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PRACTICE TEST GEORGIA CRCT
PRACTICE TEST
GEORGIA CRCT
GEORGIA STUDIES
Directions: The CRCT contains 65 questions. To simulate the test, answer the
following 65 questions in one sitting.
Use the map to answer Questions 1-2.
1. From the information on the map,
which statement BEST describes
Georgia’s relative location?
A. Georgia is a northeastern state.
B. Georgia is located north of
Florida.
C. Georgia is located along the Gulf
of Mexico.
D. Georgia is located in the
southwestern United States.
2. The five states that border Georgia are
A. Alabama, Arkansas, Tennessee,
South Carolina, and Florida.
B. Mississippi, Florida, Alabama,
Tennessee, and South Carolina.
C. Alabama, South Carolina,
Florida, Tennessee, and North
Carolina.
D. Alabama, Mississippi, South
Carolina, Florida, and North
Carolina.
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3. How many physiographic regions
does Georgia have?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
4. In which region is Atlanta located?
A. Appalachian Plateau
B. Blue Ridge
C. Piedmont Plateau
D. Ridge and Valley
5. Through which geographic regions
do the Appalachian Mountains run?
A. Blue Ridge, Ridge and Valley,
Appalachian Plateau
B. Ridge and Valley, Appalachian
Plateau, Piedmont
C. Blue Ridge, Appalachian Plateau,
Coastal Plain
D. Coastal Plain, Blue Ridge, Ridge
and Valley
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8. Which statement describes the
Okefenokee Swamp?
A. It has the highest amount of
recorded precipitation in
Georgia.
B. It has the potential to produce
hydroelectric power.
C. It is the largest swamp in North
America.
D. It is located in the Piedmont
region.
PRACTICE TEST
GEORGIA CRCT
6. Which statement does NOT describe
a characteristic of the barrier islands?
A. They attract tourists each year.
B. They serve as a wilderness
sanctuary.
C. They protect the beaches from
erosion.
D. They are frequently a target of
tornadoes.
7. What two regions are separated by the
Fall Line?
A. Coastal Plain and Blue Ridge
B. Blue Ridge and Piedmont Plateau
C. Coastal Plain and Piedmont
Plateau
D. Appalachian Plateau and Blue Ridge
Use the map of ocean currents to answer Question 9.
9. According to the map, ships to the New
World were pushed back home to
Europe by the
A. Labrador Current.
B. Gulf Stream Current.
C. East Greenland Current.
D. North Equatorial Current.
10. Which statement is NOT true about
Georgia’s climate?
A. The overall climate is mild.
B. Snow only falls in the mountains.
C. The state has four distinct seasons.
D. Generally, Georgia summers are hot
and humid.
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PRACTICE TEST
GEORGIA CRCT
11. Georgia’s climate attracts business and
industry because the state
A. has a consistently mild climate.
B. seldom receives much snow.
C. does not have hurricanes.
D. does not have tornadoes.
12. What was the oldest prehistoric Indian
civilization found in Georgia?
A. Archaic
B. Mississippian
C. Paleo
D. Woodland
13. Prehistoric Indians made permanent
settlements in order to
A. cultivate plants.
B. search for large game.
C. band together for protection.
D. follow herds of large animals.
Use the map of mound sites to answer Question 14.
14. What does the information on the map
tell you about the moundbuilders?
A. The moundbuilders mostly settled
along the coast.
B. The moundbuilders settled in
western Georgia.
C. The moundbuilders built coneshaped mounds.
D. The moundbuilders believed in an
afterlife.
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15. European nations did NOT explore the
New World to search for
A. trade routes.
B. homes.
C. riches.
D. food.
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18. The two largest Indian nations living
in Georgia during the colonial period
were the
A. Cherokee and Chickasaw.
B. Cherokee and Creek.
C. Mississippian and Creek.
D. Seminole and Cherokee.
PRACTICE TEST
GEORGIA CRCT
16. Who was the FIRST European
explorer to enter present-day Georgia?
A. Ponce de Leon
B. Hernando de Soto
C. Ferdinand Magellan
D. Francisco Pizarro
17. The MAIN purpose of the Spanish
missions on the barrier islands was to
A. provide protection for the area’s
European settlers.
B. convert the Indians to Catholicism.
C. establish trade with Spain.
D. claim land for Spain.
Use the illustration to answer Question 19.
19. What does the illustration tell about the
settlement of the Cherokee?
A. The Cherokee settled in the
mountains of Georgia.
B. The Cherokee settled near larger
villages.
C. The Cherokee settled along
waterways.
D. The Cherokee settled along the
ocean.
20. Which country was NOT a major
colonizer of the New World?
A. Great Britain
B. France
C. Italy
D. Spain
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PRACTICE TEST
GEORGIA CRCT
21. Which was NOT a benefit of the
exploration and settlement in the
New World?
A. The interaction between the Old
World and the New World
brought about the exchange of
food products.
B. The introduction of some
European animals caused the
extinction of some North
American animals.
C. The European nations were able to
spread their religious beliefs.
D. The European nations established
markets in the New World.
22. Near what present-day city was
Georgia’s first settlement made?
A. Athens
B. Atlanta
C. Macon
D. Savannah
23. Why did James Oglethorpe suggest
forming a colony for debtors?
A. Debtors were mostly well-educated
people who had fallen on hard
times.
B. Oglethorpe had a friend who died
in a debtors’ prison.
C. Debtors would readily come to the
New World.
D. Great Britain wanted to rid its jails
of debtors.
24. Who served as an interpreter for
James Oglethorpe?
A. William Bull
B. Mary Musgrove
C. Samuel Nunes
D. Tomochichi
25. What items that Great Britain was
importing from France, Russia, and
Spain did James Oglethorpe promise
to produce in Georgia?
A. wheat, rice, and wine
B. cotton dyes, wine, and silk
C. white potatoes, yams, and corn
D. tropical fruit, mulberry trees, and
spices
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26. Where did the Highland Scots settle
in Georgia?
A. Augusta
B. Darien
C. New Ebenezer
D. Savannah
27. Georgia’s trustees showed their
unselfish intentions for the colony by
A. donating their own money to
provide food for the colonists.
B. not serving as trustees for more
than one year.
C. breaking off all ties with Great
Britain.
D. not permitting trustees to hold
office.
28. Who was the first royal governor of
Georgia?
A. Robert Castell
B. Robert Montgomery
C. James Oglethorpe
D. John Reynolds
29. What was the economic base of the
Southern Colonies during the colonial
period?
A. wheat, rye, tobacco, and rice
B. mining, manufacturing, textiles,
and rice
C. shipbuilding, naval stores, and
wood furniture
D. rice, silk, indigo, tobacco, and
forest products
30. Prior to the Revolutionary War, which
British policy had the greatest effect
on Georgia?
A. The British passed the Sugar Act
placing a tax on sugar and
molasses imported from the West
Indies.
B. The British passed the Stamp Act
requiring a tax on newspapers, legal
documents, and licenses.
C. The British required the colonies to
ship their goods only on British
ships.
D. The British increased the tax on
wine and imported goods.
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31. Which statement BEST explains why
anti-British sentiment was less in
Georgia than in the other colonies
during the Revolutionary period?
A. Georgia had a much smaller
population than the other colonies,
and it did not have enough men for
an army to fight the British.
B. Georgia was far younger as a
colony than the other colonies, and
it still needed much support from
Great Britain.
C. Georgia was not as successful as the
other colonies, and it could not
afford to raise funds to fight the
British.
D. Georgia had more British settlers
than the other colonies so it was
more loyal to the British.
32. Who were the three Georgians who
signed the Declaration of
Independence?
A. George Walton, Henry Ellis, and
James Wright
B. George Walton, Lyman Hall, and
Button Gwinnett
C. Lyman Hall, Button Gwinnett, and
James Wright
D. Lyman Hall, George Walton, and
Noble Wimberly Jones
33. Which condition did NOT exist in
Georgia after the Revolutionary War?
A. Food was limited.
B. The war divided families.
C. The state’s economy was ruined.
D. Georgia became a manufacturing
area.
34. The writers of Georgia’s first
constitution wanted to limit the
power of the governor because
A. they believed the legislature was
closer to the people and therefore
should have the most power.
B. in the past the governor showed
too much loyalty to the king.
C. they feared the governor would
become a dictator.
D. there were no good candidates for
governor.
35. Which statement about Georgia’s
ratification of the U.S. Constitution
is TRUE?
A. Georgia did not ratify the U.S.
Constitution until after the Civil
War.
B. Georgia was the first southern
state to ratify the U.S.
Constitution.
C. Georgia was the last state to ratify
the U.S. Constitution.
D. Georgia’s ratification of the U.S.
Constitution was illegal.
36. The Yazoo land fraud occurred
because land companies
A. bribed members of the General
Assembly to permit them to buy
cheap land.
B. made illegal treaties with the
Native Americans.
C. took land from the Native
Americans by force.
D. claimed land that had been
acquired illegally.
37. The removal of the Cherokee from
Georgia is remembered as the
A. Long Journey Home.
B. Overland Trail.
C. Trail to Nowhere.
D. Trail of Tears.
38. Which was NOT a characteristic of
the South in the antebellum period?
A. few formal educational institutions
B. mobile class structure
C. favored low tariffs
D. supported slavery
39. How did the cotton gin and reaper
affect Georgia farmers?
A. The inventions decreased the need
for slaves.
B. The inventions allowed the farmers
to work larger farms.
C. The inventions gave the farmers
more leisure time.
D. The inventions increased the cost
of farm products.
PRACTICE TEST
GEORGIA CRCT
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PRACTICE TEST
GEORGIA CRCT
40. How did Eli Whitney’s invention
influence the growth of slavery in the
South?
A. It made it easier for slaves to pick
cotton.
B. It increased the profits from
growing cotton.
D. It made it easier to produce cloth
from cotton.
C. It replenished the soil so more
cotton could be grown.
41. Sectionalism may BEST be defined as
the
A. belief that one region is better or
more important than another.
B. desire to split two or more regions
into smaller areas.
C. differences among states based on
states’ “rights.”
D. allocation of resources based on
need.
42. What were the two major campaigns
fought in Georgia during the Civil
War?
A. Atlanta campaign and Savannah
campaign
B. Chickamauga campaign and
Jonesboro campaign
C. Fort Pulaski campaign and
Chickamauga campaign
D. Northern Georgia campaign and
Atlanta campaign
43. According to President Lincoln’s
Reconstruction plan, which group of
southerners would be pardoned after
taking an oath of allegiance to the
Union?
A. former soldiers
B. government officials
C. Confederate generals
D. high-ranking civil and military
leaders
44. The Freedmen’s Bureau was formed to
help
A. former slaves.
B. all free southerners.
C. all poor southerners.
D. former slaves and poor whites.
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45. How were tenant farmers different from
sharecroppers?
A. Tenant farmers usually made a small
profit.
B. Tenant farmers owned all their
equipment.
C. Tenant farmers bought their seed
from the owner.
D. Tenant farmers paid a set amount of
rent for their house.
46. Which action led Congress to argue that
Georgia was not “adequately
reconstructed” in 1866?
A. the passage of Black Codes to
restrict the civil rights of freedmen
in Georgia
B. the refusal of Georgia to ratify the
13th Amendment to the
Constitution
C. the limited number of Freedmen’s
Bureau schools opened in Georgia
D. the activities of the Ku Klux Klan
47. Which statement BEST explains why
northern businessmen invested money
to build Georgia’s textile industry after
the Civil War?
A. Georgia had plenty of railroads and
major seaports for transporting
cotton and textile products when
the Civil War ended.
B. Georgia had plenty of cotton,
abundant land and water, and
inexpensive labor to supply and
operate textile mills.
C. Georgia was one of the few
southern states to retain capital
(cash money and investments) after
the Civil War.
D. Georgia was one of the few
southern states to avoid violence
and terrorism after the war ended.
48. The New South, as envisioned by Henry
W. Grady, would
A. rival the North economically.
B. maintain its southern heritage.
C. encourage and develop tourism.
D. provide separate facilities for races.
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49. A positive aspect of the county unit
system was that it allowed
A. less populated areas to have the
same political power as larger areas.
B. people to be elected without a
majority of the popular vote.
C. corrupt politicians to win elections
by buying votes.
D. people from all parties to run for
political office.
50. What Constitutional amendment
linked the New South to the progressive
movement?
A. 17th
B. 18th
C. 19th
D. 20th
51. According to the Supreme Court in
Plessy v. Ferguson, it became legal for
blacks and white to
A. have separate schools.
B. attend the same schools.
C. be admitted to the same hospital.
D. drink from the same water fountain.
52. Which restriction did NOT affect the
voting rights of African Americans in
Georgia in the early 1900s?
A. grandfather clause
B. eligibility clause
C. gerrymandering
D. poll tax
53. Why did many New Deal programs
NOT help African Americans in
Georgia?
A. Only whites were hired by the
Works Progress Administration.
B. Blacks did not qualify for benefits
under Social Security and Medicare.
C. Young blacks were not hired under
the National Youth Administration.
D. Subsidies under the Agricultural
Adjustment Act were paid to
property owners not the tenant
farmers.
54. At which Georgia military installation
did infantry train in World War I?
A. Camp Augusta
B. Camp Benning
C. Camp Gordon
D. Camp McPherson
55. What racial issue, opposed by Booker
T. Washington, did W. E. B. DuBois
support?
A. economic equality
B. political equality
C. religious equality
D. social equality
56. Where in Georgia were Liberty ships
built during World War II?
A. Atlanta and Augusta
B. Brunswick and Jekyll Island
C. Brunswick and Savannah
D. St. Simons Island and Augusta
57. In the Brown v. Board of Education
case, the Supreme Court ruled that
A. the “separate-but-equal ruling” of
Plessy v. Ferguson was
unconstitutional.
B. blacks could only attend white
schools if there was space available.
C. black schools would get more
money for books and teachers.
D. all schools would be segregated.
58. To bring about social change, Dr.
Martin Luther King, Jr., favored
A. compromise.
B. democracy.
C. nonviolence.
D. unity.
59. During the Three Governors Episode,
who set up an office at the Capitol’s
information counter when he was
locked out of his office?
A. Ellis Arnall
B. Marvin Griffin
C. Herman Talmadge
D. Melvin Thompson
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GEORGIA CRCT
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PRACTICE TEST
GEORGIA CRCT
60. The Albany Movement in Georgia
favored the
A. implementation of a “first-come,
first-served” policy on Albany
buses.
B. integration of interstate bus station
waiting rooms in Albany.
C. forced hiring of African Americans
bus drivers in Albany.
D. end of segregation in the Albany
public schools.
61. Which statement LEAST explains a
way that good transportation systems
benefit the public?
A. Good transportation results in
increased income from selling
goods outside the region.
B. Good transportation results in an
increase in a variety of jobs.
C. Good transportation reduces the
cost of obtaining goods.
D. Good transportation makes
automobiles safer.
62. What change did NOT occur in
Georgia as a result of the end of the
county unit system?
A. More members of the General
Assembly were elected from the
urban areas.
B. Greater political power went to the
more heavily populated areas.
C. More African Americans were
elected to state offices.
D. More women were elected to state
office.
63. What are two ways the Georgia
constitution and the U.S. Constitution
are similar?
A. They are the same length.
B. They both have a preamble and a
bill of rights.
C. They both focus on city and
county government.
D. They have been amended the same
number of times.
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64. What happens to a bill passed by the
legislature if the governor does not veto
it, but also does not sign it?
A. The bill is killed.
B. The bill becomes law.
C. The bill goes back to the senate.
D. The bill goes back to the house of
representatives.
65. Why is the power to make
appointments to boards and executive
offices important to the governor of
Georgia?
A. By appointing persons from the
same political party, the governor
can help one party dominate state
government.
B. Through appointments, a governor
can spread his or her influence far
beyond the limited powers of the
governor’s office.
C. Through appointments to boards
and executive offices, a governor
can control the actions of all state
agencies and boards.
D. By appointing political backers and
campaign contributors, the
governor can repay supporters and
raise money for future campaigns.
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
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30.
31.
32.
33.
B
C
B
C
A
D
C
C
B
B
A
C
A
B
B
B
B
B
C
C
B
D
B
B
B
B
D
D
D
B
B
B
D
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
PRACTICE TEST
ANSWERS
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE TEST GEORGIA CRCT
B
B
A
D
B
B
B
A
A
A
D
A
A
B
A
A
B
A
B
D
B
B
C
A
C
A
B
D
D
B
B
B
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NOTES
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