Critical Reasoning and Reading Comprehension. Comparing this order of sessions with the options, Critical Reasoning cannot be the last session. Hence option 4. Option.1. In statement B, pick up every new topic very quick should have been pick up every new topic quickly. In statement C, grapple on the topic should have been grapple with the topic. In statement D, breakdown a topic should have been break a topic down. Statements A and E are grammatically correct. Option 2. The passage talks about topography and regional projections. Here we are given two examples and hence it is important to decide where they are to be placed. The example in E refers to how though temperature generally decreases with increasing altitude, variability of mountain topography can produce lower than expected temperatures – this is an example of what is mentioned in A. B is an example of the fact that general climatic patterns are discernable. Hence option 2 – CAEDB is the best option Option 1. The adverb eventually refers to an unspecified time in the future. Ultimately means "in the end”. Reminiscence means the recalling of past events and experiences. Remembrance is a thing given or kept in memory of somebody or something. Reproof means an expression of censure or rebuke, while reprove means to disapprove strongly. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. Agree with something ­ to reach the same opinion on something, to decide something. Agree to something – to say YES; to say that one is willing to do something for something to happen. Over here, the board has assented to your joining, hence ‘agree to.’ Option 4. The comparison here is between marriage and business. The part before the semicolon talks about if the partners contribute equal input what would happen. The part after the semicolon will extend the idea further, which semicolon and that would be if the two partners did not co­operate or did not take up their part of the responsibilities then what would happen which is what is explained in option 4. The comparison would be if they contribute equally and if they did not do so. Option 1 would follow option 4. What happens to the society is not to be taken into consideration and hence option 2 is ruled out. Option 3 is a generalised statement but cannot follow after the semicolon. Option 2. In A, believed instead of believe; In C putrefied (cause to rot or decay with an offensive odour) instead of petrified (to benumb or paralyze with astonishment, horror, or other strong emotion); in E, were instead of was. Option 4. The nationalist does not see resemblances which means actions are held to be good or bad, not on their own merits, but according to who does them. Option 4 has no comparison being talked of, while all the other three examples talk about the double­thinking of the nationalist. Option 3. Throughout the passage, the idea being presented is that the nationalist is interested in power and prestige of the unit that he is supporting and in the bargain becomes irrational and fantasy prone. Option 4. The passage states that the nationalist will transfer fragments of this world to history text books as he believes that the past can be altered. Hence the author would agree with I. Refer to “ Every nationalist …being in the right”, hence the author would agree with II. Refer to “ What he wants is to feel ……….. support him”, hence the author would agree with III. Option 1. Evade has a similar meaning to avoid, and typically applies to a duty or commitment with the implication of guile or trickery. Cooperation has a positive meaning. Collusion invariably suggests some kind of secrecy or underhand methods of objectives in what is being described. Especially means in particular or more than in other cases. Specially means for a special purpose. Homogeneous means of the same kind, forming a consistent whole. Homogenous is a word in biology meaning having a common descent. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. The basic meaning of immune is free from the effects or consequences of. You use immune to when it refers to disease, or to some other form of attack or risk of harm. You use immune from when it refers to some kind of obligation or liability (especially a legal one). Option 3. The poet states that happiness is a bubble that wants to be sizeable but reduces into nothing. He further states that hope is like the blowing of a strong wind in the morning, which robs the beauty of the green lawn covered with dewdrops. Thus melancholy and pensive is the answer. The words despair and dejection are too strong or too extreme. He is clearly not happy hence neither 1 nor 4 is correct. Option 4. The poet has compared happiness to a water bubble and not life. Option 4. The poet states that the long and lingering sleep is craved which means desired. Option 1. C follows A as it continues with the idea of companies that can go in for an equity sale. The idea of sale of PSU shares is first introduced in sentence D and hence the paragraph should start with sentence D. Option 4. The correct phrasal verb is look in on which means visit. cut down on: curtail (expenses) ­ make a reduction in think back on: recall ­ Recapture the past; indulge in memories check up on: examine, investigate ­ Examine so as to determine accuracy, quality, or condition Option 3. As the influencers are decision makers and people listen to their opinions and act on the same, the influencers would not worry about calling people at any time of the day. Option 1. Impossible is an absolute adjective and hence cannot have more or most before it. Option 1. The idea of the group discussions is first introduced by the statement A. The cultural point in B is carried forward in C. Option 3. Refer to the sentences “By relying ………………….difficult judgments. This judgmental ……………….. frequently”. In 1, 2 and 4, availability heuristic is followed. In 1, Jim is an available example; in 2, TV news cover murder more than suicides; in 4, English­speaking people could immediately think of many words that begin with the letters "R" (roar, rusty, ribald) or "K" (kangaroo, kitchen, kale), but it would take a more concentrated effort to think of any words where "R" or "K" is the third letter (street, care, borrow, acknowledge). Option 1. The author states that we use frequently recalled examples to envisage the frequency of an event. People do not deduce the frequency and moreover the prediction is on the recollection of an example which first comes to their mind. People do not evaluate the intervals of frequency but the frequency itself. 60. Option 4 contradicts the sentence “ By relying ………….. judgements”. Charu conducts Sentence Completion immediately followed by Essay Writing immediately followed by Critical Reasoning. Since Sentence Correction is conducted before Critical Reading and Reading Comprehension is conducted after Sentence Completion, the correct order of the sessions will be Sentence Correction, Sentence Completion, Essay Writing, Critical Reasoning and Reading Comprehension. Comparing this order of sessions with the options, Critical Reasoning cannot be the last session. Hence option 4. PREPARE FOR CAT 2014 EXAM @ http://mba.hitbullseye.com/free_mock_cat/How­to­Prepare­CAT.php