File Ref.No.72742/GA - IV - J1/2014/Admn
UNIVERSITY OF CALICUT
Abstract
BVoc programme in Software Development- under Modified BVoc Regulations 2014 – Question
Bank - 3rd and 4th Semesters-implemented w.e.f 2014 admission onwards - Orders issued
G & A - IV - J
U.O.No. 11180/2016/Admn
Read:-1)
2)
3)
4)
Dated, Calicut University.P.O, 20.09.2016
U.O.No. 9751/2015/Admn Dt 16.09.16
Question Bank forwarded by the Chairman, BOS in Computer Science PG
Remarks of the Dean, Faculty of Science 31.08.16
Orders of Vice Chancellor in the File 16.09.16
ORDER
As per the paper read as (1) Question Bank of 1st and 2nd Semesters of BVoc programme
in Software Development has been implemented.
As per paper read as (2) the Question Bank of 3rd and 4th Semesters of Software
Development has been approved and forwarded by the Chairman, BOS in Computer Science PG.
As per paper read as (3) the Dean Faculty of Science has recommended to approve the Question
Bank. Considering the urgency the Vice Chancellor exercising the powers of the Academic Council
has approved to implement the Question Bank of BVoc in Software Development subject to the
ratification of Academic Council.
Sanction has, therefore, been accorded for the implementation of the Question Bank of
the 3rd and 4th Semester of the BVoc programme in Software Development, w.e.f 2014
Admissions.
Orders are issued accordingly.
Sumathi E.K
Assistant Registrar
To
Principals of Colleges having BVoc Programmes
CE, JCEs, Pareekshabhavan
Digital Wing
Forwarded / By Order
Section Officer
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
UNIVERSITY OF CALICUT
THENHIPALAM,CALICUT UNIVERSITY P.O
DEGREE OF
BACHELOR OF VOCATIONAL STUDIES (B.VOC)
IN
SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT
QUESTION BANK
(FOR THE STUDENTS ADMITTED FROM THE ACADEMIC YEAR 2014-15 ONWARDS)
UNDER THE
BOARD OF STUDIES IN COMPUTER SCIENCE (UG)
THENHIPALAM,CALICUT UNIVERSITY P.O
KERALA, 673635,INDIA
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
SEMESTER III
C.
No
Course Code
Marks
H rs/ wk
Credi
t
Int Ext Tot T P Tot
Course Name
3.1
GEC3EG07
(A03) Inspiring Expressions
4
20
80
100 4
4
3.2
GEC3TW08
Technical Writing & SEO
4
20
80
100 4
4
3.3
GEC3ES09
(EWM1B01 ) Environmental Science
4
20
80
100 4
4
3.4
SDC3IT09
Basic Networking Concepts
4
20
80
100 4
4
3.5
SDC3IT10
Introduction to RDBMS and SQL
5
20
80
100 5
5
3.6
SDC3IT11(P)
Networking - Lab
4
20
80
100
4
4
3.7
SDC3IT12(P)
Database - Lab
5
20
80
100
5
5
Semester III Total 30
700 21 9
30
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
Integrated Question Bank
GEC3TW08 : Technical Writing & SEO
Unit 1
Basics of Technical Communication: Technical Communication ­ features; Distinction
between General and Technical communication; Language as a tool of communication;
Levels of communication: Interpersonal, Organizational, Mass communication; the flow of
Communication: Downward, Upward, Lateral or Horizontal (Peer group); Barriers to
Communication.
I.
One mark questions
1. Write the noun form of the word 'enjoy' and use it in a sentence.
2. What should a person remember when giving instructions?
3. What is a syllable? Give an example.
4. How are speed/pace of delivery change in the presentation of un familiar information?
5. Respond to the request: can you spare your book?
6. Seek permission from your teacher to go home ten minutes earlier than usual.
7. The beggar requested the police man to show him the way in to the railway station (
Re write in to direct speech )
8. I am very hungry,..........( use question tag )
9. Fill up with suitable prepositions I am thankful — you —your help
10. Change the degrees of comparison in the following The peacock is more beautiful
than any other bird
11. Complete the following with appropriate clauses (a) If you run ---------------- (b) ——
— you will succeed
12. Mark the stress in the following words (a) photographer (b) eleven
13. Choose the appropriate words / phrases and fill in the blanks (a) I have not met him
____ a long time ( since / for ) (b) The word ‘brunch’ is an example of ( eponym /
blending )
14. The process by which we express our feelings, emotions, thoughts are
called………………….
(language, communication, technical writing, business letter)
15. ………………………… is the best tool for communication.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(speaking, writing, languages, gestures)
16. The means to convey scientific, engineering or other technical information is called
…………………...
(creative writing, technical communication, paralanguage, business letter)
17. Communication that flows to a higher level in an organization is called ……………..
(upward, downward, horizontal, diagonal)
18. The active internal involvement of an individual is
(interpersonal, intrapersonal, organizational, mass communication)
19. Lateral communication is also called
(downward, upward, horizontal, diagonal)
20. ................ flow of communication provides feedback on employee’s performance
(downward, upward, horizontal, diagonal)
21. If a person has .................. communication skill he can develop intimate relationship
with others
(interpersonal, intrapersonal, organizational, mass communication)
22. Communication that takes place at same levels of these hierarchy in an organization
is called .......................
(downward, upward, lateral, diagonal)
23. The latest form of communication is ....................
(oral, written, non-verbal, network)
24. Words made by combining the sound and meaning of two different words are known
as______
25. _____communication takes place within the individual
26. _____ communication flows from a manager, down the chain of command.
27. _____ communication flows in all directions and cuts across functions and levels in an
organization.
28. In _____ communication feedback is immediate.
II.
2 mark questions
1. What is technical communication ?
2. Explain interpersonal communication ?
3. Distinguish between downward and lateral flow of communication ?
4. write any two barriers to communication.
5. What is Communication ?
6. Write the advantages of upward communication ?
7. Language is the most important tool of communication. Do you agree? Why ?
8. Explain mass communication ?
9. Name various communication flows ?
10. Differentiate between upward and downward communication ?
11. What is extrapersonal communication?
12. What is intrapersonal communication?
13. What is Interpersonal communication?
14. What is organizational communication?
15. What is internal- operational communication?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
16. What is external- operational communication
17. What is mass communication?
18. What is downward communication?
19. What is upward communication?
20. What is diagonal communication?
III. 4 mark questions
1. Barriers to listening.
2. Explain scanning with examples.
3. You met someone who is new to the city and wants help to reach a particular college.
The other person seeks help and you offer it. Present it not less than six exchanges.
4. There has been a collision between vehicles in the vicinity your house. The police
officer who does not know Malayalam seeks your help. Write six exchanges between
you and him through which you let him know what happened.
5. Write the features of technical communication ?
6. What are the different levels of communication ?
7. Explain communication and its features ?
8. What is the significance of technical communication ?
9. Why is downward communication regarded so important ? What are its advantages ?
10. What are the different types of communication ?
11. How can we overcome the barriers to communication ?
12. Explain various barriers to communication ?
13. Write the objectives of communication ?
14. What are the advantages of horizontal communication ?
15. Distinguish between General and Technical Communication
16. Write a short note on different levels of communication
17. Write a short note on the flow of formal communication.
18. How does the incongruity of verbal and non-verbal messages become a barrier to
communication?
19. Which are the characteristics of language?
IV. 15 mark questions
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Write an essay on telephone skills.
Write an essay on the Dos and Don'ts of Group Discussion.
Explain the different ways of greeting and introducing with appropriate examples.
What is technical communication ? Differentiate technical communication and general
communication ?
Explain language as a tool for communication ?
What is communication and various levels of communication ?
Explain different flows of communication ?
What are the barriers to communication and how can we overcome those barriers ?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
9. Write a short essay on the barriers to communication.
10. Effective communication is made possible with the help of language. Discuss.
Unit 2
Constituents of Technical Written Communication: Word formation, Prefix and Suffix; Synonyms
and Antonyms; Homophones; One Word Substitution; Technical Terms; Paragraph
Development: Techniques and Methods -Inductive, Deductive, Spatial, Linear, Chronological
etc; The Art of Condensation­ various steps.
I. One mark questions
The words listed below are followed by five choices. Pick the word that is closer in meaning
1. Punctilious(a). meticulous (b). casual (c). perfunctory (d). final (e). none of the above
2. Opulence(a). poverty (b). penury (c). affluence (d). indigence (e). none of the above
3. Stolid (a). stupid (b). stylish (c). impressive (d). impassive (e). none of the above
4. Buoyant (a). Energetic (b). Blissful (c). Tedious (d). Enticing (e). None of the above
5. Momentous(a). Mesmerizing (b). Stormy (c). Memorable (d). Magnificent (e). None of the above
6. ………………… is a letter or group of letters added to the beginning of a word to form
new word.
(suffix, prefix, antonyms, synonyms)
7. The words with opposite meanings are called
(suffix, prefix, antonyms, synonyms)
8. The words with same meanings are called
(suffix, prefix, antonyns, synonyms)
9. The process of making a book shorter by taking out anything that is not necessary.
(drafting, word formation, condensation, none of these)
10. The words having same pronunciation but different meaning and spelling is
(prefix, synonyms, homonyms, homophones)
11. An effective paragraph should be began with a ……….
(synonyms, topic sentence, prefix, none of these)
12. ………………. is a one word for a person who advocates or practices the exclusion of
meant and fish.
(non – vegetarian, vegetarian, cannibal, none of these)
13. Inductive is one of the methods of ……………….
(word formation, paragraph development, condensation, none of these)
14. …………………… is a letter or group of letters added at the end of a word is called
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(suffix, prefix, synonyms, antonyms)
15. Precis writing is another term used for …………….
(inductive method, condensation, drafting, none of these)
Each of the listed words below is followed by some of the synonyms. One of these words is
opposite in meaning to the rest of them. Pick that option; otherwise tick the last option.
1. Virtuositya. Mediocrity b. Finesse c. Dexterity d. Expertise e. None of the above
2. Abyssa. Apogee b. Chasm c. Nadir d. Depth e. None of the above
3. Hoary a. Clichéd b. Hackneyed c. Frosty d. Engrossing e. None of the above
4. Renegade a. Apostate b. Mutinous c. Acquiescent d. Mutineer e. None of the above
5. Loathe a. Adore b. Abhor c. Detest d. Abominate e. None of the above
Fill in the blanks with appropriate phrasal verbs.
1. You will have to work hard to ……………………..with other players.
2. Since the journey was long, we ……………………..at five in the morning
3. By losing the match he…………………………his supporters……………
4. Didn’t you notice, he was……………………you in the party?
5. The Babri masjid was…………………..on 6th December.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate idiomatic expressions:
1. We need reliable supporters and not the………….flatterers.
2. Many parties crop up during election times but just like………..are not seen afterwards.
3. The management has………….that some of us can be retrenched.
4. Most of the political alliances are expedient; there is no………..for their togetherness.
5. We are grateful to you………for all your support and encouragement.
Choose the right option in the following sentences.
1. I am not sure how to decide this, I am quite ambivalent/ambiguous about it.
2. One can just wonder how he is putting on with such a meager income ; he has a large
number of dependents/dependants to feed and support.
3. The girl didn’t take the compliment/complement kindly.
4. He was prosecuted/persecuted actually for a minor crime.
5. The movie was really insipid / incipient; I simply dozed off during the first half an hour
itself.
Find out the antonyms of the following words.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
1.introvert 2. exculpate –
3.consistent4.enviable 5.disposed –
Answer the Questions.
1. A prefix is put at the _____ of a word.
2. A suffix is put at the _____ of a word.
3. Give a synonym for ‘beautiful’.
4. Give a synonym for ‘enormous’
5. Give an antonym for ‘cheap’
6. Give an antonym for ‘divergent’
7. ____ is a word that is pronounced the same as another.
8. The words ‘no’ and ‘know’ can be categorised as _____.
9. Substitute the following idea with one word : ‘Act on another’s behalf’
10. Substitute the following idea with one word : ‘Unscheduled broadcast of important news’
II. 2 mark questions
1. What is Word formation?
2. Explain Prefix and Suffix?
3. What is Synonyms and Antonyms?
4. What are Homophones?
5. Write about Paragraph development
6. Explain word formation
7. Write about Homophones and Homonymns
8. Explain homophone ?
9. What is a prefix ?
10. Explain inductive method ?
11. What do you mean by art of condensation ?
12. Distinguish between antonyms and synonyms ?
13. Words are essential part of composition. Why ?
14. Name any two methods of paragraph development ?
15. Write the difference between deductive and inductive methods ?
16. What is a topic sentence ?
17. Explain illustration as a techniques of paragraph development.
18. Give two words containing the prefix- “un”
19. Give two words containing the prefix- “re”
20. Give two words containing the prefix- “in”
21. Give two words containing the suffix- “acity”
22. Give two words containing the suffix- “ee”
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
23. Give two words containing the suffix- “tude”
24. Define homophones. Give an example.
25. Name the central components of a paragraph?
26. What is a ‘topic sentence’?
27. Distinguish between inductive and deductive methods of paragraph development.
III. 4 mark questions
1. Explain the various steps in The Art of Condensation
2. Explain the key points in Paragraph development
3. Write the different methods in word formation
4. Write the various steps of art of condensation ?
5. Write different techniques of paragraph development ?
6. Explain synonyms and antonyms ?
7. What are the characteristics of an effective paragraph ?
8. Explain different methods of paragraph development ?
9. What are the objectives of art of condensation ?
10. Explain paragraph by stating its features ?
11. The success behind a technical writer lies in his ability to write clearly and effectively
explain ?
12. What is word formation.
13. Condensation aims at squeezing the meaning of a text into fewest words. Explain ?
14. Write a short note on different kinds of paragraphs.
15. Explain different methods of paragraph development.
16. Using ‘classification’ technique, develop a short paragraph on the courses offered by your
college.
17. Using ‘problem and solution’ technique, develop a short paragraph on computer virus.
18. Using ‘comparison and contrast’ technique, develop a short paragraph on Operating
Systems.
19. Which are the steps to for writing and effective précis?
20. Distinguish between précis and synopsis.
21. Write a précis and assign a suitable title for the following passage.
When we survey our lives and efforts we soon observe that almost the whole of our actions
and desires are bound up with the existence of other human beings. We notice that whole nature
resembles that of the social animals. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that
others have made, live in houses that others have built. The greater part of our knowledge and
beliefs has been passed on to us by other people though the medium of a language which others
have created. Without language and mental capacities, we would have been poor indeed
comparable to higher animals.
We have, therefore, to admit that we owe our principal knowledge over the least to the fact of
living in human society. The individual if left alone from birth would remain primitive and
beast like in his thoughts and feelings to a degree that we can hardly imagine. The individual
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
is what he is and has the significance that he has, not much in virtue of the individuality, but
rather as a member of a great human community, which directs his material and spiritual
existence from the cradle to grave.
22. Write a précis and assign a suitable title for the following passage.
It is physically impossible for a well-educated, intellectual, or brave man to make money
the chief object of his thoughts just as it is for him to make his dinner the principal object
of them. All healthy people like their dinners, but their dinner is not the main object of
their lives. So all healthy minded people like making money ought to like it and enjoy the
sensation of winning it; it is something better than money.
A good soldier, for instance, mainly wishes to do his fighting well. He is glad of his pay—
very properly so and justly grumbles when you keep him ten years without it—till, his
main mission of life is to win battles, not to be paid for winning them. So of clergymen.
The clergyman's object is essentially baptize and preach not to be paid for preaching. So
of doctors. They like fees no doubt—ought to like them; yet if they are brave and welleducated the entire object to their lives is not fees. They on the whole, desire to cure the
sick; and if they are good doctors and the choice were fairly to them, would rather cure
their patient and lose their fee than kill him and get it. And so with all the other brave and
rightly trained men: their work is first, their fee second—very important always; but still
second.
IV. 15 mark questions
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Write the constituents of technical communication?
What is a paragraph? Write the features of an effective paragraph?
Explain the different techniques and methods of paragraph development?
Discuss art of condensation and its steps?
Words are essential part of composition explain ?
Discuss with examples some of the techniques for paragraph development.
Unit 3
Soft skills: Communication skills, English - drafting, editing, grammar and composition,
vocabulary, soft skills, Dreamweaver
I. 1 mark questions
Choose the correct answer
1. Language is a --------- subject
(a) style (c) passive (b) skill (d) None of these
2. The word "unhappiness" consists of ---------- morphemes
(a) Two (c) Three (b) four (d) five
3. Speech is ----------- and writing is secondary
(a) usual (c) primary (b) unusual (d) open
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
4. Identify the structure: "I bought a text book
(a) SVA (c) SVAO (b) SVO (d) SVOC
5. Identify the underlined part: "She stood under the tree
(a) clause (c) suffix (b) phrase (d) object
6. old grammar is
(a) Descriptive (c) simple (b) prescriptive (d) None of these
7. A gerund is -------------(a) verb (c) verbal noun (b) object (d) verbal adjective
8. Identify the underlined word: I saw a running dog
(a) verbal noun (c) past participle (b) present participle (d) All these
9. An example of an abstract noun is
(a) death (c) write (b) eat (d) come
10. pick out the collective noun from the following
(a) Aluminum (c) Truth (b) Government (d) Join
11. After dinner the mother --------- the child in the cradle
(a) lied (c) lay (b) laid (d) lied
Fill in the blanks
12. ............. is a stage of writing process during which a writer organize information and
ideas into sentences and paragraphs(drafting, editing, speaking, none of these)
13. .................. is called global language (Chinese, English, Hindi, Malayalam)
14. ................... is the process of arranging, revising, correcting and preparing a written,
audio or video for the final production
(drafting, editing, speaking, mailing)
15. ................. describes the personal attributes that indicate a high level of emotional
intelligence
16. An employee with high level of emotional intelligence has good .............. skill
17. Effective communication takes place between a sender and a ..............
18. ............ is a process by which we express our feelings emotions and thoughts.
19. Good manners, empathy, optimism and ability to collaborate are some of the ..............
20. Professional and result oriented organizations are always looking forward those who
have efficiency in ...............
21. .............. is a vital part of successful writing
22. Choose the correct word: The parents of the _____ (deceased/diseased) had to fight
hard to claim the body.
23. Choose the correct word: We don’t see it as a _____ (fair/fare) deal.
24. Choose the correct word: Statistics ____ that our population is still growing at an
alarming rate. (prove/proves)
25. Choose the correct word: Boys _____ Cricket. (like/likes)
26. Choose the correct word: The students looked ___ the screen.(at/on)
27. Choose the correct word : The tiny mouse hid ____ the chair.(under/by)
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
II. 2 mark questions
1. Write a note on the types of sentences in English
2. What are the two types of paragraphs?
3. What are the different types of reports?
4. What are the advantages of e-mail over conventional letter writing?
5. What is netiquette?
6. Write an essay on the strategies for making effective notes
7. What is a blog?
8. Name any 3 soft skills ?
9. What is drafting?
10.Explain communication skill as the most important of all life skills?
11.Grammar and vocabulary are the 2 major factors of English language. Write your views?
12.Command over “English is Necessary. Do you agree?”?
13.What is meant by Editing?
14.Are soft skills necessary for an employee? why?
15.What is communication?
16.Good interpersonal communication skill enable us to work more effectively in groups.
Explain.
17.Is presentation skill one of the soft skills? Why?
18. Change the following expression into indirect speech: “I am coming”. He said.
19. Change the following expression into indirect speech: “Is some more time left?” spoke the
student.
20. Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles:
21. Dr. Manmohan Singh, ___former Prime Minister of India, is __noted economist.
22. Yesterday I read Othello, ______ great tragedy by Shakespeare,___ genius
23. Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles:
24. __ Titanic was considered to be __ unsinkable vessel
25. Let’s lift __ bed and put it out in __ sun
III. 4 mark questions
1. 1.Modal auxiliaries
2. The uses of present perfect continuous tense
3. Barriers to communication
4. Intonation
5. Different types of interviews
6. Verbal Communication
7. Write a note on the characteristics of blogs
8. A technical writer needs efficiency in English grammar. Explain ?
9. Words are essential part of composition. Why ?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
10. Being able to communicate effectively is the most important of all life skills. Write your
views ?
11. How far it is true that soft skills are associated with a person’s emotional intelligence
quotient ?
12. Explain the term soft skill ?
13. It is said that in order to achieve success of an organization, which is dealing with
customers, the staff should be trained to use their soft skills. Why ?
14. Write the significance of English grammar?
15. What are the skills a person should have if he work with a group or team?
16. What are the preparations a person should take when he is presenting a talk to a group?
17. when we communicate we spend 45% of our time for listening.Explain?
18. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb given within brackets:
I did my homework when I ____ (watch) television.
Since it_____ (rain), we cannot go to beach.
Yesterday, I ____ (have) breakfast at 7.30 am.
After finishing his work he ___ (decide) to go out.
Don’t disturb me. I ___ (write) an essay.
19. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb given within brackets:
20. Once she _______ (join) her job, she ____ (start) ____ (feel) good about herself. Back to a
life of professional urgency ____ (make) her feel wanted and required. Otherwise, all these
years she ____ (live) an uneventful life
21. Punctuate the following passage:
You really are a calculating machine I cried he smiled gently it is of the first importance
not to allow your judgment to be biased by personal qualities the emotional qualities are
antagonistic to clear reasoning he said
22. Punctuate the following passage:
the boy stood up he was the filthiest human I had ever seen his neck was dark and dirty the
backs of his hands were dusty and his fingernails were black deep into the quick he peered
at miss caroline from a fist sized clean size of his face
23. Assume that your uncle has funded your education and you wish to express your gratitude
to him. Draft a telephone conversation between you and your uncle.
24. Draft the dialogue that you will have with the person at the Regional Transport Office
(R.T.O) about the formalities for getting the Driving License.
IV. 15 mark questions
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
1.
2.
3.
4.
Evaluate the role of Body language in non- verbal communication.
Discuss the important personality traits usually evaluated in group discussions.
Write an essay on the structure of a project report
Your company manufactures electrical goods. Due to the increase in the price of raw
materials, you are forced to sell your products at a higher price. Write a letter to a distributor
explaining the circumstances of price rise.
5. Your company has purchased electrical goods from a manufacturer. Many of the delivered
goods are of poor quality. Write a letter to the General Manager of the company
complaining about the issue
6. You are applying for the post of a Chemistry teacher in KendriyaVidyalaya, Kochi. Prepare
a resume for this purpose
7. You are applying for the job of a software engineer in Infosys. Write a cover letter for the
application.
8. How far communication skill help you in the technical field?
9. What is meant by soft skills and write its features?
10. Write an essay on English drafting and editing?
11. Grammar and vocabulary are essential for an effective technical writer. Explain ?
12. Soft skills are necessary for an employee for the succers of his firm. Explain ?
13. Write a five-paragraph essay on advantages of e-learning.
14. Write a five-paragraph essay on abuse of social media.
15. Write a five-paragraph essay on English as a global language.
Unit 4
Forms of Technical Communication - Business Letters: Sales and Credit letters; Letter of Enquiry;
Letter of Quotation, Order, Claim and Adjustment Letters; Memos, Notices, Circulars; Job
application and Resumes. Reports: Types; Significance; Structure, Style & Writing of Reports.
Technical Proposal; Parts; Types; Writing of Proposal; Significance, Master Service agreement
Service Level agreement, managing website.
I. 1 mark questions
1. A document from a bank guaranteeing that a seller will receive payment in full as long as
certain delivery conditions have been met is termed as ………………………….. .
2. The letters that are written for collecting information about job seekers, prices, products,
and services before awarding jobs, granting credit, making contracts and giving promotions
are known as ……………. .
3. A Letter of Inquiry is also known as …………………….. .
4. A formalstatement of promise by potential supplier to supply the goods or servicesrequired
by a buyer, at specified prices, and within a specified period is known as ………………..
5. A message or other information in writing sent by one person or department to another in
the same business organization is known as …………………….
6. A one to two page formal document that lists a job applicant's work experience, education
and skills is called ………………………
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
7. 8.………………….letter is generally written after a client of the business makes a
materialclaim.
8. 9.The letter that is written by a potential buyer to the seller requesting him to deliver goods
is known as ……………………………………..
9. 10.----------------- is a written response by a representative of a business or agency to a
customer's claim letter.
10. ………………. is a form of direct mail in which an advertiser sends a letter to a potential
customer.
11. ............ is a letter written for the purpose of claiming compensation for the loss caused
to the buyer ?
(order, sales, enquiry, quotation)
12. An offer or bid to do a certain project for someone is called ......... .
(report, proposal, request letter, none of these)
13. Along with a job application we used to send ............ .
(proposal, resume, quotation letter, request letter)
14. ........... is a contract reached between parties in which the parties agree to most of the
terms that will govern future transactions?
(Master service agreement, service level agreement, proposal, report)
15. ............. letter is written by a buyer to a seller for the purchase of certain goods?
(quotation, sales, order, enquiry)
16. Sales letter is also called .................?
(memo, proposal, trade circular, report)
17. Communication by letters is called ..............?
(reference, salutation, correspondence, none of these)
18. The form of communication is made in ministries, departments or any government
offices to convey information to a subordinate authority?
(Notice, Memo, Circular, Proposal)
19. After receiving a complaint from the buyer, the seller deals them tactfully by sending
............?
(complaint letter, adjustment letter, order letter, sales letter)
20. The letter written by a seller to a buyer by stating the terms and conditions for the sale
of the products.
(Enquiry, claim, order, quotation)
21. A ____ letter is written to tell someone that an error has occurred and that needs to be
corrected as soon as possible.
22. Memo is an abbreviation of _________.
II. 2 mark questions
1.
2.
3.
4.
What is the significance of a memo?
What is a notice?
What is called a technical proposal?
Explain the term ‘Master Service Agreement’
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
5. What is a circular?
6. Explain Claim and Adjustment Letter?
7. .Differentiate between : Curriculum Vitae and Resume.
8. What is a Letter of Quotation?
9. What is a memo?
10. What is called a resume?
11. Explain credit letter
12. What is a business letter ?
13. Explain technical proposal ?
14. What is meant by MSA Agreement ?
15. Why it is said that correspondence is the backbone of business ?
16. Distinguish between enquiry and quotation letter ?
17. What is an adjustment letter ?
18. Discuss service level agreement ?
19. Explain claim and adjustment letter ?
20. Write any two types of report ?
21. What is a memo?
22. What is the inside address of a business letter?
23. What is the enclosure notation of a business letter?
24. What is the copy notation of a business letter?
25. What is the technical term for the greeting in a business letter?
26. Rewrite the following negative idea in positive terms: Our office is closed on Monday.
27. Rewrite the following negative idea in positive terms: We cannot deliver the goods
until Tuesday.
28. Rewrite the following negative idea in positive terms: We cannot ship the electric
clocks till you inform us what colours you want.
29. What is the purpose of a notice?
30. What is the difference between a notice and a circular?
31. What is an unsolicited proposal?
III. 4 mark questions
1. What is the format of a Notice?
2. Prepare a resume along with a cover letter you would send to a firm seeking employment.
Invent necessary details
3. Write a Letter of Inquiry
4. Prepare a Letter of Quotation
5. Draft a Circular calling attention to unauthorized acts by the workers Union.
6. Draft a Memo asking for feedback on the use of laptop computers
7. What is the purpose and scope of memo writing?Discuss in detail the nature and format of
Recommendation memos.
8. How to write technical proposals? What are the common characteristics of technical
proposals?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
9. What are the different type of reports? Describe some of the common objectives/purposes
of reports
10. What is the format of a resume?
11. Write a paragraph on different types of technical proposals
12. Enquire letters are written to enquire the terms and conditions for buying a product.
Explain ?
13. Explain the necessary parts of a business letter ?
14. What are the features of a business letter ?
15. Write the advantages and objectives of a circular ?
16. On behalf of the librarian of your college write a letter of enquiry to a prominent book
seller asking for the latest catalogue ?
17. Explain the structure and style of a report ?
18. Write different types of proposal ?
19. Distinguish between MSA and SLA ?
20. What are the various types of report ?
21. Explain quotation letter and its merits ?
22. Which are the major elements of a business letter?
23. Discuss different types of business letters.
24. Discuss different types of resumes.
25. Draft a Notice to the members of the Marketing Division asking them to gather for an
important meeting.
26. Draft a Notice to be put up in your college regarding the compulsory participation of the
students in the upcoming Seminar.
27. Give the full-block format of a Memo.
28. Briefly discuss different types of reports?
29. Give a broad outline of a report.
30. Briefly discuss different types of proposals.
IV. 15 mark questions
1. Write an essay on Technical Proposal, its parts and significance. What are different types
of proposal?
2. Differentiate the following:- (i)Recommendation Memo and Information Memos.
3. What is meant by technical proposal ? Explain its various parts and types?
4. Write a job application for the post of a software engineer in a reputed form along with
the resume ?
5. Explain report with its significance and various types.
6. Explain the various purpose and uses of business letters ?
7. What is a business letter ? Write the different types of business letter ?
8. Assuming yourself to be the Purchase Manager of VIBGYOR OPTICALS, write a
complaint to AGELESS GLASSES reporting that the three of the six consignments
containing glasses have been received in a damaged condition.
9. Write a letter of enquiry for leather purses, bags and other goods, asking for all the details
regarding variety, quality, colour, price list etc. for a shop you are opening in a your city.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
10. Draft an order letter for stationery items you need for your office. Give all details
regarding the same in response to the quotation you have received from this supplier.
11. Assume that as the Sales Officer, COZY MATTRESSES, you have received a letter from
local dealer complaining that the two dozen mattresses sent to them have serious defects.
Write an adjustment letter accepting the claim.
12. ZAP INTERNATIONAL is launching a new smart phone with the latest configurations
next month. Assuming yourself to be the Area Sales Manager, write a sales letter
inventing necessary details to be sent to all the wholesalers of your area for promoting its
sale.
13. Assuming yourself to be the Controller, SOFTWARE OPERATIONS, prepare an
appreciation letter for Mr Shaan Aslam who has been working in your company as a
Software Engineer. Mr Shan has applied for the position of Senior Software Engineer in
MINDTREE SOLUTIONS, Bengaluru and they have written to you enquiring Mr
Shaan’s credentials. Draft an appropriate response to this effect.
14. Assuming that you have the requisite credentials, draft a job application letter with
resume in response to the following advertisement:
Candidates holding a bachelor’s degree with a background in information systems,
marketing, or communications are required for work on company intranet, extranet and
internet sites. Mastery of HTML coding, website design including graphic design and
client server technology is vital. Please send resume to HR Manager, EXCLUSIVE
SOFTWARES, Chennai- 12.
15. Assuming that you have the requisite credentials, draft a job application letter with
resume in response to the following advertisement.
Unit 5
SEO: Search Engines, Types of Search Engines, Search Engines working, rank websites based upon
a search term, Directories, Difference between Search Engines and DirectoriesMonitor performance
of website in the search engines.
I. 1 mark questions
1. SEO Stands for ___________.
A.Search Engine Optimization
B.Search Engine Operation
C.Search Entry Optimization
D.None of these
2. Search engine optimization is the process of ___________ of a website or a web page in a
search engine's search results.
A.Affecting the visibility
B.Getting Meta Tags
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
C.Generating Cached Files
D.None of these
3. SEO is all about optimizing a web site for Search Engines.
A.False
B.True
4. SEO is to improve the volume and ___________ to a web site from search engines.
A.Quality of traffic
B.None of these
C.Advertisement
D.Look and Feel
5. Which of the following factors have an impact on the Google PageRank?
a. The total number of inbound links to a page of a web site
b. The subject matter of the site providing the inbound link to a page of a web site
c. The text used to describe the inbound link to a page of a web site
d. The number of outbound links on the page that contains the inbound link to a page of a web
site
Ans: a
6. What does the 301 server response code signify?
a. Not Modified
b. Moved Permanently
c. syntax error in the request
d. Payment is required
e. The request must be authorized before it can take place
Ans: b
7. What is Anchor Text?
a. It is the main body of text on a particular web page
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
b. It is the text within the left or top panel of a web page
c. It is the visible text that is hyper linked to another page
d. It is the most prominent text on the page that the search engines use to assign a title to the page
Ans: c
8. What term is commonly used to describe the shuffling of positions in search engine results in
between major updates?
a. Waves
b. Flux
c. Shuffling
d. Swaying
Ans: b
9. What does the term Keyword Prominence refer to?
a. It refers to the fact that the importance of choosing high traffic keywords leads to the best
return on investment
b. It refers to the importance attached to getting the right keyword density
c. It refers to the fact that the keywords placed in important parts of a webpage are given priority
by the search engines
d. It refers to the fact that the keywords in bold font are given priority by the search engines
Ans: c
10. What is the term for Optimization strategies that are in an unknown area of
reputability/validity?
a. Red hat techniques
b. Silver hat techniques
c. Grey hat techniques
d. Shady hat techniques
Ans: c
11. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to natural links?
a. They are two way links (reciprocal links)
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
b. They are from authority websites
c. They are voluntary in nature
d. They are from .edu or .gov extension websites
Ans: c
12. Which of the following can be termed as good keyword selection and placement strategies?
a. Targeting synonyms of the main keyword
b. Targeting the highest searched keywords only
c. Copying competitor keywords
d. Optimizing five or more keywords per page
Ans: d
13. What does the 302 server response code signify?
a. It signifies conflict, too many people wanted the same file at the same time
b. The page has been permanently removed
c. The method you are using to access the file is not allowed
d. The page has temporarily moved
e. What you requested is just too big to process
Ans: d
14. Which of the following statements about FFA pages are true?
a. They are greatly beneficial to SEO
b. They are also called link farms
c. They are paid listings
d. They contain numerous inbound links
Ans: b
15. What is the name of the search engine technology due to which a query for the word ‘actor’
will also show search results for related words such as actress, acting or act?
a. Spreading
b. Dilating
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
c. RSD (realtime synonym detection)
d. Stemming
e. Branching
Ans: c
16. What will the following robots.txt file do?
User-agent:Googlebot … Disallow:/*?
User-agent:Scooter … Disallow:
a. It will allow Google to crawl any of the dynamically generated pages. It will also allow
thealtavista scooter bot to access every page
b. It will disallow Google from crawling any of the dynamically generated pages. It will also
disallow the altavista scooter bot from accessing any page
c. It will disallow Google from crawling any of the dynamically generated pages. It will allow
the altavista scooter bot to access every page
d. None of the above
Ans: b
17. Which of the following statements about RSS are correct?
a. It is a form of XML
b. It stands for Realtime streamlined syndication
c. It is a good way of displaying static information
d. It is a microsoft technology
Ans: a
18. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to using javascript within the web
pages?
a. It uses up the valuable space within the webpage, which should be used for placing meaningful
text for the search engines
b. Search engines cannot read Javascript
c. It is a good idea to shift the Javascript into a separate file
d. Most of the search engines are unable to read links within Javascript code
Ans: b,c
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
19. Which of the following options are correct regarding the Keyword Effectiveness Index (KEI)
of a particular keyword?
a. It is directly proportional to the popularity of the keyword
b. It is inversely proportional to the competition for the keyword
c. It is directly proportional to the chances of the keyword ranking on the first page of the Google
search results
Ans: c
20. What is the illegal act of copying of a page by unauthorized parties in order to filter off traffic
to another site called?
a. Trafficjacking
b. Visitorjacking
c. Viewjacking
d. Pagejacking
Ans: d
21. Which of the following search engines offers a popular list of the top 50 most searched
keywords?
a. Google
b. Yahoo
c. AOL
d. Lycos
Ans: d
22. Which of the following search engines or directories provides the main search results for
AOL?
a. Lycos
b. DMOZ
c. Google
d. Yahoo
e. Windows Live
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
Ans: c
23. Which of the following can be termed as appropriate Keyword Density?
a. 0.01-0.1%
b. 0.1-1%
c. 3-4%
d. 7-10%
e. More than 10%
Ans: c
24. The following robots meta tag directs the search engine bots:
<META NAME=”robots” CONTENT=”noindex,nofollow”>
a. Not to index the homepage and not to follow the links in the page
b. Not to index the page and not to follow the links in the page
c. To index the page and not to follow the links in the page
d. Not to index the page but to follow the links in the page
Ans: b
25. What is Keyword Density?
a. The number of times the keyword is used / (DIVIDED BY) the total word count on page –
(MINUS)the total words in HTML on the page
b. The number of times the keyword is used X (MULTIPLIED BY) the total word count on page
c. The number of times the keyword is used in the page description
d. The number of times the keyword is used in the page title
e. The number of times the keyword is used / (DIVIDED BY) the total word count on the page
Ans: a
26. Which of the following are examples of agents?
a. Internet Explorer
b. Search engine spiders
c. Opera
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
d. SQL Server database attached to a website
Ans: a,b,c
27. If you search for the term “iq test” in the Word Tracker keyword suggestion tool, will it return
the number of independent searches for the term “iq”?
a. Yes
b. No
Ans: a
28. Cloaking is a controversial SEO technique. What does it involve?
a. Increasing the keyword density on the web pages
b. Offering a different set of web pages to the search engines
c. Hiding the keywords within the webpage
d. Creating multiple pages and hiding them from the website visitors
Ans: b
29. Which of the following facts about Alexa are correct?
a. Alexa provides free data on relative website visitor traffic
b. Alexa and Quantcast provide information on visitor household incomes
c. Alexa is biased towards US based traffic
d. Quantcast only tracks people who have installed the Quantcast toolbar
This is the last question of your test.
Ans: a
30. Google gives priority to themed in-bound links.
a. True
b. False
Ans: a
31. Which of the following methods can help you get around the Google Sandbox?
a. Buying an old Website and getting it ranked
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
b. Buying a Google Adwords PPC campaign
c. Placing the website on a sub domain of a ranked website and then 301 re-directing the site
after it has been indexed
d. Getting a DMOZ listing
Ans: a
32. s Page is used to:
a. Attract visitors from the search engines straight onto the Hallway Page
b. Organizes the Doorway Pages
c. Helps people navigate to different Doorway Pages
d. Enables search engine bots to index the Doorway Pages
Ans: d
33. Which of the following options describes the correct meaning of MouseTrapping?
a. The technique of monitoring the movement of the mouse on the webpage
b. The technique of monitoring the area on which an advertisement was clicked
c. The web browser trick, which attempts to redirect visitors away from major websites through
a spyware program
d. The web browser trick, which attempts to keep a visitor captive at on a website
Ans: d
34. What is the most likely time period required for getting a Google page rank?
a. 1 week
b. 3 weeks
c. 2 months
d. More than 3 months
Ans: d
35. All major search engines are case sensitive.
a. True
b. False
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
Ans: b
36. Which of the following website design guidelines have been recommended by Google?
a. Having a clear hierarchy and text links
b. Every page should be reachable from at least one static text link
c. If the site map is larger than 100 or so links, you should break the site map into separate pages
d. Keeping the links on a given page to a reasonable number (fewer than 100)
e. Use less than 30 images or graphics per page
Ans: b
37. How are site maps important for the search engine optimization process?
a. Site maps help the search engine editorial staff to quickly go through a website, hence ensuring
quicker placement
b. Google gives credit to the websites having site maps. The GoogleBot looks for the keyword
or title “Site Map” on the home page of a website.
c. Site maps help the search engine spider pick up more pages from the website
d. None of the above
Ans: c
38. Google looks down upon paid links for enhancing page rank. If a website sells links, what
action/s does Google recommend to avoid being penalized?
a. The text of the paid links should state the words “paid text link” for Google to identify it as a
paid link
b. Only Paid text links to non profit websites should be accepted
c. Paid links should be disclosed through the “rel=nofollow” attribute in the hyperlink
d. Paid links should be disclosed through the “index=nofollow” attribute in the hyperlink
Ans: c
39. Some words, when followed by a colon, have special meanings to yahoo. What is performed
by the link: Operator?
a. it shows all the outbound links from the url
b. It shows how many pages of the site yahoo is pointing to
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
c. It shows all the pages that point to that url
d. It show url’s with broken links
Ans: c
40. Which blackhatSeo techniques is characterized by a method to decieve search engine, by
detecting the search engine bot and “feeding” it with a different HTML code than the HTML
actually served to users?
a. Coaling
b. Foisting
c. Slighting
d. Cloaking
Ans: d
41. Why is it bad idea from SEO perspective to host free articles and write ups that are very
common on the internet?
a. Because they will not lead to fresh traffic
b. Because you could be penalize by search engine for using duplicate contents
c. Because you will not get the benefits of proper keyword targeting
d. Because people could turn up claiming copyright infringement
Ans: b
42. What will happen if you type the word ‘Certification-Networking’ in the Google search box?
a. Google will find the web pages about “certification” and also containing the word
“networking”
b. Google will find ALL the web pages containing the word word “Certification” and
“Networking”
c. Google will find ALL the web pages in which the words “Certification” and “Networking”
appear together.
d. Google will find the web pages about Certification that do not contain the word Networking
Ans: c
43. Which of the following factors does Google take into account while accessing whether or not
a website is an authority website?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
a. The frequency with which the contents of the website is updated
b. the number of web pages containing relevant information on the main theme of the website
c. The number of in-bound natural links related to the website’s theme (or keywords)
d. None of the above
Ans: c
44. What is keyword density?
a. The number of times the keyword is used / (divided by) the total word count on page – (minus)
the total words in HTML on the page
b. The number of times the keyword is used x (multiply by) the total word count on page.
c. The number of times the keyword is used in the page description
d. The number of times the keyword is used in the page title
e. The number of times the keyword is used / (divided by) the total word count on the page.
Ans: e
45. Which of the following statement about FFA pages are true?
a. They are greatly beneficial to SEO
b. They are also called Link Farms
c. They are Paid Listings
d. They contain numerous inbound links
Ans: b
46. What is the illegal act of copying of a page by unauthorized parties in order to filter off traffic
to another site called?
a. Traffic jacking
b. Visitors Jacking
c. View Jacking
d. Page Jacking
Ans: d
47. What is the most likely time period required for getting a google page ranking?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
a. 1 week
b. 3 weeks
c. 1 month
d. More than 3 months
Ans: d
48. Which of the following can be termed as a good keyword selection and placement strategies?
a. Targeting synonyms of the main keyword
b. Targeting the highest searched keywords only
c. Copying competitor keywords
d. Optimizing 5 or more keywords per page (check)
Ans: a, d
49. What does the term “Sandbox” mean in SEO?
a) The box with paid ads that appear when you perform a search.
b) This is where sites are kept till they get mature enough to be included in the top rankings for
a particular keyword
c) A special category of sites that are listed in kid-safe searches
d) The first 10 search results for a particular keyword.
Ans: b
50. High quality links to a site's homepage will help to increase the ranking ability of deeper
pages on the same domain
a) True
b) False
Ans: a
51. What aspects of a hyperlink are not important for SEO?
a) The visibility of the link text.
b) The anchor text, especially the keywords in it.
c) The place from which the link originates.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
d) The place to which the link leads.
Ans: a
52. Which of the following is NOT a "best practice" for creating high quality title tags?
a) Make sure the title is unique for every page
b) Include an exhaustive list of keywords
c) Limit the tag to 65 characters, including spaces
d) Write compelling copy that encourages users to "click" your listing
Ans: c
53. What is the advantage of putting all of your important keywords in the Meta Keywords tag?
a) There is no specific advantage for search engines
b) It increases relevance to Yahoo! and MSN/Live, although Google & Ask ignore it
c) They will be bolded in searches for that term
d) You have to have a term in Meta Keywords in order to bid for AdWords to that page
Ans: a
54. Which HTTP server response code indicates a file that no longer exists? (File Not Found)
a) 401
b) 301
c) 500
d) 404
Ans: d
55. Which one of the following practice is ethical ?
a) Buying links from link farms
b) Having the same page twice - once in html, once in pdf.
c) Using hidden text that users dont see but spiders can read
d) Stuffing the metatags with keywords
Ans: a
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
56. Is the following metatag appropriate for a site that sells ebooks?
a) Yes, the following metatag contains all the keywords I need.
b) No, it is rather short, I have more keywords to optimize for
c) Why bother with metatags at all?
d) Yes, this metatag is OK even though it could have had more keywords.
Ans: d
57. What is Page Rank?
a) The Alexa technology for ranking pages.
b) The way Yahoo! measures how popular a given page is based on the number and quality of
sites that link to it.
c) The search relevancy of a page compared to the other pages in the search engine
d) The way Google measures how popular a given page is based on the number and quality of
sites that link to it.
Ans: d
58. The de-facto version of a page located on the primary URL you want associated with the
content is known as:
a) Home Page
b) Canonical Version
c) Heretical Version
d) Empirical Version
Ans: b
59. What is the generally accepted difference between SEO and SEM?
a) SEO focuses on organic/natural search rankings, SEM encompasses all aspects of search
marketing
b) No difference, theyre synonymous
c) SEO refers to organic/natural listings while SEM covers PPC, or paid search
d) SEO tends to be a West coast term, SEM is more East coast.
Ans: a
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
60. Which of the following content types is most easily crawled by the major web search engines
(Google, Yahoo!, MSN/Live & Ask.com)?
a) XHTML
b) Windows Media Player Files
c) Java Applets
d) Flash Plugin Files
Ans: a
61. How can Meta Description tags help with the practice of search engine optimization?
a) Trick question - meta description are NOT important
b) They help to tell the engines which keywords are most important on your page
c) They serve as the copy that will entice searchers to click on your listing
d) Theyre an important ranking factor in the search algorithms
Ans: c
62. Which of the following is the least important area in which to include your keyword(s)?
a) Meta Keywords
b) Meta Description
c) Title
d) Body Text
Ans: a
63. If you want a page to pass value through its links, but stay out of the search engines' indices,
which of the following tags should you place in the header?
a) Use meta robots="noindex, nofollow"
b) Use meta robots="index, nofollow"
c) Use meta robots="noindex, follow"
d) Use meta robots="autobot, decepticon"
Ans: c
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
II. 2 mark questions
1. Write a Short note on SEO?
2. Explain the types of SEO ?
3. Locate the main area of valuable optimization of a Website?
4. Write a short note on SMO and SEM?
5. Write on Working of SEO?
6. What is Directory based Search Engine?
7. uses of <meta> tags in a web page?
III. 4 mark questions
1. What is SEO and write a short note on major role of google in SEO?
2. Explain the Different Search Engines in the current market with suitable example?
3.write a short note on Webmaster Tools?
4. Explain the working of SEO with diagrammatic representation?
5. explain the different type of <meta> tags for SEO operation?
IV. 15 mark questions
1. Explain the SEO Operations in the Current Market Place with Example ?
2. What is the Differnece between SEO , SMO and SEM ?
3. How many Type of Search Engines are there and write short note on them?
4. Explain the Google Webmaster Tools and Uses of them?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
QUESTION BANK
Programme
:
B. Voc in Software Development
Semester
:
3rd
Course Code :
SDC2IT10
Course Name :
Introduction to RDBMS and SQL
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
SDC3IT10 - Introduction to RDBMS and SQL
Unit 1 (12 Hours)
Introduction to database systems, File Systems Versus a DBMS, View of data –
Data abstraction, View levels, Data models, Instances and Schemas, Data Independence,
Database languages, Database architecture, Database users ,
Database administrator, Role of DBA . The Entity – Relationship (ER) model - Entity
sets, Relationship sets, Attributes, Constraints, Mapping Cardinalities, Keys, ER
diagrams, Weak entity sets, Strong entity sets.
Unit 2 (12 Hours)
Relational Database Design - Relational Data Model: Relations, Domains and Attributes,
Tuples, Keys. Integrity Rules, Relational Algebra and Operations, Relational Calculus and
Domain Calculus. Normalization, need for normalization, functional dependency, Normal
forms-First, Second, Third, BCNF, Multi valued functional dependency, Fourth and Fifth
Normal forms. Decomposition and Transactions - ACID properties, States, Concurrent
executions.
Unit 3 (12 Hours)
Data Definition in SQL - Data types, Creation, Insertion, Viewing, Updation, Deletion of tables,
modifying the structure of the tables, Renaming, Dropping of tables. Data Constraints – I/O
constraints, Primary key, foreign key, unique key constraints, ALTER TABLE command.
Unit 4 (12 Hours)
Database Manipulation in SQL - Computations done on table data - Select command, Logical
operators, Range searching, Pattern matching, Grouping data from tables in SQL, GROUP BY,
HAVING clauses, Joins – Joining multiple tables, Joining a table to itself. Views - Creation,
Renaming the column of a view, destroys view, Granting and revoking permissions: Granting
privileges, Object privileges, Revoking privileges
Unit 5 (12 Hours)
Program with SQL - Data types: Using set and select commands, procedural flow, if,if /else,
while, goto, global variables, Security - Locks, types of locks, levels of locks. Cursors - Working
with cursors, Error Handling, Developing stored procedures, create, alter and drop, passing and
returning data to stored procedures, using stored procedures within queries, building user defined
functions , creating and calling a scalar function , implementing triggers, creating triggers ,
multiple trigger interaction.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
UNIT I
SECTION A
Very short Answer Question (1 Marks)
1.The database schema is written in
(A) HLL
(B) DML
(C) DDL
(D) DCL
2.An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is a
(A) strong entity set.
(B) weak entity set.
(C) simple entity set.
(D) primary entity set.
3.In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by
(A) rectangle.
(B) square.
(C) ellipse
(D) triangle.
4.The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as
the
(A) DML
(B) DDL
(C) VDL
(D) SDL
5.A logical schema
(A) is the entire database.
(B) is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
(C) describes how data is actually stored on disk.
(D) both (A) and (C)
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6.Related fields in a database are grouped to form a
(A) data file.
(B) data record
(C) menu.
(D) bank.
7.The database environment has all of the following components except:
(A) users.
(B) separate files.
(C) database.
(D) database administrator.
8.The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application
uses is a
(A) module.
(B) Relational model.
(C) Schema.
(D) Sub schema.
9.The property / properties of a database is / are:
(A) It is an integrated collection of logically related records.
(B) It consolidates separate files into a common pool of data records.
(C) Data stored in a database is independent of the application programs using it.
(D) All of the above.
10.The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a program is
(A) The data definition language (DDL).
(B) The data manipulation language (DML).
(C) The database administrator (DBA).
(D) A query language
11.A relational database developer refers to a record as
(A) a criteria.
(B) a relation.
(C) a tuple.
(D) an attribute.
12.The relational model feature is that there
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(A) is no need for primary key data.
(B) is much more data independence than some other database models.
(C) are explicit relationships among records.
(D) are tables with many dimensions.
13.A subschema expresses
(A) the logical view.
(B) the physical view.
(C) the external view.
(D) all of the above.
14.An advantage of the database management approach is
(A) data is dependent on programs.
(B) data redundancy increases.
(C) data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs.
(D) none of the above.
15.A DBMS query language is designed to
(A) support end users who use English-like commands.
(B) support in the development of complex applications software.
(C) specify the structure of a database.
(D) all of the above.
16.It is possible to define a schema completely using
(A) VDL and DDL.
(B) DDL and DML.
(C) SDL and DDL.
(D) VDL and DML.
17.E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity set ?
(A) Dotted rectangle.
(B) Diamond
(C) Doubly outlined rectangle
(D) None of these
18.SET concept is used in:
(A) Network Model
(B) Hierarchical Model
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(C) Relational Model
(D) None of these
19.Key to represent relationship between tables is called
(A) Primary Key
(B) Secondary key
(C) Foreign Key
(D) None of these
20.In SQL, Which command is used to SELECT only one copy of each set of duplicate rows
(A) SELECT DISTINCT
(B) (B) SELECT UNIQU
(C) SELECT DIFFERENT
(D) All of the above
21.The ....................refers to the way data is organized in and accessible from DBMS.
A) database hierarchy
(B) data organization
(C) data sharing
(D) data model
22.The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class
database system?
(A) Database application and the database
(B) Data and the database
(C) The user and the database application
(D) Database application and SQL
23.. ................. is a statement that is executed automatically by the system.
(A) trigger
(B) assertion
(C) durability
(D) integrity constraint
24.The ....................refers to the way data is organized in and accessible from DBMS.
(A) database hierarchy
(B) data organization
(C) data sharing
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(D) data model
25.Which is proper subset designed to support views belonging to different classes of users
in order to hide or protect information.
(A) Schema
(B) Sub-schema
(C) Non-schema
(D) Non-sub schema
26............................. is the powerful language for working with RDBMS.
(A) Embedded Programs
(B) Dynamic Programs
(C) Query Language
(D) Static Language Programs
27.The file in DBMS is called as .................. in RDBMS.
(A) console
(B) schema
(C) table
(D) object
28.In ..................... , we have a strict parent-child relationship only.
(A) hierarchical databases.
(B) network databases
(C) object oriented databases
(D) relational databases
29.What is relational database?
(A). A place to store relational information
(B). A database that is related to other databases
(C). A database to store human relations
(D). None of above
30.Which of following relationship type is not possible to realize in Access
Database directly?
(A). One to one
(B). One to many
(C). Many to many
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(D). None of above
31......................... command can be used to modify a column in a table
(A). alter
(B). update
(C). set
(D). create
32.Grant and revoke are ............... statements.
(A). DDL
(B).
(C). DCL
(D). DML
33.A ................... is used to define overall design of the database
(A). schema
(B). application program
(C). data definition language
(D). code
34.Data independence means
(A). data is defined separately and not included in programs.
(B). programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data
(C). programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data
(D). both B and C
35."Data dictionary" refers to
(A) A large collection of catalog tables provided by the DBMS
(B) An information resource dictionary provided by CASE tool vendors
(C) Either one of the above
(D) None of the above
36.A ………………. Does not have a distinguishing attribute if its own and mostly are
dependent entities, which are part of some another entity.
A) Weak entity
B) Strong entity
C) Non attributes entity
D) Dependent entity
TCL
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
37.Which of the following are the properties of entities?
A. Groups
B. Table
C. Attributes
D. Switchboards
38.The relational model feature is that there
A. is no need for primary key data
B. is much more data independence than some other database models
C. are explicit relationships among records.
D. are tables with many dimensions
39.DBMS is a collection of ………….. that enables user to create and maintain a database.
A) Keys
B) Translators
C) Program
D) Language Activity
40.The following are components of a database except____________.
(A). user data
(B). meta data
(C). reports
(D). indexes
41.The following are functions of a DBMS except ________ .
(A). creating and processing forms
(B). creating databases
(C). processing data
(D). administrating databases
42.The responsibilities of a database administrator includes
(i) maintenance of data dictionary
(ii) ensuring security of database
(iii) ensuring privacy and integrity of data
(iv) obtain an E-R model
(a) i, ii
(b) i, ii, iii
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(c) i, ii, iii, iv
(d) ii, iii, iv
43.Access right to a database is controlled by
(a) top management
(b) system designer
(c) system analyst
(d) database administrator
44.The sequence followed in designing a DBMS are
(a) physical model , conceptual model, logical model.
(b) logical model, physical model ,conceptual model.
(c) conceptual model , logical model , physical model.
(d) conceptual model , physical model, logical model.
45.When a logical model is mapped into a physical storage such as a disk store the resultant
data model is known as
(a) conceptual data model
(b) external data model
(c) internal data model
(d) disk data model
46.A subset of logical data model accessed by programmers is called a
(a) conceptual data model
(b) external data model
(c) internal data model
(d) an entity-relation data model
47.An E-R modelling for given application leads to
(a) conceptual data model
(b) logical data model
(c) external data model
(d) internal data model
48.Which of following relationship type is not possible to realize in Access Database directly?
(A). One to one
(B). One to many
(C). Many to many
(D). None of above
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
49.If an entity appears in only one relationship then it is
(a) a 1:1 relationship
(b) a 1:N relationship
(c) a N:1 relationship
(d) a N:M relationship
50.8.2.3 If an entity appears in N relationships then it is
(a) a 1:1 relationship
(b) a 1:N relationship
(c) a N:1 relationship
(d) a N:M relationship
51.A Database Management System (DBMS) is
A. Collection of interrelated data
B. Collection of programs to access data
C. Collection of data describing one particular enterprise
D. All of the above
52.The raw facts and figures are:
a. Data
b. Information
c. Snapshot
d. Reports
53.. The separation of the data definition from the program is known as:
A) data dictionary
B) data independence
C) data integrity
D) referential integrity
54.Software that defines a database, stores the data, supports a query language, produces
reports and creates data entry screens is a:
A) data dictionary
B) database management system (DBMS)
C) decision support system
D) relational database
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
55.The database design that consists of multiple tables that are linked together through
matching data stored in each table is called a:
A) Hierarchical database
B) Network database
C) Object oriented database
D) Relational database
56.. Which of the following items is not the advantage of a DBMS?
A) Improved ability to enforce standards
B) Improved data consistency
C) Local control over the data
D) Minimal data redundancy
57.The predominant way of storing data today is using which type of database models?
A) Hierarchical
B) Network
C) Object oriented
D) Relational
58.The view of total database content is
(A) Conceptual view.
(B) Internal view.
(C) External view.
(D) Physical View
59.In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as:
(A) Number of tuples.
(B) Number of attributes.
(C) Number of tables.
(D) Number of constraints.
60.Relational calculus is a
(A) Procedural language.
(B) Non Procedural language
(C) Data definition language.
(D) High level language
61.Architecture of the database can be viewed as
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(A) two levels.
(B) four levels.
(C) three levels.
(D) one level
62.In a relational model, relations are termed as
(A) Tuples.
(B) Attributes
(C) Tab les.
(D) Rows
63.The database schema is written in
(A) HLL
(B) DML
(C) DDL
(D) DCL
64.In the architecture of a database system external level is the
(A) physical level.
(B) logical level.
(C) conceptual level
(D) view level.
65.An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is a
(A) strong entity set.
(B) weak entity set.
(C) simple entity set.
(D) primary entity set.
66.In a Hierarchical model records are organized as
(A) Graph.
(B) List.
(C) Links.
(D) Tree
67.In an E R diagram attributes are represented by
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(A) rectangle.
(B) square.
(C) ellipse.
(D) triangle
68.In case of entity integrity, the primary key may be
(A) not Null
(B) Null
(C) both Null & not Null.
(D) any value.
69.A logical schema
(A) is the entire database.
(B) is a sta ndard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
(C) describes how data is actually stored on disk.
(D) both (A) and (C)
70.Related fields in a database are grouped to form a
(A) data file.
(B) data record.
(C) menu.
(D) bank.
71.In an E- R diagram an entity set is represent by a
(A) rectangle.
(B) ellipse.
(C) diamond box.
(D) circle
72.A subschema expresses
(A) the logical view.
(B) the physical view.
(C) the external view.
(D) all of the above
73.Which one of the following statements is false?
(A)The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator.
(B) Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(C) The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element.
(D) The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.
74.An advantage of the database management approach is
(A) data is dependent on programs.
(B) data redundancy increases.
(C) data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs.
(D) none of the above.
75.E- R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity set ?
(A)Dotted rectangle.
(B) Diamond
(C) Doubly outlined rectangle
(D) None of these
76. The metadata is created by the
(A) DML compiler
(B) (B) DML pre-processor
(C) (C) DDL interpreter
(D) (D) Query interpreter
77. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a relational database model?
(A) Table
(B) Tree like structure
(C) Complex logical relationship
(D) Records
78. The data models defined by ANSI/SPARC architecture are
(A) Conceptual, physical and internal
(B) Conceptual, view and external
(C) Logical, physical and internal
(D) Logical, physical and view
79. In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type related to many entity
instances of another type?
(A) One-to-One Relationship
(B) One-to-Many Relationship
(C) Many-to-Many Relationship
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(D) Composite Relationship
80. Entities of a given type are grouped into a(n):
(A) Database
(B) Entity Class
(C) Attribute
(D) ERD
81. Which of the following is NOT a basic element of all versions of the E-R model?
(A) Entities
(B) Attributes
(C) Relationships
(D) Primary Keys
82. Entities can be associated with one another in which of the following?
(A) Entities
(B) Attributes
(C) Identifies
(D) Relationships
83. An ________ is a set of entities of the same type that share the same properties, or
attributes.
(A) Entity set
(B) Attribute set
(C) Relation set
(D) Entity model
84. Entity is a
(A) Object of relation
(B) Present working model
(C) Thing in real world
(D) Model of relation
85. The descriptive property possessed by each entity set is _________ .
(A) Entity
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(B) Attribute
(C) Relation
(D) Model
UNIT 2
SECTION A
Very short Answer Question (1 Marks)
1. Relational calculus is a
(A) Procedural language.
(B) Non- Procedural language.
(C) Data definition language
(D) High level language.
2. In a relational model, relations are termed as
(A) Tuples.
(B) Attributes
(C) Tables.
(D) Rows.
3. In tuple relational calculus P1 ®P2 is equivalent to
(A) ¬P1 Ú P2
(B) P1 Ú P2
(C) P1 Ù P2
(D) P1 Ù¬P2
4. A relational database developer refers to a record as
A. a criteria.
B. a relation.
C. a tuple.
D. an attribute
5. SET concept is used in :
A. Network Model
B. Hierarchical Model
C. Relational Model
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
D. None of these
6.
_______ produces the relation that has attributes of R1 and R2
A. Cartesian product
B. Difference
C. Intersection
D. Product
7. What is a relationship called when it is maintained between two entities?
A. Unary
B. Binary
C. Ternary
D. Quaternary
8. Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain
columns of a
table
A. PROJECTION
B. SELECTION
C. UNION
D. JOIN
9. Which of the following operations need the participating relations to be union compatible?
a.
UNION
b.
INTERSECTION
c.
DIFFERENCE
d.
All of the above
10. The result of the UNION operation between R1 and R2 is a relation that includes
a.
all the tuples of R1
b.
all the tuples of R2
c.
all the tuples of R1 and R2
d.
all the tuples of R1 and R2 which have common columns
11. A set of possible data values is called
a.
attribute.
b.
degree.
c.
tuple.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
d.
domain.
12. Which of the operations constitute a basic set of operations for manipulating relational data?
a.
Predicate calculus
b.
Relational calculus
c.
Relational algebra
d.
None of the above
13. NULL is
a.
the same as 0 for integer
b.
the same as blank for character
c.
the same as 0 for integer and blank for character
d.
not a value
14. Using Relational Algebra the query that finds customers, who have a balance of over
1000 is
a.
Customer_name(balance >1000(Deposit))
b.
Customer_name(balance >1000(Deposit))
c.
Customer_name(balance >1000(Borrow))
d.
Customer_name(balance >1000(Borrow))
15. Cross Product is a:
a.
Unary Operator
b.
Ternary Operator
c.
Binary Operator
d.
Not an operator
16. The natural join is equal to:
a.
Cartesian Product
b.
Combination of Union and Cartesian product
c.
Combination of selection and Cartesian product
d.
Combination of projection and Cartesian product
17. The ______ operator is used to compare a value to a list of literals values that have been
specified.
a.
BETWEEN
b.
ANY
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
c.
IN
d.
ALL
18. A data manipulation command the combines the records from one or more tables is called
a.
SELECT
b.
PROJECT
c.
JOIN
d.
PRODUCT
19. A table joined with itself is called
a. Join
b. Self Join
c. Outer Join
d. Equi Join
20. What operator tests column for the absence of data?
a. IS NULL operator
b. ASSIGNMENT operator
c. LIKE operator
d. NOT operator
21. A relational database consists of a collection of
a. Tables
b. Fields
c. Records
d. Keys
22. A ________ in a table represents a relationship among a set of values.
a. Column
b. Key
c. Row
d.
Entry
23. The term _______ is used to refer to a row.
a.
Attribute
b.
Tuple
c.
Field
d.
Instance
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
24. The term attribute refers to a ___________ of a table.
a.
Record
b.
Column
c.
Tuple
d.
Key
25. For each attribute of a relation, there is a set of permitted values, called the ________ of that
attribute.
a.
Domain
b.
Relation
c.
Set
d.
Schema
26. Database __________, which is the logical design of the database, and the database
_______, which is a snapshot of the data in the database at a given instant in time.
a.
Instance, Schema
b.
Relation, Schema
c.
Relation, Domain
d.
Schema, Instance
27. A domain is atomic if elements of the domain are considered to be ____________ units.
a.
Different
b.
Indivisbile
c.
Constant
d.
Divisible
28. The tuples of the relations can be of ________ order.
a.
Any
b.
Same
c.
Sorted
d.
Constant
29. Using which language can a user request information from a database?
a.
Query
b.
Relational
c.
Structural
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
d.
Compiler
30. Student (ID, name, dept name, tot_cred) In this query which attribute form the primary key?
a.
Name
b.
Dept
c.
Tot_cred
d.
ID
31. Which one of the following is a procedural language?
a.
Domain relational calculus
b.
Tuple relational calculus
c.
Relational algebra
d.
Query language
32. The tuples of the relations can be of ________ order.
a.
Any
b.
Same
c.
Sorted
d.
Constant
33. The_____ operation allows the combining of two relations by merging pairs of tuples, one
from each relation, into a single tuple.
a.
Select
b.
Join
c.
Union
d.
Intersection
34. The result which operation contains all pairs of tuples from the two relations, regardless of
whether their attribute values match.
a.
Join
b.
Cartesian product
c.
Intersection
d.
Set difference
35. The _______operation performs a set union of two “similarly structured” tables
a.
Union
b.
Join
c.
Product
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
d.
Intersect
36. the most commonly used operation in relational algebra for projecting a set of tuple from a
relation is
a.
Join
b.
Projection
c.
Select
d.
Union
37. The _______ operator takes the results of two queries and returns only rows that appear in
both result sets.
a.
Union
b.
Intersect
c.
Difference
d.
Projection
38. A ________ is a pictorial depiction of the schema of a database that shows the relations in
the database, their attributes, and primary keys and foreign keys.
a.
Schema diagram
b.
Relational algebra
c.
Database diagram
d.
Schema flow
39. The _________ provides a set of operations that take one or more relations as input and
return a relation as an output
(A) Schematic representation
(B) Relational algebra
(C) Scheme diagram
(D) Relation flow
40. In the __________ normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attributes.
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
41. A table on the many side of a one to many or many to many relationship must:
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
a.
Be in Second Normal Form (2NF)
b.
Be in Third Normal Form (3NF)
c.
Have a single attribute key
d.
Have a composite key
42. Tables in second normal form (2NF):
a.
Eliminate all hidden dependencies
b.
Eliminate the possibility of a insertion anomalies
c.
Have a composite key
d.
Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key
43. Which-one of the following statements about normal forms is FALSE?
a.
BCNF is stricter than 3 NF
b.
Lossless, dependency -preserving decomposition into 3 NF is always possible
c.
Loss less, dependency – preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
d.
Any relation with two attributes is BCNF View Answer
44. Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on______
(A) Key
(B) Key revisited
(C) Superset key
(D) None of these
45. Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that design by examining the relationship
between attributes:
(A) Functional dependency
(B) Database modeling
(C) Normalization
(D) Decomposition
46. Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is minimal data aggregates and repetitive
groups:
(A) 1NF
(B) 2NF
(C) 3NF
(D) All of the mentioned
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
47. Empdt1(empcode, name, street, city, state,pincode). For any pincode, there is only one city
and state. Also, for given street, city and state, there is just one pincode. In normalization terms,
empdt1 is a relation in
A. 1 NF only
B. 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF
C. 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF
D. BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and 1NF
48. Relational Algebra is a __________ query language that takes two relation as input and
produces another relation as output of the query.
A. Relational
B. Structural
C. Procedural
D. Fundamental
49. Which of the following is a fundamental operation in relational algebra?
A. Set intersection
B. Natural join
C. Assignment
D. None of the mentioned
50. Which of the following is used to denote the selection operation in relational algebra ?
A. (Greek)
B. Sigma (Greek)
C. Lambda (Greek)
D. Omega (Greek)
51. For select operation the ________ appear in the subscript and the ___________ argument
appears in the parenthesis after the sigma.
A. Predicates, relation
B. Relation, Predicates
C. Operation, Predicates
D. Relation, Operation
52. The ___________ operation, denoted by -, allows us to find tuples that are in one relation
but are not in another.
A. Union
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
B. Set-difference
C. Difference
D. Intersection
53. Which is a unary operation:
A. Selection operation
B. Primitive operation
C. Projection operation
D. Generalized selection
54. Which is a join condition contains an equality operator:
A. Equijoins
B. Cartesian
C. Natural
D. Left
55. In precedence of set operators the expression is evaluated from
A. Left to left
B. Left to right
C. Right to left
D. From user specification
56. Which of the following is not outer join ?
A. Left outer join
B. Right outer join
C. Full outer join
D. All of the mentioned
57. Which one of the following is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely
identify a record?
A. Candidate key
B. Sub key
C. Super key
D. Foreign key
58. Consider attributes ID , CITY and NAME . Which one of this can be considered as a super
key?
A. NAME
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
B. ID
C. CITY
D. CITY , ID
59. The subset of super key is a candidate key under what condition ?
A. No proper subset is a super key
B. All subsets are super keys
C. Subset is a super key
D. Each subset is a super key
60. A _____ is a property of the entire relation, rather than of the individual tuples in which each
tuple is unique.
A. Rows
B. Key
C. Attribute
D. Fields
61. Which one of the following attribute can be taken as a primary key?
A. Name
B. Street
C. Id
D. Department
62.Which one of the following cannot be taken as a primary key ?
A. Id
B. Register number
C. Dept_id
D. Street
63. A attribute in a relation is a foreign key if the _______ key from one relation is used as an
attribute in that relation .
A. Candidate
B. Primary
C. Super
D. Sub
64. The relation with the attribute which is the primary key is referenced in another relation. The
relation which has the attribute as primary key is called
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
A. Referential relation
B. Referencing relation
C. Referenced relation
D. Referred relation
65. The ______ is the one in which the primary key of one relation is used as a normal attribute
in another relation.
A. Referential relation
B. Referencing relation
C. Referenced relation
D. Referred relation
66. A _________ integrity constraint requires that the values appearing in specified attributes of
any tuple in the referencing relation also appear in specified attributes of at least one tuple in the
referenced relation.
A. Referential
B. Referencing
C. Specific
D. Primary
67. The situation where the lock waits only for a specified amount of time for another lock to be
released is
A. Lock timeout
B. Wait-wound
C. Timeout
D. Wait
67. Which of the following relational algebra operations do not require the participating tables to
be union-compatible?
(A) Union
(B) Intersection
(C)Difference
(D)none
68. The file in DBMS is called as .................. in RDBMS.
A) console
B) schema
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
C) table
D) object
69. ............................ is the powerful language for working with RDBMS.
A) Embedded Programs
B) Dynamic Programs
C) Query Language
D) Static Language Programs
70. In ..................... , we have a strict parent-child relationship only.
A) hierarchical databases.
B) network databases
C) object oriented databases
D) relational databases
71. Which normal form is considered adequate for relational database design?
A) 2 NF
B) 3 NF
C) 4 NF
D) BCNF
72. What operator tests column for the absence of data?
A) IS NULL operator
B) ASSIGNMENT operator
C) LIKE operator
D) NOT operator
73. Which contain information about a file needed by system programs for accessing file
records?
A) File blocks
B) File operators
C) File headers
D) None of these
74. A .................... DBMS distributes data processing tasks between the workstation and network
server.
A) Network
B) Relational
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
C) Client Server
D) Hierarchical
75. ................. is a statement that is executed automatically by the system.
A) trigger
B) assertion
C) durability
D) integrity constraint
76. ........................... is the powerful language for working with RDBMS.
77. .The file in DBMS is called as .................. in RDBMS.
78. . Which of the following is not a property of transactions?
(A) Atomicity
(B) Concurrency
(C) Isolation
(D) Durability
79. Relational Algebra does not have
(A) Selection operator.
(B) Projection operator.
(C) Aggregation operators.
(D) Division operator
80. Tree structures are used to store data in
(A) Network model.
(B) Relational model
(C) Hierarchical model.
(D) File based system.
81. The clause in SQL that specifies that the query result should be sorted in descending order
based on the values of one or more ascending or columns is
(A) View
(B) Order by
(C) Group by
(D) Having
82. The candidate key is that you choose to identify each row uniquely is called ……………..
A) Alternate Key
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
B) Primary Key
C) Foreign Key
D) None of the above
83. To eliminate duplicate rows ……………… is used
A) NODUPLICATE
B) ELIMINATE
C) DISTINCT
D) None of these
84. State true or false
A.A candidate key is a minimal super key.
B.A candidate key can also refer to as surrogate key.
A) i-true, ii-false
B) i-false, ii-true
C) i-true, ii-true
D) i-false, ii-false
85. . …………………… is the process of organizing data into related tables.
A) Normalization
B) Generalization
C) Specialization
D) None of the above
86. A ………………. Does not have a distinguishing attribute if its own and mostly are
dependent entities, which are part of some another entity.
A) Weak entity
B) Strong entity
C) Non attributes entity
D) Dependent entity
87. ………………… is preferred method for enforcing data integrity
A) Constraints
B) Stored Procedure
C) Triggers
D) Cursors
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
88. The number of tuples in a relation is called its …………. While the number of attributes in a
relation is called it’s ………………..
A) Degree, Cardinality
B) Cardinality, Degree
C) Rows, Columns
D) Columns, Rows
89. The language that requires a user to specify the data to be retrieved without specifying
exactly how to get it is
A. Procedural DML
B. Non-Procedural DML
C. Procedural DDL
D. Non-Procedural DDL
90. The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses is
a
A. module
B. relational model
C. schema
D. sub schema
91. The relational model feature is that there
A. is no need for primary key data
B. is much more data independence than some other database models
C. are explicit relationships among records.
D. are tables with many dimensions
92. Which database level is closest to the users?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Physical
D. Conceptual
93. Which of the following is not a binary operator in relational algebra?
A) Join
B) Semi-Join
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
C) Assignment
D) Project
94. ……………… defines rules regarding the values allowed in columns and is the standard
mechanism for enforcing database integrity.
A) Column
B) Constraint
C) Index
D) Trigger
95. Which of the following is not a property of transactions?
A.Atomicity
B.Concurrency
C.Isolation
D.Durability
96. Relational Algebra does not have
A.Selection operator
B.Projection operator
C.Aggregation operators
D.Division operator
97. The language that requires a user to specify the data to be retrieved without specifying
exactly how to get it is
A.Procedural DML.
B.Non-Procedural DML.
C.Procedural DDL
D.Non-Procedural DDL.
98. Fifth Normal form is concerned with
A.Functional dependency.
B.Multivalued dependency.
C.Join dependency.
D.Domain-key.
99. In 2NF
A.No functional dependencies (FDs) exist.
B.No multivalued dependencies (MVDs) exist.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
C.No partial FDs exist.
D.No partial MVDs exist.
100. Relational Algebra is
A.Data Definition Language .
B.Meta Language
C.Procedural query Language
D.None of the above
101. The FD A → B , DB → C implies
A.DA → C
B.A → C
C.B → A
D.DB → A
102. Union operator is a :
A.Unary Operator
B.Ternary Operator
C.Binary Operator
D.Not an operator
103. Which of the following constitutes a basic set of operations for manipulating relational
data?
A.Predicate calculus
B.Relational calculus
C.Relational algebra
D.SQL
Unit 3
SECTION A
Very short Answer Question (1 Marks)
1.Which of the following code will retrieve data from the view all_marks_english, created in the
previous question?
(A) Select view all_marks_english;
(B) Select from all_marks_english;
(C) Retrieve from all_marks_english;
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(D) Select * from all_marks_english;
2.Which of the following is true about SQL joins?
(A) The join condition is not separated from other search conditions in a query.
(B) The ON clause makes code difficult to understand.
(C) The join condition for natural join is basically an equijoin of all columns with same name.
(D) None of the above.
3.Which of the following is not true about the ON clause?
(A) ON clause is used to specify conditions or specify columns to join.
(B) ON clause makes the query easy to understand.
(C) ON clause does not allow three way joins.
(D) None of the above.
4.Which of the following is not true about simple views?
(A) They derive data from one table.
(B) They contain no functions or grouping.
(C) You cannot perform DML operations through a simple view.
(D) All of the above are true.
5.Which of the following is not true about single-row subqueries?
(A) Single row subqueries return one row from the inner SELECT statement.
(B) Single row subqueries return one row from the outer SELECT statement.
(C) Single row subqueries use single-row comparison operators.
(D) All of the above
6.Which of the following is not true about USING clause?
(A) When more than one column has the same name, USING clause is used for specifying the
column to be joined by equijoin.
(B) It is used for matching one column only.
(C) You can use a table name or alias in the referenced columns.
(D) The NATURAL JOIN and the USING clauses are mutually exclusive.
7.Which of the following code would allocate the privileges of creating tables and view to the role
named student_admin?
(A) grant create table, create view to student_admin;
(B) grant to student_admin create table, create view;
(C) grant role student_admin create table, create view;
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(D) None of the above.
9. Which statement allows conditional update, or insertion of data into a table simultaneously?
(A) INSERT statement
(B) MERGE statement
(C) UPDATE statement
(D) None of the above
10. Which of the following is not true about use of a database view?
(A) It restricts data access.
(B) It makes queries easy.
(C) It provides data independence.
(D) It prevents different views of same data.
11. Which of the following is true about a role?
(A) A role is a named group of related privileges.
(B) It can be it can be created and assigned to a user.
(C) It can be revoked from a user.
(D) All of the above
12. Which of the following query will result in an error?
(A) select dept_id, avg(salary) from employees group by dept_id;
(B) select avg(salary) from employees group by dept_id;
(C) select dept_id, job_id, avg(salary) from employees group by dept_id, job_id;
(D) select dept_id, count(name) from employees;
13. In which of the following cases a DML statement is not executed?
(A) When existing rows are modified
(B) When some rows are deleted
(C) When a table is deleted
(D) All of the above
14. Which of the following is true about a role?
(A) A role is a named group of related privileges.
(B) It can be it can be created and assigned to a user.
(C) It can be revoked from a user.
(D) All of the above.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
15. You want to calculate the sum of commissions earned by the employees of an organisation. If
an employee doesn’t receive any commission, it should be calculated as zero. Which will be the
right query to achieve this?
(A) select sum(nvl(commission, 0)) from employees;
(B) select sum(commission, 0) from employees;
(C) select nvl(sum(commission), 0) from employees;
(D) None of the above.
Which of the following is not a developer’s privilege?
(A) CREATE USER
(B) CREATE TABLE
(C) CREATE VIEW
(D) CREATE SEQUENCE
16. Which of the following is true about a group function?
(A) Group functions operate on sets of rows to produce multiple results per group.
(B) DISTINCT keyword makes a group function consider duplicate values.
(C) Group functions ignore null values.
(D) None of the above.
17. Which statement is used for allocating system privileges to the users?
(A) CREATE
(B) GRANT
(C) REVOKE
(D) ROLE
18. The SQL where clause
(A) limits the column data that are returned
(B) limits the row data are returned.
(C) Both A and B are correct.
(D) Neither A nor B are correct.
19. Which of the following is the original purpose of SQL?
(A) To specify the syntax and semantics of SQL data definition language
(B) To specify the syntax and semantics of SQL manipulation language
(C) To define the data structures
(D) All of the above.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
20. The wildcard in a WHERE clause is useful when?
(A) An exact match is necessary in a SELECT statement
(B) An exact match is not possible in a SELECT statement.
(C) An exact match is necessary in a CREATE statement.
(D) An exact match is not possible in a CREATE statement.
21. Which of the following is the correct order of keywords for SQL SELECT statements?
(A) SELECT, FROM, WHERE
(B) FROM, WHERE, SELECT
(C) WHERE, FROM,SELECT
(D) SELECT,WHERE,FROM
22. A subquery in an SQL SELECT statement is enclosed in:
(A) braces -- {...}
(B) CAPITAL LETTERS.
(C) parenthesis -- (...) .
(D) brackets -- [...]
23. The HAVING clause does which of the following?
(A) Acts like a WHERE clause but is used for groups rather than rows.
(B) Acts like a WHERE clause but is used for rows rather than columns.
(c) Acts like a WHERE clause but is used for columns rather than groups.
(D) Acts EXACTLY like a WHERE clause.
24. To remove duplicate rows from the results of an SQL SELECT statement, the ________
qualifier specified must be included.
(A) ONLY
(B) UNIQUE
(C) DISTINT
(D) SINGLE
25. Find the SQL statement below that is equal to the following: SELECT NAME FROM
CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'VA';
(A) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA');
(B) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'VA';
(C) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'V';
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(D) SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA');
26. To define what columns should be displayed in an SQL SELECT statement:
(A) use FROM to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after SELECT.
(B) use USING to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after SELECT.
(C) use SELECT to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after USING
(D) use USING to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after WHERE
27. The SQL statement that queries or reads data from a table is ________ .
(A) SELECT
(B) READ
(C) QUERY
(D) None of the above is correct.
28. A subquery in an SQL SELECT statement:
(A) can only be used with two tables.
(B) can always be duplicated by a join.
(C) has a distinct form that cannot be duplicated by a join.
(D) cannot have its results sorted using ORDER BY.
29. _______ was adopted as a national standard by ANSI in 1992.
(A) Oracle
(B) SQL
(C) Microsoft Access
(D) DBase
30. What type of join is needed when you wish to include rows that do not have matching values?
(A) Equi-join
(B) Natural join
(C) Outer join
(D) All of the above
31. What type of join is needed when you wish to return rows that do have matching values?
(A) Equi-join
(B) Natural join
(C) Outer join
(D) All of the above
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
32. Which of the following is one of the basic approaches for joining tables?
(A) Subqueries
(B) Union Join
(C) Natural join
(D) All of the above
33. The following SQL is which type of join: SELECT CUSTOMER_T. CUSTOMER_ID,
ORDER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, NAME, ORDER_ID FROM CUSTOMER_T,ORDER_T WHERE
CUSTOMER_T. CUSTOMER_ID = ORDER_T. CUSTOMER_ID
(A) Equi-join
(B) Natural join
(C) Outer join
(D) Cartesian join
34. How many tables may be included with a join?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) All of the above
35. The following SQL is which type of join: SELECT CUSTOMER_T. CUSTOMER_ID,
ORDER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, NAME, ORDER_ID FROM CUSTOMER_T,ORDER_T .
(A) Equi-join
(B) Natural join
(C) Outer join
(D) Cartesian join
36. The sequence of the column in a GROUP BY clause has no effect in the ordering of the
output
(A) True
(B) False
37. GROUP BY ALL generates all possible groups – even those that do not meet the query’s
search criteria
(A) True
(B) False
38. Using GROP BY …………..has the effect of removing duplicates from the data.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(A) with aggregates
(B) with order by
(C) without order by
(D) without aggregates
39. For the purposes of ……….. null values are considersd equal to other nulls and are gruped
together into a single result row.
(A) Having
(B) Group By
(C) Both the above
(D) None of above
40. If you SELECT attributes and use an aggregate function, you must GROUP BY the nonAggregate attributes.
(A) True
(B) False
41. Is it possible to have more than one OTHER clause ?
(A) Yes
(B) No
41. The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the
(A) DML
(B) DDL
(C) VDL
(D) SDL
42. A logical schema
(A) is the entire database.
(B) is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
(C) describes how data is actually stored on disk.
(D) both (A) and (C)
43. In SQL, which command is used to issue multiple CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW and
GRANT statements in a single transaction?
A) CREATE PACKAGE
B) CREATE SCHEMA
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
C) CREATE CLUSTER
D) All of the above
44. Which character function can be used to return a specified portion of a character string?
A) INSTR
B) SUBSTRING
C) SUBSTR
D) POS
45. What are the different events in Triggers?
A) Define, Create
B) Drop, Comment
C) Insert, Update, Delete
D) Select, Commit
46. Which is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Database Structures, including
tables?
A) Data Definition Language
B) Data Manipulation Language
C) Data Described Language
D) Data Retrieval Language
47. Which of the following SQL command can be used to modify existing data in a database table?
A) MODIFY
B) UPDATE
C) CHANGE
D) NEW
48. When SQL statements are embedded inside 3GL, we call such a program as..........
A) nested query
B) nested programming
C) distinct query
D) embedded SQL
49. ................ Provides option for entering SQL queries as execution time, rather than at the
development stage.
A) PL/SQL
B) SQL*Plus
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
C) SQL
D) Dynamic SQL
50. A data dictionary is usually developed
a. At requirements specification phase
b. During feasibility analysis
c. When DFD is developed
d. When a database is designed
51. The language which has recently become the defacto standard for interfacing application
programs with relational database system is
(A) Oracle.
(B) SQL.
(C) DBase.
(D) 4GL
52. In an E- R diagram an entity set is represent by a
(A) rectangle.
(B) ellipse.
(C) diamond box.
(D) circle
53. The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a program is
(A) The data definition language (DDL).
(B) The data manipulation language (DML).
(C) The database administrator (DBA)
(D) A query language
54. Which of the following query is correct for using comparison operators in SQL?
A) SELECT sname, coursename FROM studentinfo WHERE age>50 and <80;
B) SELECT sname, coursename FROM studentinfo WHERE age>50 and age <80;
C) SELECT sname, coursename FROM studentinfo WHERE age>50 and WHERE age<80;
D) None of the above
55. .How to select all data from studentinfo table starting the name from letter 'r'?
A) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE 'r%';
B) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE '%r%';
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
C) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE '%r';
D) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE '_r%';
56. Which of the following SQL query is correct for selecting the name of staffs from 'tblstaff' table
where salary is 15,000 or 25,000?
A) SELECT sname from tblstaff WHERE salary IN (15000, 25000);
B) SELECT sname from tblstaff WHERE salary BETWEEN 15000 AND 25000;
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
57. The SELECT statement, that retrieves all the columns from empinfo table name starting with d
to p is ..........................
A) SELECT ALL FROM empinfo WHERE ename like '[d-p]%';
B) SELECT * FROM empinfo WHERE ename is '[d-p]%';
C) SELECT * FROM empinfo WHERE ename like '[p-d]%';
D) SELECT * FROM empinfo WHERE ename like '[d-p]%';
58. Select a query that retrieves all of the unique countries from the student table?
A) SELECT DISTINCT coursename FROM studentinfo;
B) SELECT UNIQUE coursename FROM studentinfo;
C) SELECT DISTINCT coursename FROM TABLE studentinfo;
D) SELECT INDIVIDUAL coursename FROM studentinfo;
59. How to Delete records from studentinfo table with name of student 'Hari Prasad'?
A) DELETE FROM TABLE studentinfo WHERE sname='Hari Prasad';
B) DELETE FROM studentinfo WHERE sname='Hari Prasad';
C) DELETE FROM studentinfo WHERE COLUMN sname='Hari Prasad';
D) DELETE FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE 'Hari Prasad';
60. Constraint checking can be disabled in existing ............. and .............. constraints so that any data
you modify or add to the table is not checked against the constraint.
A) CHECK, FOREIGN KEY
B) DELETE, FOREIGN KEY
C) CHECK, PRIMARY KEY
D) PRIMARY KEY, FOREIGN KEY
61. . ..................... joins two or more tables based on a specified column value not equaling a
specified column value in another table.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
A) OUTER JOIN
B) NATURAL JOIN
C) NON-EQUIJOIN
D) EQUIJOIN
62. . ........................ is the full form of SQL.
A) Standard Query Language
B) Sequential Query Language
C) Structured Query Language
D) Server Side Query Language
63. The query used to remove all references for the pubs and newspubs databases from the system
tables is ..........................
A) DROP DATABASE pubs, newpubs;
B) DELETE DATABASE pubs, newpubs;
C) REMOVE DATABASE pubs, newpubs;
D) DROP DATABASE pubs and newpubs;
64. . ...................... clause specifies the groups into which output rows are to be placed and, if
aggregate functions are included in the SELECT clause.
A) ORDER BY
B) GROUP
C) GROUP BY
D) GROUP IN
65. . .................. are predefined and maintained SQL Server where users cannot assign or directly
change the values.
A) Local Variables
B) Global Variables
C) Assigned Variables
D) Direct Variables
66. Constraint checking can be disabled on existing ........... and ............. constraints so that any data
you modify or add to the table is not checked against the constraint.
A) CHECK, FOREIGN KEY
B) DELETE, FOREIGN KEY
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
C) CHECK, PRIMARY KEY
D) PRIMARY KEY, FOREIGN KEY
67. The type of constraint ........................ specifies data values that are acceptable in a column.
A) DEFAULT
B) CHECK
C) PRIMARY
D) UNIQUE
68. The ..................... constraint defines a column or combination of columns whose values match
the primary key of the same or another table.
A) DEFAULT
B) CHECK
C) PRIMARY
D) FOREIGN KEY
69. In SQL Server, ..................... is based on relationships between foreign keys and primary keys or
between foreign keys and unique keys.
A) Entity integrity
B) Domain integrity
C) Referential integrity
D) User-defined integrity
70. When a ................. clause is used, each item in the select list must produce a single value for
each group.
A) ORDER BY
B) GROUP
C) GROUP BY
D) GROUP IN
71. A relation is in ____________ if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of
other composite key.
(A) 2NF
(B) 3NF
(C) BCNF
(D) 1NF
72. DROP is a ______________ statement in SQL.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(A) Query
(B) Embedded SQL
(C) DDL
(D) DCL
73. The attribute name could be structured as a attribute consisting of first name, middle
initial, and last name . This type of attribute is called
(A) Simple attribute
(B) Composite attribute
(C) Multivalued attribute
(D) Derived attribute
74. The attribute AGE is calculated from DATE_OF_BIRTH . The attribute AGE is
(E) Single valued
(F) Multi valued
(G) Composite
(H) Derived
75. Not applicable condition can be represented in relation entry as
(I) NA
(J) 0
(K) NULL
(L) Blank Space
76. Which of the following can be a multivalued attribute ?
(M)
Phone_number
(N) Name
(O) Date_of_birth
(P) All of the mentioned
77. Write syntax to delete a table structure?
78. Specify difference between primary key and unique key
79. The word used to renaming is ---------80. ----------- is the key used for referential integrity
81. Give the syntax for renaming the table
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
Unit 4
SECTION A
Very short Answer Question (1 Marks)
1. Which of the following is not related to a Relational Database?
A. Selection
B. Projection
C. Joining
D. None of the above
2. Which of the following methods is used for writing a query with columns from multiple tables?
A. SELECT
B. GROUP BY
C. ORDER BY
D. JOINS
3. Which of the following is one of the most common methods to join multiple tables?
A. Hash Join
B. Equijoin
C. Self-Join
D. Cross Join
4. Which of following will be used to join rows with other tables if the column values fall in a
range defined by inequality operators?
A. Equijoin
B. Simple join
C. Non-equijoin
D. None of the above
5. Which of the following can be used to join the rows of a table with other rows of the same
table?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
A. Equijoin
B. Non-equijoin
C. Outer join
D. Self-join
6. Which of the following is one of the basic types of joins in Oracle DB ?
A. Outer join
B. Self-join
C. Equi-join
D. All of the above
7. Which of the following can be used to fetch rows from multiple tables in a single SQL query?
A. SELECT
B. WHERE
C. FROM
D. Equi-joins
8. How many tables can be joined by using the JOINS in Oracle DB?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 255
D. No limit
9. Which of the following is not a format for Outer Joins in Oracle DB?
A. Right
B. Left
C. Centre
D. Full
10. You want to display all the employee names and their corresponding manager names.
Evaluate the following query:
SELECT e.first_name "EMP NAME", m.employee_name "MGR NAME"
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
FROM employees e ______________ employees m
ON e.manager_id = m.employee_id;
Which JOIN option can be used in the blank in the above query to get the required output?
A. Simple inner JOIN
B. FULL OUTER JOIN
C. LEFT OUTER JOIN
D. RIGHT OUTER JOIN
11. Which of the following operators is not allowed in an outer join?
A. AND
B. =
C. OR
D. >
12. What is the maximum number of characters allowed in a table alias?
A. 10
B. 155
C. 255
D. 30
13. Identify the capabilities of SELECT statement.
A. Projection
B. Selection
C. Data Control
D. Transaction
14. Which command is used to display the structure of a table?
A. LIST
B. SHOW
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
C. DESCRIBE
D. STRUCTURE
15. Which of the following is NOT a GROUP BY function?
A. MAX
B. MIN
C. NVL
D. AVG
16. What are the appropriate data types accepted by GROUP BY functions?
A. Nested Tables
B. NUMBER
C. CLOB
D. DATE
17. Which of the following is NOT a GROUP BY extensions in SQL?
A. GROUP BY
B. GROUPING SETS
C. CUBE
D. ROLLUP
18. Which clause is used to filter the query output based on aggregated results using a group by
function?
A. WHERE
B. LIMIT
C. GROUP WHERE
D. HAVING
19. Determine the correct order of execution of following clauses in a SELECT statement.
1. SELECT
2. FROM
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
3. WHERE
4. GROUP BY
5. HAVING
6. ORDER BY
A. 2-3-4-5-1-6
B. 1-2-3-4-5-6
C. 6-5-4-3-2-1
D. 5-4-2-3-1-6
20. Which clause should you use to exclude group results in a query using group functions?
A. WHERE
B. HAVING
C. GROUP BY
D. ORDER BY
22. Cartesian product in relational algebra is
(A) a Unary operator.
(B) a Binary operator.
(C) a Ternary operator.
(D) not defined.
23. DML is provided for
(A) Description of logical structure of database.
(B) Addition of new structures in the database system.
(C) Manipulation & processing of database.
(D) Definition of physical structure of database system.
24. In a relational model, relations are termed as
(A) Tuples.
(B) Attributes
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(C) Tables.
(D) Rows.
25. The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred
to as the
(A) DML
(B) DDL
(C) VDL
(D) SDL
26. Which of the following creates a virtual relation for storing the query ?
(A) Function
(B)View
(C) Procedure
(D)None of the mentioned
27. Updating the value of the view
(A)Will affect the relation from which it is defined
(B)Will not change the view definition
(C)Will not affect the relation from which it is defined
(D) Cannot determine
28. . A relational database consists of a collection of
(A)Tables
(B) Fields
(C)Records
(D)Keys29
29. A ________ in a table represents a relationship among a set of values.
(A) Column
(B)Key
(C)Row
(D)Entry
31. Having clause is used to filter data based on _________
Ans:Group functions
32. _______ clause can used to restrict the data that is retrieved.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
33. GRANT and REVOKE are two types of _______commands.
35. Which command is used to provide access or privileges on the database objects to the users?
36. Which command removes user access rights or privileges to the database objects?
37. ________ defines the access rights provided to a user on a database object.
38. What are the two types of privileges?
39. Which privilege allows the user to CREATE, ALTER, or DROP database objects?
40. Which privilege allows the user to EXECUTE, SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE
data from database objects to which the privileges apply?
41. Select * from employee What type of statement is this?
a) DML
b) DDL
c) View
d) Integrity constraint
42. Which of the following is a valid SQL type?
(A) CHARACTER
(B) NUMERIC
(C) FLOAT
(D) All of the above
43. The full form of DDL is
(A Dynamic Data Language
(B) Detailed Data Language
(C) Data Definition Language
(D) Data Derivation Language
44. Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL?
(A) SELECT NULL FROM EMPLOYEE;
(B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE;
(C) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE SALARY = NUL
45. Which of the following is a comparison operator in SQL?
(A) =
(B) LIKE
(C) BETWEEN
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(D) All of the above
46. NULL is
(A) the same as 0 for integer
(B) the same as blank for character
(C) the same as 0 for integer and blank for character
(D) not a value
47. A file manipulation command that extracts some of the records from a file is called
(A) SELECT
(B) PROJECT
(C) JOIN
(D) PRODUCT
48. An instance of relational schema R (A, B, C) has distinct values of A including NULL
values. Which one of the following is true?
(A) A is a candidate key
(B) A is not a candidate key
(C) A is a primary Key
(D) Both (A) and (C
49. Which one of the following is not true for a view:
(A) View is derived from other tables.
(B) View is a virtual table.
(C) A view definition is permanently stored as part of the database.
(D) View never contains derived columns
50. To delete a particular column in a relation the command used is:
(A) UPDATE
(B) DROP
(C) ALTER
(D) DELETE
51. A table joined with itself is called
(A) Join
(B)Self Join
(C) Outer Join
(D) Equi Join
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
52. The clause in SQL that specifies that the query result should be sorted in ascending or
descending order based on the values of one or more columns is
(A) View
(B) Order by
(C) Group by
(D) Having
53. In SQL the word ‘natural’ can be used with
(A) inner join
(B) full outer join
(C) right outer join
(D) all of the above
54. The common column is eliminated in
(A) theta join
(B) outer join
(C) natural join
(D) composed join
55. A view is which of the following?
A virtual table that can be accessed via SQL commands
A virtual table that cannot be accessed via SQL commands
A base table that can be accessed via SQL commands
A base table that cannot be accessed via SQL commands
56. A functional dependency of the form x → y is trivial if
(A) y ⊆ x
(B) y ⊂ x
(C) x ⊆ y
(D) x ⊂ y
57. Which of the following is the correct order of keywords for SQL SELECT statements?
A. a.SELECT, FROM, WHERE
B. b.FROM, WHERE, SELECT
C. c.WHERE, FROM,SELECT
D. d.SELECT,WHERE,FROM
Unit 5
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
SECTION A
Very short Answer Question (1 Marks)
1. Trigger is special type of __________ procedure.
a) Stored
b) Function
c) View
d) Table
2. Point out the correct statement :
a) Triggers are database object
b) Three types of triggers are present in SQL Server
c) A DDL trigger is an action programmed to execute when a data manipulation language
(DML) event occurs in the database server
d) None of the mentioned
3. How many types of triggers are present in SQL Server ?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 8
d) 9
4. How many types of DML triggers are present in SQL Server ?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) None of o f the mentioned
5. Point out the wrong statement :
a) We can have an INSTEAD OF insert/update/delete trigger on a table that successfully
executed
b) DML Triggers are used to evaluate data after data manipulation using DML statements
c) INSTEAD OF triggers cause their source DML operation to skip
d) AFTER triggers cause their source DML operation to skip
6. AFTER trigger in SQL Server can be applied to :
a) Table
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
b) Views
c) Table and Views
d) function
7. DML triggers in SQL Server is applicable to :
a) Insert
b) Update
c) Delete
d) All of the mentioned
8. Triggers created with FOR or AFTER keywords is :
a) AFTER
b) INSTEAD OF
c) CLR
d) All of the mentioned
9. Which of the following is not a typical trigger action ?
a) Insert
b) Select
c) Delete
d) All of the mentioned
10. Triggers can be enabled or disabled with the ________ statement.
a) ALTER TABLE statement
b) DROP TABLE statement
c) DELETE TABLE statement
d) None of the mentione
11. A __________ is a special kind of a store procedure that executes in response to certain action
on the table like insertion, deletion or updation of data.
a) Procedures
b) Triggers
c) Functions
d) None of the mentioned
12. Trigger are supported in
a) Delete
b) Update
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
c) Views
d) All of the mentioned
13. The CREATE TRIGGER statement is used to create the trigger. THE _____ clause specifies
the table name on which the trigger is to be attached. The ______ specifies that this is an AFTER
INSERT trigger.
a) for insert, on
b) On, for insert
c) For, insert
d) Both a and c
14. What are the after triggers ?
a) Triggers generated after a particular operation
b) These triggers run after an insert, update or delete on a table
c) These triggers run after an insert, views, update or delete on a table
d) Both b and c
15. Which of the following is NOT an Oracle-supported trigger?
a) BEFORE
b) DURING
c) AFTER
d) INSTEAD OF
16. What are the different in triggers ?
a) Define, Create
b) Drop, Comment
c) Insert, Update, Delete
d) All of the mentioned
17. Triggers ________ enabled or disabled
a) Can be
b) Cannot be
c) Ought to be
d) Always
18. Life cycle of typical cursor involves ______ steps in SQL Server.
a) 2
b) 3
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
c) 4
d) 5
19. Point out the correct statement :
a) A Cursor is opened and populated by executing the SQL statement defined by the cursor.
b) After data manipulation, we should close the cursor explicitly
c) A cursor is declared by defining the SQL statement that returns a result set
d) All of the mentioned
20. How many type of cursor is present in SQL Server ?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
21. Various alternatives to cursor in SQL Server are :
a) FOR
b) IF..ELSE
c) WHILE
d) All of the mentioned
22. Point out the wrong statement :
a) We should use cursor in all cases
b) A static cursor can move forward and backward direction
c) A forward only cursor is the fastest cursor
d) All of the mentioned
23. A dynamic cursor in SQL Server allows you to see ________ data.
a) Updated
b) Inserted
c) Deleted
d) All of the mentioned
24. Which of the cursors further have their subtypes ?
a) Static Cursors
b) Dynamic Cursors
c) Keyset Driven Cursors
d) None of the mentioned
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
25. ....................... are used to recreate if trigger already exists.
A) Cursor
B) Trigger
C) Keywords
D) Replace
26. .............................. is used to define code that is executed / fired when certain actions or event
occur.
A) Cursor
B) Trigger
C) Keywords
D) Replace
Ans. B
28.What statement will add a new column after the NAME column to hold phone number
A) ALTER TABLE pupils ADD COLUMN3 (phone varchar2(9))
B) ALTER TABLE pupils ADD COLUMN3 (phone varchar2(9)AS COLUMN3;
C) ALTER TABLE pupils ADD COLUMN3 (phone varchar2/9)POSITION 3;
D) Position cannot be specified when a new column is added.
29.PL/SQL is a what type of language?
A) Object oriented language
B).Block-Structured
C) Non-Structured
D) Procedural
30.What allows passing values dynamically to a cursor while opening a cursor?
A) Implicit Cursors
B) Explicit Cursors
C) Parameterized Cursors
D )None of These
31.A Stored Procedure is a
A) Sequence of SQL or PL/SQL statements to perform specific function
B) Stored in compiled form in the database
C) Can be called from all client environments
D) All of the above
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
32. Which of the following statement is false
A) any procedure can raise an error and return an user message and error number
B) Error number ranging from 20000 to 20999 are reserved for user defined messages
C) Oracle checks Uniqueness of User defined errors
D) Raise_Application_error is used for raising an user defined error.
33.Which is not part of the Data Definition Language ?
A) CREATE
B) ALTER
C) ALTER SESSION
D) none
34.The Data Manipulation Language statements are
1. INSERT
2. UPDATE
3. SELECT
4. All of the above
35. ----------------- is a named database object which defines some action that the database should
take when some databases related event occurs.
36. List the types of parameters in procedures
37. Write the syntax to drop a procedure
38. Write the two modes of locks
39. ------------ locks are read only locks
40. Write lock is also known as ----------------41. What is a cursor?
42. Write syntax for writing a user defined function
43. List the three levels of locks?
44. Triggers are not executed when -----------------command is executed
(A) a)insert
(B) b)update
(C) c)drop
(D) d)delete
SECTION B
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
Short Answer Question (2 Marks)
UNIT 1
1. Explain logical data independence?
2. Explain physical data independence?
3. Explain schema definition?
4. Define the data model?
5. What is DBA?
6. What you, mean by data abstraction?
7. Write note on data architecture?
8. What are user defined data base uses?
9. Define data base?
10. Define mini world?
11. Define database management system?
12. Define Meta data constructing?
13. Write the three important characteristic of the data base approach?
14. Define the view data?
15. Define the sub schema?
16. Write a short note on entity relationship model?
17. What is key attribute?
18. What is stored attribute?
19.
Explain network model?
20. What is entity set?
21. . Define functional data model?
22. Define roles in E-R diagram
23. Define weak entity set?
24. Define strong entity set.
25. What is E-R diagram?
26. How the primary key of a weak entity is formed?
27. Define candidate key
28. Define foreign key.
29. Define alternate key.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
30. Define secondary key.
31. Define super key.
32. Define E-R model.
33. What are the disadvantages of file processing system?
34. What are the advantages of using a DBMS?
35. Give the levels of data abstraction?
36. Who is a DBA? What are the responsibilities of a DBA
37. What is a data model? List the types of data model used.
38. Write down any two major responsibilities of a database administrator.
39. Define database management system?
40. List any eight applications of DBMS.
41. Define entity and give example?
42. What is meant by foreign key?
43. Define instance and schema?
44. Define the terms
1) Physical schema 2) logical schema.
45. What is a data dictionary?
46. What is an entity relationship model?
47. What are attributes? Give examples.
48. What is relationship? Give examples
49. Define the terms i) Entity set ii) Relationship set
50. Define the terms i) Entity type ii) Entity set
51. What is meant by the degree of relationship set?
52. Define the terms i) Key attribute ii) Value set
53. Define weak and strong entity sets?
54. What are the disadvantages of file processing system?
55. What do you mean by weak entity set?
56. Give example for one to one and one to many relationships
57. What are the disadvantages of file processing system?
58. What do you mean by weak entity set?
59. Give example for one to one and one to many relationships.
60. Who is a DBA?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
61. What are the responsibilities of a DBA?
62. What is a data model? List the types of data models used.
63. What are the components of storage manager?
64. What is a data dictionary?
65. What is an entity relationship model?
66. Define single valued and multi valued attributes
67. What are stored, composite and derived attributes?
68. What is meant by the degree of relationship set?
69. Define weak and strong entity sets?
70. Explain the two type’s o f participation constraint?
71. Define the two levels of data independence.
72. Write down any two major responsibilities of a data base administrator. ?
73. Explain the structure of a DBMS?
74. What is a view?
75. How view is created? Explain with an example
76. Define Database Security.
77. Give types of Privileges.
78. Define Database?
79. What is a DBMS?
80. What is the need for database systems?
81. Define tupule?
82. What are the responsibilities of DBA?
83. Define schema?
84. Define entity and give example?
85. What are the difference between unique key and Primary Key?
86. Define meta data?
87. What are the disadvantages of database systems?
88. What is meant by weak entities? Give example
89. Define Data model?
90. What are the 3 levels of data abstraction?
91. What are the advantages of relational model?
92. Define relation and relationship set?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
93. Define attribute. List its types?
94. What is meant by entity set?
95. What are the different types of data models?
96. What is the difference between candidate key and super key?
97. What is meant by relational model?
98. What are the components of storage manager?
99. What is the difference between composite and simple attributes?
100. Compare database systems and file systems.
101. Define primary key?
102. Define foreign key?
103. Define candidate key?
104. Define super key?
105. Define alternate key?
106. Define secondary key?
107. What is the difference between Weak and strong entity set?
108. What is derived attribute? Give an example?
109. What are the disadvantages of fie processing system?
110. What is ER diagram?
111. What are symbols used in ER diagram?
112. What is RDBMS?
113. Define the two levels of data independence.
114. List any eight applications of DBMS.
115. Define the terms data and information
116. What are the disadvantages of file processing system?
117. Give the levels of data abstraction?
118. Define instance and schema?
119. Define the terms 1) physical schema 2) logical schema.
120. What is conceptual schema?
121. Define data model?
122. What is storage manager?
123. What are the components of storage manager?
124. List the data structures implemented by the storage manager.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
125. What is a data dictionary?
126. List the different data models
127. What is an entity relationship model?
128. What are attributes? Give examples.
129. What is DBMS?
130. What are the advantages of DBMS?
131. What are the disadvantage in File Processing System?
132. Describe the three levels of data abstraction?
133. What is Data Independence?
134. Define the terms
a. Entity type
ii) Entity set
135. What is meant by the degree of relationship set?
136. Define weak and strong entity sets?
137. What does the cardinality ratio specify?
138. Explain the two types of participation constraint.
UNIT 2
1. List the disadvantages of relational database system
2. Define tuple and attribute
3. Define the term relation
4. Define tuple variable
5. Define the term Domain.
6. What is a candidate key?
7. Write short notes on relational model
8. Define tuple variable
9. Define the term Domain.
10. What is first normal form?
11. What is the need of normalization?
12. Write a note on functional dependencies
13. What is meant by functional dependencies
14. What are the uses of functional dependencies?
15. What is meant by normalization of data?
16. What are the ACID properties?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
17. What is transaction?
18. What are the states of transaction
19. Give the reasons for allowing concurrency?
20. Define Key
21. Define Candidate key
22. Define Primary Key
23. Define Foreign Key
24. What is relational data model?
25. Define primary key?
26. Define foreign key?
27. Define candidate key?
28. Define super key?
29. Define alternate key?
30. Define secondary key?
31. Define composite key?
32. What are stored, composite and derived attributes?
33. What is meant by the degree of relationship set?
34. Define the two levels of data independence.
35. Define the normal forms.
36. What is normalization?
37. What is Denormalization.
38. What is 1NF?
39. What is the need of normalization?
40. What is data integrity? Explain the types of integrity constraints.
41. What is 2NF?
42. What is 3NF?
43. What is 4NF?
44. What is 5NF?
45. What is functional dependency?
46. What is BCNF?
47. What is full functional dependency?
48. What is partial functional dependency?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
49. What are the Normal forms?
50. What are ACID properties?
51. Define multivalued dependency?
52. Define join dependency?
53. What is redundancy?
54. What is prime and non prime attributes?
55. What is transaction?
56. What is concurrent execution?
57. What is domain calculus?
58. What is relational calculus?
59. What are the relational algebra operations?
60. What are the difference between relational algebra and relational calculus?
61. What is a primary key?
62. What is a super key?
63. Define Keys
64. Define- relational algebra.
65. What is a PROJECT operation?
66. Write short notes on tuple relational calculus.
67. Write short notes on domain relational calculus
68. Mention the Attribute types:
69. Simple and composite attributes.
70. Single-valued and multi-valued attributes
71. Derived attributes
72. Composite Attributes
73. What are stored and derived attributes?
74. Define the term relation
75. List the disadvantages of relational database system
76. What is meant by functional dependencies?
77. List the SQL domain Types.
78. What are the states of transaction?
79. What is RDBMS ?
80. What is a Record in a database ?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
81. What is a Table in a database ?
82. Define DDL and DML.
83. Explain Database Design:
84. What is Normalization?
85. What is Functional Dependence?
86. What is Trivial and Nontrivial Dependencies?
87. What is Closure of a Set of Dependencies
88. What is First Normal Form (1NF)?
89. What is 2NF – Second Normal Form?
90. What is Third Normal Form (3NF)?
91. What is dependency preservation?
92. What is Boyce/Codd Normal Form?
93. What is Multi-valued dependence?
94. What is Fourth normal form ( 4NF)?
95. What is Fifth normal form?
Unit 3
1. What is Relation?
2. What is Cardinality?
3. What is Query Language?
4. What is Procedural Query Language?
5. What is Nonprocedural Query Language?
6. Write a relational algebra that produces the names of all customers who have both a loan and
an account.
7. What is DDL (Data Definition Language)?
8. What is DML (Data Manipulation Language)?
9. What is VDL (View Definition Language)?
10. What is Data Storage-Definition Language?
11. What is SDL (Storage Definition Language)?
12. What is DCL (Data Control Language)?
13. What is DDL Interpreter?
14. What is Null Value in SQL?
15. What is a Query?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
16. What Operator performs Pattern Matching?
17. What is the output of DELETE and TRUNCATE commands?
18. What is the difference between TRUNCATE and DELETE command?
19. What is the Advantage of specifying WITH GRANT OPTION in the GRANT command?
20. What is the use of DESC in SQL?
21. What is the difference between 3NF and BCNF?
22. What is Domain-Key Normal Form?
23. Enlist some commands of DDL.
24. Define sub-query.
25. How to change the structure of table using SQL?
26. Define the syntax of ALTER table command?
27. Define the syntax of CREATE table command?
28. Define the syntax of DROP table command?
29. Define foreign key?
30. How to connect two table using SQL
31. What is the use of rename operation?
32. What is the use of integrity constraints?
33. What are domain constraints?
34. What are referential integrity constraints?
35. List the table modification commands in SQL?
36. What are the four broad categories of constraints?
37. What is SQL ?
38. What is a Unique Key ?
39. Explain the difference between DELETE and DROP commands?
40. How can you set primary key in a table?
UNIT 4
1. What is view in SQL? How is it defined?
2. Consider the following relation :
3. List the wild card symbols ?
4. List the logical operators?
5. Write the syntax for renaming the column of a view?
6. How can you destroy a view?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
EMP (ENO, NAME, DATE_OF_BIRTH, SEX, DATE_OF_JOINING, BASIC_PAY, DEPT)
7. Develop an SQL query that will find and display the average BASIC_PAY in each DEPT.
8. Write a SQL statement to find the names and loan numbers of all customers who have a loan
at Chennai branch
9. What is the syntax of SELECT command?
10. What is the syntax of WHERE clause?
11. What is the difference between WHERE clause and HAVING clause?
12. What is GROUP BY clause?
13. What is mean by SQL join?
14. What do you mean by SQL? What are the characteristics of SQL ?
15. How pattern matching is performed using SQL?
16. What is the syntax of GRANT and REVOKE?
17. What is View?
18. How range searching is performed in SQL?
19. Define tuple variable?
20. List the string operations supported by SQL?
21. What is the use of Union and intersection operation?
22. What are aggregate functions? And list the aggregate functions supported by SQL?
23. What is the use of group by clause?
24. What is the use of sub queries?
25. What is view in SQL? How is it defined?
26. Name the various privileges in SQL.
27. Write a SQL statement to find the names and loan numbers of all customers who have a loan
at Chennai branch.
28. Define Join and enlist its types.
29. What are wild cards used in database for Pattern Matching ?
Unit 5
SECTION B
Short Answer Question (2 Marks)
1. What is PL/SQL?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
2. What are the components of a PL/SQL block?
3. What is a database trigger?
4. What is a stored procedure?
5. What is difference between a PROCEDURE & FUNCTION?
6. What are advantages of Stored Procedures?
7. What are the modes of parameters that can be passed to a procedure?
8. What are the two parts of a procedure?
9. Explain how procedures and functions are called in a PL/SQL block ?
10. What is trigger?
11. What is the difference between Trigger and Stored Procedure?
12. Define two-phase locking protocol.
13. What is trigger?
14. What is the need for triggers?
15. Give the forms of triggers?
16. What does database security refer to?
17. Name the various privileges in SQL?
18. What does authentication refer?
19. What are the different modes of lock?
20. Define upgrade and downgrade locks?
21. What does database security refer to?
22. Define cursor.
23. Enlist the types of cursor.
SECTION C
Short Essay (4 Marks)
Unit 1
1. Write a short note on data model?
2. Explain the data independence?
3. Explain the three level of abstraction?
4. What is key and explain different kinds of key?
5. What are the three keys applicable to an entity set? Define.
6. Explain entity relation model.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
7. What is a Database system? Explain?
8. Explain about Database languages and its Users?
9. Discuss about Entity-Relationship?
10. With suitable example explain Entity and Attributes?
11. List out the advantages of a DBMS?
12. Define primary and
foreign key with example.
13. What do you mean by schemas? Explain its types.
14. Explain Database Languages in detail?
15. Explain about Information model?
16. What is an E-R Diagram? Illustrate with an Example
17. What are the drawbacks of File processing Systems?
18. Write short notes on Data Abstraction.
19. What are Weak Entity Sets? Explain.
20. What are the Advantages of RDBMS?
21. What is a Database system? Why it is important?
22. What do you mean by schemas? Explain its types?
23. Discuss briefly about E-R diagrams?
24. Write a note on data independence?
25. What is a candidate key?
26. Explain primary key and foreign key?
27. Draw an ER diagram for a Bank database.
28. What are the various relationships that exist among entities?
29. Construct an E-R diagram for a car-insurance company whose customers own one or more
cars each. Each car has associated with it zero to any number of recorded accidents. State any
assumptions you make
30. What are the 3 levels of data abstraction?
31. Define view? Explain with example?
32. Explain ER diagram?
33. What is difference between week and strong entity set?
34. Who is DBA? What are the responsibilities of DBA?
35. What is meant by weak entities? Give example
36. Define Data model? What are the data models?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
37. What are the 3 levels of data abstraction?
38. Define attribute, domain, Cardinality, Degree and relation in DBMS?
39. What are the data models?
40. What are the advantages of relational model?
41. Explain relation and relationship set?
42. What is the difference between candidate key and super key? give example?
43. What is meant by relational model? Explain with example?
44. What are the components of storage manager?
45. Compare database systems and file systems
46. What are the disadvantages of file processing system?
47. What are the advantages of DBMS system?
48. What are the disadvantages of DBMS system?
49. Give the distinction between primary key, candidate key and super key
50. What is the difference between Weak and strong entity set?
51. Explain strong and weak entity set with example?
52. Explain various types of data models in detail.
53. What is meant by E-R model? Explain with example.
54. What are the various types of attributes? Explain each with example?
55. List the different types of database users with their roles.
56. What is the role of DBA in the DBMS?
57. Explain instances and schema?
58. Define the two levels of data independence.
59. What is mean by file system?
60. What is a view? How can it be created? Explain with an example.
61. What is RDMS?
62. Define physical and logical data independence. How does this architecture help in achieving
these?
63. Define the terms entity, attribute, role and relationship between the entities, giving examples
for each of them.
64. What are the three data anomalies that are likely to occur as a result of data redundancy? Can
data redundancy be completely eliminated in database approach? Why or why not?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
65. Construct an ER diagram for a hospital with a set of patients and a set of medical doctors.
Associate with each patient a log of the various tests and examinations conducted.
66. Convert the following ER – diagram into a relational database (the primary keys are
underlined):
67. Describe five main functions of a database administrator.
68. Differentiate database schemes and instances
69. (a) Define the following terms. i. DBMS ii. DBA iii. Metadata iv. Entity v. Attribute
70. Who is a DBA? What are the responsibilities of a DBA?
71. With a neat diagram, explain the structure of a database.
UNIT 2
1. Write short
2. Explain
notes on Relational calculus.
about various Integrity rules in detail
3. Define primary and foreign key with example.
4. What do you mean by Integrity? Explain its types.
5. Write short
6. Discuss
notes on functional dependency.
Boyce Cod Normal form.
7. Explain the working of JOIN and DIVISION operation in Relational algebra.
8. Discuss in detail about the multi valued dependency
9. Explain Boyce - Code normal form.
10. Explain functional dependency
11. Write short notes on Relational calculus
12. Write short notes on Multi valued dependency.
13. Explain about basic algebra operations
14. Explain about Tuple Calculus
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
15. Explain about Domain Calculus
16. Write a note on Division and Join operations
17. What is data integrity? Explain the types of integrity constraints
18. Explain 1NF, 2NF, 3NF and BCNF with suitable example
19. With relevant examples discuss the various operations in Relational Algebras
20. Explain the three different groups of data models with examples.
21. Discuss Join Dependencies and Fifth Normal Form, and explain why 5NF?
22. Explain ACID properties with example?
23. Explain Normal forms with example?
24. What is relational algebra? What are the relational algebra operations?
25. What is mean by keys? What are the different types of keys? explain with example?
26. Explain various integrity constraints?
27. Compare relational algebra and calculus?
28. Explain decomposition? Explain good and bad decomposition?
29. Explain functional dependency and full functional dependency with example?
30. Explain multivalued dependency join dependency?
31. Explain any three normal forms with example?
32. Define the basic operations of the relational algebra?
33. Given the following relations : vehicle (reg_no, make, colour) Person (eno, name, address)
Owner (eno, reg_no) Write expressions in relational algebra to answer the following queries
:
List the names of persons who do not own any car.
List the names of persons who own only Maruti Cars.
34. Explain the ACID properties of a transaction.
35. Define functional and multivalued dependencies.
36. What is the basic difference between relational algebra and relational calculus?
37. Write short notes on tuple relational calculus
38. Write a Query for the following
a) Retrieve the second maximum salary from employee table.
b) Retrieve the employees who earn more than the average salary of the department.
c) Retrieve the employees who earn more than the average salary in their respective
department.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
d) Retrieve the employees who earn more than total salary earned by employees whose name
starts with “R”
Unit 3
1. List the string operations supported by SQL
2. List the set operations of SQL?
3. What are aggregate functions? And list the aggregate functions supported by SQL?
4. List the SQL statements used for transaction control.
5. Discuss the basic structure of SQL.
6. Write short notes on DML commands of SQL.
7. With example, explain the DDL commands of SQL.
8. Briefly explain about the conditional expressions of SQL.
9. Explain
Boyce - Code normal form.
10. What is the difference between DELETE and TRUNCATE commands?
11. What is a constraint? Explain with example?
12. What the difference between TRUNCATE and DROP statements?
13. What are the differences between DDL, DML and DCL in SQL?
14. What is the difference between having and where clause?
15. How to print duplicate rows in a table?
16. What is a transaction? What are ACID properties?
17. Explain the various types of normalization.
18. Explain the two types of participation constraint
19. Define the terms
i) DDL
ii) DML
20. What are the parts of SQL language?
21. What are the categories of SQL command?
22. What are aggregate functions? And list the aggregate functions supported by SQL?
23. What is the use of group by clause?
24. What is Closure of a Set of Attributes?
25. What are various Data types in SQL ?
26. What do you mean by SQL ?What are the characteristics of SQL ?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
27. What is the difference between Procedural DML and Non-Procedural DML ?
28. Give SQL statement which creates a STUDENT table consisting of following fields.
Name CHAR(40)
Class CHAR(6)
Marks NUMBER(4)
Rank CHAR(8)
29. Why Data Control Language (DCL) is used ? Explain
30. What is the difference between WHERE and Having Clause?
31. Differentiate between First Normal form and Second Normal form
32. What do you mean by BCNF? Why it is used and how it differs from 3 NF?
33. What is the difference between DBMS and RDBMS? Which of them is more suitable?
34. Define term anomalies. Explain BCNF in detail
35. Explain Boyce-codd normal form with example?
36. Explain foreign key with example?
37. Differentiate between (i) Single value and multiple valued attribute. (ii) Derived and nonderived attributes. (iii) Candidate and super key. (iv) Partial key and primary key.
38. With an example explain referential integrity.
39. What are the different type of SQL's statements ?
40. Define SQL Insert Statement ,Delete Statement , Update Statement ?
41. Describe the DDL commands with example
42. What are the different types of integrity constraints?
43. Give a short note on alter table commands with example
44. Describe the creation, deletion, modification of relational schema in SQL
Unit 4
1. What is the use of group by clause?
2. What is the use of sub queries?
3. Explain view with example?
4. What is the syntax of GRANT and REVOKE? Explain with example
5. What is GROUP BY clause? Explain with example?
6. Explain WHERE Clause with example?
7. Explain view with example?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
8. What is the difference between WHERE clause and HAVING clause? Explain with
example?
9. What are the parts of SQL language?
10. What are the categories of SQL command?
11. Give the general form of SQL query?
12. List the string operations supported by SQL.
13. List two restrictions that are applied on the modification (updation, insertion or deletion) of
base tables through view. With the help of examples, explain why those restrictions are
required.
14. What are the various states through which a transaction passes through in its lifetime?
Briefly discuss all the events that causes transition from one state to another.
15. What are the advantages and disadvantages of views in a database?
16. What is DDL? Describe the DDL commands with example
17. Write a short note on the data types in SQL?
18. Give a note on select command and describe the clauses where and from
19. What are the conditions satisfied to update the view? How can you drop the view?
20. Discuss the different types of joins?
21. Discuss the selection command in SQL
22. How can you grand and revoke permission in SQL.Explain with example
Unit 5
1. Differentiate Implicit and Explicit Cursors.
2. Explain
block in PL/ SQL.
3. Write a PL/SQL program to find the factorial of a given number
4. Define procedure,
function and package.
5. What is the difference between Trigger and Stored Procedure?
6. What is trigger? Explain?
7. Explain how procedures and functions are called in a PL/SQL block?
8. What is a stored procedure? What are advantages of Stored Procedures?
9. What
is difference between a PROCEDURE & FUNCTION
10. What is a stored procedure? What are the advantages of a stored procedure?
11. What is a database trigger? Which are the different kinds of triggers?
12. Write a user defined function to generate a even number series?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
13. Create procedure to find the sum of natural numbers?
14. What are functions in SQL? Discuss the different types of functions
15. Write short note on lock mechanism?
16. Discuss the control statements in detail?
17. What are cursors? How can you use cursor in a program? Demonstrate with an example
18. Create a cursor to set the grade of the student?
19. Create a procedure to find the factorial of a number?
SECTION D
Essay (15 Marks)
UNIT 1
1. a)Differentiate between a weak and strong entity set.
(b) Discuss the main differences between a file processing system and a Data base
management system.
2. Explain the various components of database management system
3. Explain the fundamental concepts of Relational Database Management system
4. Explain in detail about Entity Sets in Entity Relationship Model
5. Explain in detail about tables and keys
6. a) Explain with a neat diagram about the structure of DBMS.
7. (a) Briefly explain entity relationship. (10)
(b) Explain fundamental concept of DBMS
8. Explain the architecture of DBMS in detail?
9. (a) Explain the conceptual design of ER model with example.
(b) Explain the features of ER model in detail
10. (a) Explain various entity relationship models with examples. (10)
(b) Define the various data model defined in DBMS
11. Explain classification of DBMS of users?
12. Explain the schema architecture and write the three of schema architecture?
13. Define data independence and write the type of data independence?
14. Explain about file system v/s data base management system?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
15. Explain entity relationship model.
16. Explain Architecture of DBMS?
17. List the different types of database users with their roles.
18. What is meant by E-R model? Explain with e.g.
19. Explain various types of data models in detail.
20. What are the disadvantages of DBMS compare to file processing systems? Explain in detail?
21. What is the difference between Weak and strong entity set? Give example?
22. Define view? Explain with example?
23. Compare database systems and file systems.
24. Explain mapping cardinalities and cardinality ratio?
25. Explain three schema architecture of DBMS?
26. Explain three level of abstraction?
27. Write note on entity –relationship data model. Explain the different notations for expressing
entity relationships using ER diagrams, with a suitable example.
28. With a neat schematic representation, explain the components of DBMS. List out the
application in detail.
29. Explain DBMS component modules along with diagram
30. Explain the three different groups of data models with examples.
31. What are the different database users?Who is DBA and what is the role of DBA
UNIT 2
1. Discuss
in detail about Relational Algebra.
2. Discuss
in detail about Relational Calculus.
3. (a) What is normalization? Explain in detail the 1st, 2nd normal forms with examples.
(b) Explain multi-valued dependency.
4. Write in detail on Boyce Codd Normal form. Compare it with third Normal form. (20)
5. Explain in detail about keys.
6. Define difference between relational algebra and relational calculus.
7. (a)What is the relational algebra? What are the fundamental operations available in it? Explain.
(b) Illustrate in detail on tuple relational calculus.
8. Write an essay on relational algebra and relational calculus.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
9. Explain the structure of relational data base. List out the differences between relational
database and relational algebra
10. What is normalization.Explain 1NF,2NF,3NF,BCNF in detail with example.
11. Discuss the following relational algebra operations. Illustrate each of them with an example.
i. SELECT ii. PROJECT iii. DIFFERENCE iv. UNION
12. What is the need for normalization? Explain 1NF, 2NF, 3NF with examples.
13. Define a functional dependency. List and discuss the six inference rules for functional
dependencies. Give relevant examples.
14. Define join dependencies and fifth normal form. Why is fifth normal form called project
normal form?Which normal form is based on the concept of full functional dependency?
Explain the same with an example
15. With relevant examples discuss the various operations in Relational Algebras.
Unit 3
1. Write the necessary statement for student information system in oracle for the
Following:
(a) Creating a table.
(b) Inserting a record.
(c) SELECT.
(d) JOIN.
2. Write the necessary statement for pay-roll system in oracle for the following
(a) Creating a table.
(b) Inserting a record.
(c) Deleting record.
(d) SELECT.
3. Explain
with example the DLL and DML commands work in SQL
4. Why Data Control Language (DCL) is used? Explain
5. What is the difference between WHERE and Having Clause?
6. Differentiate between First Normal form and Second Normal form
7. What do you mean by BCNF? Why it is used and how it differs from 3 NF?
8. What is the difference between DBMS and RDBMS? Which of them is more suitable?
9. Define term anomalies. Explain BCNF in detail
10. Explain Boyce-codd normal form with example?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
11. Explain ALTER table command with example?
12. Explain Create table command with example?
13. Explain foreign key with example?
14. With suitable examples, discuss in detail about the data manipulation with SQL
15. What are constraints? Discuss different constraints associated with SQL
16. How can you create, modify, delete and view the structure of the table. Demonstrate each
with example
17. What is DDL?Demonstrate DDL commands and write the query for the following
a) Create table called distributor with the columns specified below
DistCode
Number(3)
CoName
Char(15)
Amount
Number(7,2)
Crlimit
Number(6)
b) Insert the following data into the table called distributor
Distcode
Coname
amount
207
blue star ltd
78000
150
PHI systems
-
crlimit
100000
90000
18. What are alter table commands?Give the query for the following
a) Insert the following data into the table called distributor
Distcode
Coname
207
blue star ltd
150
PHI systems
amount
crlimit
78000
100000
-
90000
b) Alter the structure of the table distributor by adding a column called coaddress
(varchar(20))
c) Display all company names for amount less than 70000 from table Distributor
Unit 4
1. Discuss briefly on SQL nested sub queries.
2. Briefly discuss the various commands used in SQL.
3. What are the aggregate functions available in SQL? Explain. (10)
4. What is the function of update and delete command?
5. Explain view with example?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
6. What is GROUP BY clause? Explain with example?
7. Briefly describe referential integrity?
8. Explain how to add a NOT NULL column to a table
9. List the string operations supported by SQL.
10. What are aggregate functions? And list the aggregate functions supported by SQL?
11. Explain detail in decomposition using Functional Dependencies.
12. What is the need for Normalisation? Define Third Normal form.
13. What is structured query language? How the DDL and DML are different? explain.
14. Define term anomalies. Explain BCNF in detail.
15. What is View? What is its purpose? Specify the different DDL,DML commands related to
views with example
16. What is known as privilege? How can you grant and revoke privilege?
17. Discuss the different types of joins? Demonstrate each one with example
18. Discuss different logical operators and set operators in SQL?How can you search the pattern
and range in database?
19. Write note on given below with suitable examples
20. a)grouping data in SQL
b)pattern matching
c)range searching
Unit 5
1. Explain the control structures available in PL/SQL. (b)What are the types of blocks available
in PL/SQL ?
2. (a)Differentiate function and procedure with examples. (b)Describe the role of exception
handling.
3. Discuss the salient features of PL/SQL.
4. (a) Discuss about explicit cursors.
(b) Explain how to create and drop trigger.
5. Explain stored procedure with example?
6. Explain trigger with example?
7. Explain loop with example?
8. Explain stored procedure? What are advantages of Stored Procedures?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
9. What is trigger?How can you declare,open,store and close trigger? Demonstrate with an
example
10. Describe the different control structures in Procedures with example
11. How can you create, alter and drop procedure? Write a procedure to print the fibbnocci
series?
12. What are locks? Describe the different types and levels of lock
13. Write a essay on cursor? Demonstrate cursor creation and execution with an example
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
SDC3IT09 - Basic Networking Concepts
Course No: 3.4
Course Code: SDC3IT09
Course Name: Basic Networking Concepts
Credits: 4
Hours: 60
Course Outline
Unit 1 (12 Hours)
Introduction to Computer networks, Topology, categories of networks, Internetwork, Internet,
Network Models, Layered model, OSI and TCP/IP models, Transmission media, Wired and unwired
media. Physical layer, Analog and Digital data, Periodic and A periodic signals, Composite signals,
Digital data transmission, Transmission Modes - Analog Transmission, Multiplexing, Frequency
division multiplexing, Time Division Multiplexing and Wave Division Multiplexing, Switching Circuit switching, Packet Switching and Message Switching.
Unit 2 (12 Hours)
Data link layer, Error detection and correction, Types of errors, Single bit error and Burst error,
Vertical redundancy check (VRC), longitudinal redundancy Check (LRC), Cyclic Redundancy Check
(CRC), Error correction - Single bit error correction, Hamming code Data compression- Human code,
data link control, Line discipline, Flow control, Error control, Multiple Access, Random Access,
ALOHA, pure ALOHA and slotted ALOHA, Polling, Wired LANs, Ethernet - IEEE standards.
Unit 3 (12 Hours)
Network layer, Networking and Internetworking devices - Repeaters, Bridges, Routers, Gateways,
Logical addressing - IPv4 & IPv6 addresses, Network
Address Translation (NAT), Internet protocols, internetworking, Datagram, Transition from IPv4 to
IPv6, Address Mapping-Error reporting and multicasting - Delivery, Forwarding and Routing
algorithms, Distance Vector Routing, Link State Routing, Multicast routing protocols, The Dijkstra
Algorithm.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
Unit 4 (12 Hours)
Transport layer, Process-to-process Delivery: UDP, TCP and SCTP, Congestion control and Quality
of Service, Application Layer, Domain Name Systems - Remote Login – Email -FTP, WWW, HTTP
- Network management SNMP.
Unit 5 (12 Hours)
Network Security – Basics of Cryptography- Digital Signature, Encryption, Decryption, Firewall,
Data Translation- Compression – Mails Services – Directory services – File Transfer and Access
Management Protocol (FTAM) – Common Management Information Protocol (CMIP).
PART A(1 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?
(a) Mesh
(b) Star
(c) Bus
(d) Ring
2. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?
(a) Mesh
(b) Star
(c) Bus
(d) Ring
3. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves………. transmission
(a) simplex
(b) half-duplex
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(c) full-duplex
(d) automatic
4. A television broadcast is an example of …….. transmission
(a) simplex
(b) half-duplex
(c) full-duplex
(d) automatic
5. In a ………. topology, if there are n devices ia a network, each device has n-1 prts for cables.
(a) Mesh
(b) Star
(c) Bus
(d) Ring
6. In a …… connection, more than two devices can share a single link.
(a) Point-to-point
(b) multipoint
(c) primary
(d) secondary
7. In ……….. transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating devices at all
times.
(a) simplex
(b) half-duplex
(c) full-duplex
(d) half-simplex
8. The end-to-end delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of the ……. layer
(a) network
(b) transport
(c) session
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(d) presentation
9. The ……….. layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.
(a) physical
(b) data link
(c) network
(d) transport
10. Decryption and encryption s the responsibility of …….. layer.
(a) physical
(b) data link
(c) network
(d) session
11. Node-to-node delivery of the data unit is the responsibility of the ………. layer
(a) physical
(b) data link
(c) network
(d) transport
12. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are………..
(a) added
(b) removed
(c) rearranged
(d) modified
13. The physical layer is concerned with the transmission of ………… over the physical medium
(a) programs
(b) dialogs
(c) protocols
(d) bits
14. What is the main function of the transport layer?
(a) Node-to-node delivery
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(b) end-to-end message delivery
(c) synchronization
(d) updating and maintenance of routing tables.
15. Before informations can be transmitted, it must be transformed into …..
(a) periodic signals
(b) electromagnetic signals
(c) aperiodic signals
(d) low-frequency wave signals
16. In ……. transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its own wire.
(a) asynchronous serial
(b) synchronous serial
(c) parallel
(d) (a) and (b)
17. In……. transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one at a time.
(a) asynchronous serial
(b) synchronous serial
(c) parallel
(d) (a) and (b)
18. Synchronous transmission does not have ………...
(a) a start bit
(b) a stop bit
(c) gaps between bytes
(d) all of the above
19. __________ is a group of independent computers attached to one another through
communication media.
a)Internet
b)Email
c)Network
d)All of the above
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
20. The first network to implement TCP/IP are
a) ARPANET
b) INTERNET
c) MANET d) MODEM
21. Every node on the network is connected through a central device is called _____ topology.
A)Ring
B)Bus
C)Star
D)Mesh
22. When data is encapsulated which is the correct order
a) Data, frame, packet, segment, bit
b) Data, segment, packet, frame, bit
c) Segment, data, packet, frame, bit
d) Data, segment, frame, packet, bit
24. Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model?
a) Physical
b)network c)datalink
d) Transport
25. LAN stands for
a) Location access network
b) Local anti network
c) Local area network
d) Location area network
26. Which of the following is not a type of computer networks?
1. Local Area Network (LAN)
2. Personal Area Network (PAN)
3. Remote Area Network (RAN)
4. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
27. Which of the following are type of Twisted Pair Cable?
1. Coaxial Cable
2. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
3. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
4. Only b and c
28. HUB is a …………………… Device and Switch is a …………………. Device
1. Unicast, Multicast
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
2, Multicast, Unicast
3. Broadcast, Unicast
4. None of the above
29. Star Topology is based on a central device that can be ………………
a. HUB
b. Switch
c. only a
d. both a and b
30 . Which of the following is considered a broad band communication channel?
a. Coaxial cable
b. Fiber optics cable
c. None of the above
d. only a and b
31. Which of the following is an advantage to using fiber optics data transmission?
a. resistance to data theft
b. fast data transmission rate
c. low noise level
d. all the above
32. A protocol is a set of rules governing a time sequence of events that must take place?
a. between peers
b. between an interface
c. between modems
d. across an interface
33. What protects the coaxial cable from noise ?
a. inner conductor
b. outer conductor
c. diameter of cable
d. insulating material
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
33. The two broad classifications under which Networks can be divided are __________ and _________
34. Computer network emerges due to the development between two fields, namely _____________ and
_____________.
35. Initially, computer network was developed for ________________ purposes.
36. In Mesh topology the total number of links to connect n nodes = ___________
37. In __________ Topology, all stations attach through tap, directly to a linear transmission medium
38. In BUS Topology at each end of the bus there is a____________, which absorbs any signal, preventing
reflection of signal from the endpoints.
39. In the _________ topology, each station is directly connected to a common central node
40. In Start Topology, typically, each station attaches to a central node, referred to as the ___________,
via two point-to-point links
41. The network consists of a set of repeaters joined by point-to-point links in a closed loop in
_________Topology
42. Unguided media are suitable for _________ topology
43. Fiber optics is suitable for use in ________ and _______ topology
44. Coaxial cable is suitable for use in _________ topology
45.Twisted pair is suitable for use in _______ and ______ topologies
46. The two alternatives for the operation of the central node in STAR topology are __________ and
__________
47. In Ring Topology, the links are bidirectional (True /False)
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
48. ___________ topology can be considered as an extension to BUS topology.
49. In a Layered network model a _________is a set of actions that a layer offers to another (higher) layer.
50. In a Layered network model a _________ is a set of rules that a layer uses to exchange information with
a peer entity.
51. In Layered network model messages from one layer to another are sent through ________
Themodel was developed by ___________
52. In the OSI Reference Model, which layer determines the format used to exchange data among
networked computers?
53. _________ allows two applications to establish, use and disconnect a connection between them in
the
OSI Model
54. Which layer, in OSI model, is also responsible for finding a path through the network to the destination
computer?
55. Which ODI Model layer defines the electrical signals and line states ?
56.The layer in OSI Model, closest to the end user is _________.
57. ________ layer in OSI Model is closest to the physical network medium.
58. Which are the three layers WAN protocols operate at of the OSI model?
59. LAN protocols operate at the _______ and _________ layers of the OSI model.
60. Transmission media is classified into two as __________ and _________.
61. Fiber-Optic cables and Twisted-pair cable belong to Unguided media class (True/False)
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
62. Fiber-Optic cables are not susceptible to electrical interference (True/False)
63. Two fibers needed to get full duplex (both ways)communication (True/False)
64. What are the light sources for fiber optics?
65. What is the optimum frequency range for satellite communication?
66. Between AM and FM, which one gives better noise immunity?
67. List the line coding technique.
68. The device used for conversion of analog datato digital signal and vice versa is called a ______.
_______ multiplexing is used extensively in radio and TV transmission.
69. The users take turns using the entire channel for ___________ multiplexing
70. The carriers used to modulate the individual message signals arecalled __________.
71. These unused channels between each successive channel are known as _________.
72. In which multiplexing method a prism is used.
73. Statistical Time-division Multiplexing is also known as ________
74. Which multiplexing method prevents the demodulators from seeing frequencies other than their own.
75. blocking or non-blocking network is related to which category of switching?
76. PSTN is an example of _________ switching.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
77. In ________ switching all the datagrams of a message follows the same channel ofa path.
78. In ________ switching, each packet of a message need not follow the same pathfrom sender to receiver
79. Which switching method is commonly known as Store-and-forward technology?
80. Two basic approaches are common to Packet Switching are _____________packet switching and
_________ packet switching.
81. X.25 is a standard for _________ com munications.
UNIT 2
1. Error detection is usually done in the …… layer of the OSI model.
(a) physical
(b) data link
(c) network
(d) any of the above
2. Which error detection method consists of a parity bit for each data unit as well as an entire
data unit of parity bits?
(a) VRC
(b) LRC
(c) CRC
(d) checksum
3. Which of the following best describes a single bit error?
(a) A single bit is inverted
(b) A single bit is inverted per data unit
(c) A single bit is inverted per transmission
(d) any of the above
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
4. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC?
(a) the divisor
(b) the quotient
(c) the divident
(d) the remainder
5. The hamming code is a method of ……...
(a) error detection
(b) error correction
(c) error encapsulation
(d) (a) and (b)
6. The secondary device in a multipoint configuration sends data in response to ……...
(a) an ACK
(b) an ENQ
(c) a poll
(d) a SEL
7. In sliding window flow control, if the window size is63, what is the range of sequence
numbers?
(a) 0-63
(b) 0-64
(c) 1-63
(d) 1-64
8. In sliding window flow control, the frames to the left of the receiver window are frames…...
(a) received but not acknowledged
(b) received and acknowledged
(c) not received
(d) not sent
9. The retransmission of damaged or lost frames in the data link layer is known as…….
(a) error control
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(b) error conditioning
(c) line discipline
(d) flow control
10. When a primary device want send data to a secondary device, it needs to first send ………
frame.
(a) An ACK
(b) a poll
(c) a SEL
(d) an ENQ
11. Flow control is needed to prevent …….
(a) bit errors
(b) overflow of the sender buffer
(c) overflow of the receiver buffer
(d) collision between sender and receiver
12. In stop-and-wait ARQ, if data 1 has an error, the receiver sends a frame.
(a) NAK 0
(b) NAK1
(c) NAK 2
(d) NAK
13. A timer is set when ……. is sent out
(a) a packet
(b) an ocean of resources waiting to be mined
(c) a cooperative anarchy
(d) All of the above
14. …………….is responsible for data link control, and the lower sublayer is responsible for
resolving access to the shared media.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(a) The upper sublayer, upper sublayer
(b) The upper sublayer, lower sublayer
(c) The lower sublayer, lower sublayer
(d) The lower sublayer, upper sublayer
15. Ethernet is ………...
(a) connectionless
(b) connection oriented
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) none
16. The data link layer takes the packets from _____ and encapsulates them into frames for
transmission.
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) transport layer
d) application layer
17. Which one of the following task is not done by data link layer?
a) framing
b) error control
c) flow control
d) channel coding
18. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the type
of medium?
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
19. Header of a frame generally contains
a) synchronization bytes
b) addresses
c) frame identifier
d) all of the mentioned
20. Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) none of the mentioned
21. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is
called
a) random error
b) burst error
c) inverted error
d) none of the mentioned
22. CRC stands for
a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check
d) cyclic repeat check
23. Which one of the following is a data link protocol?
a) Ethernet
b) point to point protocol
c) HDLC
d) all of the mentioned
24. Which one of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access control?
a) CSMA/CD
b) CSMA/CA
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
25. Error detection at the data link layer is achieved by?
a) Bit stuffing
b) Cyclic redundancy codes
c) Hamming codes
d) Equalization
26. What is the purpose of flow control?
a) To ensure that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received.
b) To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
c) To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
d) To regulate the size of each segment.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
27.
The number of bits position in which code words differ is called the_____________
28.
To detect d errors, you need a distance _______
29.
To correct d errors, you need a distance ______
30.
_____________ is the error detection method which consists of a parity bit for each data unit as well
as an entire data unit of parity bit.
31.
__________ error means that only one bit of given data unit.
32.
Which Error detection method can detect a burst error?
33.
Which error detection method involves polynomials?
34.
In which layer of OSI Error detection is usually done?
35.
In _______________ technique, each node gets a chance to access the medium by rotation.
36.
The _______________ techniques can be broadly categorized into three types; Round-Robin,
Reservation and___________.
37.
In Polling technique, if there is no data, usually a ______________ message is sent back.
38.
In pure ALOHA, channel utilization, expressed as throughput S, in terms of the offered load G is
given by _________
39.
In slotted ALOHA, a maximum throughput of ________ percent at 100 percent of offered load can
be achieved
40.
In pure ALOHA, a maximum throughput of ________ percent at 100 percent of offered load can be
achieved
41.
_________________ is abbreviated as CSMA/CD
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
42.
CSMA/CD and is also known as __________.
43.
To achieve stability in CSMA/CD back off scheme, a technique known as ______________ is used
44.
Closed loop algorithms are divided into two categories, namely ________
and __________
algorithms
45.
The term burst error means that_________ bits in the data unit have changed.
46.
Select
correct
option:
Burst errors are mostly likely to happen in [serial transmission, parellel transmission]
47.
Which two factors causes transmission error?
48.
Give the other name for redundant bit.
49.
A single parity check code can detect ________ number of effors.
50.
State
True
or
The checksum detects all errors involving an even number of bits.
51.
Can CRC detect all single-bit errors?
52.
Can checksum detect all even number of errors?
UNIT 3
1. Which of the following is not an internetworking device?
a. bridge
b. gateway
c. router
False:
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
d. all of them
3. Which of the following uses the greatest number of layers in the OSI model?
a. bridge
b. repeater
c. router
d. gateway
4. A simple bridge does which of the following?
a. Filters a data packet
b. forwards a data packet
c. extends LANs
d. all of the above
5. In a distance vector routing, each router receives vectors from …...
a. every router in the network
b. every router less than two units away
c. a table stored by the software
d. its neighbors only
6. Which of the following is not a Valid IP address?
a. 192.168.1.1
b. 222.123.33.45
c. 192.256.67.23
d. 129.22.22.22
7. In link state routing, flooding allows changes to be recorded by…….
a. All routers
b. neighbor routers only
c. some routers
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
d. all networks
8. In an LSP, the advertiser is……..
a. a router
b. a network
c. a data packet
d. None of the above
9. Bridges function in the ………… layer(s)
a. physical
b. data link
c. network
d. (a) and (b)
10. A repeater takes weakened or corrupted signal and …………. it
a. amplifies
b. regenerate
c. resamples
d. reroutes
11. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is a dynamic mapping method that finds
a ……….. for a given ……….
a. physical address, physical address
b. physical address, logical address
c. logical address, logical address
d. logical address, physical address
12. The network layer concerns with
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) none of the mentioned
13. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?
a) routing
c) congestion control
b) inter-networking
d) none of the mentioned
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
14. The 4 byte IP address consists of
a) network address
b) host address
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
15. In virtual circuit network each packet contains
a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned.
16. Which one of the following routing algorithm can be used for network layer design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
d) all of the mentioned
17. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
d) none of the mentioned
18. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) none of the mentioned
19. The network layer protocol of internet is
a) Ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) none of the mentioned
20. ICMP is primarily used for
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) none of the mentioned
21. --------- finds the logical address for a machine that only knows its physical address.
a)ARP
b)RARP
c)IP
d)none of the above
22. Ethernet allows five segments to be used in cascade to have a maximum network distance of _______
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
23. With reference of the ISO model, a repeater is considered as a _______ relay
24. A repeater _________ every frame it receives
25. State true or false
A repeater is a regenerator
26. State True or False
A repeater is an amplifier.
27. State true or false
A repeater can be used to create a single extended LAN
28. The maximum segment length of a hub is _______
29. The device that can be used to interconnect two separate LANs is known as ______
30. The bridge operates in layer 2 (true/False)
31. In which layer of OSI the bridge operates?
32. Bridge is protocol dependent (True/False)
33. Does a bridge change the physical (MAC) addresses in a frame
34. Are routers transparent to end stations?
35. A bridge operates both in ________ and _________ layer
36. The two routing algorithms proposed for a bridged LAN environment are __________and
_____________
37. A single Ethernet segment can have a maximum length of _______.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
38. A single Ethernet segment can have a maximum of ________stations.
39. The two possible approaches used for addressing are _____ and ______
40. In _______ addressing every possible node is assigned a unique number.
41. In the Flat addressing approach, if a node is moved from one location to another, it cannot retain its
unique address(True/False)
42. In the hierarchical addressing it is possible to relate a hierarchical address structure to the topology of
the network (True/False)
43. In hierarchical addressing scheme, if a host moves from one location to another, a new address needs
to be allocated to it (True/False)
44. The class A format allows up to______ networks with _____ million hosts each.
45. Class B allows up to________ networks.
46. Class C allows 2 million networks with up to ________ hosts each
47. Which protocol is used by a computer such as a diskless host to find out its own IP address?
48. Packets in IP layer are called ________.
49. A network imposes a limit on maximum size of a packet known as _________.
50. ICMP messages are broadly divided into two categories: ________ messages and _______ messages.
51. Routing is the act of _________ information across an inter-network from a source to a destination.
52. IP is an example of routed protocol (True/False).
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
53. Path bandwidth, reliability, delay, current load on that path are examples of ________________.
54. Network devices without the capability to forward packets between subnetworks are called
_______________.
55. Network devices with the capability to forward packets between subnetworks are called
_______________.
56. Adaptive routing is also referred as ___________ routing
57. Non-adaptive is also known as __________ routing algorithms
58. Some routing algorithms assume that the source end node will determine the entire route. Such
algorithms are referred to as ______________
59. An IP multicast group is identified by a Class____ address.
60. Link State databases are also known as _________ databases.
UNIT 4
1. which of the following is a new transport-layer protocol designed for multimedia
applications.
(a) UDP
(b) TCP
(c) SCTP
(d) None
2. UDP and TCP are …...… and …………. transport layer protocols respectively
(a) connectionless, connectionless
(b) connectionless, connection-oriented
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
(c) connection-oriented, connectionless
(d) connection-oriented, connection-oriented
3. Transport layer is responsible for……..
(a) congestion control
(b) process to process delivery
(c) quality of service
(d) All of the above
4. HTTP uses a ………. connection to transfer files
(a) TCP
(b) UDP
(c) SCTP
(d) None
5. Which is the main protocol used to access data on the web?
(a) HTTP
(b) FTP
(c) SMTP
(d) None
6. What type of addressing is specifically used by the transport layer?
(a) Station addresses
(b) network addresses
(c) application program port addresses
(d) dialog addresses
7. If two identical data packets arrive at a destination, then…… control is not functioning.
(a) error
(b) sequence
(c) loss
(d) duplicate
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
8. A virtual circuit is associated with a ……. service.
(a) connectionless
(b) connection-oriented
(c) segmentation
(d) none of the above
9. What is the full form of HTTP?
(a) Hyper text transfer protocol
(b) Hyper text transfer package
(c) Hyphenation text test program
(d) None of the above
10. Which of the following is a flow characteristics?
(a) Reliability
(b) Delay
(c) Jitter
(d) All of the above
11. Open-loop congestion control ………... congestion
(a) prevents
(b) increases
(c) removes
(d) none
12. Closed-loop congestion control ………... congestion
(a) prevents
(b) increases
(c) removes
(d) none
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
13. Pick the odd out
(a) Table
(b) TR
(c) TD
(d) Form
14. Internet is ………………………….
(a) a network of networks
(b) an ocean of resources waiting to be mined
(c) a cooperative anarchy
(d) All of the above
15. …………… is suitable for remote administration of a computer.
(a) FTP
(b) Shell
(c) Remote Procedure Call
(d) Telnet
16. DNS translates ………
(a) domain name into IP
(b) IP into domain name
(c) both a & b
(d) domain name into physical address
17. Which of the following is not true?
(a) Both HTTP and SMTP are connection less protocol
(b) HTTP is connection oriented protocol and SMTP is connection less protocol
(c) HTTP is connection less protocol and SMTP is connection oriented protocol
(d) Both HTTP and SMTP are connection oriented protocol
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
18. FTAM is a/an …………… protocol
(a) application layer
(b) network layer
(c) datalink layer
(d) None
19. Which of the following is not false?
(a) IMAP can be used as a substitute to POP3
(b) FTP can be used to browse internet
(c) HTTP can be used to send emails
(d) TELNET cannot be used for remote login
20. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before
passing it to
a) network layer
b) data link layer
c) application layer
d) physical layer
21. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol used in internet?
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
22. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because
a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
23. Transmission control protocol is
a) connection oriented protocol
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
c) receives data from application as a single stream
d) all of the mentioned
24. Transport layer protocols deals with
a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
c) node to node communication
d) none of the mentioned
25. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol?
a) stream control transmission protocol
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) dynamic host configuration protocol
26. Which of the following transport layer protocols is used to support electronic mail?
a) SMTP
b) IP
c) TCP
d) UDP
27. In the slow start phase of the TCP congestion control algorithm, the size of the congestion
window
a) does not increase
b) increases linearly
c) increases quadratically
d) increases exponentially
28. Which of the following is not true about User Datagram Protocol in transport layer?
a) Works well in unidirectional communication, suitable for broadcast information.
b) It does three way handshake before sending datagrams
c) It provides datagrams, suitable for modeling other protocols such as in IP tunneling or
Remote
29. Procedure Call and the Network File System
The lack of retransmission delays makes it suitable for real-time applications
30. Which of the following functionalities must be implemented by a transport protocol over and
above the network protocol ?
a) Recovery from packet losses
b) Detection of duplicate packets
c) Packet delivery in the correct order
d) End to end connectivity
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
31. UDP socket identified by a two-tuple _______ and ______
32. State true or false: UDP is a connection oriented protocol.
33. State true or false: TCP is a connection oriented protocol.
34. Which layer is responsible to host-to-host delivery?
35. Which layer is responsible to process-to-process delivery?
36. What is the commonly used name for transport layer address?
37. In the internet model the port numbers range is between ______ and ________.
38. Can the transport layer service be reliable and unreliable?
39. What is the header size of user datagram?
40. Do UDP support Checksum?
41. The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the application layer
A)Added
B)Removed
C)Rearranged
D)Modified
42. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 4 is read by B's
_______ layer.
A)Physical
B)Transport
C)Application
D)None of the above
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
43. Which of the following is an application layer service?
A)Remote log-in
B)File transfer and access
C)Mail service
D)All the above
44. __________ provides full transport layer services to applications.
A)TCP
B)UDP
C)ARP
D)none of the above
45. Which application layer protocol is used by e-mail?
46. Pick up the odd one.
a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
47. What is a DNS Client is called?
48. What command you will issue to send a number of files to ftp server?
49. SSH is configured on what Port Number, by default?
50. Is it possible to copy files over SSH?
51. List any two idempotent methods of HTTP?
52. What is the numeric status code for a textual reason phrase "Not Found"?
53. What protocols are being used by Secure Shell?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
54. What is the protocol used for email transfer between servers?
55. FTP uses the Internet's ________protocols to enable data transfer.
56. Which port number of TCP is used by FTP by default?
57. SCTP is ___________ oriented and TCP being _________oriented.
58. Is HTTP is not a secure protocol?
59. A connection using Telnet is called a _______.
UNIT 5
1.Encryption/decryption provides a network with …….
(b) privacy
(c) authentication
(d) integrity
(e) non-repudiation
2. Secret key encryption involves the use of …..
(f) one key
(g) two keys
(h) hash functions
(i) all of the above
3. Public key encryption involves the use of ……..
a. one key
b. two keys
c. hash functions
d. all of the above
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
4. In Secret key encryption, the secret key is used for………..
a. encryption
b. decryption
c. hashing
d. (a) and (b)
5. In public key encryption, the public key is used for …..
a. encryption
b. decryption
c. hashing
d. (a) and (b)
6. In public key encryption, the private key is used for …..
a. encryption
b. decryption
c. hashing
d. (a) and (b)
7. Digital signature cn provide ……… for a network.
a. authentication
b. integrity
c. non-repudiation
d. all of the above
8. In the digital signature technique, the receiver of the message uses……… to create
ciphertext.
a. her own secret key
b. her own private key
c. her own public key
d. the receiver's private key
9. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called
a) denial-of-service attack
b) virus attack
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
c) worms attack
d) botnet process
10. In cryptography, what is cipher?
a) algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
b) encrypted message
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
11. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by
a) sender
b) receiver
c) sender and receiver
d) all the connected devices to the network
12. In cryptography, the order of the letters in a message is rearranged by
a) transpositional ciphers
b) substitution ciphers
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
13. Cryptanalysis is used
a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme
b) to increase the speed
c) to encrypt the data
d) none of the mentioned
14. Packet sniffers involve
a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
15. CMIP stands for?
a) Common Management Information Protocol
b) Communication Management Influential Protocol
c) Communication Model Intelligence Protocol
d) Common Model Information Protocol
16. Information about data is called------------.
a)account object
b)directory
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
c)metadata
d)Information
17. ---------transforms non-ASCII data at the sender site to NVT ASCII data
a)SMTP
b)MIME
c)MTA
d)None of the above
18. Which one is a firewall?
a) Packet-filtering routers
b) Application-level gateways
c) Bastion host
d) None of the above
1919.. The cryptography algorithms can be divided into two broad categorize _________ and _________.
20
.The DES algorithm uses _____ bit character.
21
The actual key used by DES is only _____ bits in length.
22
The DES has It has 19 distinct stages
23
In DES, the main algorithm is repeated ______ times to produce the ciphertext.
24
State true or false. In DES, as the number o f rounds increases, the security of the algorithm increases
proportionately.
25
The most popular public-key algorithm is the _______.
26
A is used carry out the algorithm to save a file in a compressed format and open a compressed file.
27
What are the mail aliases?
28
The directory server developed by the open source community is ______.
29
Give names of a couple of directory services.
30
What is the name of directory service provided by Microsoft
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
31
What does MIME stand for?
32
Access to managed information in the managed objects is provided by (CMISE) that uses _____ to
issue requests for management services.
33
Cryptography algorithms can be divided into two broad categorize ________ and _______.
34
State
true
or
false:
The algorithm used to decrypt is the inverse of the algorithm used for encryption in Symmetric
Cryptography
35
Application level gateway, also called a ________.
36
An application level gateway is sometimes known as _______.
37
Firewalls can be of type ______, ________ and _________?
38
An Application Gateway ________ or ________ packets based on the information in the application
layers.
39
The firewall type _________ is typically set up as a list of rules based on matches of fields in the IP or
TCP header.
40
State
Firewall
True
can
protect
or
against
the
transfer
Files
PART B (2 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. What do you mean by data communication?
2. Identify the five components of data communication system?
3. Define the three transmission modes.
4. Define the three transmission modes.
of
False:
virus-infected
programs
or
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
5. Name the basic five network topologies.
6. What is the need of OSI layer?
7. List the layers in OSI layer.
8. Which OSI layers are the user support layers?
9. What do you mean by multiplexing?
10. List three main multiplexing techniques.
11. What do you mean by switched network?
12. What are the different categories of switched network?
13. What are the two approaches to packet-switching?
14. Explain digital and analog data?
15. Compare internet and intranet?
16. What is meant by network?
17. Explain simplex, half duplex and duplex?
18. List the advantages of WAN?
19. List the demerits of LAN?
20. What do you mean by hub?
21. What is meant by frequency?
22. List the coaxial cable connectors.
23. What is meant by attenuation.
24. List the applications of coaxial cable.
25. What is the use of amplifier during data transmission?
26. What is the use of terminator in Bus Topology?
27. What are the key functions of data link layer?
28. What do you mean by OSI?
29. What is a protocol stack?
30. What is encapsulation in the context of OSI Model?
31. Define transmission media.
32. What do you mean by Protocol?
33. What you mean by aperiodic signal?
34. What is a periodic signal?
35. Distinguish between base-band and broadband signals.
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
36. What is crosstalk?
37. What is bandwidth?
38. Why sync pulse is required in TDM?
39. What is the difference between Frequency Division Multiplexing and Wave Division
Multiplexing?
40. Why star topology is commonly preferred?
41. Why data communication through circuit switching is not efficient?
42. Explain unipolar encoding technique.
UNIT 2
1. How does a single bit error differ from a burst error?
2. What are the types of errors?
3. Discuss the concept of redundancy in error detection.
4. List out the error detection methods?
5. What is the purpose of hamming code?
6. What are the functions of data link layer?
7. What do you mean by flow control?
8. What do you mean by ARQ?
9. List out the various error control techniques.
10. What is the difference between Poll and Select?
11. What are the characteristics of ethernet?
12. What do you mean by ALOHA?
13. What are the different categories of ethernet?
14. What is meant by parity bit?
15. What do you mean by link state database?
16. Compare subnetting and supernetting?
17. What is meant by redundancy?
18. List the redundancy checking mechanisms?
19. Differentiate odd parity and even parity?
20. What are the advantages and disadvantages of LRC?
21. What do you mean by data compression?
22. What do you mean by Hamming code?
23. What are the different types of errors detected by parity check?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
24. What is forward error correction?
25. What is backward error correction?
26. In what situation Stop-and-Wait protocol works efficiently?
27. Which are the three data rates are currently defined for operation over optical fiber and
twisted-pair cables
28. What is congestion?
29. What are the two basic mechanisms of congestion control?
30. List out the steps in Token Bucket Algorithm.
31. What is choke packet?
32. What is a deadlock situation in network traffic.
33. What are the vital parameters affect the network performance by congestion?
34. Mention key advantages and disadvantages of stop-and-wait ARQ technique.
35. Why do you require a limit on the minimum size of Ethernet frame?
UNIT 3
1. What do you mean by link address?
2. Compare physical and logical address?
3. List merits of internetworking?
4. What are the stages to transmit data in connection oriented internetworking?
5. What is meant by IP address and address space?
6. Differentiate netid and hostid?
7. What is the main function of ARP?
8. What are the key significance of class A?
9. List the classes in classful addressing?
10. What is meant by source quench?
11. List error reporting messages in ICMP?
12. What are the different categories of ethernet?
13. Why repeaters are being used?
14. List important features of a repeater
15. How many types of bridges are there? What are they?
16. How does source routing works?
17. List the forwarding approaches in switch.
18. What are the basic components of a router?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
19. Differentiate IP and TCP
20. What is fragmentation?
21. What are the error reporting messages generated by ICMP?
22. What was the need of IPV6?
23. What is selective flooding?
24. What you know about metrics used by routing protocol?
25. What is an An Autonomous System (AS)?
26. What are the primary conditions that affect routing?
27. Why do you need ARP protocol?
28. What is piggybacking?
29. What is open loop and close loop congestion control techniques?
30. What is Routing?
31. In what situation flooding is most appropriate? How the drawbacks of flooding can be
minimized?
32. What are the two basic mechanisms of congestion control?
33. List out the Key features of the distance vector routing.
UNIT 4
1. What is the function of transport layer?
2. Which are the different transport layer protocols?
3. What do you mean by socket address?
4. What are the uses of UDP?
5. Why a connection establishment in TCP is called three- way handshaking?
6. What is the minimum size of a UDP datagram?
7. What is the maximum size of the process data that can be encapsulated in a UDP
datagram?
8. What do you mean by congestion control?
9. What is the difference between open-loop congestion control and closed-loop congestion
control?
10. Name the policies that can prevent congestion
11. What do you mean by remote-login?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
12. In electronic mail, what is MIME?
13. Why do we need POP3 or IMAP4 for electronic mail?
14. What is the purpose of FTP?
15. What are the three FTP transmission modes?
16. List five functions of network management.
17. Explain the services of TCP?
18. What do you mean by sequence number?
19. What is meant by acknowledgement number?
20. Specify the difference between URG and PSH flag?
21. List TCP control field flags?
22. What do you mean by SYN flooding attack?
23. What is meant by the term flow control?
24. Explain silly window syndrome?
25. What do you mean by keep alive timers?
26. What are the 4 tuples used to identify tcp socket?
27. Why UDP is used?
28. What is a socket address?
29. What is process-to-process delivery?
30. Distinguish between node-to-node delivery and process-to-process delivery.
31. List some of the UDP applications.
32. What are Cookies?
33. What is DNS?
34. What is SNMP? Why it is being used?
35. What is the SNMP agent?
36. What is the SNMP manager?
37. Why would you want SNMP?
38. What is a Scheme specifiers in www.
39. HTTP is a stateless protocol. Explain.
40. What is https?
UNIT 5
1. What do you mean by cryptography?
2. What are the components of cryptography?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
3. What do you mean by symmetric-Key cryptography?
4. What do you mean by Asymmetric-Key cryptography?
5. What do you mean by encryption and decryption?
6. What do you mean by firewall?
7. What do you mean by compression?
8. Differentiate lossy versus lossless compression.
9. What is the difference between cipher text and plain text?
10. List the uses of digital signature.
11. What do you mean by cipher text and plaintext?
12. Explain brute-force attack?
13. Compare cryptography and cryptanalysis?
14. List network security goals?
15. List the security attack affecting network integrity?
16. What do you mean by the term jitter?
17. List security services?
18. Briefly differentiate Replaying and Repudiation?
19. What do you mean by timestamp?
20. Explain streaming live audio/video?
21. What is meant by VOIP?
22. What is meant by passive attack?
23. What is the purpose of a Firewall?
24. Give names of a couple of directory services.
PART C (4 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. Briefly explain the term internetwork.
2. Briefly explain the categories of network?
3. Differentiate periodic and aperiodic signals?
4. Write a short note about Parallel data transmission.
5. Briefly explain about circuit switched network?
6. Differentiate datagram network and virtual-circuit networks?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
7. Compare mesh and star topologies?
8. Draw a neat diagram of OSI layer and explain it briefly.
9. What is the key differences between ring and star topology?
10. Differentiate analog and digital transmission?
11. Explain message switching technique?
12. What is quantization error? How can it be reduced?
13. What are the main categories based on which applications of computer network can be
categorized?
14. Briefly write functionalities of different OSI layers?
15. What is the drawback of message switching? How is it overcome in packet switching?
16. Describe Time Division Switching.
17. Explain Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM)
UNIT 2
1. Briefly explain about vertical redundancy check.
2. Briefly explain about cyclic redundancy check.
3. What is the mechanism of Poll/Select?
4. What is the mechanism of ENQ/ACK?
5. Briefly explain the frame format of ethernet.
6. Briefly discuss about the Hamming code.
7. Compare VRC and LRC?
8. Explain ALOHA and its types?
9. Explain Hamming code?
10. Draw and explain the header format of ARP and RARP?
11. Explain flow and error control?
12. Explain Cyclic Redundancy Check?
13. Explain error detection and error correction?
14. What do you mean by sliding window protocol ? Why it is used in data link layer?
15. Explain Media Access control.
16. Explain different types of transmission errors?
17. Explain the use of parity check for error detection?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
18. Explain Cyclic Redundancy Checks (CRC)
19. What is Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ)?
20. Explain Sliding Window Protocol.
21. How throughput is improved in slotted ALOHA over pure ALOHA?
22. Explain the two basic mechanisms of congestion control?
23. How do you differentiate Flow Control and Congestion control.
UNIT 3
1. Briefly explain internetworking devices.
2. Draw and explain the header format of IPv4?
3. State Dijkstra’s algorithm?
4. Explain distance vector routing?
5. Explain in detail about routing strategies?
6. Draw a neat diagram and explain IP protocol header format?
7. What do you mean by multicast routing? What are the important multicast routing protocols?
8. What are the functions of a switch?
9. Compare between a switch and a hub.
10. Write a note on router.
11. What limitations of a bridge are overcome by a router?
12. Write a note on IP Addressing?
13. Explain Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
14. List the important features of IPV6
15. Compare Link-State and Distance Vector algorithms.
16. Explain steps involved in Link State Routing.
17. Explain Leaky Bucket algorithm.
18. How congestion control is performed by leaky bucket algorithm?
UNIT 4
1. Differentiate connectionless versus connection oriented service.
2. Briefly explain about the flow control mechanism used in TCP.
3. Briefly explain about the error control mechanism used in TCP.
4. Write a short note about SCTP.
5. Compare the TCP header and the UDP header. List the fields in the TCP header that are
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
missing from UDP header. Give the reason for their absence.
6. How congestion control is implemented in TCP?
7. Write a short note about DNS.
8. Explain services of transport layer?
9. What you mean by open loop congestion control?
10. What you mean by UDP? Explain UDP operations?
11. Draw and explain user datagram format?
12. Explain TCP features?
13. Explain TCP connection?
14. List the congestion control policies?
15. Draw a neat diagram and explain TCP segment format?
16. Illustrate TCP Hand-Shaking for a simple telnet scenario
17. Write a note on connection-less and connection-oriented services with reference to transport
layer.
18. Explain the basic HTTP Page Retrieval mechanism
19. Explain DNS Query Operation.
20. What aremanagers and agents?
21. How do you implement SNMP on your network?
22. Differentiate Congestion Control and QoS.
23. What are the functions implemented by Application Layer Protocol?
24. Which are the two models designed to improve QoS in network traffic?
UNIT 5
1. Briefly explain about the three types of key.
2. Name and explain the different types of cryptography.
3. Write a short note about firewall.
4. Briefly explain about digital signature.
5. Explain the uses of digital signature.
6. What you meant by the term cryptography?
7. Compare Caesar cipher and play fair cipher?
8. Compare hash function and digital signature?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
9. What do you mean by JPEG?
10. Explain MPEG and MPEG frames?
11. Explain security attacks that affecting network security?
12. What you meant by plaintext and cipher text? Explain classical ciphers?
PART D (15 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1.
Explain different network topologies.
2. (a) Explain about transmission mode in detail
(b) Compare mesh topology with star topology
(7 marks)
(8 marks)
4. Explain in detail about Digital data transmission.
5. Explain in detail about switching network.
6.
7.
Explain the following:
A)Types of multiplexing
(8 marks)
B)Network Topology
(7 marks)
What is the significance of switching? Explain switching techniques with neat diagrams.
8. Explain in detail about the following:
A)Transmission Modes
(8 marks)
B)Categories of network
(7 marks)
9. Give a detailed description of different OSI layers.
10. Compare different multiplexing methods.
11. Briefly write about functionalities of different OSI layers?
12. Explain the characteristics of Network Topologies
13. Write a note on Internet in daily life.
UNIT 2
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
1. Explain different network topologies.
2. Explain about different types of Line discipline in details.
3. Explain about the flow control in detail.
4. Explain about the error control in detail.
5. Explain about pure ALOHA and slotted ALOHA in detail.
6. Write a note on different congestion control techniques.
7. Explain and illustrate Cyclic Redundancy Checks (CRC).
8. Describe in details about different error detection methods.
9. Describe different Open Loop and Close Loop approaches to congestion control
10. Explain different congestion control techniques used by open loop algorithm?
11. Explain different congestion control techniques used by close loop algorithm?
12. Compare between bridge forwarding and bridge learning
13. Explain the operation of various internetworking devices.
14. Explain how Link-State Algorithm is useful in Open Shortest Path First (OSPF).
15. Write a note on classification of Routing algorithms.
UNIT 3
1. Explain the following
A) Differentiate distance vector routing and link state routing?
(8 marks)
B) State and explain Dijkstra Algorithm
(7 marks)
2. Distinguish between IPv4 and IPv6
3. Explain in detail about networking and internetworking devices?
4.What is the need of protocols? Explain the major internet protocols?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
5. Explain the following
A) compare and contrast the significance of IPv4 and IPv6 header format?
(8 marks)
B)Explain detail about four level of addressing
(7 marks)
6. differentiate IGMP and ICMP?
7. Compare between bridge forwarding and bridge learning
8. Explain the operation of various internetworking devices
9. Explain how Link-State Algorithm is useful in Open Shortest Path First (OSPF).
10. Write a note on classification of Routing algorithms
UNIT 4
1. Explain in detail about UDP.
2. Explain in detail about TCP.
3. Explain in detail about SCTP.
4. Explain in detail about the quality of service in computer network and techniques to
improve QoS.
5. What you meant by congestion? What are the policies to handle congestion?
6. Explain the following
A) Domain name system.
(8 marks)
B) Remote login.
(7 marks)
7. What is the significance of Transmission control Protocol over User Datagram Protocol?
8. Explain the major internet services?
9. Explain in detail about the transport layer protocols?
10. Compare and contrast the header format of TCP and UDP?
B.Voc Software Development (Academic Year 2014-15 Onwards)
UNIT 5
1.
1. Explain in detail about Digital signature.
2. What is Cryptography? Explain the components and categories of cryptography n
detail.
3.Explain the following:
A)File Transfer and Access Management Protocol(FTAM)
(7 marks)
B)Common Management Information Protocol(CMIP)
(8 marks)
4. Explain about computer security and the major goals of computer security? What are the
security attacks that affect the computer security goals.
5. Explain the significance of firewall ? explain the categories of firewall.
UNIVERSITY OF CALICUT
THENHIPALAM,CALICUT UNIVERSITY P.O
DEGREE OF
BACHELOR OF VOCATIONAL STUDIES (B.VOC)
IN
SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT
QUESTION BANK
(Fourth Semester)
(FOR THE STUDENTS ADMITTED FROM THE ACADEMIC YEAR 2014-15 ONWARDS)
UNDER THE
BOARD OF STUDIES IN COMPUTER SCIENCE (UG)
THENHIPALAM,CALICUT UNIVERSITY P.O
KERALA, 673635,INDIA
SUBJECT
B.Voc Software Development
Semester 4
C.
No
Marks
Course Code
Course Name
Credit
Hrs/wk
Ext
Tot
T
P Tot
Int
(AO4) Readings on
Society
4
20
80
100
4
4
4.1
GEC4EG10
(ENG4A06)
20
80
100
4
4
GEC4SE11
Software Engineering
Principles
4
4.2
4
20
80
100
4
4
GEC4ED12
(A14)
Entrepreneurship
Development
4
20
80
100
5
5
Advanced Computer
Networks
5
20
80
100
5
4
Networking & OS Lab
5
20
80
100
5
5
4
0
100
100
4
4
700
21 9 30
4.3
4.4
SDC4IT13 Operating Systems
4.5
SDC4IT14
4.6 SDC4IT15(P)
4.7
SDC4IT16 Project
(Pr)
Semester IV Total 30
2
B.Voc Software Development
Integrated Question Bank
GEC4SE11-Software Engineering Principles
Syllabus
Unit 1(12 hours)
Introduction to software Engineering, Software Components, Software Characteristics,
Software Applications, Software engineering processes, Similarity and differences from
conventional engineering processes Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) Models: Water
Fall Model, Prototype Model, Spiral Model, WIN-WIN spiral model, Formal method model,
Time boxing model, Incremental model, Rapid Application Developmental(RAD) Model,
Component based Development Model, Evolutionary development models, Iterative
Enhancement Models.
Unit 2 (12 hours)
Requirement Engineering Process: Elicitation, Analysis, Documentation, Review and
Management of User Needs, Feasibility Study, Information Modelling, Data flow Diagrams,
Entity Relationship Diagrams, Decision Tables, SRS Document, IEEE Standards for SRS.
Software Quality Assurance (SQA): Verification and Validation, SQA Plans, software quality
Frameworks, ISO 9000 models.
Unit 3 (12 hours)
Basic Concept of Software Design, Architectural Design: Software Architecture, Data
Design, Architectural Styles, Mapping Requirements into Software Architecture Low Level
Design: Modularization, Design Structure, Charts, Pseudo Codes, flow Charts, Coupling
and Cohesion Measures ,Design strategies: Function Oriented Design, Object oriented
Design, Top –Down and Bottom-UP design
Unit 4 (12 hours)
Top-Down and Bottom-Up Testing Strategies: Test Drivers and Test Stubs, White
Box Testing, Black Box Testing, Test Data Preparation Software as an entity, Need
for Maintenance, Categories of maintenance: Preventive, Corrective and perfective
maintenance, cost of maintenance, Software ReEngineering, Reverse Engineering.
Unit 5 (12 hours)
Software configuration management Activities: Change control Process, Software Version
Control, An Overview of CASE Tools Estimation: Cost, Efforts, Schedule/Duration, Constructive
cost Models, Resource Allocation Models, Software Risk Analysis and Management.
3
B.Voc Software Development
PART A (1 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. ------------- is the application of a systematic, disciplined, quantifiable approach to the
development, operation and maintenance of software.
2. ---------- is the expansion of SDLC.
3. ---------- is the first step of SDLC.
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Analysis
C) Data collection
D) None of the above
4. --------- is the output of software analysis.
5. --------- is the blueprint for the implementation of requirement in the software system.
6. --------- is performed to ensure that the software is free from errors.
7. --------- is the reasonable approach when requirements are well understood.
A) Waterfall model
B) Prototype model
C) Spiral model
D) RAD model
8. In incremental model project is divided into small subsets known as -------- that are
implemented individually.
A) Increments
B) Prototypes
C) Time box
D) None of the above
9. ----------- Model is used when requirements are not well understood.
A) Prototyping model
B) Win-Win model
C) Incremental model
D) Waterfall model
10.
--------- Model follows an evolutionary approach.
A) Spiral model
B) Prototyping model
C) Win-Win model
D) Incremental model
11. Software is
(a) Superset of programs (b) subset of programs
(c) Set of programs
above
12. Product is
(a) Deliverables
(b) User expectations
(c) Organization's effort in development
(d) none of the above
13. ) Effort is measured in terms of:
4
(d) none of the
B.Voc Software Development
(a) Person-months
(b) Rupees
(c) Persons
(d) Months
14. Management of software development is dependent on
(a) People
(b) product
(c) Process
(d) all of the above
15. During software development, which factor is most crucial?
(a) People
(b) Product
(c) Process
(d) Project
16. Milestones are used to
(a) Know the cost of the project
(b) know the status of the project
(c) Know user expectations
(d) none of the above
17. Software consists of
(a) Set of instructions + operating system
(b) Programs + documentation + operating procedures
(c) Programs + hardware manuals
(d) Set of programs
18. Software engineering approach is used to achieve:
(a) Better performance of hardware
(b) Error free software
(c) Reusable software
(d) Quality software product
19. (a) Bev Little wood
(b) Berry Boehm
(c) Roger Pressman
(d) Victor Basili
20. Which model is most popular for student’s small projects?
(a) Waterfall model
(b) Spiral model
(c) Quick and fix model
(d) Prototyping model
21. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a) Productivity b) Portability c) Timeliness
d) Visibility
22. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.
a) CAD, CAM
b) Firmware, Embedded c) Generic, Customized
23. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback
report?
a) Communication b) Planning c) Modeling & Construction d) Deployment
24. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process
framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a) Re-usability management b) Risk management c) Measurement d) User Reviews
e) Software quality assurance
25. RAD stands for
a) Relative Application Development b) Rapid Application Development c) Rapid
Application Document
26. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model b) Prototyping Model c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
27. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype b) Vertical Prototype c) Diagonal Prototype d) Domain Prototype
28. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design b) Coding c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
29. RAD Model has
a) 2 phases b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases
5
B.Voc Software Development
30. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?
a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required. b) Increases re-usability of
components. c) Encourages customer/client feedback. d) Both a & c.
31. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software
Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
32. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both b & c
33. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model c) Concurrent Development Model
d) Spiral Model e) All are Evolutionary Software Models
34. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model b) Linear Model & RAD Model c) Linear Model
& Prototyping Model d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
35. The spiral model was originally proposed by
a) IBM b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman
d) Royce
36. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model?
a) It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related
information.
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral.
c) It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks.
d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support.
37. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.
a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects b) High amount of risk analysis c) Strong
approval and documentation control d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date
38. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?
a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model. b) Changing requirements can be
accommodated in Incremental Model. c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model.
UNIT II
39. Pick the odd one out
A) Requirement elicitation
B) Requirement analysis
C) Requirement documentation
D) Requirement design
40. ------------- is the study of a proposed project to indicate whether the proposal is attractive
enough to justify more detailed preparation
41. ---------- are strong medium to collect requirements.
42. Pick the odd one out
A) Commercial /market analysis
6
B.Voc Software Development
B) Technical analysis
C) Financial analysis
D) Design analysis
43. -------- is a meeting conducted by technical people for technical people.
A) Interviews
B) Surveys
C) Reviews
D) None of the above
44. ------- is a quality problem found before the software is released to end users.
A) Error
B) Defect
C) Failure
D) None of the above
45. --------- is the expansion of SRS.
A) Software Requirement Specification
B) System Requirement Specification
C) Software Research Specification
D) None of the above
46. ---------- is the diagram that depicts data sources, data links, data storage and processes
performed on data as nodes and logical flow of data as links between the nodes.
47. --------------- is the data dictionary stores organized collection of information about data and
their relationships.
A) DFD
B) Data dictionary
C) Decision table
D) None of the above
48. -------- is the process that checks the delivered software system is acceptable or not.
49. -------- is the expansion of SQA.
50. Design phase includes?
a. data, architectural and procedural designs only
b. architectural, procedural and interface design only
c. data, architectural and interface design only
d. data, architectural interface and procedural design
51. Design phase will usually be?
e. top-down
f. bottom-up
g. random
h. center fingring
52. Which of the following is not included in the Software Requirements Specification (SRS)
Document?
a. Functional Requirements [B]
b. Non-functional requirement
7
B.Voc Software Development
c. Goals of implementation
d. User manual
53. Requirements elicitation means
(a) Gathering of requirements
(b) Capturing of requirements
(c) Understanding of requirements
(d) All of the above
54. SRS stands for
(a) Software requirements specification (b) System requirements specification
(c) Systematic requirements specifications (d) None of the above
55. Which one is not a step of requirement engineering?
(a) Requirements elicitation
(b) Requirements analysis
(c) Requirements design
(d) Requirements documentation
56. SRS document is for
(a) “What” of a system?
(b) How to design the system?
(c) Costing and scheduling of a system
(d) System’s requirement.
57. Requirements review process is carried out to
(a) Spend time in requirements gathering (b) Improve the quality of SRS
(c) Document the requirements
(d) None of the above
58. Which one is not a type of requirements?
(a) Known requirements
(b) Unknown requirements
(c) Undreamt requirements
(d) Complex requirements
59. Which one is not a requirements elicitation technique?
(a) Interviews
(b) The use case approach
(c) FAST
(d) Data flow
diagram.
60. FAST stands for
(a)Functional Application Specification Technique
(b) Fast Application Specification Technique
(c)Facilitated Application Specification Technique
(d) None of the above
61. Which is not a type of requirements under quality function deployment?
42. (a) Normal requirements
(b) Abnormal requirements
43. (c) Expected requirements
(d) Exciting requirements
62. Context diagram explains
(a) The overview of the system
(b) The internal view of the system
(c) The entities of the system
(d) None of the above
63. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation b) design c) analysis d) documentation
64. The user system requirements are the parts of which document?
a) SDD b) SRS c) DDD c) DFD
65. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder c) Managers d) Users of the
software
66. What is the first step of requirement elicitation?
a) Identifying Stakeholder b) Listing out Requirements
c) Requirements Gathering
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B.Voc Software Development
67. Starting from least to most important, choose the order of stakeholder.
i. Managers ii. Entry level Personnel iii. Users iv. Middle level stakeholder
a) i, ii, iv, iii
b) i, ii, iii, iv
c) ii, iv, i, iii
68. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task?
a) Problem of scope b) Problem of understanding c) Problem of volatility d) All of the
mentioned
69. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task?
a) Problem of scope b) Problem of understanding
c) Problem of volatility d) All of the
mentioned
70. Model preferred to create client/server applications is
a) WINWIN Spiral Model b) Spiral Model c) Concurrent Model d) Incremental
Model
71. Software evolution does not comprises:
a) Development activities b) Negotiating with client c) Maintenance activities d) Reengineering activities
72. Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities of_____________.
a) Forward engineering b) Reverse Engineering c) Reengineering. d) b and c
73. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis?
a) Use Cases b) Entity Relationship Diagram c) State Transition Diagram d) Activity
Diagram
74. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis?
a) Two b) Three c) Four
75. How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis?
a) Three b) Four
c) Five d) Six
76. _________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis.
a) Performance, Design
b) Stakeholder, Developer c) Functional, Non-Functional
77. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification d) Development and
Documentation
UNIT III
78. ---------- is a process to transform user requirements into some suitable form, which helps the
programmer in software coding and implementation.
79. -------- is the first step in SDLC, which moves the concentration from problem domain to
solution domain.
80. -------- identifies the software as a system with many components interacting with each other.
A) Architectural Design
B) High-level Design
C) Detailed Design
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D) None of the above
81. ---------- focuses on how the system along with all of its components can be implemented in
forms of modules.
A) Architectural Design
B) High-level Design
C) Detailed Design
D) None of the above
82. --------- defines logical structure of each module and their interfaces to communicate with
other modules.
A) Architectural design
B) High-level Design
C) Detailed Design
D) None of the above
83. ---------- is a technique to divide a software system into multiple discrete and independent
modules, which are expected to be capable of carrying out tasks independently.
84. ----------- is a measure that defines the degree of intra-dependability within elements of a
module.
A) Cohesion
B) Coupling
C) Modularization
D) None of the above
85. --------- is a measure that defines the level of inter-dependability among modules of a
program.
A) Cohesion
B) Coupling
C) Modularization
D) None of the above
86. ---------- is written more close to programming language. It may be considered as augmented
programming language, full of comments, and descriptions.
A) Pseudo code
B) Flow chart
C) Decision table
D) None of the above
87. All entities involved in the solution design are known as ---------.
A) Objects
B) Module
C) Component
D) None of the above
E) DFD stands for
(a) Data Flow design
(b) Descriptive functional design
(c) Data flow diagram
(d) None of the above
55. ERD stands for
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B.Voc Software Development
(a) Entity relationship diagram
(b) Exit related diagram
(c) Entity relationship design
(d) Exit related design
56. Which is not a characteristic of a good SRS?
(a) Correct
(b) Complete
(c) Consistent
(d) Brief
57. Outcome of requirements specification phase is
(a) Design Document
(b) SRS Document
(c) Test Document
(d) None of the above
58. The basic concepts of ER model are:
(a) Entity and relationship
(b) Relationships and keys
(c) Entity, effects and relationship
(d) Entity, relationship and attribute
59. The DFD depicts
(a) Flow of data
(b) Flow of control (c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
60. Product features are related to:
(a) Functional requirements
(b) Non functional requirements
(c) Interface requirement
(d) None of the above
61. Which one is a quality attribute?
(a) Reliability
(b) Availability
(c) Security
(d) All of the above
62. Which tool is use for structured designing?
a) Program flowchart
b) Structure chart c) Data-flow diagram d) Module
63. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear
statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
a) documentation b) flowchart
c) program specification d) design
64. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the
SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation b) Design c) Analysis d) Development and
Documentation
65. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Programmers
b) Project managers c) Technical writers d) Database
administrators
66. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a
computer will use to perform that task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming
67. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern?
a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface d) All of the mentioned
68. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency b) Accuracy c) Quality
d) Complexity
69. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly. b) Focuses on just one thing. c) is able to complete its
function in a timely manner. d) Is connected to other modules and the outside world.
70. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly. b) Focuses on just one thing. c) is able to complete its
function in a timely manner. d) Is connected to other modules and the outside world.
71. _______________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules.
a) Cohesion
b) Coupling c) None of the mentioned
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B.Voc Software Development
72. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling b) Stamp Coupling c) Data Coupling
d) Content Coupling
UNIT IV
62. ---------------- is evaluation of the software against requirements gathered from users and
system specifications.
63. ------- is process of examining whether or not the software satisfies the user requirements.
A) Verification
B) Validation
C) Modularization
D) Modularization
64. ------------ ensures the product being developed is according to design specifications.
A) Validation
B) Verification
C) Modularization
D) Modularization
65. In -------- method, the design and structure of the code are not known to the tester, and
testing engineers and end users conduct this test on the software.
A) Black box testing
B) White box testing
C) Structural testing
D) None of the above
66. Pick the odd one out:
A) Basis path testing
B) Control structure testing
C) Structural testing
D) Mutation testing
67. In --------- method requires a thorough knowledge of the program code and the purpose for
which it is developed.
A) Black box testing
B) White box testing
C) Functional testing
D) None of the above
68. Pick the odd one out:
A) equivalence class partitioning
B) boundary value analysis
C) cause-effect graphing
D) basis path testing
69. In cause effect graphing ---------- is the input conditions and -------- output conditions.
70. When we need to update the software to keep it to the current market, without impacting its
functionality, it is called -----------.
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B.Voc Software Development
71. --------- Process can be seen as reverse SDLC model.
72. Software configuration activities would not include
(a) Identify change
(b) Control change
(c) Ensure improper implementation of change
(d) Report change to interested parties
73. Product is
(a) Deliverables
(b) User expectations
(c) Organization's effort in development
(d) none of the above
74. Management of software development is dependent on
(a) People
(b) product
(c) Process
(d) all of the above
75. Which one is not a size measure for software
(a) LOC
(b) Function Count
(c) Cyclomatic Complexity
(d) Halstead’s program length
76. Alpha testing is done by
(a) Customer
(b) Tester
(c) Developer (d) All of the above
77. Alpha testing is done by
(a) Customer
(b) Tester
(c) Developer (d) All of the above
78. Acceptance testing is done by
(a) Developers
(b) Customers
79. Which is not a functional testing technique?
(a) Boundary value analysis (b) Decision table
the above
80. White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
(c) Testers
(c) Regression testing
81. 6. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
82. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of these
83. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
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(d) All of the above
(d) None of
B.Voc Software Development
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned
84. Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned
85. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
86. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
d) None of the mentioned
87. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
88. White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
89. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
90. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of these
91. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
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B.Voc Software Development
d) All of the mentioned
92. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
93. 10. Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
94. The testing in which code is checked
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
95. 2. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called
a) Unit testing
b) Regression testing
c) Adhoc testing
d) None of the mentioned
96. 3. Acceptance testing is also known as
a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
97. 4. Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing
d) None of the mentioned
98. 5.Beta testing is done at
a) User’s end
b) Developer’s end
99. 6. SPICE stands for
a) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination
b) Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
c) Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
d) None of the mentioned
100. Unit testing is done by
a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
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B.Voc Software Development
101. Behavioral testing is
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
102. Which of the following is black box testing
a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
d) None of the mentioned
103. Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software
a) KLOC
b) Function Points
c) Size of module
104. Software Maintenance includes
a) Error corrections
b) Enhancements of capabilities
c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities
d) All of the mentioned
105. Maintenance is classified into how many categories ?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
106. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?
a) Corrective
b) Adaptive
c) Perfective
d) Preventive
107. How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model?
a) six
b) seven
c) eight
d) nine
108. What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?
a) Regression Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) Unit Testing
109. Regression testing is a very expensive activity.
a) True
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B.Voc Software Development
b) False
110. Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest-all”technique.How
many selective retest techniques are there?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
111. Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to
produce a different output than its original version?
a) Coverage
b) Minimization
c) Safe
112. ______________ measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle
realistic applications.
a) Efficiency
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness
113. Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications?
a) Efficiency
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness
114. The process of generating analysis and design documents is known as
a) Software engineering
b) Software re-engineering
c) Reverse engineering
d) Re-engineering
115. 2. What is a software patch?
a) Required or Critical Fix
b) Emergency Fix
c) Daily or routine Fix
d) None of the mentioned
116. 3. Which one of the following is not a maintenance model?
a) Waterfall model
b) Reuse-oriented model
c) Iterative enhancement model
d) Quick fix model
117. 4. What does ACT stands for in In Boehm model for software maintenance?
a) Actual change track
b) Annual change track
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B.Voc Software Development
c) Annual change traffic
d) Actual change traffic
UNIT V
118. --------- is a discipline of organization administration, which takes care of occurrence of
any changes after a phase is baseline.
119. CASE stands for -----------.
120. ----------- are set of software application programs, which are used to automate SDLC
activities.
121. ------------ Chart is a tool that depicts project as network diagram.
122. COCOMO stands for -----------------.
123. --------------- is used to estimate the total effort required to develop a software project.
124. Pick the odd one out:
A) Organic projects
B) Semi-organic project
C) Embedded project
D) Semi-detached project
125. -------- is an unexpected event that produces an adverse effect during the software
development process.
126. Pick the odd one out:
A) Risk identification
B) Risk analysis
C) Risk prioritization
D) Risk mitigation
127. Pick the odd one out:
A) Risk mitigation
B) Risk resolution
C Risk analysis
D) Risk monitoring
128. COCOMO was developed initially by
(a) B.W.Bohem (b) Gregg Rothermal (c) B.Beizer
(d) Rajiv Gupta
129. A COCOMO model is
(a) Common Cost estimation model
(b) Constructive cost Estimation model
(c) Complete cost estimation model
(d) Comprehensive Cost estimation model
93. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on
i. (a) Cost
(b) Schedule
(c) Time
(d) None of the above
94. In function point analysis, number of Complexity adjustment factor is
i. (a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 14
(d) 12
95. Cost estimation for a project may include
i. (a) Software Cost
(b) Hardware Cost (c) Personnel Costs
(d) All of the
above
96. In COCOMO model, if project size is typically 2-50 KLOC, then which mode is to be
selected?
i. (a) Organic
(b) Semidetached
(c) Embedded
(d) None of the above
97. COCOMO-II was developed at
i. (a) University of Maryland
(b) University of Southern California
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B.Voc Software Development
ii. (c) IBM
(d) AT & T Bell labs
98. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II?
(a) Application Composition estimation model (b) Early design estimation model
(c) Post architecture estimation model
(d) Comprehensive cost estimation model
99. Which of the following is software engineer’s primary characteristics?
a) A collection of useful tools that will help in every step of building a product
b) An organized layout that enables tools to be found quickly and used efficiently
c) A skilled artisan who understands how to use the tools in an effective manner
d) All of the mentioned
100. Database management software serves as a foundation for the establishment of a CASE
database (repository) that we call
a) project database
b) system database
c) analysis and design tools
d) prototyping tools
101. What enables a software engineer to define screen layout rapidly for interactive
applications?
a) Analysis and design tools
b) Tool kit
c) Screen painters
d) PRO/SIM tools
102. _________tools assist in the planning, development, and control in CASE.
a) Dynamic measurement
b) Data acquisition
c) Test management
d) Cross-functional tools
103. Which tools cross the bounds of the preceding categories?
a) Data acquisition
b) Dynamic measurement
c) Cross-functional tools
d) Simulation
104. Which environment demands specialized testing tools that exercise the graphical user
interface and the network communications requirements for client and server?
a) Dynamic analysis
b) Client/Server
c) Re-engineering
d) Test management
105. Which tools are used to modify on-line database systems?
a) Reverse engineering specification tools
b) Code restructuring and analysis tools
c) Test management tools
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B.Voc Software Development
d) On-line system re-engineering tools
106. Which is the definition of objects in the database that leads directly to a standard
approach for the creation of software engineering documents.
a) Document standardization
b) Data integrity
c) Information sharing
d) Data/data integration
107. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
108. 2. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
109. 3. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change
of organizational management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition
110. 4. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying
technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
b) Product competition
c) Requirements change
d) None of the mentioned
111. 5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn
more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
112. 6. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where
the software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
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B.Voc Software Development
113. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that
are used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
114. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability
information to maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the above
PART B (2 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. What you mean by software engineering?
2. Explain the components of software?
3. List software characteristics?
4. Explain software engineering process?
5. What you mean by SDLC?
6. List the stages of SDLC?
7. Compare the concepts of waterfall model and spiral model?
8. What you mean by Win-Win model
9. List the advantages of prototype model?
10. What you mean by a prototype?
11. List the stages of RAD model?
12. What is SDLC?
13. What are SDLC models?
14. What are the steps in SDLC?
15. What is iterative enhancement model?
16. What is spiral model?
17. What is win win spiral model?
18. What is formal method model?
19. Describe water fall model?
20. What is the significant of waterfall model?
21. What is component based model?
22. What is merits and demerits of waterfall model?
23. What is the significant of waterfall model?
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B.Voc Software Development
24. What is clean room software engineering?
25. What is incremental model?
26. What is RAD model?
27. Define Software Engineering.
28. What is a Process Framework?
29. What are the Generic Framework Activities?
30. Define Stakeholder.
31. How the Process Model differ from one another?
32. Write out the reasons for the Failure of Water Fall Model?
33. What are the Drawbacks of RAD Model?
34. Why Formal Methods are not widely used?
35. How do we compute the “Expected Value” for Software Size?
36. What is an Object Point?
37. What is the difference between the “Known Risks” and Predictable Risks”?
38. List out the basic principles of software project scheduling?
39. Differentiate Software engineering methods, tools and procedures.
40. Write the disadvantages of classic life cycle model.
41. What do you mean by task set in spiral Model?
42. What is the main objective of Win-Win Spiral Model?
43. Which of the software engineering paradigms would be most effective? Why?
44. Write the objective of project planning?
45. Write about Democratic Teams in software development. (Egoless Team)
46. What are the two project scheduling methods?
47. What is RMMM?
48. What are four impacts of the project risk?
UNIT II
49. What you mean by requirement engineering?
50. Explain requirement elicitation?
51. List the different feasibility studies used during requirement analysis?
52. Explain requirement analysis?
53. What you mean by DFD?
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B.Voc Software Development
54. Explain the symbols used in DFD?
55. What is the use of decision tables?
56. What you mean by SRS?
57. Compare validation and verification?
58. List the stages of requirement engineering process?
59. Define SRS?
60. What is SQA?
61. What is ER diagram?
62. What is mean by Elicitation?
63. What is feasibility study?
64. What are the types of feasibility study?
65. What is mean by economical feasibility?
66. What is SQA plan?
67. What is mean by verification and validation?
68. What is DFD?
69. What is the need of feasibility study?
70. Define decision table?
UNIT III
71. Briefly explain the basic concept of software design?
72. What you mean by modularization?
73. Explain pseudo codes?
74. What you mean by data design?
75. Explain architectural design?
76. Compare architectural design and data design?
77. What you mean by Cohesion?
78. Compare sequential and functional cohesion?
79. What you mean by Coupling?
80. Compare content and control coupling?
81. What you mean by design charts?
82. Mention some of the Design principles.
83. What is Architectural design?
84. Define Software design.
85. Mention some of the criteria’s used to define effective modular design .
86. Define the term “software architecture.”
87. Write a short note on structure charts.
88. What are the contents of HIPO diagrams?
89. What does Level 0 DFD represent?
90. What is the use of flow chart?
91. What is top down design?
92. What is bottom up design concepts?
93. What is pseudo code?
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B.Voc Software Development
94. Describe function oriented design?
95. Describe object oriented design?
96. What is coupling and cohesion?
97. What is modality?
98. What is the importance of modularity?
99. What is structure chart?
100. Define coupling?
101. Define cohesion?
102. Define the terms in Software Designing: (a)
Abstraction
(b)
Modularity.
103. How the Architecture Design can be represented?
104. What is the Advantage of Information Hiding?
105. What types of Classes does the designer create?
106. What is Coupling?
107. What is Cohesion?
108. Define Refactoring.
109. What are the Five Types of Design classes?
110. What are the Different types of Design Model? Explain.
111. List out the Different elements of Design Model?
112. What are the Types of Interface Design Elements?
113. What Types of Design Patterns are available for the software Engineer?
114. Define Framework.
115. What is the Objective of Architectural Design?
116. What are the important roles of Conventional component within the Software
Architecture?
117. What are the Basic Design principles of Class-Based Components?
118. What should we consider when we name components?
119. What are the Different Types of Cohesion?
120. What are the Different Types of Coupling?
121. What is Program Design Language [PDL]?
122. List the coupling factors.
123. Define Stamp coupling.
124. Define common coupling.
125. Define temporal cohesion.
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B.Voc Software Development
126. Write a short note on structure charts.
127. What do you mean by factoring?
128. What do you mean by common coupling?
129. Write about Real Time Systems
UNIT IV
130. What you mean by software testing?
131. What is the difference between error, fault and failure?
132. What you mean by test stubs?
133. What are the levels of testing?
134. What you mean by top-down testing?
135. Compare top-down and bottom-up testing strategies?
136. List the different white box testing techniques?
137. Compare control flow and data flow testing?
138. What you mean by reverse engineering?
139. Explain software Reengineering?
140. What is meant by software maintenance?
141. What is top down testing?
142. What is bottom up testing?
143. Define black box testing strategy.
144. Why testing is important with respect to software?
145. Write short notes on empirical estimation models.
146. Distinguish between alpha testing and beta testing.
147. Define alpha testing
148. Define beta testing
149. Define basic path testing?
150. What is a boundary value analysis?
151. What is cyclomatic complexity?
152. How to compute the cyclomatic complexity?
153. . Distinguish between verification and validation.
154. What are the approaches of integration testing?
155. Describe is white box testing?
156. Describe is black box testing?
157. . What are the advantages and disadvantages of big-bang?
158. What is unit testing?
159. What is Integration testing?
160. What is stress testing?
161. What is performance testing?
162. What is software maintenance?
163. What are the types of software maintenance?
164. What is perfective maintenance?
165. What is preventive maintenance?
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B.Voc Software Development
166. What is adaptive maintenance?
167. What is corrective maintenance?
168. What is mean by glass box testing?
169. What is Functional testing?
170. What is behavioral testing?
171. What is software re engineering?
172. What are the Basic Principles of Software Testing?
173. List out the Characteristics of Testability of Software?
174. List out various Methods for finding Cyclomatic Complexity ?
175. Define Smoke Testing ?
176. What are the Attributes of Good Test?
177. Define White Box Testing.
178. Define Basic Path Testing.
179. Define the terms: a) Graph Matrices b) Connection Matrices .
180. What is Behavioral Testing?
181. What are the Benefits of conducting Smoke Testing?
182. What errors are commonly found during Unit Testing?
183. What problems may be encountered when Top-Down Integration is chosen?
184. What are the Steps in Bottom-Up Integration?
185. What is Regression Testing?
186. What are the Characteristics of “Critical Module”?
187. What is an Object Oriented Testing?
188. Define State based testing.
189. What are testing tools?
190. How do you prepare test cases?
191. What is meant by software maintenance?
192. What are the various types of maintenance?
193. What are the various types of reports in maintenance?
UNIT V
194. What you mean by SCM?
195. Explain CASE tools?
196. What you mean by baseline?
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B.Voc Software Development
197. List the steps of configuration management?
198. List the different CASE tools used during software development?
199. What is the significance of CASE tools during the software development life cycle?
200. Explain Gantt chart?
201. What is the significance of PERT chart?
202. What you mean by COCOMO model?
203. What you mean by risk?
204. What is CASE tools?
205. What is software change control?
206. What is software version control?
207. What is PERT?
208. What is CPM?
209. What is software configuration management?
210. What is mean by risk?
211. What is risk management?
212. What are risk management activities?
213. What is schedule of software?
214. What is LOC?
215. What is Function Point?
216. What is Size of software?
217. What is the purpose of timeline chart?
218. What is FP ? How it is used for project estimation?
219. What is LOC? How it is used for project estimation?
220. Write the formula to calculate the effort in persons-months used in Dynamic multi variable
Model?
221. Write the differences between measures and metrics.
222. What is meant by Cyclomatic Complexity?
223. What is function point count?
224. Why to measure software?
225. Differentiate Product and Process metrics.
226. What is meant by direct measures?
227. What is meant by indirect measures?
228. What do you mean by function oriented metrics?
229. What are the parameters used for measuring Quality?
230. What are the factors affecting quality?
231. What is flow graph notation?
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B.Voc Software Development
232. Write the formula to calculate the effort in persons-months used in Dynamic multi variable
model?
233. What are the Components of the Cost of Quality?
234. What is Software Quality Control?
235. What is Software Quality Assurance?
236. What are the Objective of Formal Technical Reviews?
237. What Steps are required to perform Statistical SQA?
238. Define SQA Plan.
PART C (4 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. Explain SDLC and stages of SDLC?
2. Compare spiral and prototyping model?
3. Explain spiral model?
4. How prototyping model is beneficial for the software development process?
5. What you mean by iterative enhancement model?
6. Explain incremental model?
7. Explain formal method model?
8. List the stages of component based development model?
9. Explain software engineering process?
10. Compare time boxing and incremental model?
11. What is merits and demerits of waterfall model?
12. Explain about component based model?
13. Explain RAD model?
14. Describe water fall model? What is the significant of waterfall model?
15. Explain phases in SDLC?
16. Explain significant of Spiral model?
17. Explain prototyping model?
18. What are iterative models?
19. What is evolutionary development model?
20. What is Quick fix model?
21. What is Software Development Life Cycle? (SDLC)
22. Draw a diagram for pure waterfall life cycle
23. Explain the different phases involved in waterfall life cycle
24. What is feasibility study? What are the contents we should contain in the feasibility
report?
25. What are the purposes of Data Flow diagrams, Entity-Relationship diagrams? Give an
example diagram of each.
26. What is data modeling? Give 5 examples for data modeling.
27. Write out the reasons for the Failure of Water Fall Model?
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B.Voc Software Development
28. What are the Drawbacks of RAD Model?
29. What is the difference between program and software?
30. Write out the reasons for the Failure of Water Fall Model
31. What are the characteristics of the software?
32. What are the various categories of software?
33. What are the challenges in software?
34. Define software process what are the merits of incremental model?
35. List the task regions in the Spiral model.
36. What are the drawbacks of spiral model?
UNIT II
37. What are the players of review process?
38. Explain requirement engineering process?
39. Compare requirement elicitation an analysis?
40. What you mean by formal technical review?
41. Compare verification and validation?
42. Explain Software Requirement Specification?
43. What you mean by SQA framework?
44. Explain ISO 9000 models?
45. Explain E-R diagram?
46. Draw DFD of your college management?
47. Explain decision tables?
48. What are the different types of feasibility study?
49. Explain about validation and variation in Software engineering?
50. What are the software design models
51. Explain DFD with examples
52. Explain ER diagram with examples
53. What are the elicitation techniques?
54. Explain about SQA?
55. Explain IEEE standard for SRS?
56. Explain about Information modeling?
57. What are SQA activates?
58. Explain software Requirement Specification.
59. What are the characteristics of SRS?
60. What is the difference between SRS document and design document? What are the
contents we should contain in the SRS document and design document
61. What are the Objectives of Requirement Analysis?
62. What are the Requirements Engineering Process Functions?
63. Define SQA Plan
64. What is software engineering?
65. Explain the steps involved in the prototyping
66. What is cardinality? Give examples
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B.Voc Software Development
67. What is a class and object? Give the diagrams and representation of class and object.
68. What is generalization? Give an example of generalization
69. Define Software Engineering.
70. What are the characteristics of SRS?
71. What are the objectives of Analysis modeling?
72. What is data modeling?. What is a data object?
UNIT III
73. What you mean by Cohesion? List different types of Cohesion?
74. What you mean by Coupling? List different types of Coupling?
75. Explain design strategies?
76. Explain function oriented design?
77. Explain modularization?
78. Compare high level and low level design strategies?
79. What are the differences between high level and detailed design?
80. Explain the advantages of modularization?
81. Explain top-down design with neat diagram?
82. Compare top-down and bottom-up design strategies?
83. Explain function oriented design?
84. What is coupling and cohesion?
85. What is HIPO diagram? Explain?
86. What are the design strategies?
87. Explain about architectural design?
88. What are different types of coupling?
89. What are different types of cohesion?
90. Briefly explain top down and bottom up design?
91. What is data design?
92. What is modularization?
93. Define Stamp coupling.
94. Define common coupling.
95. What do you mean by common coupling?
96. Define Architectural Design and Data Design.
97. List the principles of a software design
98. Explain all the phases involved in the implementation phase.
99. List and explain different types of testing done during the testing phase.
100. What is user acceptance testing? Explain different testing in user acceptance testing.
Why is it necessary?
101. Define Stakeholder.
102. What are the Decomposition Techniques?
103. What is meant by Cardinality and Modality?
104. What are the fundamental activities of a software process?
105. What are the umbrella activities of a software process?
106. What are the Objectives of Requirement Analysis?
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B.Voc Software Development
107. What is requirement engineering?
108. Define software prototyping.
109. What are the Requirements Engineering Process Functions?
110. What are the benefits of prototyping?
111. What are the prototyping approaches in software process?
112. What are the Difficulties in Elicitation?
113. How the Architecture Design can be represented?
114. Define design process. List the principles of a software design.
115. What is the benefit of modular design?
116. What is a cohesive module?
117. What are the different types of Cohesion?
118. What is coupling? What are the various types of coupling?
119. What are the common activities in design process?
120. What are the benefits of horizontal partitioning?.What is vertical partitioning?
121. What are the advantages of vertical partitioning?
122. What are the various elements of data design?
123. Explain in detail the design concepts. Explain the design principles.
124. Explain the design steps of the transform mapping.
UNIT IV
125. Explain black box testing?
126. Briefly explain white box testing techniques?
127. Explain equivalence class partitioning?
128. Explain cause-effect graphing?
129. Explain boundary value analysis?
130. Explain software maintenance?
131. Compare software reengineering and reverse engineering?
132. Explain the different types of maintenance?
133. Explain maintenance activities?
134. Explain the steps of software reengineering?
135. Define black box testing strategy.
136. Why testing is important with respect to software?
137. What are the types of software maintenance?
138. Describe is black box testing?
139. Describe unit testing?
140. Describe integration testing?
141. Distinguish between alpha testing and beta testing.
142. Deference between validation and verification?
143. Describe is white box testing?
144. Describe is black box testing?
145. What is test plan and test case?
146. What are open box testing?
147. Explain software re-engineering?
148. Explain software reverse engineering?
149. What are the advantages and disadvantages of big-bang?
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B.Voc Software Development
150. What are the steps followed in testing?
151. Explain about the incremental model.
152. Explain in detail about the software process.
153. Explain in detail about the life cycle process
154. Explain Spiral model and win-win spiral model in detail?
155. Name the Evolutionary process Models.
156. What are the testing principles the software engineer must apply while performing the
software testing?
157. Define White Box Testing?
158. What are the two levels of testing?
159. What are the various testing activities?
160. Write short note on black box testing.
161. What is equivalence partitioning?
162. What is Regression Testing?
163. What is a boundary value analysis?
164. What are the reasons behind to perform white box testing?
165. Distinguish between verification and validation
166. Distinguish between alpha and beta testing.
167. What are the various types of system testing? Explain the types of software testing.
168. Explain in detail about Black box testing.
169. Explain about the software testing strategies
170. What is the Objective of Formal Technical Reviews?
UNIT V
171. Explain CASE tools?
172. Explain software configuration management activities?
173. What you mean by software version control?
174. Explain the Schedule/Duration tools?
175. Explain COCOMO Model?
176. Explain risk analysis?
177. Explain the significance of resource allocation model?
178. How the risk can be managed during software development?
179. What is mean by risk? What are risk management activities?
180. Explain PERT and CPM?
181. Explain PERT?
182. What is LOC and Function Point?
183. Explain Critical Path Method?
184. Explain COCOMO model?
185. What is the purpose of timeline chart?
186. What is COCOMO model?
187. What is software maintenance?
188. Define maintenance.
189. What are the types of software maintenance? What is architectural evolution?
190. How the CASE tools are classified. Explain about software cost estimation
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B.Voc Software Development
PART D (15 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. What is meant by SDLC? Explain the stages of SDLC?
2. Explain Water Fall model? List its advantages and disadvantages?
3. Compare water fall model and spiral model?
4. Explain prototyping model? List its advantages and disadvantages?
5. Compare prototyping model and spiral model?
6. Explain phases in SDLC?
7. Describe water fall model? What is the significant of waterfall model?
8. Describe spiral model? What are the advantages and disadvantages?
9. Describe RAD model? What are the advantages and disadvantages?
10. What are evolutionary development model?
11. Explain about SDLC models?
12. Explain about incremental model? What are the advantages and disadvantages?
13. Explain about prototyping model? What are the advantages and disadvantages?
14. What is Software Development Life Cycle? (SDLC)
15. Draw a diagram for pure waterfall life cycle
16. Explain the different phases involved in waterfall life cycle
UNIT II
17. Explain the IEEE standard structure of SRS?
18. Explain Software Quality Assurance (SQA)?
19. Explain DFD with examples
20. What are the Requirements Engineering Process Functions?
21. Explain about SQA? What are SQA activates?
22. Explain ER diagram with examples
23. Explain about validation and variation in Software engineering?
24. Explain about design models?
25. Explain SRS in detail? What are the characteristics of SRS?
26. What are the various modes of abstraction? Discuss any two in detail.
27. Explain modularity and the criteria for modular design method evaluation.
28. Explain Abstraction with examples
29. Explain:
A) DFD
B) E-R diagrams
UNIT III
30. Explain:
A) Pseudo Codes
B) Flow Charts
31. Explain Top-Down and Bottom-Up design strategies?
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32. Explain software design strategies?
33. What is cohesion? What are different types of cohesion?
34. What is coupling? What are different types of coupling?
35. What are the major design strategies? Explain?
36. Explain top down and bottom up design?
37. Explain about structured chart and decision table?
38. Explain architectural design?
39. What is cohesion? Explain different types of cohesion and coupling with examples.
40. What is Data flow oriented design? What are the components of it?
41. Draw a detailed DFD for the Library information system.
42. What is ER diagram? Discuss its usage in data modeling.
43. Consider a simple “Online Vehicle Purchase System”. Apply scenario based modeling and
draw the appropriate diagrams for it.
44. Explain the various data design principles and architectural styles. Also describe the
transform and transaction mapping processes.
45. Describe the fundamental software design concepts and explain the criteria for modular
design method evaluation.
46. Explain documentation and its usages.
47. Explain:
A) Function oriented design
B) Object oriented design
UNIT IV
49. What you mean by White Box testing? Explain white box testing techniques?
50. What you mean by White Box testing? Explain white box testing techniques?
51. Distinguish between alpha testing and beta testing.
52. Explain white box testing?
53. Explain black box testing?
54. Explain software reverse engineering?
55. Explain software re-engineering?
56. What are the types of software maintenance?
57. Describe black box testing? Why testing is important with respect to software?
58. Describe white box testing? Why testing is important with respect to software?
59. Describe white box testing? What is test plan and test case?
60. What are software design models? What are software design principles?
61. Explain the strategic approach to software testing with any four testing techniques.
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B.Voc Software Development
62. Explain Block Box and White Box testing. Give the merits and demerits of both
approaches.
63. Explain in detail Object Oriented Testing strategies.
64. What is system testing? Explain about system testing.
65. What is Test case management? How testing tools are used to test a software?
Explain any two testing tools to test a software.
66. Explain the three types of maintenance in detail.
67. Discuss briefly on software maintenance activities and how do you estimate the cost
involved.
68. Explain Data Flow Oriented design in detail.
69. Explain Testing tools and Test cases.
70. Explain the importance of Testing and Maintenance of software.
71. Explain
A) Software Maintenance
B) Software Reengineering
C) Software Reverse Engineering
UNIT V
72. Explain Constructive Cost Models?
73. Explain risk analysis and management?
74. Explain different CASE Tools used during software development life cycle?
75. Explain PERT and CPM with example?
76. Explain COCOMO model?
77. What is mean by risk? What are risk management activities?
78. What is LOC and Function Point?
79. Explain about estimation models?
80. Explain the cost estimation procedure using COCOMO Model.
81. What is meant by quality assurance? Explain.
82. Explain SQA activities.
83. Explain the activities involved in conducting Formal Technical Review.
84. Explain on ISO 9000 certification of software organization.
85. Write briefly on software quality assurance plan.
86. What is meant by formal approach to software quality assurance? Explain different
approaches.
87. Discuss the importance of reliability with respect to software.
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B.Voc Software Development
88. What is software reliability? How is it different from software availability? Discuss at
least one reliability model.
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B.Voc Software Development
SDC4IT13- Operating Systems (Integrated QB)
Unit 1 (12 Hours)
Introduction to system software and Operating System: Objectives and functions, The
evolution of Operating Systems, Serial Processing, simple batch systems, Multi
programmed batch systems, time sharing systems, parallel systems, distributed systems,
cloud computing, real time systems. Booting and POST
Unit 2 (12 Hours)
Processor Management: Functions, Definition of Process, Process States, Process
Control Block, Operations on Process, Process Communication, Communication in
Client server System, Basic concepts of threads. CPU Scheduling: Scheduling Criteria,
Scheduling algorithms - FCFS, SJF, Priority, RR, Multilevel, Feedback Queue,
Concurrency, Principles of Concurrency, Process synchronization, The Critical Section
Problem Mutual exclusion, Semaphores, Messages . Dead lock, dead lock Prevention,
dead lock detection, and dead lock avoidance
Unit 3 (12 Hours)
Memory Management: Address binding, Logical Vs Physical address space, Dynamic
Loading, Dynamic Linking and Shared Libraries, Overlays, Swapping, Contiguous
Memory allocation, Paging, Segmentation, Virtual memory, Demand paging, Page
replacement, Working set principle, Thrashing.
Unit 4 (12 Hours)
File Management: File system, Functions, File directory, File system structure, File
system design: Symbolic, Basic, Logical and Physical file system layers, File
organization, File allocation, free space management, File protection and security.
Device Management : Disk scheduling , Disk scheduling policies , Device management
: Functions , Techniques for device management : Dedicated , Shared , Virtual , Spooling
, Channels and Control units.
Unit 5 (12 Hours)
Case Study 1: UNIX: Kernel, Shells and Shell programming basics
Case Study 2: Mobile OS: Concepts
Case study 3: Microsoft Windows NT
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B.Voc Software Development
PART A (1 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. ------------- is a program that act as an intermediary between the computer user and
computer hardware.
2. What are the components of a computer system?
3. ----------------- is the expansion of POST.
4. --------- is the essential piece of software used in batch systems.
5. --------- is the expansion of JCL.
6. User program executes in ------mode and monitor executes in -------mode.
7. The collection of CPUs connected by a high speed network is called -------.
A) Batch OS B)Distributed OS C) Parallel Systems D) None of them
8. -------- is the platform provides on demand services, that are always on, anywhere,
anytime and anyplace.
9. Basic Input / Output system is the expansion of -------------.
10. Operating system is a …………
a. system software
b. application software
c. utility software
d. none of these
11. Which of the following is true?
a. Booting is possible without Hard disk.
b. Booting is possible without RAM
c. Booting is possible without ROM
d. none of these
12. Which of the following is a volatile memory
a. ROM
b. Hard disk
c. RAM
d. Pen drive
13. Which is the first program to run when the system is switched ON?
a. Windows
b. Operating system
c. BIOS
d. None of these
14. Which of the following is the most important feature of OS for general public
a. efficiency
b. Scalable
c. User friendly
d. None of these
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B.Voc Software Development
15. …… is the rudimentary form of multiprogramming
a. buffering
b. spooling
c. simple-multiprogramming
d. none of these
16. Atomicity is guaranteed in …...
a. user mode
b. kernel mode
c. software mode
d. none of these
UNIT II
17. ---------- is a program under execution.
18. Pick the odd one out?
A) New--Ready
B) ReadyRunning
C) Readywaiting
D) Running Waiting
19. ------- is the entry to the process table to keep track of all the processes
20. -------- is the procedure of determining the next process to be executed?
A) Process Scheduling
B) Scheduler
C) Ready queue
D) None of the above
21. Pick the odd one out?
A) Long term scheduler – Job scheduler
B) Short term scheduler – CPU scheduler
C) Intermediate Scheduler – Restore scheduler
D) Medium term scheduler -- Swapper
22. The processes that coexist in the memory at the same time and exchange data with each
other is called -------A) Concurrent process
B) Independent process
C) Competitor
D) Cooperating process
23. -------- is the expansion of FCFS?
24. -------- Algorithm that schedules the process according to the length of the CPU burst.
25. --------- Algorithm that considers all the processes as equally important and allocates
fixed amount of CPU time to execute.
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B.Voc Software Development
26. ------- is the integer variable that provides abstract solution to the critical section
problem?
27. Process is a/an ………...
a. active entity
b. passive entity
c. past entity
d. none of these
28. Process can be considered as …….
e. a program under execution
f. an instance of program
g. a unit of execution
h. all of the above
29. All the attributes of process are stored in …….
i. Printed circuit board
j. Process control board
k. process control block
l. None of these
30. When a process is being created its state is ………. state
m. ready
n. new
o. running
p. none of these
31. The process which is waiting to be assigned to the processor is known as…...
q. new process
r. ready process
s. running process
t. none of these
32. Which of the following CPU scheduling algorithm maximizes throughput?
u. SJF
v. FCFS
w. Priority based
x. round-robin
33. What are the problems due to lack of synchronization?
y. Loss of data
z. inconsistency
aa. deadlocks
bb. all of these
34. synchronization should always guarantee …...
cc. progress
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B.Voc Software Development
dd. mutual exclusion
ee. progress and mutual exclusion
ff. none of these
35. What will be the value of a counting semaphore if the 3 Signal operation are performed after
initializing the value to be 0?
gg. 0
hh. 3
ii. -3
jj. None of these
36. Which of the following is TRUE, If the value of a binary semaphore is 0 and one process tries to
perform a down operation on it.
kk. A successful down operation can be performed.
ll. A successful down operation cannot be performed.
mm.
Down operation is not permitted on binary semaphore.
nn. None of these
37. There are 3 processes and each needs 3 pieces of resource 'X' to perform its execution. What is
the minimum number of 'X' required to ensure to avoid deadlock?
oo. 3
pp. 6
qq. 7
rr. 9
UNIT III
38. The set of all physical addresses used by the program is known as ------A) Logical address
B) Logical address space
C) Physical address space
D) None of the above
39. In ----------- allocation each process is allocated a single continues part of memory.
40. ------------ is the phenomenon which results in the wastage of memory within the partition
41. ------------ is the single large partition of available memory
A) Swap space
B) Address space
C) Hole
D) None of the Above
42. Physical memory is divided into fixed size blocks called ----and logical memory is
divided into fixed size blocks called ------.
43. What are the 2 parts of logical address?
44. -------- is the expansion of MMU
A) Manage Memory Unit
B) Memory Management Unit
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B.Voc Software Development
C) Memory Map Unit
D) None of the Above
45. The wastage of memory space that is not any part of the partition is called ----46. ------- are the fields of segment table.
47. The process of bringing process in to memory and after running for a while temporarily
copying it to disk is known as --------------48. ---------------- is the technique that allows the process to be executed even when the
system does not have sufficient physical memory.
49. ------------- is a system in which a page is loaded into the memory only when it is needed
during program execution.
50. 4 GB = ……….. bytes
a. 220
b. 222
c. 230
d. 232
51. Which of the following technique is space efficient?
e. Static linking
f. dynamic linking
g. both (a) and (b)
h. none of these
52. Which of the following is function of memory management?
i. Memory allocation
j. Memory deallocation
k. free space management
l. All of these
53. Which partition allocation policy performs better in the case of fixed size partitions
m. First Fit
n. Worst Fit
o. Best Fit
p. None of these
54. Which partition allocation policy performs better in the case of variable size partitions
q. First Fit
r. Worst Fit
s. Best Fit
t. None of these
55. paging is ………. technique
u. a contiguous memory allocation
v. a non-contiguous memory allocation
w. a partition
x. none of these
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B.Voc Software Development
56. Paging will have ……. fragmentation
y. internal
z. external
aa. both internal and external
bb. none of these
57. segmentation will have ……. fragmentation
cc. internal
dd. external
ee. both internal and external
ff. none of these
58. Virtual memory ……………….
gg. is a large secondary memory
hh. is a large primary memory
ii. gives an illusion of main memory
jj. is very tertiary storage devise
59. In the concept of virtual memory, if the desired page is found in the primary memory then it is
known as…….
kk. miss
ll. hit
mm.
page fault
nn. none of these
UNIT IV
60. To store and retrieve files on the disk the OS provides a mechanism called ------.
A) File Structure
B) Directory System
C) File System
D) None Of The Above
61. ------- is the file operation to position to a specific position in a file
A) Point file
B) Seek file
C) Append file
D) Position file
62. In --------- access method information in the file is accessed in order one record after the
other
63. ------- is the only one directory that holds all the files in single-level directory structure.
64. In two-level directory for each UFD is created, an entry is added to the ------------.
65. In --------------begins at the root and follows a path down to the specified file.
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B.Voc Software Development
A) Absolute path name
B) Relative path name
C) Path name
D) All of the above
66. --------layer in the file system issues generic commands to the appropriate device driver
to read and write physical blocks on the disk.
A) Basic file system
B) Logical file system
C) File organization module
D) None of the above
67. ------------ is the technique that moving the blocks of the disk to make all free space into
one contiguous space.
A) Swapping
B) Fragmentation
C) Clustering
D) Compaction
68. In linked allocation contiguous blocks are grouped together as ----------------.
A) Hole
B) Cluster
C) Swap space
D) None of the above
69. ---------- refers to as a process that putting jobs in a buffer, a special area in memory or on
a disk where a device can access them when it is ready.
A) Spooling
B) Compaction
C) Overlay
D) None of the above
70. ______ is a unique tag, usually a number, identifies the file within the file system.
a. File identifier
b. File name
c. File type
d. none of these
71. File type can be represented by
e. file name
f. file extension
g. file identifier
h. none of the mentioned
72. What is the mounting of file system?
i. crating of a filesystem
j. deleting a filesystem
k. attaching portion of the file system into a directory structure
l. removing portion of the file system into a directory structure
73. Which of the following is not a filesystem?
m. NTFS
n. FAT
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B.Voc Software Development
o. Ex-FAT
p. FIFO
UNIT V
74. -------- is the nucleus of a UNIX system.
A) Shell
B) Kernel
C) Bourne shell
D) None of the above
75. -------- is the language that makes it possible communication with the computer.
A) Shell
B) Kernel
C) Bash
D) None of the above
76. ------------- command is used to list all the files in the system
A) cat
B) touch
C) tar
D) ls
77. ------------- command is used to create an empty file
A) cat
B) touch
C) mkdir
D) None of the above
78. ------------ Command is used locate files and folders.
A) mv
B) cp
C) find
D) None of the above
79. Pick the odd one:
A) chmod g –rw f1.txt
B) chmod g+rw f1.txt
C) chmod 644 f1.txt
D) chmod 666 f1.txt
80. ------ Command is used to append information to the file.
A) >
B) <
C) <<
D) >>
81. --------- Statement is used to display anything in unix?
A) display
B) echo
C) print
D) write
82. Every if statement should be end with ---------.
83. --------- Command is used in unix to perform arithmetic operations.
A) expr
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B.Voc Software Development
B) calc
C) exec
D) None of the above
PART B (2 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. What are the objectives of an operating system?
2. List the important functions of OS?
3. What is meant by POST?
4. What is meant by serial processing?
5. List the advantages of distributed systems?
6. What you mean by cloud computing?
7. What you mean Booting?
8. What are the duties performed by the OS during booting?
9. What is the significance of monitor in simple batch systems?
10. What is the difference between user mode and kernel mode?
11. What is meant by bootstrap loader?
12. What you mean by boot sequence?
13. What do you mean by system software?
14. What is an operating system?
15. What are the functions of operating systems?
16. What do you mean by kernel of an operating system?
17. List different types of operating systems.
18. What do you mean by serial processing?
19. What do you mean by batch processing?
20. What do you mean by multiprogramming?
21. What do you mean by parallel systems?
22. What is the advantage of buffering over spooling?
23. What are the advantages of multiprogramming?
24. What is an Operating System
25. What are Batch System
26. What is the advantages of Multiprogramming
27. What are the different types of multiprocessing
28. What are the various OS Components
29. List the services provided by an Operating System?
30. What do you mean by Time-Sharing Systems?
31. What are the two types of Real Time Systems?
UNIT II
32. What you mean by a process?
33. Distinguish between CPU-bound and I/O-bound processes?
34. What you mean by IPC?
35. List the different schedulers used in process scheduling?
36. What is SJF scheduling algorithm?
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37. What are the key factors used to select scheduling criteria?
38. List the entries of Process Control Block?
39. What you mean by waiting time and turnaround time?
40. List the advantages and disadvantages of FCFS scheduling algorithm?
41. What is semaphore? What are the operations performed on it?
42. Explain bakery algorithm of critical section problem?
43. What you mean by mutual exclusion?
44. What are the conditions that cause deadlock?
45. What you mean by safe and unsafe state of resource allocation?
46. What do you mean by a process?
47. What is process control block?
48. What is the difference between user mode and kernel mode?
49. Which are the states of process?
50. Name any 3 CPU scheduling algorithm.
51. What do you mean by response time?
52. What do you mean by context switching?
53. Why do we consider context switching as an overhead?
54. How threads are differ from process?
55. What are the operations possible on semaphores?
56. What do you mean by critical section?
57. List out the necessary conditions for deadlock?
58. What is a process
59. What is process state and mention the various states of a process
60. What is process control Block
61. What are the basic concept of threads
62. Write short note on threads
63. Write short note on Semaphores
64. What are the benefits of multithreaded programming
65. Define CPU Scheduling
66. What is preemptive and non-preemptive scheduling
67. Define throughput
68. What is Turnaround Time?
69. What is critical section problem
70. Define Elapsed CPU time and Maximum CPU time
71. What are the various scheduling criteria for CPU Scheduling?
72. What is Waiting Time in CPU scheduling?
73. What is Response Time in CPU scheduling?
74. What is Mutual Exclusion?
75. Define Deadlock
76. What is a Resource-Allocation Graph?
77. What are the methods for dealing the Deadlock Problem?
78. . Differentiate Deadlock and Starvation.
UNIT III
79. What you mean by physical address?
80. Explain logical address and logical address space?
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81. Compare physical and logical addresses?
82. Explain the entries of page table?
83. What you meant by valid bit?
84. What is meant by virtual memory?
85. Explain overlay?
86. Explain thrashing?
87. Compare swapped-in and swapped-out?
88. What you mean by address mapping?
89. What is the significance of dirty bit in page replacement?
90. What you mean by internal fragmentation?
91. List and explain the types of fragmentation?
92. What is external fragmentation and how it happens?
93. Explain copy-on-write?
94. What you mean by segment table? List the entries of segment table?
95. What are the different kinds of memory allocation?
96. What do you mean by address binding?
97. What do you mean by loading?
98. Can we do loading before compiling? Why?
99. What are the different types of loading?
100. What is contiguous memory allocation?
101. What is non-contiguous memory allocation?
102. What do you mean by partition?
103. What do you mean by fragmentation?
104. What do you mean by paging?
105. What are the different steps in simple paging?
106. What is the key difference of segmentation from paging.
107. What is the main function of the Memory-Management Unit?
108. Define Logical Address and Physical Address.
109. What are Logical Address Space and Physical Address Space?
110. Define Dynamic Loading
111. Define Dynamic Linking.
112. What are Overlays?
113. Define Swapping.
114. How is memory protected in a paged environment?
115. What is External Fragmentation?
116. What is Internal Fragmentation?
117. What is the basic method of Segmentation?
118. What is Virtual Memory?
119. What is Demand Paging?
120. What is the basic approach of Page Replacement?
121. What is the various Page Replacement Algorithms used for Page Replacement?
122. . What are the major problems to implement Demand Paging?
UNIT IV
123. What you mean by file system?
124. List the common file attributes of a file system?
125. Explain any 4 file types with examples?
126. Explain the common file structure?
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127. What you mean by single level directory?
128. What you mean by logical file system layer?
129. What you mean by linear list?
130. What are the attributes of a hash table?
131. List the file allocation methods?
132. What you mean by cluster?
133. What you mean by bit vector?
134. What you mean by spooling?
135. What do you mean by file management?
136. Name different methods for free space management.
137. Name any three disk scheduling policies.
138. What are the different techniques for device management?
139. What is the objective of disc scheduler?
140. What is a File?
141. List the various File Attributes.
142. What are the min functions of a File System
143. What are the various File Operations
144. What is File Directory?
145. What are the operations that can be performed on a Directory
146. What are the various layers of a File System?
147. Define Spooling
UNIT V
148. What you mean by kernel?
149. What is meant by shell?
150. Explain the different types of shells?
151. What is the significance of pwd command?
152. Compare cp and mv commands?
153. Explain the options of rm command?
154. Compare rmdir and mkdir commands?
155. What are the differences between more and less commands?
156. Write a shell command for locating a file named college from home directory?
157. Write the syntax for if statement in unix?
158. How we can append data to the file?
PART C (4 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. Explain time sharing systems?
2. Compare distributed systems and parallel systems?
3. What is the significance of cloud computing?
4. What is meant by an OS? List its objectives and functions?
5. What are the major steps performed during Booting?
6. Explain simple batch systems with its major advantages and disadvantages?
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7. What you mean by real time systems?
8. Compare timesharing systems and real time systems?
9. What is the significance of POST during booting?
10. Compare system software and application software?
11. Briefly explain system software and operating system.
12. Briefly explain the different types of operating system and its uses.
13. Briefly explain the functions and goals of operating system.
14. What are the advantages of multiprogramming?
15. Briefly explain the process of booting.
16. What is the difference between parallel systems and distributed systems
17. What are Multi Programmed Systems
18. What are the Objectives and functions of Operating System
19. Write the difference between Multiprogramming and Non - Multiprogramming?
20. What are the design goals of an Operating System?
21. Explain time sharing systems in detail
22. Explain Multi programmed batch systems
23. Explain Distributed systems in detail
24. Differentiate Booting and POST
25. Describe batch processing
UNIT II
26. What is context switching? How it is performed and what are its disadvantages?
27. Explain inter process communication?
28. Distinguish between long term, short-term and medium-term scheduler?
29. Discuss the various states of a process?
30. Explain the significance of round robin algorithm?
31. Explain the dining philosopher’s problem and the algorithm to solve the problem?
32. What you meant by deadlock? How we can solve deadlock?
33. Explain Monitor?
34. What are the major principles of concurrency?
35. Write short notes on the following
a)
Semaphore
b)
Critical section
c)
Entry and exit section
36. Explain resource allocation graph algorithm?
37. Explain deadlock avoidance measures?
38. What are the difference between program and process?
39. What is safe state? How do we check whether a state is safe or not?
40. Briefly explain about safety algorithm.
41. What are the strategies to deal with deadlocks?
42. Briefly explain about necessary conditions for deadlock.
43. Briefly explain about resource allocation graph.
44. What are the types of semaphores? What are its uses?
45. What are the requirements that a solution to the critical Section Problem must satisfy
46. Describe Process control block in detail
47. Explain about Process communication
48. Explain CPU Scheduling
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49. Explain FCFS algorithm in detail
50. Write some classical problems of Synchronization?
51. How can we say the First Come First Served scheduling algorithm is Non Preemptive?
52. . What are conditions under which a deadlock situation may arise?
53. What are the methods for Handling Deadlocks?
54. Define Deadlock Prevention.
55. Define Deadlock Avoidance.
56. What are a Safe State and an Unsafe State?
57. What is Banker’s Algorithm?
UNIT III
58. Explain belady’s anomaly with suitable examples?
59. Explain paging with neat diagram?
60. Compare single partition and multiple partitions?
61. Explain fixed partitions? List its disadvantages?
62. What is the significance of compaction in the case of variable partition?
63. Explain partition selection algorithms?
64. Explain segmentation with neat diagram?
65. Explain segmentation with paging?
66. Explain virtual memory?
67. What you mean by demand paging? Explain the steps used to handle the page fault?
68. Explain FIFO page replacement algorithm?
69. Compare optimal page replacement and least recently used page replacement algorithm?
70. Why we known as the second chance page replacement algorithm is the refinement of FIFO
algorithm?
71. Explain counting based page replacement algorithm?
72. Briefly explain the concept of address binding.
73. How many bits are needed to address 1 GB of memory
a.
if the word length is one byte?
b.
If the word length is two bytes?
74. What are the functions and goals of memory management?
75. Explain different types of fragmentation with respect to partition.
76. Differentiate segmentation and paging.
77. What is demand paging? What are the differences between pure demand paging and prefetched
paging
78. Explain the concept of page replacement.
79. What do you mean by trashing? What are the reasons behind it?
80. Explain about Logical Vs Physical address space
81. Differentiate between dynamic Linking and Dynamic Loading
82. Write note on contiguous memory allocation
83. Explain Paging in detail
84. Explain Segmentation in detail
85. Explain about Demand Paging
86. Explain in detail Page replacement algorithm
87. Explain about Thrashing
88. What is the cause of Thrashing? How does the system detect thrashing? Once it detects
thrashing, what can the system do to eliminate this problem?
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89. Explain the concept of Paging
UNIT IV
90. Explain the operations performed on a file system?
91. Explain the common attributes of a file system?
92. Explain the access methods of a file system?
93. Explain the structure of directory?
94. Compare two-level and hierarchical directory structure?
95. Explain the file system layers?
96. Explain file organization?
97. Explain contiguous allocation?
98. Compare linked and indexed allocation?
99. Explain free space management?
100. Explain the techniques for device management?
101. Differentiate security v/s protection.
102. Briefly explain about the file system design.
103. What is is disc scheduling? What is the objective of disc scheduling?
104. What are the different methods of disc scheduling?
105. What do you mean by mounting? What are the different ways of mounting?
106. What are the Structures used in File-System Implementation
107. What are the Allocation Methods of a Disk Space?
108. Explain about File organization
109. Explain about File allocation in detail
110. Write note on free space management
111. Write a note on File protection and security
112. What are the Techniques used for device management
113. What are the functions of device management
114. Explain in detail about Channels and Control units
UNIT V
115. Compare cat and touch commands?
116. What is the significance of cd command? Explain its options?
117. Write a shell script that accept username and report if user logged in?
118. Explain case statement with suitable examples?
119. What you mean by Windows NT?
120. What are the key concepts of mobile OS?
121. How to redirect a content of one file to another?
122. Explain the input and output redirection with suitable examples?
PART D(15 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. What you meant by an Operating System? Explain the evolution of OS?
2. Explain
A) Distributed Systems
B) Cloud computing
3. Explain:
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A) Serial processing systems
B) Parallel systems
C) Time sharing systems
4. Explain in detail about the functions and goals of operating system.
5. Explain about various types of operating systems
6. What are the system components of an Operating System and explain them
7. Explain in detail the evolution of Operating System
8. What are the system components of an operating system and explain them
9. Explain Serial processing Vs Simple Batch processing
10. Define the following :
11. Time sharing System, 2. Distributed System, 3. Real time systems
UNIT II
12. Explain pre-emptive scheduling algorithms?
13. Write short notes on the following
A) Round robin scheduling algorithm
B) Multilevel feedback queue scheduling algorithm
C) FCFC scheduling algorithm
14. What is meant by deadlock? What are the techniques to handle the deadlock?
15. Explain deadlock avoidance? Explain Banker’s algorithm with suitable examples?
16. Explain
A) Threads
B) Interprocess Communication
17. Explain the states of process along with state transition diagram.
18. Explain deadlock and necessary conditions for deadlock occurrence along with an example.
19. Four processes P1 , P2 , P3 and P4 are arriving at times T0, T1, T2, and T3 respectively and their bust
times are 2,3,2 and 1. Find the average waiting time and average turn around time if FCFS is used as the
scheduling algorithm?
20. What is a Process? Explain the Process Control Block and the various Process States.
21. Explain Process creation and Process Termination in detail
22. What are the various process scheduling concepts?
23. Explain about Inter process communication
24. Write about the various CPU Scheduling Algorithms.
25. Explain the classical problem on Synchronization.
26. Give a detailed description about Deadlocks and its Characterization
27. . Explain about the methods used to Prevent Deadlocks
28. Write in detail about Deadlock Avoidance.
UNIT III
1. Explain page replacement algorithms in detail?
2. Explain
A) Paging
B) Segmentation
3. What you mean by virtual memory? Explain demand paging?
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4. Compare contiguous and noncontiguous memory allocations?
5. Explain in detail about address binding?
6. Explain simple paging in detail?
7. Explain the concept of Virtual memory.
8. Explain the concept of Paging
9. Explain about Segmentation in detail
10. Explain about Page replacement in detail
UNIT IV
1. What you mean by device management? Explain the techniques for device management?
2. Explain the allocation methods of a file system?
3. Explain the file system structure? Explain the layers of a file system with neat diagram?
4. If the requests are 98, 183, 77, 122, 14, 124 65 and 67(track numbers/cylinder numbers), then find the
total number os seeks in the following cases.
a.
If FCFS algorithm is used
b.
If Shortest seek time next algorithm is used
c.
If SCAN is used
5. Explain in detail about different methods to manage free space in memory
6. Explain File System Structure in detail
7. Discuss the File System Organization
8. Explain about the File System Implementation.
9. Explain about various Allocation Methods.
10. Explain the allocation methods for disk space?
11. What are the various methods for free space management?
12. Write notes about device management
13. Explain about the Techniques used for device management
UNIT V
1. Write a shell script which would receive any number of file names as arguments the shell script
should check whether such files already exit. If they do, it should be reported. If the file does not
exist, then check if a sub directory called mydir exists in the current directory. If it does not exist
it should be created in the file supplied as arguments should get created.
2. Explain the conditional and looping statements of UNIX?
3. Discuss about the UNIX file system in detail.
4. Discuss briefly about Memory Management in UNIX.
5. Explain:
A) Windows NT
B) Mobile OS
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SDC4IT14- Advanced Computer Networks
Syllabus
Unit 1 (15 Hours)
Introduction - TCP/IP Architecture, TCP/IP addressing, services, FTP, SMTP, TFTP, SNMP,
Network file system, domain name system.
Unit 2 (15 Hours)
Transport layer protocols, user datagram protocol, transmission control protocol, Inter process
communications: File and record locking, pipes, FIFO’s, stream and messages, message
queues, semaphores.
Unit 3 (15 Hours)
Sockets: Sockets system cells, reserved parts, stream pipes, socket option, asynchronous I/O,
Sockets and signals.
Unit 4 (15 Hours)
Wireless and Mobile networks – Wireless - Wireless links – characteristics – IEEE 802.11
wireless LANs (wi-fi) - Cellular Internet Access - mobility – principles – higher levels
Principles - addressing and routing to mobile users - Mobile IP - Handling mobility in cellular
networks - Mobility and higher layer protocols – Elements of a wireless network –
comparison with wired networks - IEEE802.11 Wireless LAN - IEEE802.11a, b, g –
architecture of IEEE802.11 – IEEE 802.11: multipleaccess - Collision Avoidance RTS-CTS exchange – IEEE 802.11 frames – mobility within same subnet – 802.15 – personal
area network.
Unit 5 (15 Hours)
Emerging wireless and mobile technologies - Wireless Technology - Bluetooth, 3G, WiMax,
Mobile Technology- GSM, CSMA, CDMA, GPRS, VSAT & GPS, Triband / Broadband
Technology – NET, Leased lines, ISDN - 4G Systems:
IPbased Mobile Telecommunications.
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SDC4IT14- Advanced Computer Networks
PART A
Very short Answer Question (1 Mark)
UNIT 1
1. What protocol is used by TCP for flow control?
2. What ARQ protocol is used in TCP?
3. Is it true that to maintain communication reliability, TCP send negative acknowledgment on receiving
error data?
4. ___________ timer is used by TCP during connection terminations.
5. Which is the default port number used by http?
6. Which transmission protocol send data as byte-stream?
7. Which of the following services use TCP?
1. DHCP 2. SMTP 3. HTTP 4. TFTP 5. FTP
a) 1 and 2 b) 2,3 and 5 c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1,3 and 4
8. What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model?
a) Application
b) Host-to-Host
c) Internet
d) Network Access
9. Which protocol you will use to automate IP configuration including subnet masking, gateway and
DNS?
10. You are asked to evolve a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your Organization. How many network
numbers (subnet number) must you allow when you design the network for your organization?
a) One subnet for each Host
b) One for each subnet, one for each WAN connection
c) One for each network card
d) One for each WAN connection only
11. A port address in TCP/IP is __________ bits long.
12. UDP and TCP are both __________ layer protocols.
13. Can private IP address be routed?
14. How are private IP addresses handled on the Internet?
15. All of the procedures in the NFS protocol are assumed to be:
a) synchronous b) asynchronous
16. NFS is supported normally on:
a) UDP b) TCP
17. How to check if smtp is working from command line?
18. one-way communication from an SNMP agent to manager is known as ______.
19. A _______ is a SNMP message sent from one application from a remote host to another.
20. Which is the port TFTP works on?
21. Is TFTP is a secure protocol?
22. An IPv4 address is
bit long?
a) 32 b) 64 c) 16 d)52
23. There are
types of notations for an ipv4 addresses?
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a) three b) four c) one d) two
24. Ipv4 address space divided into -------- classes ?
a) five b) three c) two d) six
25. The leftmost bit of class A address will be?
a) 0 b)10 c)110 d)1110
26. The leftmost bit of class B address will be?
a) 0 b)10 c)110 d)1110
27. The leftmost bit of class C address will be?
a) 0 b)10 c)110 d)1110
28. What is the base of dotted decimal notation?
a) 10 b)2 c)100 d)256
29. FTP stand s for a) File transfer protocol b) function transfer protocol c)fire transfer protocol
30. SMTP stands for a) simple mail transfer protocol b) same mail transfer protocol c) similar mail
transfer protocol
31. TCP stands for …………………..
32. FTP stands for …………………...
33. SMTP stands for …………………
34. TFTP stands for ………………….
35. SNMP stands for …………………
36. DNS is the full form of?
a). Domain Name System
b). Domain Name Server
c). Domain Name Services
d). Domestic Net System
37. What you mean by NFS
UNIT II
38. UDP stands for
a)user datagram packet b)up datagram packet c) user data program d) user data protocol
39. UDP is a --------- layer protocol
40. a)transport layer b) physical layer c) data link layer d) sessional layer
41. Following unix system call is used to open a message queue to access it.
a) msgget() b) msgsnd() c) msgrcv() d) msgctl()
42. Message queues are created in
a) user space b) kernel space c) both d) none
43. Advantage of FIFO over pipe is
b) Related processes can communicate b) Unrelated processes can communicate c) a&b d) None
44. The IPC methods supported by UNIX system are
c) messages b) shared memory c) semaphores d) All
45. Which is the fastest form of IPC
(a) Shared memory (b) Semaphore (c) FIFO & Pipe (d) Message queue
46. The maximum number of semaphore allowed per set is defined by
(b) SEMMNI (b) SEMMNS (c) SEMMSL (d) SEMOPM
47. FIFOs are also known as
a) named Pipes b) unnamed Pipes c) unanimous Pipes d) structured Pipes
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48. Which system call is made to create a FIFO?
49. Which signal will generate on writing to a not opened FIFO?
50. Will it block if write to a full PIPE?
51. What is the record boundary for a stream?
52. Which function is called to initialise a Message Queue?
53. Which system function converts a filename to a key value that is unique within the system?
54. “By default, open() call to a FIFO will block.” Is the statement it true?
55. Write a single line command to sent directory information to printer.
56. Transport layer address is specified with the help Port number in the range of ______ and
________.
57. Which port number user by UDP returns date and time?
58. Which port number user by UDP returns a quote of the day?
59. Which port number user by UDP returns active users?
60. Which port number user by UDP for Domain Name Service?
61. Which port number user by UDP for TFTP service?
62. Which port number user by UDP for Remote Procedure Call?
63. Which port number user by UDP for Network Time Protocol?
64. How many bits are used to specify transport layer address?
65. What is the range of port numbers defined by IANA as Dynamic Ports?
66. What is the range of port numbers defined by IANA as Registered Ports?
67. Does IPC allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions using the same address
space?
68. Is it true that messages sent by a IPC are to be fixed in size?
69. What does the sending process will do after sending a message in a non blocking IPC system?
70. A queue referred to as a message system with no buffering is known as _________ queue.
71. Which system routine is called to create FIFOs?
72. Is FIFO is the unidirectional data stream?
73. Is PIPE is the unidirectional data stream?
74. Can a semaphore can be accessed from multiple processes?
75. Which are the two kinds of Semaphores?
76. What you mean by UDP?
77. What you mean by TCP?
78. What you mean by Semaphore?
79. What you mean by Pipes?
80. TCP stands for …………………..
UNIT III
81. Which system function is called to create a socket?
82. List the types of Internet Socket.
83. Datagram socket rely on ________.
84. ___________ sockets are connection oriented.
85. ___________ socket relay on TCP
86. In ___________ socket connection is unreliable.
87. What is a blocking socket?
88. Is it possible to force a socket to send the data in its buffer?
89. Which system routine is to be called to get port number of a given service?
90. What system call you will make if your application has to accept data from more than one socket
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at a time (select(), poll())
91. What does a socket consists of?
92. The end point of a connection of computer network is?
a) socket b) switch c) bridge d) gateway
93. The combination of ip address and a port number forms
a) socket address b)socket number c) socket identifier d)socket data
94. A socket is referred to a unique integer value called?
a) ip address b)socket address c) socket id d)socket descriptor
95. socket concept is used in
a)transport layer b) physical layer c) datalink layer d) sessional layer
96. Communication between local and remote sockets are called
a)socket pairs b)socket stream c) socket state
97. The system call that associates an address to a socket descriptor created by socket.
a)bind b ) nice c)fork d)call
98. the socket used for connection oriented communication?
a) stream sockets b)socket pair c)datagramsocket d)socket descriptor
99. the socket used for connectionless communication?
100. a) datagram sockets b)socket pair c)socket stream d)socket descriptor
101. List any 3 socket options?
102. What you mean by reserved ports?
103. What you mean by signals?
104. What you mean by streams?
105. What you mean by sockets?
UNIT IV
106. Cells having the same set of frequencies, called __________ cells.
107. “A low reuse factor is better.” State true or false.
108. What is the maximum number of callers in each cell in a GSM?
109. IEEE 802.11 defines the _________ and _________ layers of ISO Model.
110. Which are the media that can be used for transmission over wireless LANs?
111. IR signals cannot penetrate opaque objects. State true or false?
112. Does IR systems share spectrum with the sun?
113. List the types of Radio frequency systems spread spectrum technology?
114. RadioLAN is an example of Radio frequency systems spread spectrum technology. State true or
false.
115. The signal resistant to interference is _________ proportional to the spreading ratio.
116. Band width available to users is __________ proportional to the spreading ration.
117. IEEE 802.11 standard requires a spreading ratio value of _____.
118. The geographic area covered by a BSS is known as ________.
119. In IEEE 802.11 carrier sensing is performed in two levels known as _________ and _________.
120. Name the MAC layer security system specified by IEEE 802.11.
121. Initial cost of wireless LAN can be ____________ than the cost of wired LAN
122. hardware.
123. In DSSS, a random binary string is used to modulate the transmitted signal. This
124. random string is called the _______________.
125. 18. In DSSS, the data bits are mapped to into a pattern of "chips" and mapped back
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126. into a bit at the destination. The number of chips that represent a bit is
127. the____________.
128. IEEE 802.16 standard is also known as __________.
129. Define Independent BSS (IBSS).
130. When AP in a BSS, it is called __________ BSS.
131. Two fundamental operations are associated with Location Management are ________ and
_________.
132. What is the maximum number of callers in each cell in a GSM?
133. What is the access point (AP) in wireless LAN?
a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
b) wireless devices itself
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
134. In wireless ad-hoc network
a) access point is not required
b) access point is must
c) nodes are not required
d) none of the mentioned
135. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA
c) ALOHA
d) none of the mentioned
136. In wireless distribution system
a) multiple access point are inter-connected with each other
b) there is no access point
c) only one access point exists
d) none of the mentioned
137. 5. . Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.
a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
138. 6. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN.
a) collision detection
b) Acknowledgement of data frames
c) multi-mode data transmission
d) none of the mentioned
139. 7. 10. What is WPA?
a) wi-fi protected access
b) wired protected access
c) wired process access
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d) wi-fi process access
140. 8. What is the frequency range of IEEE 802.11a standard?
a)2.4 Gprs
b)5 Gprs
c) 2.4 Ghz
d)5 Ghz
141. What you mean by wireless links?
142. Wi-Fi stands for …………………
143. What you mean by collision avoidance?
144. What you mean by mobility within same subnet?
145. PAN stands for …………………..
UNIT V
146. The orbits of communication satellite can be categorized into three types as ________, _________
and ________.
147. Bluetooth wireless technology is developed for ____________ Network.
148. On which OSI layer the Mobile IP are performed?
149. 'ISDN support voice and data transmitted one at a time.' State true or false.
150. The two basic types of ISDN are __________ and __________.
151. Name the algorithm used to schedule transmission after collision.
152. Is it true that MACAW is commonly used in ad-hoc network?
153. Which are the sub divisions of IEEE802.11 that defines Wi-Fi.
154. In which frequency ZigBee works?
155. How many devices can be connected together in Bluetooth technique?
156. What is the maximum speed that Bluetooth can manage?
157. What is the data rate provided by WiMAX?
158. Interference caused by signals bouncing off of walls and other barriers and arriving at the receiver at
different times is called ____kkk ______ interference.
159. Two or more BSS's are interconnected using a _________.
160. Entry to the DS is accomplished with the use of_________.
161. Which are the two types of BSS?
162. Technique used by stations to select their access points is known as ________.
163. Which are the two level of carrier sensing is performed In IEEE 802.11.
164. What is Point coordination IFS?
165. What is Distributed IFS?
166. WiMAX stands for
a) wireless maximum communication
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
d) none of the mentioned
167. 2. WiMAX provides
a) simplex communication
b) half duplex communication
c) full duplex communication
d) none of the mentioned
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168. . WiMAX uses the
a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) time division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) all of the mentioned
169. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for
a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
170. Bluetooth uses
a) frequency hoping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
171. Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth connection is called
a) bluemaking
b) bluesnarfing
c) bluestring
d) none of the mentioned
172. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.
a) 2.4 GHz ISM
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) 2.7 GHz ISM
173. VSAT stands for?
a) Very Small Aperture Terminal.
b) Various small aperture terminal
c) Very simple aperture terminal
d) Very simple application terminal
174. CDMA stands for?
a) code division multiple access
b) collision division multiple access
c) computer division multiple access
d) code design multiple access?
175. GPS stands for?
a)global positioning system
b) genereal positioning system
c) grand positioning system
d) general positioning source
176. GSM stands for …………………..
177. CSMA stands for …………………...
178. CDMA stands for …………………
179. GPS stands for ………………….
180. WiMax stands for …………………
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PART B
Short Answer Question (2 Mark Questions)
UNIT 1
1. How the transmission reliability does is ensured by TCP?
2. What is a socket address?
3. What is the relationship between TCP/IP and Internet?
4. What is the main function of UDP?
5. Why pseudo-header is added to the UDP datagram?
6. How TCP establishes and terminates connection?
7. What kind of paradigm is used by the application layer protocols?
8. Which are the timers used by TCP?
9. What is the use of Persistence timer in TCP?
10. What is the use of Retransmission timer in TCP?
11. What is the use of Keep-Alive timer in in TCP?
12. List the key characteristics of the UDP.
13. What is the role of Port Number in process-to-process delivery?
14. What is slow-start?
15. Explain the handshaking protocol for TCP connection establishment.
16. Explain the handshaking protocol for TCP connection termination.
17. What important networking –troubleshooting tool is part of ICMP, and how does it test a network
connection?
18. When is IGMP used?
19. How does the mount protocol relate to NFS?
20. What is the meaning of return-path, reply-to and from?
21. What Is SMTP Protocol?
22. How SMTP evolved?
23. What is an SMNP Agent?
24. What is MIB?
25. Define SNMP inform?
26. SNMP MIB has an associated Object Identifier. What is its role.
27. Which are the features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?
28. Can TFTP server used in Internet?
29. List the modes of transfer currently supported by TFTP protocol.
30. What is a Name Server?
31. What is the implication of IP address caching of a Domain Name?
32. What is the use of DNS Record?
33. Why DNS is important?
34. What is an internet address?
35. What are the features of FTP?
36. What is DNS?
37. Identify the classes of the following address
a) 227.12.14.87 b)193.14.56.22
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B.Voc Software Development
38. Which are the three types of notations of ip addresses?
39. What is a network mask?
40. Explain sub netting?
41. Services of TCP?
42. Shortly explain FTP ?
43. Shortly explain SMTP?
44. Difference between FTP and TFTP?
45. Shortly explain TFTP
UNIT II
46. What is Inter Process Communication?
47. What precautions need to be taken while building an IPC mechanism?
48. What are the four rules of IPC?
49. What are PIPEs?
50. Compare PIPEs and FILEs?
51. What is deadlock?
52. Distinguish between named and unnamed PIPEs.
53. What is a named PIPE?
54. What is an unnamed PIPE?
55. How deadlock can be overcome?
56. What is mutex?
57. What is the use of semaphore?
58. Compare and contrast named PIPEs and TCPIP Sockets.
59. What is a Remote IPC?
60. List out steps involved in Socket communications?
61. How eXternal Data Representation (XDR) and RPC are related?
62. Explain Message Queue.
63. Describe Shared Memory.
64. What is a Memory Mapped File?
65. How does process synchronisation is achieved?
66. What are SIGNALs?
67. How does FIFO and PIPEs are related?
68. Differentiate Advisory and Mandatory Locking?
69. Explain Record Locking?
70. Differentiate Blocking and Non-Blocking System Calls.
71. Which include file is required for IPC Functions, Key Arguments, and Creation Flags?
72. Define the purpose of a connection oriented protocol. Give an example.
73. What three packets are exchanged between two hosts when establishing a TCP connection?
74. What is the purpose of a sequence number (SEQ=) in TCP data packets?
75. What are Bounded Capacity and Unbounded Capacity queues?
76. Distinguish between File Locking and Record Locking.
77. Why do semaphores are considered as IPC?
78. Differentiate a Semaphore and a Mutex.
79. At a particular time of computation the value of a counting semaphore is 7.Then 20 wait operations
and 15 signal operations were completed on this semaphore. What will be the value of the
semaphore?
80. Which are the two important transport layer protocols?
81. List the tcp congestion control algorithms?
82. Which are the two types of inter process communication?
83. What are the purposes of using inter process communication?
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84. What is synchronization?
85. What is message passing?
86. What is atomic operation?
87. What are pipes? Which are the two types?
88. What are FIFOs?
89. What is message queue?
90. What you mean by Ephemeral port?
91. What you mean by Ports and Sockets?
92. Draw TCP Segment format?
93. What you mean by inter process communication?
94. Explain file locking?
UNIT III
95. Define Socket.
96. What is a stream socket?
97. What is a datagram socket?
98. What is sequential packet socket?
99. What is a row socket?
100. Write the sequence of system calls in stream socket.
101. Write the sequence of system calls in datagram socket.
102. Describe synchronous and asynchronous socket modes?
103. How do you swap between synchronous and asynchronous socket modes?
104. What is the need of system call 'bind'?
105. How do sockets and files are related?
106. How do the select() and poll() system calls deffer?
107. What is out-o-band data?
108. What are the parameters of system call bind()?
109. Why should you use system call shutdown()?
110. What is SSL?
111. Care should be taken while choosing port number for your server socket. Why?
112. What is a port?
113. Define Active Socket?
114. Define Passive Socket?
115. Define bind system call with syntax?
116. What is a socket?
117. What is a socket pair?
118. What is known as raw sockets?
119. Write down two functions of select() system call.
120. What is a stream datapath?
121. What is a stream head?
122. What is stream polling?
123. Which are the two functions for socket option?
124. List any 3 socket calls and explain them?
125. What you mean by reserved ports?
126. Explain socket options?
127. Explain asynchronous I/O?
128. What you mean by sockets?
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B.Voc Software Development
UNIT IV
129. What are mobile stations?
130. What is a Cell?
131. What is a base station?
132. What is a Mobile Switching Centre?
133. What is hand-off?
134. What is location management?
135. What is soft hand-off?
136. What is hard hand-off?
137. What is paging?
138. What is home agent?
139. What is foreign agent?
140. What is reuse factor?
141. What is AMPS and in what way it differs from D-AMPS?
142. What happens when multiple signals collide in CDMA?
143. What is an inner product?
144. IEEE 802.11 is commonly referred to as wireless Ethernet. Why?
145. Distinguish between 'omni-directional' and 'aimed' IR transmissions.
146. What is spreading code?
147. What is spreading ratio?
148. What is multipath interference?
149. What is Basic Service Set (BSS)?
150. What is ESS?
151. Explain the concept of access point (AP) scanning?
152. What is 'WiFi'?
153. What is RTS?
154. What is CTS?
155. What is Distribution System (DS)?
156. Why do the IEEE 802.11 standard states that each station must maintain two variables?
157. What is footprint?
158. Describe Walsh table.
159. In what way FDM differs from FDMA?
160. In what way CDMA differs from FDMA?
161. List two advantages of wireless networking?
162. What is an access pointAP?
163. What are the goals in mind of IEEE 802 committee?
164. What are beacon frames?
165. What you mean by wireless links?
166. Explain Wi-Fi?
167. Characteristics of wireless links?
168. Explain collision avoidance?
169. What you mean by mobility within same subnet?
170. Explain PAN?
171. Explain mobility principles?
UNIT V
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172. Why you need a Geosynchronous satellite?
173. Distinguish between up-link frequency and down-link frequency.
174. What is the foot-print of a satellite?
175. What is dwell-time?
176. What are the topology types used in Bluethooth?
177. List out the components of Mobile IP network.
178. What is Home Agent?
179. What is a Mobile Node?
180. Define Foreign Agent.
181. Do you think it is possible to enable mobility by link-layer?
182. Explain Care-of-Address?
183. What are the two primary functions of tunneling?
184. What is encapsulation?
185. What is the use of reverse tunneling?
186. Explain BRI and PRI in reference to ISDN.
187. Define Broad Band?
188. What is Bone of Contention?
189. What is Fair Usage Poilcy (FUP) in Broad Band?
190. Which are the packages offered in Triband?
191. A leased line is symmetrical in nature. Why?
192. What you know about LiFi?
193. List the features of GiFi.
194. List out the advantages of ZigBee.
195. What are the key features that affects the medium access control in satellite communication?
196. What are the possible VSAT configurations?
197. What is BSS?
198. What is Short IFS?
199. What are the advantages of mobile devices?
200. What are the two main parts of VSAT systems?
201. Which are the two elements in wireless networks?
202. What is 1-persistent method?
203. What is n-persistent method?
204. What is p-persistent?
205. What is CSMA?
206. What is GSM?
207. What is CDMA?
208. What is GPRS?
209. Explain CSMA?
210. Shortly explain 3G?
211. Shortly explain WiMax?
212. Explain IP based Mobile Telecommunications?
213. Explain Bluetooth?
PART C
Short Essay (4 Marks)
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B.Voc Software Development
UNIT 1
1. Explain how TCP provides connection-oriented service
2. Explain how TCP incorporates reliability in internet communication.
3. Explain how DNS allows the use of symbolic names instead of IP address.
4. Explain the use of client-server model for Remote login.
5. Explain the use of client-server model for Mail transfer.
6. Explain the use of client-server model for File transfer.
7. What is piggy-backing?
8. Write a not on timers used by TCP.
9. Explain UDP Datagram format and its fields.
10. Explain the Multiplexing and demultiplexing operations in UDP
11. Describe congestion control mechanism in TCP.
12. Give a brief description of TCP datagram format and its fields.
13. Explain the handshaking protocol for TCP connection establishment and termination.
14. Describe the flow control mechanism in TCP.
15. Describe how a TCP connection is terminated.
16. Describe NFS file system model.
17. Give a note on Server/Client Relationship in NFS.
18. Write a not on NFS.
19. Explain the basic SMTP functions.
20. What is the Simple Network Management Protocol and how is it used?
21. What is the importance of SNMPv3?
22. List and describe the components of SNMP.
23. What is SNMP?
24. Write a note on TFTP.
25. How does TFTP works?
26. Define FTP?
27. Define TFTP?
28. Define NFS?
29. What is DNS? What are the two important aspects of DNS?
30. What is TCP/IP model?
31. Which are the different types of addresses?
32. How can we identify each addresses?
33. Services of TCP?
34. Shortly explain FTP ?
35. Shortly explain SMTP?
36. Difference between FTP and TFTP?
37. Shortly explain TFTP?
UNIT II
38. Write a short note on PIPEs?
39. Explain function lockf().
40. Explain steps involved in setting up a Message Queue.
41. Distinguish between Local and Remote IPC?
42. Which OS command is used to get the list of a system's set of SIGNALs?
43. “Every process in a system can send signals to ever other process.” State True or False.
44. Distinguish between PIPES and FIFO.
45. What is the difference between Mutex and Semaphores?
46. Explain how does UDP allows two applications running in two remote locations communicate.
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B.Voc Software Development
47. State the limitations of UDP.
48. List and explain different types of Queues.
49. Write down the characteristics of IPC.
50. What are the properties of PIPE?
51. What is the need for Semaphore?
52. Explain TCP segment format?
53. Exlpain TCP checksum?
54. What is timout and retransmission?
55. What is sliding window concepts?
56. What is UDP encapsulation?
57. Which are the diff transport layer protocol?
58. What is a semaphore?
59. Give a brief description on UDP datagram format?
60. What is SACK option?
61. What are pipes? explain the properties of pipes?
62. What you mean by Ephemeral port?
63. What you mean by Ports and Sockets?
64. Draw TCP Segment format?
65. What you mean by inter process communication?
66. Explain file locking?
UNIT III
67. Explain Sockets.
68. Describe how a socket is related to a port.
69. List out the types of sockets?
70. Describe the process of socket communication?
71. The mode of communication between two processes is asymmetric in stream socket. Explain.
72. Write algorithm to a client-server stream socket.
73. Write algorithm to a client-server datagram socket.
74. Explain bind system call.
75. Differentiate accept and listen system calls.
76. Give details of structures used in socket.
77. How does multiplexing achieved in socket communication?
78. Write a routine to convert a string to Internet Address?
79. Explain the system calls setsockopt() and getsockopt().
80. List and explain types of sockets?
81. List the various ranges of port numbers and their purpose.
82. What information you need to create a socket.
83. Describe a Socket System Call?
84. List various system calls associated with sockets?
85. Which are the two types of sockets?
86. Which are the important socket options?
87. Which are the reserved ports in sockets?
88. What is known as fast retransmit?
89. What is the acknowledge ambiguity problem?
90. Explain the function of streams with a diagram?
91. List any 3 socket calls and explain them?
92. What you mean by reserved ports?
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93. Explain socket options?
94. Explain asynchronous I/O?
95. What you mean by sockets?
UNIT IV
96. Explain the operation of the first generation cellular network – AMPS
97. Explain the operation of the second generation cellular network
98. Distinguish between first generation and second-generation cellular networks.
99. State the goals of 3G cellular networks.
100. Describe Frequency Reuse Principle.
101. Illustrate reuse factor.
102. How do cell clusters are formed?
103. Describe the steps involved of transmitting and receiving in a cellular network.
104. What is mobility management?
105. Explain hand-off in cellular network?
106. Distinguish between soft hand-off and hard hand-off.
107. Distinguish between home agent and foreign agent.
108. What is the relationship between a base station and a mobile switching center?
109. What are the advantages of Wireless LAN?
110. Describe Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) Scheme?
111. Describe Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)?
112. Distinguish between ad-hoc network and Infrastructure BSS.
113. Explain the Hidden Station Problem.
114. Explain the Exposed Station problem.
115. Describe CSMA-CA.
116. Give the functionality of Link Manager Protocol.
117. Explain Binary Exponential Backoff algorithm.
118. Describe the architecture of IEEE 802.11 standard.
119. Illustrate Inner Product?
120. What is an adhoc network?
121. What is extended service set ESS?
122. What is basic service set BSS?
123. What is DSS?
124. What are the two approaches in mobility?
125. Differentiate between IEEE 802.11 a and IEEE 802.11 b?
126. Define IEEE802.11 g?
127. What you mean by wireless links?
128. Explain Wi-Fi?
129. Characteristics of wireless links?
130. Explain collision avoidance?
131. What you mean by mobility within same subnet?
132. Explain PAN?
133. Explain mobility principles?
UNIT IV
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134. What is GPS?
135. Write a note on GEO Satellites.
136. Write a note on VSAT Systems.
137. Distinguish between footprint and dwell time.
138. Explain the relationship between the Van Allen Belts and the three categories of
139. satellites?
140. What are the key features that affects the medium access control in satellite
141. communication?
142. Distinguish between GPS and GPRS.
143. Write a note on GSM.
144. Explain the forward and backward transmissions in CDMA.
145. Describe Agent Discovery.
146. Explain the Mobile IP registration process?
147. Explain tunneling in relation to Mobile IP.
148. Write a note on ISDN.
149. What you know about LTE?
150. Compare 4G and LTE.
151. Write a note on 4G.
152. Write a note on 3G.
153. Differentiate Dedicated Leased Line and Shared Access.
154. Compare and contrast Packet-switching and circuit-switching.
155. What are the characteristics of ZigBee?
156. What is frequency hopping technique?
157. What you know about Iridium System?
158. What you know about The Teledesic System?
159. Write a note on GPS satellite-based navigation system.
160. Distinguish VSAT implementation approaches of One-way, Split two-way and two-way.
161. Explain Binder's Scheme.
162. Summarise the steps in volved in CSMA/CA.
163. Which are the benefits of WIMAX?
164. Explain Bluetooth technology in short?
165. What are leased lines?
166. What are different standards in mobile internet?
167. What is GSM?
168. What is the purpose of GPS?
169. What is VSAT?
170. Explain three persistent methods in CSMA?
171. Explain TDMA?
172. Explain FDMA?
173. Explain CSMA?
174. Shortly explain 3G?
175. Shortly explain WiMax?
176. Explain IP based Mobile Telecommunications?
177. Explain Bluetooth?
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PART D
Essay (15 Marks)
UNIT 1
1. Distinguish between TCP and UDP.
2. Explain in detail the transmission reliability mechanism in TCP?
3. Write a brief note of TCP.
4. Write a note on data communication and communication reliability offered by TCP.
5. Illustrate the working of DNS.
6. Explain in detail the TCP/IP architecture.
7. Explain SMTP in detail?
8. What is NFS? How NFS implementation is done in TCP/TP?
9. Difference between FTP and TFTP?
10. Shortly explain TFTP?
UNIT II
11. List out and explain the IPC mechanisms.
12. Explain PIPEs in detail.
13. Describe Semaphores?
14. Write a FIFO based talk program.
15. Write a program to create a Message Queue and a program to read messages from the queue.
16. Write a brief note on UDP.
17. Explain TCP segment format?
18. Explain UDP? Give a brief description of format of UDP message
19. Draw TCP Segment format and explain it?
20. What you mean by inter process communication?
21. Explain file locking?
UNIT III
22. Create a socket program in C or C++ or Java to communicate simple messages between two
computer systems.
23. Write a program to create a socket server to serve multiple clients (a maximum of 20 clients – use
mutex/semaphore) simultaneously.
24. Describe socket, socket data structures and use of system calls.
25. Explain TCP segment format?
26. Explain UDP? Give a brief description of format of UDP message
27. Explain the socket system calls for connection oriented communication in detail?
28. Explain the socket system calls for connectionless communication in detail
29. List any socket calls and explain them?
30. What you mean by reserved ports?
31. Explain asynchronous I/O?
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UNIT IV
32. . Explain the operation of Cellular Telephone networks.
33. Compare and contrast FDMA, TDMA and CDMA techniques.
34. Identify the need, limitations and challenges of wireless LAN.
35. Give a detailed description of the frame format of the IEEE 802.11.
36. Write a short note on IEEE 802.11 extensions IEEE 802.11b, IEEE 802.11a, IEEE and 802.11g.
37. Explain the frame format of MAC?
38. Explain 802.11 architecture?
39. Explain Wi-Fi?
40. Explain collision avoidance?
41. What you mean by mobility within same subnet?
42. Explain mobility principles?
UNIT V
43. Explain working of the Mobile IP.
44. Write a note on the emerging wireless technology such as WiFi, LiFi, GiFi, ZigBee,Bluetooth,
WiMAX and RFID.
45. Give a comparative study on mobile technologies such as GSM, CSMA, CDMA, GPRS, VSAT and
GPS.
46. Explain the Topology of Wireless Lan.
47. Explain the layered architecture of 4G?
48. Explain the functioning of CSMA/CD in detail?
49. Explain CSMA?
50. Shortly explain 3G?
51. Shortly explain WiMax?
52. Explain IP based Mobile Telecommunications?
53. Explain Bluetooth?
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SDC4IT 15 (P)- Networking & OS Lab
Syllabus
Networking Lab
1.
Setting up Intranet Services
a. Network File System (NFS)
b. Network Information Service (NIS)
c. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol(DHCP)
d. Samba printing
e. Web server.
2.
Configuring PC as a network router
3.
Setting up a wireless network
a. Infrastructure
b. Ad hoc
4.
5.
Network Address Translation (NAT) protocol - setup a fire wall on a router
Configuring a thin client configuration – Ubunutu LTSP
6.
Configuring PC as a Remote Access Server (RAS)
7.
Determination of IP address classes
8.
IP address setting and Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)
9.
10.
Network protocol analysis – capturing and analyzing TCP, UDP, IP, ICMP and ARP packets.
Connecting two LANs using a router
11.
Socket programming (Java/C/Python)
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B.Voc Software Development
OS Lab
1. Essential Linux commands, Processes in Linux, process fundamentals, connecting processes with
pipes, redirecting input/output, Background processing, managing multiple processes, changing
process priority, scheduling of processes. Batch commands, kill, ps, who, sleep. Printing commands,
find, sort, touch, file, file processing commands - wc, cut, paste etc - mathematical commands - expr,
factor etc. Creating and editing files with vi & joe editors
2. System administration - Common administrative tasks, identifying administrative files– configuration
and log files, Role of system administrator, Managing user accounts-adding & deleting users, changing
permissions and ownerships, Creating and managing groups, modifying group attributes, Temporary
disabling of user’s accounts, creating and mounting file system, checking and monitoring system
performance - file security & Permissions, becoming super user using su. Getting system information
with uname, host name, disk partitions & sizes, users, kernel - Backup and restore files,
reconfiguration of hardware with kudzu, installing and removing packages with rpm command
3. Shell programming - Understanding shells, various types of shell available in Linux, shell programming
in bash, Conditional and looping statements, case statement, parameter passing and arguments,
Shell variables, system shell variables, shell keywords, Creating Shell programs for automating system
tasks.
4. Simple filter commands – pr, head, tail, cut, paste, sort, uniq, tr - Filter using regular expressions –
grep, egrep, and sed.
5. Configuring X-windows desktop - Redhat configuration - Xfree86, understanding XF86config file,
starting & using X desktop. KDE & GNOME graphical interfaces, changing X settings
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B.Voc Software Development
Networking Lab
1. Setup an NFS server in Ubuntu/Redhat/CentOS and test the NFS service from remote
machine.
2. Setup DHCP service in Windows 2003 or higher platform.
3. Setup a Samba Print Service in Linux and access the service from remote machine.
4. Setup http service in Linux platform. Enable PHP/MySQL feature to it and test the http
service.
5. Setup a proxy server under Linux platform. Limit maximum download file size to 2 MB.
6. Setup infrastructural / ad hoc wireless network and test the service.
7. Use a router to provide Internet service to local network. Setup firewall in the router to block
incoming connections to port number 8080.
8. Configure Linux LTSP server to setup a thin-client LTSP environment.
9. Setup RAS in Windows platform.
10. Setup two network with 192.168.5.x and 192.168.6.x. Use a router to connect the distinct
network and test the connection between them.
11. Build a packet capturing application and test for UDP and TCP packets.
12. Build a Message Queue client-server program to send data to queue and read from it.
13. Build a socket client-server system in C/C++/Java to receive message from client and
acknowledged by server by send the number of words the server received in the message.
14. Setting up Intranet Services
15. Network File System (NFS)
16. Network Information Service (NIS)
17. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol(DHCP)
18. Samba printing
19. Web server.
20. Configuring PC as a network router
21. Setting up a wireless network
22. Infrastructure
23. Ad hoc
24. Network Address Translation (NAT) protocol - setup a fire wall on a router
25. Configuring a thin client configuration – Ubuntu LTSP
26. Configuring PC as a Remote Access Server (RAS)
27. Determination of IP address classes
28. IP address setting and Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)
29. Network protocol analysis – capturing and analyzing TCP, UDP, IP, ICMP and ARP packets.
30. Connecting two LANs using a router
31. Socket programming (Java/C/Python)
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B.Voc Software Development
OS Lab
1. Create 3 blank files in your home directory. List all the files in your home directory. Identify
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
the permissions for each files or directories.
Start a Sleep process in background for 500 seconds. Find if the pid of it and terminate the
process.
Start a Sleep process in background; change its process priority to 7.
Schedule to run command 'ls -la' at 3 and 5 minutes from now. See if the jobs are scheduled.
Remove the job schedule to run at 5 minutes future.
Display the listing of all the files and directories in the directory /. The listing should display
the file permissions and file names only.
Enter the text below using vi/vim editor and find the number of words, lines and characters
in the text, copy and paste the first paragraph at the last of the text and find all the lines
having the word 'the':
a. But I must explain to you how all this mistaken idea of denouncing of a pleasure and praising
pain was born and I will give you a complete account of the system, and expound the actual
teachings of the great explorer of the truth, the master-builder of human happiness. No one
rejects, dislikes,
2. or avoids pleasure itself, because it is pleasure, but because those who do not know how to
pursue pleasure rationally encounter consequences that are extremely painful.
a. Nor again is there anyone who loves or pursues or desires to obtain pain of itself, because it
is pain, but occasionally circumstances occur in which toil and pain can procure him some
great pleasure.
7. Change the IP address of machine A to 192.168.5.11 and machine B to 192.168.5.12 using
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command line only. Test if they can communicate.
Create two users 'luser1' and 'luser2'. Create password for both the users. Create a blank file
and assign the ownership to luser1. Change the write permission to owner only. Try to edit
and save the file using the login of luser2. Document the result. Change the permission to
allow luser2 to write into the files. Try to edit and save the file using the credentials of luser2
and document the result.
Create a group 'luser'. Create a user luser3. Add user luser3 to the luser group.
Create a partition from the free space of the HDD. Create ext3 file system to the partition and
mount it to '/home/newpart'
Find most CPU resource using processes in real-time. Also find the most Memory resource
using processes.
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B.Voc Software Development
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Get details of current CPU, IO, processes, and memory usage.
Get CPU, device, and network file system utilisation in single line commands
Get memory statistics for bot main and virtual memory.
Use sar command to get device and memory statistics redirected into a log file. Document the
result.
Find, using command uname, basic system information including kernal name, kernel
release, kernal version, processor type, hardware platform, and OS.
Backup files and directories in you home directory into a gzip file. Create a directory named
'restored' under your home directory. Restore the contents of the gzipped file into this
directory.
Write a shell script that takes in as argument a filename and displays its modification date
and time.
Write a script that takes in an integer as input and
1. if the integer is greater than 10 multiply it by 5
2. if it is smaller than three multiply by 20
3. if it is equal to 10 display error message.
Write a shell script to accept a string from user and check whether the string is a palindrome
or not.
Write a shell script to accept a sentence and display number of words and characters in the
string.
Write a shell script to accept a string and reverse it.
Write a shell script to accept an email id and verify if id format is a valid one.
Write a shell script to accept student name, batch number and class. Append the details to a
text file. Attributes are to be separated by semicolon.
Write a shell script to accept any number of real numbers and find the sum of them.
Write a shell script to display content of a file from a give line number up to a given line
number.
Write a shell script to create a menu driven interface for arithmetic operations of addition,
deduction and multiplication having following menu options:
a) add
b) deduct
c) multiply
d) exit
Write a shell script to display first ten elements of the Fibonacci series of numbers.
Write a shell script which accepts two file names as arguments to copy file in argument one
to file in argument two.
Write a shell script that accept one or more file names as argument and convert all of them to
uppercase, provided they exist in current directory.
To implement various commands – cat, pwd ,cd ,ls ,mv ,cp , mkdir ,rmdir touch, rm, more,
less, cal.
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B.Voc Software Development
32. Write a shell script that reads a filename from the user and check if the file has write permission
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and if so ask the user to append some data to the file. If the file does not have written
permission make the file writable and append data to the file.
Write a shell script that accept username and report if user logged in.
Write a shell script which would receive any number of file names as arguments the shell script
should check whether such files already exit. If they do, it should be reported. If the file does
not exist, then check if a sub directory called mydir exist in the current directory.If it does not
exist it should be created in the file supplied as arguments should get created.
Write a shell script that prompts the user to enter a number and displays appropriate messages
if the number is positive or negative.
Write a shell script that reads two strings and displays appropriate message if the strings are
equal.
Write a shell script that reads two numbers and perform all arithmetic operation on it.
Write a shell script that reads two file names it should check whether the two file contents are
same or not. If they are same, the second file should deleted.
Write a shell script program to find factorial of a number.
Write a shell script program to implement statement where the options are –c,-d,-l,-u options
should work as
-c –clear the screen
-d –current working directory
-l –list of all files in the current working directory
-u –login name of the user.
11. Write a shell script program to remove the space with line feeds in the data of a file and
sort it in reverse order.
There is a file called word file which consists of several words. You have to write a shell script
which will receive a list of file names. The script should report all occurrences of each word
file in the rest of the file supplied as arguments.
The file /etc/passwd contain information about all users. Write a shell script which would
receive the logname during execution,obtain information about it from /etc/passwd and display
this information on the screen is easily understandable form.
Write a shell script which reports the names and sizes of all files in a directory whose size is
exceeding 1000bytes. The file name should be printed in descending order of their size. The
total number of such file s should also be printed.
Write a shell script program to take a string as command line and find the reverse of that
string.
Write a shell script program to swap the contents of 2 files and then concatenate the contents
and sort the data in any order.
Create a file with the following contents
Veena Nair
Jose Thomas
Ahmed P
Gopi menon
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B.Voc Software Development
56. Prakash Raj
57. Write a shell script program that will read this file and simulate creating new users. The
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username created should have the from Veena_n (first name_first character of last name).
Sort the file before creating the users.
Create a data file called employee in the format given below.
$vi employee
A001
Arjun
E1
01
12000.00
A006
Anand E1
01
12450.00
A010
Brajesh
E2
03
14500.00
A002
Mohan E2
02
13000.00
A005
johnsmith
E2
01
14500.00
A009
Danailsmith E2
04
17500.00
A004
Williams
E1
01
12000.00
Display all the records with employee name starting with ‘B’.
Display the records on employees whose grade is E2 and have work experience of 2 to 5
years.
Store in ‘file 1’the names of all employees whose basic pay is between 10000 and 15000.
19. Write a program that reads each line of a target file, then writes the line back to std out,
but with an extra blank line following. This has the effect of a double spacing the file, include
all necessary command line argument and whether the specified file exists when the script runs
correctly, modify it to triple space the target file. Finally, write a script to remove all blank
lines from the target file, single spacing it.
20. Write a shell script program to find the position of substring in a given array.
21. Write a shell script program to display the alternative digits in a given 7 digit number
starting from the first digit.
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