Name: ________________________________________
Date: ______________ Period: ____________ Score: +________
Ch. 12, 13, 14 Test Review
In order to minimize paper waste and get the review to fit in the format it is in below, please adjust your margins to 0.3” before you
print. Please remember to highlight your answers and have me check them before we go over the corrections in class or you will
not get the extra credit. It must be turned in a final time on test day, or you will not receive your individual extra credit points.
1. Motivation is best understood as a state that: A) reduces a drive.
an organism to act. D) energizes and directs behavior.
2. Few human behaviors are rigidly patterned enough to qualify as:
B) aims at satisfying a biological need.
A) needs.
B) drives.
C) instincts.
C) energizes
D) incentives.
3. Instinct theory and drive-reduction theory both emphasize ________ factors in motivation.
A) environmental B) cognitive C) psychological D) social E) biological
4. Which of the following is a difference between a drive and a need? A) Needs are learned; drives are inherited.
B) Needs are physiological states; drives are psychological states. C) Drives are generally stronger than needs. D) Needs are
generally stronger than drives.
5. Homeostasis refers to: A) the tendency to maintain a steady internal state. B) the tendency to seek external incentives for
behavior. C) the setting of the body's “weight thermostat.” D) a theory of the development of sexual orientation.
6. Which of the following is inconsistent with the drive-reduction theory of motivation? A) When body temperature drops
below 98.6∞ Fahrenheit, blood vessels constrict to conserve warmth. B) A person is driven to seek a drink when his or her
cellular water level drops below its optimum point. C) Monkeys will work puzzles even if not given a food reward.
D) A person becomes hungry when body weight falls below its biological set point. E) None of the above is inconsistent.
7. Beginning with the most basic needs, which of the following represents the correct sequence of needs in the hierarchy
described by Maslow? A) safety; physiological; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment B) safety; physiological;
belongingness and love; esteem; self-fulfillment C) physiological; safety; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment D)
physiological; safety; belongingness and love; esteem; self-fulfillment E) physiological; safety; self-fulfillment; esteem;
belongingness and love
8. Increases in insulin will: A) lower blood sugar and trigger hunger. B) raise blood sugar and trigger hunger.
blood sugar and trigger satiety. D) raise blood sugar and trigger satiety.
C) lower
9. Two rats have escaped from their cages in the neurophysiology lab. The technician needs your help in returning them to their
proper cages. One rat is grossly overweight; the other is severely underweight. You confidently state that the overweight rat goes
in the “________-lesion” cage, while the underweight rat goes in the “________-lesion” cage. A) hippocampus; amygdala B)
amygdala; hippocampus C) lateral hypothalamus; ventromedial hypothalamus D) ventromedial hypothalamus; lateral
hypothalamus
10. Electrical stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus will cause an animal to:
obese. D) begin copulating. E) stop copulating.
A) begin eating.
B) stop eating.
C) become
11. I am a protein produced by fat cells and monitored by the hypothalamus. When in abundance, I cause the brain to increase
metabolism. What am I? A) PYY B) ghrelin C) orexin D) insulin E) leptin
12. Lucille has been sticking to a strict diet but can't seem to lose weight. What is the most likely explanation for her difficulty?
A) Her body has a very low set point. B) Her pre-diet weight was near her body's set point. C) Her weight problem is
actually caused by an underlying eating disorder. D) Lucille is an “external.”
13. Randy, who has been under a lot of stress lately, has intense cravings for sugary junk foods, which tend to make him feel
more relaxed. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his craving?
A) Randy feels that he deserves to pamper himself with sweets because of the stress he is under. B) The extra sugar gives
Randy the energy he needs to cope with the demands of daily life. C) Carbohydrates boost levels of serotonin, which has a
calming effect. D) The extra sugar tends to lower blood insulin level, which promotes relaxation.
14. The text suggests that a “neophobia” for unfamiliar tastes: A) is more common in children than in adults. B) protected
our ancestors from potentially toxic substances. C) may be an early warning sign of an eating disorder. D) only grows
stronger with repeated exposure to those tastes. E) does all of the above.
15. Bulimia nervosa involves:
16. Emotions are:
A) binging.
B) purging.
A) physiological reactions.
C) dramatic weight loss.
B) behavioral expressions.
D) a. and b.
C) conscious feelings.
E) a., b., and c.
D) all of the above.
17. Two years ago Maria was in an automobile accident in which her spinal cord was severed, leaving her paralyzed from her
neck down. Today, Maria finds that she experiences emotions less intensely than she did before her accident. This tends to
support which theory of emotion?
A) James-Lange theory B) Cannon-Bard theory C) adaptation-level theory D) relative deprivation theory
18. Which of the following is not typical of both anorexia and bulimia?
A) far more frequent occurrence in women than in men B) preoccupation with food and fear of being overweight
C) weight significantly and noticeably outside normal ranges D) low self-esteem and feelings of depression
19. Of the following individuals, who might be most prone to developing an eating disorder?
A) Jason, an adolescent boy who is somewhat overweight and is unpopular with his peers B) Jennifer, a teenage girl who has a
poor self-image and a fear of not being able to live up to her parents' high standards C) Susan, a 35-year-old woman who is a
“workaholic” and devotes most of her energies to her high-pressured career D) Bill, a 40-year-old man who has had problems
with alcoholism and is seriously depressed after losing his job of 20 years
20. Which of the following is true concerning eating disorders? A) Genetic factors may influence susceptibility.
B) Abnormal levels of certain neurotransmitters may play a role. C) People with eating disorders are at risk for anxiety or
depression. D) Family background is a significant factor. E) All of the above are true.
21. Investigations of how men and women view body image found that: A) men and women alike expressed significant selfdissatisfaction. B) men and women alike accurately assessed the body weight for their own sex that the other sex preferred.
C) men tended to rate their current weight as corresponding both to their ideal weight and to women's ideal weight for men. D)
women tended to be satisfied with their current body weight but to think that men preferred a thinner body shape for women.
22. The correct order of the stages of Masters and Johnson's sexual response cycle is:
A) plateau; excitement; orgasm; resolution. B) excitement; plateau; orgasm; resolution. C) excitement; orgasm; resolution;
refractory. D) plateau; excitement; orgasm; refractory. E) excitement; orgasm; plateau; resolution.
23. According to Masters and Johnson, the sexual response of males is most likely to differ from that of females during:
A) the excitement phase. B) the plateau phase. C) orgasm. D) the resolution phase.
24. Castration of male rats results in: A) reduced testosterone and sexual interest. B) reduced testosterone, but no change in
sexual interest. C) reduced estrogen and sexual interest. D) reduced estrogen, but no change in sexual interest.
25. The power of external stimuli in sexual motivation is illustrated in Julia Heiman's experiment, in which subjects' responses to
various romantic, erotic, or neutral audio tapes were recorded. Which of the following was among the findings of her research?
A) The women were more aroused by the romantic tape; the men were more aroused by the sexually explicit tape. B) The
sexually experienced subjects reported greater arousal when the tape depicted a sexual encounter in which a woman is
overpowered by a man and enjoys being dominated. C) Whereas the men's physical arousal was both obvious and consistent
with their verbal reports, the women's verbal reports did not correspond very directly with their measured physical arousal.
D) Both men and women were aroused most by the sexually explicit tape.
26. Of the following parts of the world, teen intercourse rates are highest in:
A) Western Europe. B) Canada. C) the United States. D) Asia. E) Arab countries.
27. Which of the following teens is most likely to delay the initiation of sex?
A) Jack, who has below-average intelligence B) Jason, who is not religiously active
time in community service D) it is impossible to predict
C) Ron, who regularly volunteers his
28. Which of the following is currently true regarding first-year college students' opinions of casual sex? A) The majority feel
that sex between persons who know each other for only a short time is acceptable. B) The majority feel that condom use is
unnecessary, because they know when the safe times are. C) The majority feel that sex between persons who know each other
for only a short time is unacceptable. D) The majority feel that they will be ostracized by their peers if they don't do “what
everyone else is doing.”
29. Sexual orientation refers to: A) a person's tendency to display behaviors typical of males or females. B) a person's sense of
identity as a male or female. C) a person's enduring sexual attraction toward members of a particular gender. D) all of above.
30. Some scientific evidence makes a preliminary link between homosexuality and:
A) late sexual maturation. B) the age of an individual's first erotic experience. C) atypical prenatal hormones.
problems in relationships with parents. E) all of the above.
D) early
31. Which of the following statements concerning homosexuality is true? A) Homosexuals have abnormal hormone levels.
B) As children, most homosexuals were molested by an adult homosexual. C) Homosexuals had a domineering opposite-sex
parent. D) New research indicates that sexual orientation may be at least partly physiological.
32. When asked what makes life meaningful, most people first mention:
A) good health. B) challenging work. C) satisfying relationships. D) serving others.
33. Which of the following individuals would be characterized as experiencing “flow”?
A) Sheila, who, despite viewing her work as merely a job, performs her work conscientiously B) Larry, who sees his work as
an artist as a calling C) Darren, who views his present job as merely a stepping stone in his career D) Montal, who often
becomes so immersed in his writing that he loses all sense of self and time
34. Which of the following is not an aspect of Murray's definition of achievement motivation?
A) the desire to master skills B) the desire for control C) the desire to gain approval D) the desire to attain a high standard
35. For as long as she has been the plant manager, Juanita has welcomed input from employees and has delegated authority. Bill,
in managing his department, takes a more authoritarian, iron-fisted approach. Juanita's style is one of ______ leadership, whereas
Bill's is one of ______ leadership. A) task; social B) social; task C) directive; democratic D) democratic; participative
36. Theory ___ managers tend to adopt a style of _____ leadership. A) X; task B) X; social C) Y; autocratic D) Y; directive
37. Because Brent believes that his employees are intrinsically motivated to work for reasons beyond money, Brent would be
described as a(n) ________ manager. A) directive B) autocratic C) theory X D) theory Y
38. You are on your way to school to take a big exam. Suddenly, on noticing that your pulse is racing and that you are sweating,
you feel nervous. With which theory of emotion is this experience most consistent?
A) Cannon-Bard theory B) James-Lange theory C) relative deprivation theory D) adaptation-level theory
39. Which theory of emotion emphasizes the simultaneous experience of body response and emotional feeling?
A) James-Lange theory B) Cannon-Bard theory C) two-factor theory D) valence theory
40. Schachter's two-factor theory emphasizes that emotion involves both:
A) the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system. B) verbal and nonverbal expression.
arousal and a cognitive label. D) universal and culture-specific aspects.
C) physical
41. After hitting a grand-slam home run, Mike noticed that his heart was pounding. Later that evening, after nearly having a
collision while driving on the freeway, Mike again noticed that his heart was pounding. That he interpreted this reaction as fear,
rather than as ecstasy, can best be explained by the:
A) James-Lange theory. B) Cannon-Bard theory. C) two-factor theory. D) adaptation-level theory.
42. Who will probably be angrier after learning that he or she has received a parking ticket? A) Bob, who has just awakened
from a nap B) Veronica, who has just finished eating a big lunch C) Dan, who has just completed a tennis match
D) Alicia, who has been reading a romantic novel E) It cannot be determined from the information given
43. Several studies have shown that physical arousal can intensify just about any emotion. For example, when people who have
been physically aroused by exercise are insulted, they often misattribute their arousal to the insult. This finding illustrates the
importance of: A) cognitive labels of arousal in the conscious experience of emotions. B) a minimum level of arousal in
triggering emotional experiences. C) the simultaneous occurrence of physical arousal and cognitive labeling in emotional
experience. D) all of the above.
44. Evidence that changes in facial expression can directly affect people's feelings and body states has convinced Robert Zajonc
that: A) the heart is always subject to the mind. B) emotional reactions involve deliberate rational thinking. C) cognition is
not necessary for emotion. D) the interpretation of facial expressions is a learned skill.
45. Margaret is a finalist in the U.S. Ice Skating Championship. She is very excited about the competition and is feeling
energized. More than likely, the two dimensions of her current emotion would be a ________ and ________. A) positive
valence; low arousal B) negative valence; low arousal C) positive valence; high arousal D) negative valence; high arousal
46. In an emergency situation, emotional arousal will result in:
A) increased rate of respiration. B) increased blood sugar. C) a slowing of digestion. D) pupil dilation. E) all of the above.
47. A relatively high level of arousal would be most likely to facilitate: A) remembering the lines of a play.
B) shooting free throws in basketball. C) sprinting 100 meters. D) taking a final exam in introductory psychology.
48. Which of the following is correct regarding the relationship between arousal and performance?
A) Generally, performance is optimal when arousal is low. B) Generally, performance is optimal when arousal is high.
C) On easy tasks, performance is optimal when arousal is low. D) On easy tasks, performance is optimal when arousal is high.
49. After Brenda scolded her brother for forgetting to pick her up from school, the physical arousal that had accompanied her
anger diminished. Which division of her nervous system mediated her physical relaxation?
A) sympathetic division B) parasympathetic division C) skeletal division D) peripheral nervous system
50. Which division of the nervous system (NS) is especially involved in bringing about emotional arousal?
A) somatic NS
B) peripheral NS
C) sympathetic NS
D) parasympathetic NS
E) central NS
51. The body's response to danger is triggered by the release of ________ by the ________ glands. A) acetylcholine; adrenal
B) epinephrine and norepinephrine; adrenal C) acetylcholine; pituitary D) epinephrine and norepinephrine; pituitary
52. Nine-month-old Nicole's left frontal lobe is more active than her right frontal lobe. We can expect that, all other things being
equal, Nicole:
A) may suffer from mild depression for most of her life. B) may have trouble “turning off” upsetting feelings later in her life.
C) may be more cheerful than those with more active right frontal lobes.D) may have trouble expressing feelings later in her life.
53. Julio was extremely angry when he came in for a routine EEG of his brain activity. When he later told this to the doctor, she
was no longer concerned about the:
A) increased electrical activity in Julio's right hemisphere. B) increased electrical activity in Julio's left hemisphere. C)
decreased electrical activity in Julio's amygdala. D) increased electrical activity in Julio's amygdala.
54. When the scientist electrically stimulated one area of a monkey's brain, the monkey became enraged. When another electrode
was activated, the monkey cowered in fear. The electrodes were most likely implanted in the:
A) pituitary gland. B) adrenal glands. C) limbic system. D) right hemisphere.
55. In laboratory experiments, fear and joy: A) result in an increase in heart rate. B) stimulate different facial muscles.
C) increase heart rate and stimulate different facial muscles. D) result in a decrease in heart rate.
56. People who are exuberant and persistently cheerful show increased activity in the brain's ________, which is rich in receptors
for the neurotransmitter ________.
A) right frontal lobe; dopamine B) left frontal lobe; dopamine C) amygdala; serotonin D) thalamus; serotonin
57. As part of her job interview, Jan is asked to take a lie-detector test. Jan politely refuses and points out that: A) a guilty
person can be found innocent by the polygraph. B) an innocent person can be found guilty. C) a liar can learn to fool a liedetector test. D) these tests err one-third of the time. E) all of the above are true.
58. Law enforcement officials sometimes use a lie detector to assess a suspect's responses to details of the crime believed to be
known only to the perpetrator. This is known as the:
A) inductive approach. B) deductive approach. C) guilty knowledge test. D) screening examination. E) prevarication probe.
59. Research on nonverbal communication has revealed that:
A) it is easy to hide your emotions by controlling your facial expressions. B) facial expressions tend to be the same the world
over, while gestures vary from culture to culture. C) most authentic expressions last between 7 and 10 seconds.
D) most gestures have universal meanings; facial expressions vary from culture to culture.
60. Who is the least likely to display negative emotions openly? A) Paul, a game warden in Australia
B) Niles, a stockbroker in Belgium C) Deborah, a physicist in Toronto D) Yoko, a dentist in Japan
61. For which of the following fears do humans appear to be biologically prepared?
A) fear of electricity B) fear of cliffs C) fear of flowers D) fear of flying E) fear of bombs
62. Most human fears are:
A) universal.
B) biologically determined.
C) present at birth.
D) learned.
63. Jane was so mad at her brother that she exploded at him when he entered her room. That she felt less angry afterward is best
explained by the principle of: A) adaptation level. B) physiological arousal. C) relative deprivation. D) catharsis.
64. As elderly Mr. Hooper crosses the busy intersection, he stumbles & drops the packages he is carrying. Which passerby is
most likely to help Mr. Hooper? A) Drew, who has been laid off from work for three months B) Leon, who is on his way to
work C) Bonnie, who graduated from college the day before D) Nancy, whose father recently passed away
65. A graph depicting the course of positive emotions over the hours of the day since waking would: A) start low & rise
steadily until bedtime. B) start high & decrease steadily until bedtime. C) remain at a stable, moderate level throughout the day.
D) rise over the early hours & dissipate during the day's last several hours. E) vary too much from person to person to predict.
66. Research suggests that people generally experience the greatest well-being when they strive for:
A) wealth.
B) modest income increases from year to year.
C) slightly higher status than their friends, neighbors, and coworkers. D) intimacy and personal growth.
67. When Professor Simon acquired a spacious new office, he was overjoyed. Six months later, however, he was taking the
office for granted. His behavior illustrates the:
A) relative deprivation principle. B) adaptation-level phenomenon. C) valence theory. D) optimum arousal principle.
68. Dermer found that students who had studied others who were worse off than themselves felt greater satisfaction with their
own lives; this is the principle of:
A) relative deprivation. B) adaptation level. C) behavioral contrast. D) opponent processes.
69. Which of the following is true? A) People with more education tend to be happier. B) Beautiful people tend to be
happier than plain people. C) Women tend to be happier than men. D) People with children tend to be happier.
E) People who are socially outgoing or who exercise regularly tend to be happier.
70. Dr. Williams, who conducts smoking cessation clinics, explains to his clients that smoking is best understood as an
interaction of psychological, biological, and social influences. Dr. Williams is working within the ________ perspective.
A) behavioral medicine B) behavioral C) general adaptation syndrome D) psychophysiological
71. According to the text, one-half of all deaths from the 10 leading causes of death in the United States can be attributed to:
A) stress. B) obesity. C) nutrition. D) behavior.
72. Stress is defined as: A) unpleasant or aversive events that cannot be controlled. B) situations that threaten health. C) the
process by which we perceive & respond to challenging or threatening events. D) anything that decreases immune responses.
73. The stress hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine are released by the ________ gland in response to stimulation by the
________ branch of the nervous system.
A) pituitary; sympathetic B) pituitary; parasympathetic C) adrenal; sympathetic D) adrenal; parasympathetic
74. Connie complains to the campus psychologist that she has too much stress in her life. The psychologist tells her that the level
of stress people experience depends primarily on: A) how many activities they are trying to do at the same time.
B) how they appraise the events of life. C) their physical hardiness. D) how predictable stressful events are.
75. In order, the sequence of stages in the general adaptation syndrome is:
A) alarm reaction, stage of resistance, stage of exhaustion. B) stage of resistance, alarm reaction, stage of exhaustion.
C) stage of exhaustion, stage of resistance, alarm reaction. D) alarm reaction, stage of exhaustion, stage of resistance.
76. During which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is a person especially vulnerable to disease?
A) alarm reaction B) stage of resistance C) stage of exhaustion D) stage of adaptation
77. “Tend and befriend” refers to: A) the final stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
B) the health-promoting impact of having a strong system of social support. C) an alternative to the “fight-or-flight” response
that may be more common in women. D) the fact that spiritual people typically are not socially isolated.
78. Each semester, Bob does not start studying until just before midterms. Then he is forced to work around the clock until after
final exams, which makes him sick, probably because he is in the ________ phase of the ________.
A) alarm; post-traumatic stress syndrome B) resistance; general adaptation syndrome
C) exhaustion; general adaptation syndrome D) depletion; post-traumatic stress syndrome
79. Research studies demonstrate that after a catastrophe, rates of ________ often increase.
A) depression B) anxiety C) stress related illnesses D) all of the above E) none of the above
80. Karen and Kyumi are taking the same course with different instructors. Karen's instructor schedules quizzes every Friday,
while Kyumi's instructor gives the same number of quizzes on an unpredictable schedule. Assuming that their instructors are
equally difficult, which student is probably under more stress? A) Karen B) Kyumi C) There should be no difference in
their levels of stress. D) It is impossible to predict stress levels in this situation.
81. You have just transferred to a new campus and find yourself in a potentially stressful environment. According to the text,
which of the following would help you cope with the stress?
A) believing that you have some control over your environment B) being able to predict when stressful events will occur C)
feeling optimistic that you will eventually adjust to your new surroundings D) All of the above would help.
82. In one experiment, both “executive” rats and “subordinate” rats received identical electric shocks, the only difference being
whether the shocks could be: A) predicted. B) weakened. C) shortened. D) controlled.
83. Which of the following would be the best piece of advice to offer a person who is trying to minimize the adverse effects of
stress on his or her health?
A) “Avoid challenging situations that may prove stressful.” B) “Learn to play as hard as you work.” C) “Maintain a sense of
control and a positive approach to life.” D) “Keep your emotional responses in check by keeping your feelings to yourself.”
84. Jill is an easygoing, noncompetitive person who is happy in her job and enjoys her leisure time. She would probably be
classified as: A) Type A. B) Type B. C) Type C. D) Type D.
85. In response to uncontrollable shock, levels of stress hormones ________ and immune responses are ________.
A) decrease; suppressed B) increase; suppressed C) decrease; increased D) increase; increased
86. The leading cause of death in North America is:
A) lung cancer. B) AIDS. C) coronary heart disease.
D) alcohol-related accidents.
E) accidents.
87. Researchers Friedman and Rosenman refer to individuals who are very time-conscious, supermotivated, verbally aggressive,
and easily angered as: A) ulcer-prone personalities. B) cancer-prone personalities. C) Type A. D) Type B.
88. One effect of stress hormones is to:
A) lower the level of cholesterol in the blood. B) promote the buildup of plaques on the artery walls.
from the muscles of the body. D) reduce stress. E) decrease the amount of fat stored in the body.
C) divert blood away
89. Philip's physician prescribes a stress management program to help Philip control his headaches. The physician has apparently
diagnosed Philip's condition as a ________ illness, rather than a physical disorder.
A) psychogenic B) hypochondriac C) psychophysiological D) biofeedback
90. Allergic reactions and arthritis are caused by: A) an overreactive immune system.
C) the presence of B lymphocytes. D) the presence of T lymphocytes.
B) an underreactive immune system.
91. When would you expect that your immune responses would be weakest? A) during summer vacation B) during exam
weeks C) just after receiving good news D) Immune activity would probably remain constant during these times.
92. AIDS is a disorder that causes a breakdown in the body's:
A) endocrine system. B) circulatory system. C) immune system.
D) respiratory system.
93. Research on cancer patients reveals that: A) stress affects the growth of cancer cells by weakening the body's natural
resources. B) patients' attitudes can influence their rate of recovery. C) cancer occurs slightly more often than usual among
those widowed, divorced, or separated. D) all of the above are true.
94. During biofeedback training: A) a subject is given sensory feedback for a subtle body response. B) biological functions
controlled by the autonomic nervous system may come under conscious control. C) the accompanying relaxation is much the
same as that produced by other, simpler methods of relaxation. D) all of the above occur.
95. A study in which people were asked to confide troubling feelings to an experimenter found that subjects typically:
A) did not truthfully report feelings and events. B) experienced a sustained increase in blood pressure until the experiment was
finished. C) became physiologically more relaxed after confiding their problem. D) denied having any problems.
96. Which of the following was not suggested as a possible explanation of the “faith factor” in health? A) Having a coherent
worldview is a buffer against stress. B) Religious people tend to have healthier life-styles. C) Those who are religious have
stronger networks of social support. D) Because they are more affluent, religiously active people receive better health care.
97. Acupuncture, aromatherapy, and homeopathy are forms of:
A) psychophysiological medicine. B) complementary & alternative medicine. C) Chi therapy. D) psychosomatic medicine.
98. Research suggests that ________ influences often lead a person to start smoking, whereas ________ influences become
important in explaining why people continue to smoke.
A) biological; social B) social; biological C) biological; cognitive D) cognitive; biological
99. Which of the following was offered in the text as a reason people continue to smoke?
A) Social pressure from peers is strong. B) Cigarettes serve as powerful reinforcers. C) Regular use of nicotine impairs the
brain's ability to produce neurotransmitters such as serotonin. D) Most adults who smoke don't really want to quit.
100. Studies have demonstrated that meals that are high in ________ promote relaxation because they raise levels of ________.
A) carbohydrates; serotonin B) carbohydrates; cortisol C) protein; serotonin D) protein; cortisol
101. Ricardo has an important psychology exam in the afternoon. In an effort to improve his concentration and alertness, he
orders a lunch that is high in ________ and low in ________.
A) carbohydrates; protein B) carbohydrates; fat C) protein; carbohydrates D) protein; fat
102. The tendency to overeat when food is plentiful: A) is a recent phenomenon that is associated with the luxury of having
ample food. B) emerged in our prehistoric ancestors as an adaptive response to alternating periods of feast and famine.
C) is greater in developed, than in developing, societies. D) is stronger in women than in men.
103. Research on obesity indicates that: A) pound for pound, fat tissue requires more calories to maintain than lean tissue.
B) once fat cells are acquired they are never lost, no matter how rigorously one diets. C) one pound of weight is lost for every
3500-calorie reduction in diet. D) when weight drops below the set point, hunger and metabolism also decrease.
104. The number of fat cells a person has is influenced by:
A) genetic predisposition. B) childhood eating patterns. C) adulthood eating patterns.
D) all of the above.
105. Kenny and his brother have nearly identical eating and exercise habits, yet Kenny is obese and his brother is very thin. The
most likely explanation for the difference in their body weights is that they differ in:
A) their set points. B) their metabolic rates. C) both a. and b. D) none of the above.
106. Which of the following would be the worst piece of advice to offer to someone trying to lose weight?
A) “In order to treat yourself to one 'normal' meal each day, eat very little until the evening meal.” B) “Reduce your
consumption of saturated fats.” C) “Boost your metabolism by exercising regularly.” D) “Without increasing total caloric
intake, increase the relative proportion of carbohydrates in your diet.”
107. After an initial rapid weight loss, a person on a diet loses weight much more slowly. This slowdown occurs because:
A) most of the initial weight loss is simply water. B) when a person diets, metabolism decreases. C) people begin to “cheat”
on their diets. D) insulin levels tend to increase with reduced food intake.
Essay:
Use your knowledge of the chapter concepts to answer the following essay question.
Compare and contrast the following theories of motivation. Be sure that your analysis includes the definition of each theory and a
valid, theoretically based criticism. Be specific.
a. James-Lange theory
b. Drive reduction theory
c. Cognitive appraisal
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