HAVE CONTROL → HAVE PATIENCE→
HAVE CONFIDENCE
ा
= 100 % SUCCESS
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Semi Major Test # 11 DATE :29/01/2017
Time Management is Life Management
Yours Target is to secure Good Rank in
Pre-Medical
/
Engineering
–
2017
Physics
→ Wave Theory
Chemistry
→ Nomenclature
→ Isomerism
Biology
→ Human Endocrine System
→ Photosynthesis
→ Cell Cycle
1. A wave is represented by the equation :
y = 7 sin 7
0.04
Where, x is in meters and t in seconds. The
speed of the waves is :(1) (175 π) m/s
(2) (49 π) m/s
(3) (49/π)m/s
(4) (0.28π) m/s
2. A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz produces 10
beats per second when sounded with a vibrating
sonometer string. What must have been the
frequency of the string if a slight increase in tension
produces fewer beats per seconds than before ?
(1) 460 Hz
(3) 480 Hz
(2) 470 Hz
(4) 490 Hz
3. The equation of a plane progressive wave is
y = 0.09 sin 8π
When it is reflected at rigid supports, its
amplitude becomes (2/3)rd of its previous value.
The equation of the reflected wave is :
(1) y = 0.09sin 8π
(2) y = 0.06sin 8π
(3) 6.28 sec.
(4) 12.56 sec.
6. A motorcycle starts from rest and acclerates
along a straight path at 2 m/s2. At the starting
point of the motorcycle there is a stationary
electric siren. How far has the motorcycle gone
when the driver hears the freuqency of the siren
at 94% of its value when the motorcycle was at
rest ?
(Speed of sound = 330 m/s–1)
(1) 49 m (2) 98 m (3) 147 m (4) 196 m
7. If a simple pendulum of length l has maximum
angular displacement θ, then the maximum
kinetic energy of the bob of mass m is
(1)
(2)
(3) mgl(1 – cos θ)
(4) (1/2) mgl sin θ
8. Tunning fork of frequency 90Hz is sounded and
moved towards an observer with a velocity equal
to one-tenth the velocity of sound, the note heard
by the observer will have a frequency in Hz.
(1) 100
(2) 90
(3) 80
(4) 900
9. The ratio of electric flux through surfaces S1 and
S2 is:
(3) y = 0.06sin 8π
(4) y = – 0.06sin 8π
4. The vibrations of four air columns of same
length are represented in figure. The ratio of
frequencies np : nq : nr : ns is:
(1) 1 : 1
(2) –3 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) –1 : 3
10. The ratio of q and Q so as to make the system in
equilibrium is :
(1) 12 : 6 : 3 : 4
(3) 4 : 2 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
(4) 6 : 2 : 3 : 4
5. If the maximum velocity and maximum
acceleration of a particle executing SHM are
equal in magnitude, the time period will be :-
(1) 1.57 sec
(2) 3.14 sec.
(1) 1 : 3
(3) 1 :√3
(2) 1 : √3
(4) None of these
11. Two identical small balls, each of mass m and
charge q are suspended by two light inelastic
non-conducting threads each of length l from the
same fixed point support. If the distance d
between two balls is very less, then d is equal to(1)
(3)
⁄
⁄
(2)
⁄
(4) None of these
12. Two charges +q and –q are placed as shown in
figure. The potential difference VA – VB is,
(1) 8
(2) 7
(2)
(3)
(4)
13. In which of the following states the potential
energy of an electric dipole is maximum.
14. Three charges +q, +q and –q are situated in X-Y
plane at the point (0, a); (0, 0); (0, –a). Then the
electric potential at a point whose position
vector makes an angle θwith the Y-axis and
which is at a distance r(r>>a) from the origin is–
(1)
(2)
1
(3)
(4)
1
15. A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe of
same length produce 2 beats when they are set
into vibrations simultaneously in their fundamental mode. The length of the open organ pipe is
now halved and of the closed organ pipe is
doubled; the number of beats produced will be:-
(4) 2
16. An observer is approaching a stationary source
with a velocity 1/4th of the velocity of sound.
Then, the ratio of the apparent frequency to
actual frequency of source is :(1) 4 : 5
(2) 5 : 4
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 2
17. Velocity at mean position of a particle executing
S.H.M. is v, then velocity of the particle at a
distance equal to half of the amplitude
(1) 4v
(1) zero
(3) 4
(2) 2v
(3)
√
v
(4)
√
v
18. Which of the following statements is false–
(1) The wavelength of sound does not depend on
reference frame of observer
(2) Motion of source of sound effects the
wavelength
(3) When source of sound and observer both are
at rest and medium is moving than
wavelength and velocity of sound changes in
equal proportion
(4)When only medium moves from source to
observer, frequency heard by obsever will
be greater than original frequency
19. A car 'A' chasing another car 'B' with a speed of
20m/s sounding a horn of 180Hz. While both cars
are moving towards a stationary siren of frequency170 Hz. What is the speed of car B so that it
can't hear any beat (speed of sound = 340 m/s)
(1) 34 m/s
(2) 22 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) zero
20. A wave travelling along the x-axis is described
by the equation y (x, t ) = 0.005 cos (αx - βt). If
the wavelength and the time period of the
waveare 0.08m and 2.0 s respectively then a and
b inappropriate units are
(1) α = 25.00π, β = π
(3) α
.
,β
.
(2) α
.
,β
(4) α = 12.50π, β =
.
.
21. From the given displacement time graph of an
oscillating particle, find the maximum velocity
of period T and the equation of motion is given by;
of the particle
x = a sin (ωt + π/6)
After the elapse of what fraction of the time
period the velocity of the particle will be equal
to half of its maximum velocity?
(1) T/3
(2) T/12
(3) T/8
(4) T/6
(1) 2 ms–1
(3) 0.2π ms–1
(2) π ms–1
(4) π/2 ms–1
22. Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive
waves given by y1= 4 sin(500πt) and y2= 2
sin(506πt). These tuning forks are held near the
ear of a person. The person will hear α beats/s
with intensity ratio between maxima and minima
equal to β. Find the value of β – α.
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9 (4) 12
23. If Vm is the velocity of sound in moist air, Vd is
the velocity of sound in dry air, under identical
conditions of pressure and temperature :
(1) Vm>Vd
(2) Vm>Vd
(3) Vm = Vd
(4) VmVd =1
24. A source of sound is travelling at 100/3 m /sec
along a road, towards a point A, when the source
is 3 m away from A, a person standing at a point
O on a road at perpendicular position. The
distance of O from A at that time is 4m. If the
original frequency is 640 Hz, then the value of
apperent frequency listen by person is :(speed of sound is 340 m/sec) :-
26. When a wave travels in a medium, the particle
displacement is given by : y = a sin 2π(bt – cx)
where a, b and c are constants. The maximum
particle velocity will be twice the wave velocity if:
(1) c =
(2) c = πa
(3) b = ac
(4) b =
27. The equation of SHM of a particle is given as
2
32
0
where x is the displacement from the mean
position of rest. The period of its oscillation (in
seconds) is
(1) 4
(2)
(3)
(4) 2π
√
28. The length of open organ pipe is L and
fundamental frequency is f. Now it is immersed
into water upto half of its length now the
frequency of organ pipe will be
(1) f
(2) 2f
(3) f/2
(4) 4f
29. The amplitude of a wave represented by
displacement equation :
1
1
sin
cos
√
√
will be :
(1)
√
√
(3)
√
√
(2)
√
(4)
√
√
30. The displacement-time graph of a particle
executing SHM is as.
(1) 620 Hz
(3) 720 Hz
(2) 680 Hz
(4) 840 Hz
25. A particle performs simple harmonic oscillation
(Which of the following statement is wrong)
(1) The force is zero at t = 3T/4
(2) The acceleration is maximum at t = 4T/4
(3) The potential energy is equal to kinetic
energy at t = T/2
(4) The velocity is maximum at t = 3T/4
31. The frequency of a tuning fork is 256 Hz. The
velocity of sound in air is 344 ms–1. The distance
travelled (in meters) by the sound during the
time in which the tunning fork complete 32
vibrations is :
(1) 21
(2) 43
(3) 86
(4) 129
32. Two simple harmonic motions are represented
by the equations y1 = 0.1 sin 100
and
y2 = 0.1 cos 100πt. The phase difference of the
velocity of particle 1 with respect to the velocity
of particle 2 is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
33. The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain
temperature is 460 ms–1. The speed of sound in
helium (He) at the same temperature will be :
(assume both gases to be ideal)
(1) 1420 ms–1
(2) 500 ms–1
–1
(3) 650 ms
(4) 330 ms–1
34. In a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean
position
(1) Kinetic energy is minimum, potential energy is
maximum
(2) Both kinetic and potential energies are maximum
(3) Kinetic energy is maximum, potential energy is
minimum
(4) Both kinetic and potential energies are minimum
35. Equation of progressive wave is given by y = a
sin π
where t is in second and x is in
meter. Then the distance through which the
wave moves is second is :(1) 16 m (2) 8 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 2 m
36. Waves that can not be polarized are
(1) Transverse waves
(2) Longitudinal wave
(3) Light waves
(4) Electromagnetic
37. Velocity of sound in air is 320 m/s. A pipe
closed at one end has a length of 1 m neglecting
and corrections, the air column in the pipe can
resonante for sound of frequency.
(a) 80 Hz
(b) 240 Hz
(c) 500 Hz
(d) 400 Hz
(1) a
(2) a, b
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, d
38. Two tuning fork when sounded together
produces 5 beats per second the first tuning fork
is in resonance with 16.0 cm wire of a
sonometer and second is in the resonance with
16.2 cm wire of the same sonometer the
frequencies of the tuning forks are :
(1) 100 Hz, 105 Hz
(2) 200 Hz, 205 Hz
(3) 300 Hz, 305 Hz
(4) 400 Hz, 405 Hz
39. A man standing between two cliffs claps his
hands and starts hearing a series of echoes at
intervals of 2 s since the speed of sound in air is
340 m/s. The distance between the cliffs muct be
(1) 340 m
(2) 680 m
(3) 1020 m
(4) 170 m
40. A source x of unknown frequency produces 8
beats with a source of 250 Hz and 12 beats with
a source of 270 Hz. The frequency of source x is
(1) 258 Hz
(2) 242 Hz
(3) 262 Hz
(4) 282 Hz
41. Stationary wave is represented by
Y = A sin (100 t) cos (0.01 x) where y and A are
in mm, t in second and x in m. The velocity of
the wave :
(1) 1 m/s
(2) 102 m/s
4
(3) 10 m/s
(4) not derivable
42. Frequency of tuning fork A is 256 Hz. It
produces four beats/s with tuning fork B. When
wax is applied at tuning fork B then 6 beats/s are
heard. By reducing little amount of wax 4
beats/s d are heard. Frequency of B is :
(1) 250 Hz
(2) 260 Hz
(3) 252 Hz
(4) 256 Hz
43. Figure shows the shape of a part of a long are
produced by attaching one end of string to a
tuning fork of frequency 250 Hz. What is the
velocity of the waves?
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Vinylacetylene
50. Choose the correct IUPAC name for
(1) 2-methylhept-6-yn-2-3n3
(2) 2-methylhept-2-2n-6-yne
(3) 6-methyl-5-hepten-1-yne
(4) 6-methylhept-1-yn-5-ene
(1) 1 ms–1
(3) 2 ms–1
(2) 1.5 ms–1
(4) 2.5 ms–1
44. An under water swimmer sends a sound signal
to the surface. It is produces 5 beats/second
when compared with fundamental tone of a pipe
of 20 cm length closed at one what is
wavelength of sound in water.
(take vwater = 1500 m/s vair = 360 m/s)
(1) 3.3 m or 3.37 m
(2) 4.4 m or 4.47 m
(3) 2.5 m or 2.7 m
(4) 1 m or 1.7 m
45. A locomotive engine is approaching a hill with
speed of 30 m/s. It blows whistle of frequency
600 Hz the frequency of the echo of the whistle
as heard by the driver of the engine is vsound =
330 m/s.
(1) 600 Hz
(2) 660 Hz
(3) 720 Hz
(4) 550 Hz
46. The correct IPUAC name for CH3CH2CH2CH3 is
(1) n-Butane
(2) Butane
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None
47. Isobutyl group is a …… alkyl group.
(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Both (1) and (2)
48. Which of the following compound has all the
four types (1o, 2o, 3o and 4o) of carbon atoms?
(1) 2, 3, 4-Trimethylpentane
(2) neo-Pentane
(3) 2, 2, 3-Trimethylpentane
(4) None of the three
(1) 2-chloro-4-ethyl-3-methyl-6-heptyn-2-ene
(2) 6-chloro-4-ethyl-5-methyl-5-hepten-1-yne
(3) 1-chloro-1, 2-dimethyl-3-ethylhex-1-en-5-yne
(4) 1-chloro-3-ethyl-1, 2-dimethylex-1-en-5-yne
52. The IUPAC name for
(1) 2-formylpentanol
(2) 2-methylpentanedial
(3) 2-methyl-4-oxopentanal
(4) 2, 4-diformylbutane
53. The IUPAC name for
(1) 2-ethyl-2-carboxypentanoic acid
(2) 2-carboxy-2-ethylpentanoic acid
(3) 2-propyl-2-ethylpropanedioic acid
(4) 2-ethyl-2-propylpropanedioic acid
54. IUPAC name for the compound
(1) 2-ethyl-1-methylbutanol-2
49. IUPAC name of
(1) 1-butyne-3-ene
51. The correct IUPAC name for
(2) 1-butene-3-yne
(2) diethylmethylmethanol
(3) 1-methyl-1-ethylpropanol
(4) 2-ethylbutanol
55. IUPAC name for the compound
(1)5-bromo-3-carbamoyl-2-chloroformyl-4formylhexanoic acid
(2) 2-bromo-4-carbamoyl-5-chloroformyl-3formylhexanoic acid
(3) 2-chloroformyl-3-carbamoyl-4-formyl-5bromohexanoic acid
(4) 4-formyl-2-chloroformyl-3-carbamoyl-5bromohexanoic acid
56.
(1) 2-Methyl-3-(2’, 4’-dimethylbutyl)cyclohexene
(2) 1-Methyl-6(2’, 4’-dimethylbutyl)cyclohexane
(3) 1-Methyl-2 (2’, 4’-dimethylbutyl)cyclohexane
(4) (1’-methylcyclohexnyl)2, 3-dimethylbutane
57.
(3) 2,3-dichlorocyclohexene
(4) Any of the three
59. The total number of chain isomers for the
compound shown in side is
(1) 2
(2) 4
58.
61. The possible number of isomers for C4H4O4 is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
62. Ketoenoltautomerism is observed in
(1) IV
(3) I, IV
(2) I, III, IV
(4) II, III, IV
63. Which one of the following has most acidic αhydrogen atom?
(2) CH3COCH3
(4) CH3COCH2CHO
64. The hybridization of carbon atoms in C–C single
bond of HC ≡ C – CH = CH2 is
(1) sp3 – sp3
(2) sp2 – sp3
(3) sp – sp2
(4) sp3 – sp
65. The enolic form of acetone contains
(1) 9 σ bonds, 1 π bond and 2 lone pairs
(2) 8 σ bonds, 2 π bonds and 2 lone pairs
(3) 10 σ bonds, 1 π bond and 1 lone pair
(4) 9 σ bonds, 2 π bonds and 1 lone pair
66. Tautomerism is not shown by
The correct IUPAC name for the
structure is :
(1) 1, 2-dichlorocyclohexene
(2) 1, 6-dichlorocyclohexene
(4) 8
60. The number of isomers possible for C4H8 is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
(1) CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH2COOC2H5
(1) 2-methylhexane-1, 5, 6-tricarbonitrile
(2) 5-methylhexane-1, 2, 6-tricarbonitrile
(3) 3-methyl-6-cyanoctane-1, 8-dinitrile
(4) 6-methyl-3-cyanoctane-1, 8-dinitrile
(3) 5
67. Arrange the following structure in decreasing
order of σ to π bond ratio
72. The priority sequence of the alkyl groups is
(1) 1° > 2° >3° > CH3
(2) CH3> 1° > 2° > 3°
(3) 3° > 2° > 1° > CH3
(4) 3° > 2° > CH3 > 1°
73. The configuration of the compounds A and B
respectively are
(1) IV > III > I > II
(3) III = IV > II > I
(2) III > I > II > IV
(4) III = IV > I > II
68. How many cyclic isomers are possible for C5H10?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
69. Which of the following compounds cannot show
tautomerism?
(1) R and R
(3) R and S
(2) S and S
(4) S and R
74. (R)-2-Butanol has the structure as
then the structure for (S)-2-butanol should be
70. Maximum enol content is in
75. Reaction of (–)-lactic acid with methyl alcohol
gives (+)-methyl lactate
71. Compounds A and B are reated as
CH3CH(OH)COOH + CH3OH
CH3CH(OH)COOCH3
(–)-Lactic acid
(+)–Methyl lactate
This reaction involves
(1) Change in observed rotation
(2) Change in configuration
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Recemization
(1) Diastereomers
(2) Confornational isomers
(3) Enantiomers
(4) Same Compound
76. Which of the R/S designation for meso-2,3butanediol is incorrect?
(1) 2R, 3S
(2) 2S, 3R
(3) R, S
(4) None of these
77. Which of the following stereoisomers is meso?
(1) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii)
(2) Only (ii)
(4) All the four
82. Structure written in side, has which of the
following R, S configuration ?
(1) 2(R) – 3(R) –
(2) 2(S) –3(S) –
(3) 2(R) – 3(S) –
(4) 2(S) – 3(R) –
83. Which of the following compounds will exhibit
geometrical isomerism?
(1) 1-Phenyl-2-butene
(2) 3-Phenyl-1-butene
(3) 2-Phenyl-1-butene
(4) 1, 1-Diphenyl-1-propene
84. The following pair of structures are examples of
78. Select the compound which shows cis-trans
isomerism but can’t be named as cis and trans?
(1) 3-Octene
(2) 3-Chloropent-2-ene
(4) 4,5-Dibromo-1-pentene
(3) 1,3-Butadiene
79. A hydrocarbon with the minimum number of
carbon atoms, capable of showing geometric
isomerism as well as optical isomerism is
(1) 3-Methylpentene
(2) 3-methylpentene-2
(3) 4-Methylhexene-2
(4) 4-Methylheptene-3
(1) Same molecule
(3) Diastereomers
(2) Enantiomers
(4) Regiomers
85. The following compounds are :
80. Which of the following statement is true
regarding following structures?
(1) Enantiomers
(3) Identical
(1) I, II and III are identical
(2) I and II are identical, while I and III are
enantiomers
(3) I and III are identical, while I and II are
enantiomers
(4) II and III are identical, while I and II are
enantiomers
81. In which of the following compounds meso form
is possible?
(i) 3, 4-Dibromo-3, 4-dimethylhexane
(ii) 2, 3-Dihydroxybutan-1, 4-dioic acid
(iii) 2, 4-Dibromopentane
(iv) 1, 2, 3, Tribromobutane
(2) Diastereomers
(4) epimers
86. Which of the following represents enantiomeric
pair?
(1) I and II
(3) I and IV
(2) I and III
(4) II and III
87. Which of the following structures can show
geometrical as well as optical isomerism?
88. 2-Methylpenta-2, 3-diene is achiral because it has
(1) A plane of symmetry
(2) A centre of symmetry
(3) a C2 axis of symmetry
(4) both a plane and a centre of symmetry
89. The number of chiral carbon atoms in 1, 2dimethyl-cyclohexane (A) 3-methylcyclohexene
(B) and 4-methylcyclopentene (C) respectively
are
(1) 1, 1, 1
(2) 2, 1, 0
(3) 2, 0, 1
(4) 2, 1, 1
90. Optical isomerism is shown by
(1) Butanol-1
(2) Butanol-2
(3) 3-pentanol
(4) 4-heptanol
91. During photosynthesis, which of the followings
acts as a reservoir for hydrogen ions?
(1) Cristae
(2) Stroma
(3) Thylakoid space
(4) Matrix
92. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in
(1) Chlorobium
(2) Chromatium
(2) Oscillatoria
(4) Rhodospirillum
93. In which type of reactions related to plant
photosynthesis peroxisomes are involved?
(1) Glycolate cycle
(2) Calvin cycle
(3) Bacterial photosynthesis
(4) Glyoxylate cycle
94. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the
formation of
(1) ATP
(2) NADPH
(3) ATP and NADPH
(4) ATP, NADPH and O2
95. Manganese is required in
(1) Chlorophyll synthesis
(2) Nucleic acid synthesis
(3) Plant cell wall formation
(4) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
96. Net yield of aerobic respiration during Krebs’
cycle per glucose molecule is
(1) 2 ATP molecules
(2) 8 ATP molecules
(3) 36 ATP molecules
(4) 38 ATP molecules
97. Who enunciated the law of limiting factor for
photosynthesis?
(1) Robert Emerson
(2) Ruben
(3) Blackman
(4) Calvin
98. The process of photophosphorylation was
discovered by ______
(1) Calvin
(2) Arnon
(3) Priestley
(4) Warburg
99. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was
discovered in photosynthesis of
(1) Alga
(2) Bryophyte
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Angiosperm
100. The end product of the Calvin cycle is ______.
(1) RuBP
(2) PGAL
(3) PGA
(4) ADP + NADP
101. In ______ NADP is converted into NADPH2.
(1) Photolysis
(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Noncyclic photophosphorylation
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation
102. The correct sequence of cell organelles during
photorespiration is
(1) Chloroplast, – peroxisome, – mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast, – vacuole, – peroxisome
(3) Chloroplast, – Golgibodies, – mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast, – Rough endoplasmic reticulum,
– Dictyosomes
103. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more
efficient than C3 plants because
(1) They have more chloroplasts
(2) The CO2 compensation point is more
(3) CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped
and recycled through PEP carboxylase
(4) The CO2 efflux is not prevented
104. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis
duringCO2 fixation occurs in:
(1) Guard cells
(2) Epidermal cells
(3) Mesophyll cells
(4) Bundle sheath
105. Which pigment absorbs the red and far red light?
(1) Cytochrome
(2) Phytochrome
(3) Carotenoids
(4) Chlorophyll
106. In higher plants the shape of the chloroplast is
(1) Discoid
(2) Cup-shaped
(3) Girdle-shaped
(4) Reticulate
107. In C4 plants, the bundle sheath cells
(1) Are rich in PEP carboxylase
(2) Have large intercellular spaces
(3) Have thin walls to facilitate gaseous
exchange
(4) Have a high density of chloroplasts
108. In C3 plants, the first stable product of
photosynthesis during the dark reaction is:
(1) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(2) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(3) Oxaloacetic acid
(4) Malic acid
109. During photorespiration, the conversion of
phosphoglycolate to glycolate takes place in this
cell organelle
(1) Peroxisome
(2) Glyoxysome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast
110. Match the following two lists and select the
most accurate option.
List I
List II
A. Oxygen evolving
I. Potassium
complex ferric oxalate
B. Proton gradient
II. High oxygen
concentration
C. Hill reagent
III. ATP synthesis
D. Photo-respiration
IV. Pheophytin
V. Photolysis of water
(1) A - V, B - III, C - I, D – II
(2) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D – V
(3) A - V, B - I, C - IV, D – II
(4) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D – V
111. In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is
(2) Cytochrome
(1) Plastocyanin
(3) Ferredoxin
(4) An iron sulphur protein
112. Both photosynthesis and respiration require
(1) Chloroplasts
(2) Sunlight
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Cytochromes
113. Bacterial photosynthesis involves
(1) PS I only
(2) PS II only
(3) Both PS I and PS II
(4) Either PS I or PS II
114. A plant with low CO2 compensation point is:
(1) Gossypium hirsutum
(2) Leucopoa kingie
(3) Atriplex patula
(4) Tidestromia Oblongifolia
115. Which one of the following is not true about the
light reactions of photosynthesis?
(1) NADPH is not produced in cyclic electrons
transport in light reactions.
(2) The flow of electrons from water to NADP
in non-cyclic electron transport produces
one ATP
(3) Reactions of the two photosystems are
needed for the reduction of NADP
(4) P680 and P700 are the reaction centres of PS I
an PS II respectively reactions
116. Which of the following statements regarding C4
plants is false?
(1) The primary CO2 acceptor is a 5 carbon
molecule
(2) The initial carboxylation reaction occurs in
mesophyll
(3) The leaves that fix CO2 have two cell types
(4) The mesophyll cells lack RuBisCO enzyme
117. Which of the following is WRONGLY matched?
(1) Sorghum – Kranz anatomy
(2) PEP carboxylase – Mesophyll cells
(3) Blackman – Law of limiting factors
(4) PS II – P700
118. The synthesis of one molecule of glucose during
Calvin cycle requires
(1) 6 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules of
NADPH2
(2) 12 molecules each of ATP and NADPH2
(3) 12 molecules of ATP and 18 molecules of
NADPH2
(4) 18 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules of
NADPH2
119. The pathway that will produce oxygen during
photosynthesis is:
(1) electron transport pathway
(2) noncyclic electron pathway
(3) light-independent reactions
(4) cyclic electron pathway
120. Which one of the following is wrong in relation
to photorespiration:
(1) It is a characteristic of C4 plants
(2) It is a characteristic of C3 plants
(3) It occurs in daytime only
(4) It occurs in chloroplasts
121. Chemiosmosis hypothesis given
Mitchel proposes the mechanism of
(1) Synthesis of NADH
(2) Synthesis of ATP
(3) Synthesis of FADH2
(4) Synthesis of NADPH
by
Peter
122. The ratio between 2-carbon and 3-carbon
intermediates having —NH2 group formed in
photosynthetic oxidation cycle is:
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 3 : 4
123. In CAM plants, CO2 required for photosynthesis
enters the plant body during
(1) Daytime through the lenticels
(2) Night when the hydathodes are open
(3) Daytime when the stomata are open
(4) Night through the stomata which are kept open
124. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in
plant storage organs. Which of the following
five properties of starch (a - e) make it useful as
a storage material?
(a) Easily translocated
(b) Chemically non-reactive
(c) Easily digested by animals
(d) Osmotically inactive
(e) Synthesized during photosynthesis
(1) (a) and (e)
(3) (b) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (c) and (e)
125. Match the phenomenon listed under column I
with those listed under column II. Select the
correct answer from the options given.
Column I
A Warburg
effect
B Pasteur
effect
C Emerson
effect
D Wright
effect
Column II
p Change in gene frequency by
chance
q Postponing severance in the
leaves by applying cytokinin
r Decline in the consumption of
respiratory substrate due to a
change from anaerobic to
aerobic respiration
s Inhibitory effect of O2 on
photosynthesis
t Enhancement of photosynthesis by
subjecting chlorophyll to the effect
two different wavelengths of light
(1) A = s, B = t, C = q, D = r
(2) A = s, B = r, C = t, D = p
(3) A = t, B =s, C = p, D = q
(4) A= t, B = r, C = p, D = s
126. Concentration of the urine is controlled by
______.
(1) MSH
(2) ADH (3) Oxytocin (4) ACTH
127. Damage to thymus in children may lead to
(1) Loss of antibody mediated immunity
(2) Reduction in stem cell production
(3) Reduction of hemoglobin content of blood
(4) Loss of cell-mediated immunity
(1) Pheromone
(3) Androgen
(2) Insulin
(4) Steroid
130. Deficiency of adrenal cortex hormones results in
(1) Tetany
(2) Acromegaly
(3) Addison disease
(4) Cretinism
131. Endemic goitre is a state of
(1) Increased thyroid function
(2) Normal thyroid function
(3) Decreased thyroid function
(4) Moderate thyroid function
132. Glucagon hormone is secreted by the ______.
(1) Thyroid gland
(2) Adrenal gland
(3) Pituitary gland
(4) Pancreas
133. Hormone responsible for the secretion of
milk after parturition
(1) ICSH
(3) ACTH
(2) Prolactin
(4) LH
134. In adults, insufficient thyroxine can lead to
______.
(1) Goiter
(3) Cretinism
(2) Tetany
(4) Myxedema
135. In the body, both the blood sodium and
potassium levels are regulated by _______.
(1) Pheromones
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Cortisol
(4) Androgens
136. In which of the following pairs, the hormone of
endocrine glands and its primary action is
mismatched.
(1) Calcitonin - Lower blood calcium levels
(2) Parathyroid - Raises blood calcium levels
(3) Somatostatin - Inhibits release of glucagon
(4) Melatonin - Regulates the rate of cellular
metabolism
137. Islets of Langerhans are found in
(1) Anterior Pituitary
(2) Kidney Cortex
(3) Spleen
(4) Endocrine pancreas
138. Name the condition when the concentration of
Ketone body increases in urine
(1) Acromegaly
(2) Diabetes mellitus
(3) Diabetes insipidus
(4) Cushing’s disease
128. An enlarged thyroid is the result of ______
deficiency.
(1) Calcium
(2) Iodine
(3) Iron
(4) Phosphorus
139. Pituitary gland known as the 'master' endocrine
gland is under the control of
(1) Pineal gland
(2) Adrenal gland
(2) Hypothalamus
(4) Thyroid gland
129. Chemical signals released by an organism that
influence the behavior of other individuals of the
same species are called ______.
140. Somatostatin
(1) Stimulates glucagon release while inhibits
insulin release
(2) Stimulates release of insulin and glucagon
(3) Inhibits release of insulin and glucagon
(4) Inhibits glucagon release while stimulates
insulin release
141. The endocrine gland which contributes to setting
the body's biological clock is the ______.
(1) Pituitary gland
(2) Thymus gland
(3) Pineal gland
(4) Thyroid gland
142. In human adult females Oxytocin
(1) Causes strong uterine contractions during
parturition
(2) Is secreted by anterior pituitary
(3) Stimulates growth of mammary glands
(4) Stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
143. Match the source gland with its respective
hormone as well as the function
Source
gland
A Thyroid
Hormone
Function
Thyroxine
B Anterior
pituitary
Oxytocin
C Posterior
pituitary
Vasopressin
D Corpus
luteum
Estrogen
Regulates
blood
calcium level
Contraction of uterus
muscles during child
birth
Stimulates resorption
of water in the distal
tubules
in
the
nephron
Supports pregnancy
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
144. Which of the following hormone is chemically
glycoprotein?
(1) Growth hormone
(2) Prolactin
(3) Erythropoietin
(4) Estrogen
148. Which of the hormone(s) has effects on the
stomach, pancreas, and gallbladder?
(1) Secretin
(2) Cholecystokinin
(3) Gastrin
(4) All of the above
149. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly
matched?
(1) Insulin – Diabetes mellitus (disease)
(2) Glucagon – Beta cells (source)
(3) Somatostatin – Delta cells (source)
(4) Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion)
150. Which one of the following pairs is
mismatched?
(1) Antidiuretic hormone – Kidneys
(2) Luteinizing hormone - Mammary glands
(3) Prolactin - Mammary glands
(4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone - Adrenal cortex
151. Which one of the followings is the primary
target organ of aldosterone?
(1) Kidney
(2) Pancreas
(3) Liver
(4) Both (1) and (2)
152. Which one of the following is the correct
matching of the events occurring during
menstrual cycle?
(1) Menstruation : breakdown of myometrium
and ovum not fertilized
(2) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and
sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
(3) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of
myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
(4) Development of corpus luteum : Secretory phase
and increased secretion of progesterone
153. Which stages of cell division do the following
figures A and B
represent
respectively?
145. The hormone responsible for “Fight and Flight”
response is
(1) Adrenalin
(2) Thyroxine
(3) ADH
(4) Oxytocin
146. Which of the following hormones synchronizes
circadian rhythms and may be involved in onset
of puberty?
(1) Thymopoietin
(2) Thymosin
(3) Melatonin
(4) Parathyroid
Fig. I
(A) Prophase
(B) Metaphase
(C) Telophase
(D) Late Anaphase
147. Which of the following is the function of
Adrenaline?
(1) Helps in gastric juice secretion
(2) Increases heart rate and blood pressure
(3) Increases blood calcium
(4) Helps in milk secretion
(1) A
(2) B
Fig. II
Anaphase
Telophase
Metaphase
Prophase
(3) C
154. A bivalent consists of
(1) Two chromatids and one centromere
(2) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(3) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(4) D
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres
155. Chromosomes can be counted best at the stage of
(1) Metaphase
(2) Late anaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Late prophase
156. Chiasmata are first seen in
(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Leptotene
(4) Diplotene
157. Protein subunit found within microtubules is
(1) Collagen
(2) Tubulin
(3) Myosin
(4) DNA
158. Chiasma formation occurs in
(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Leptotene
(4) Diplotene
159. Given below is a schematic break-up of the
phases/stages of cell cycle Which one of the
following is the correct indication of the
stage/phase in the cell cycle?
(1) A-Cytokinesis
(2) B-Metaphase
(3) C-Karyokinesis
(4) D-Synthetic phase
160. DNA replication takes place during
(1) S – phase
(2) G2 – phase
(3) G1 – phase
(4) Prophase
161. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to
disappear at
(1) Early prophase
(2) Late prophase
(3) Early metaphase
(4) Late metaphase
162. During gamete formation, the enzyme
recombinase participates during
(1) Prophase-I
(2) Prophase-II
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Anaphase-II
163. In Human secondary spermatocyte how many
chromosomes are present?
(1) 45
(2) 23
(3) 30
(4) 15
164. In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus
disappear during
(1) Metaphase
(2) Interphase
(3) Prophase
(4) Telophase
165. Meiosis is best seen in
(1) Gamete
(3) Microsporangium
(2) Pollen grain
(4) Anther wall
166. Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.
(1) Pancreas
(3) Ovary
(2) Liver
(4) Kidney
167. What type of plant is formed when colchicine is
used in the process of development of
Raphanobrassica?
(1) Autotetraploid
(2) Haploid
(3) Triploid
(4) Allotetraploid
168. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in
your class and are asked to count the
chromosomes which of the following stages can
you most conveniently look into:
(1) Prophase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Metaphase
169. In the somatic cell cycle:
(1) In G1 phase DNA content is double the
amount of DNA present in the original cell
(2) A short interphase is followed by a long
mitotic phase
(3) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
(4) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
170. Which of the following events takes place
during Diplotene stage of prophase I of meiosis?
(1) Compaction of chromosomes
(2) Formation of synaptonemal complexes
(3) Formation of recombinational nodules
(4) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
171. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the
correct sequence:
I. Terminalization
II. Crossing over
III. Synapsis
IV. Disjunction of genomes
The correct sequences :
(1) II, I, IV, III
(3) IV, III, II, I
(2) III, II, I, IV
(4) I, IV, III, II
172. From the following, identify the two correct
statements with reference to meiosis
I. Bead like structure are absent on
chromosomes.
II. Displacement of chiasmata occurs in
diakinesis.
III. Separation of two basic sets of
chromosomes.
IV. No division of centromere.
The correct statements are:
(1) III, IV
(2) II, IV
(3) II, III
(4) I, III
173. Given below is the representation of a certain
event at a particular stage of a type of cell
division. Which is this stage?
(1) Prophase I during meiosis
(2) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis
(3) Prophase of Mitosis
(4) Prophase II during meiosis
174. Study the following lists and select the correct
match from the option given below.
List-I
List-II
(A) Initiation of spindle fibres (I) Anaphase – I
(B) Synthesis of RNA
(II) Zygotene
and Protein
(C) Action of endonuclease
(III) G1 phase
(D) Movement of chromatids (IV) Pachytene
towards opposite poles
(V) Anaphase – II
(1) A - I, B - III, C - V, D – IV
(2) A - III, B - II, C - I, D – V
(3) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D – V
(4) A - V, B - III, C - I, D – II
175. Cells in G0 phase of cell cycle
(1) Exit cell cycle
(2) Enter cell cycle
(3) Suspend cell cycle
(4) Terminate cell cycle
176. The non-sister chromatids twist around and
exchange segments with each other during
(1) Leptotene
(3) Diplotene
(2) Diakinesis
(4) Pachytene
177. If the number of chromosome at G2 stage of a
cell is 14 then find out the number of
chromosome in Anaphase and Anaphase I :(1) 14 and 18 respectively
(2) 7 and 14 respectively
(3) 14 and 14 respectively
(4) 28 and 28 respectively
178. Mark the correct statements
(I) In oocyte of some vertebrates, pachytene
stage can last for months or years.
(II) The bivalents align on equatorial plate in
Metaphase – I
(III) The sister chromatids separate at their
centromere during Anaphase – I
(IV) Diad of cells is formed at the end of
Telophase –I
(1) I and II
(2) I and IV
(3) II and IV
(4) I, II and IV
179. Which of the following is not correct with
refrence to kinetochores ?
(1) Found in eukaryote cell only
(2) Present on surface of centromere
(3) Serve as site of attachement of spindle fibres
(4) At metaphase stage a chromosome have one
kinetochore
180. Each centriole has a cart wheel organization
having a whorl of tubulin fibrils at periphery.
These peripheral fibrils are composed of–
(1) 27 microtubules
(2) 9 microtubules
(3) 18 microtubules
(4) 11 microtubules