Form Number :
Paper Code : 0999 DM31011 5020
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)
NURTURE TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2017
Test Type : ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (MAJOR)
Test Pattern : AIPMT
TEST DATE : 21 - 02 - 2016
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS
Important Instructions / egRoiw.kZ funsZ' k
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
bl ijh{kk iq fLrdk dks tc rd uk [kks y s a tc rd dgk u tk,s A
1.
A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat
only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
izR;sd fo|kFkhZ dk jftLVªs'ku ua- ds vuqlkj LFkku fu;r gS rFkk os vius fu;r LFkku ij gh cSBsaA ;fn dksbZ fo|kFkhZ fdlh nwljs fo|kFkhZ ds LFkku
ij cSBk ik;k x;k rks nksuksa fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj dj fn;k tk,xk vkjS nksuksa dks dksbZ vU; tqekZuk Hkh Lohdk;Z gksxkA
2.
Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?k.Vs gS rFkk iz'u i= esa 180 iz'u gSaA vf/kdre vad 720 gSaA
3.
Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
fo|kFkhZ ijh{kk d{k esa yksx Vscy] dsYdwyVs j ;k fdlh vU; lkexzh dk mi;ksx ugha dj ldrk gAS
4.
Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
ijh{kk ds le; fo|kFkhZ dks ifjoh{kd }kjk fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa dh ikyuk djuk vko';d gSA
5.
Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
iz'u i= gy djus ls igys fo|kFkhZ vk'oLr gks tk, fd blesa lHkh ist layXu gSa vFkok ughaA
6.
Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds 4 vad gSaA iz R;s d xyr mÙkj ij 1 va d dkV fy;k tk,xkA mÙkj dks vuqeku ls Hkjuk gkfudkjd gks ldrk gAS
7.
A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
ijh{kkFkhZ dks gy fd;s x;s iz'u dk mÙkj OMR mÙkj iqfLrdk esa lgh LFkku ij ds oy uhys @ dkys ckWy ikWb UV isu ds }kjk mfpr xksys dks xgjk
djds nsuk gSA
8.
Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
is f Uly dk iz ;ks x loZ Fkk oftZ r gSA
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with
Paper code and Your Form No.
uksV% ;fn bl iz'u i= esa dksbZ Correction gks rks Ïi;k Paper code ,oa vkids Form No. ds lkFk 2 fnu ds vUnj [email protected]
ij mail djsaA
Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-5156100
[email protected]
www.allen.ac.in
dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1.
If a particle moves along a straight line according
to the law v=2 (x sinx + cos x) then find its
acceleration (i.e.
(1)
2.
p
2
(2)
4.
5.
dv
) at x= p/2:dt
p
p
(3)
2 2
4 2
;fn ,d d.k fu;e v=2 (x sinx + cos x) ds vuqlkj
ljy js[kk esa xfr djrk gS rks x= p/2 ij bldk Roj.k
(vFkkZr~
(1)
(4) zero
Find the average acceleration of the block from
time t=2 sec to t=4 sec.
2.
10
10
3
4
t
P
m1
m2
(1) m1 = m2
(3) m1 < m2
0999DM310115020
(2)
1
(1) 5 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) –5 m/s2
(4) –10 m/s2
An observer finds the magnitudes of the
acceleration of two bodies to be the same. This
necessary implies that the two bodies.
(1) are at rest with respect to each other
(2) are at rest or move with constant velocities with
respect to each other
(3) are accelerated with respect to each other
(4) may be at rest, moving with constant velocities
or accelerated with respect to each other
A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts
having same density and radii in the ratio 1:2.
Their velocities are in the ratio
(1) 2:1
(2) 4:1
(3) 6:1
(4) 8:1
The P-V diagrams of two different masses
m1 and m2 for an ideal gas at constant temperature
T is given in figure. Then
gksxk :p
2 2
2
3
(1) 5 m/s2
(3) –5 m/s2
3.
4.
4 2
4
t
(2) 10 m/s2
(4) –10 m/s2
(2) 4:1
(3) 6:1
(2) m1 > m2
(4) Data is insufficient
(4) 8:1
,d vkn'kZ xSl ds fy;s nks fofHkUu nzO;eku m1 ,oa m2
ds fu;r rkieku ij P-V vkjs[k iznf'kZr g]S rc &
P
m1
m2
V
(4) zero
,d izs{ kd dks nks oLrqvksa ds Roj.k ds ifjek.k leku
iz kIr gksrs gSA ;g vko';d :i ls O;Dr djrk gS fd
nks oLrq ,¡&
(1) ,d nwljs ds lkis{k fojkekoLFkk esa gS
(2) ,d nwljs ds lkis{k fojkekoLFkk esa gS
(3) ,d nwljs ds lkis{k Rofjr gS
(4) ,d nwljs ds lkis{k fojkekoLFkk esa gS ;k fu;r osxksa
ls xfr'khy gS ;k Rofjr gS
fojke esa fLFkr ,d ukfHkd (nucleus) nks ukfHkdksa esa fo?kfVr
gksrk gS ftuds ?kuRo leku gaS vkSj f=T;kvksa dk vuqikr
1:2 gS rks muds osxksa dk vuqikr gksxk
(1) 2:1
5.
p
(3)
le; t=2 sec ls t=4 sec ds e/; CykWd dk vkSlr
Roj.k Kkr dhft,A
v(ms)–1
2
dv
)
dt
p
2
v(ms)–1
1
3.
1.
V
(1) m1 = m2
(2) m1 > m2
(3) m1 < m2
(4) vifjiw.kZ vkadM+s gS
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
6.
7.
8.
The kinetic energy of a body decreases by 19%,
what is the percentage decrease in momentum ?
(1) 20 % (2) 15 % (3) 10 %
(4) 5 %
While sitting on a tree branch 20m above the
ground, you drop a chestnut. When the chestnut
has fallen 5m, you throws a second chestnut
straight down. What initial speed must you give
the second chestnut if they are both to reach the
ground at the same time ? (g=10ms–2)
(1) 5 ms–1
(2) 10 ms–1
(3) 15 ms–1
(4) None of these
In the arrangement shown in figure, coefficient
of friction between the two
6.
7.
,d fi.M dh xfrt ÅtkZ 19 izfr'kr de gksrh gS] rks laoxs
esa gqbZ izfr'kr deh gksxh &
(1) 20 % (2) 15 % (3) 10 % (4) 5 %
tehu ls 20 m Åij ,d isM+ dh 'kk[kk ij cSBdj vki
,d v[kjksV fxjkrs gSA tc v[kjksV 5m uhps fxj pqdk gS]
vki nwljk v[kjksV lh/kk uhps fxjkrs gAS vkidks nwljs v[kjksV
dks fdl izkjfEHkd pky ls fxjkuk pkfg, fd os nksuksa tehu
ij ,d gh le; ij igq¡ps \ (g=10ms–2)
8.
(1) 5 ms–1
(2) 10 ms–1
(3) 15 ms–1
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
fp= esa fn[kk;s x;s nks CykW dksa ds e/; ?k"kZ. k xq.kkad
µ=
1
blocks is µ= . The force of friction acting
2
1
2
gSA nksuks a CykW d ds e/; dk;Z jr ?k"kZ .k cy gS
(g=10 ms–2)
between the two blocks is (g = 10 ms )
–2
2kg
F2=20N
9.
4kg
2kg
F=2N
F2=20N
smooth
(1) 8 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 4 N
A disc having a thread tightly wound on it is being
pulled upwards by the thread such that the disc
starts moving upwards with an acceleration g. If
angular acceleration is a and radius R, then the
value of Ra is-
9.
11.
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(1) g
(2) 2g
(3) 3g
(4) 4g
A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces
4 beats/s with one fork of frequency 288 cps. A
little wax is placed on the unknown fork and it
then produces 2 beats/s. The frequency of the
unknown fork is(1) 286 cps
(2) 292 cps
(3) 294 cps
(4) 288 cps
In a certain system, the units of length, mass and
time are chosen to be 1 cm, 100 g and 10 s. The
unit of kinetic energy will be
(1) 0.1 erg
(2) 1 erg
(3) 10 erg
(4) None of these
smooth
(1) 8 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 4 N
,d pdrh ij ,d /kkxs dks dldj yisVk x;k gAS vc
bls /kkxs }kjk Åij dh vksj bl izdkj [khapk tkrk gS fd
pdrh g Roj.k ls Åij dh vksj xfr djuk izkjEHk dj nsrh
gAS ;fn dks.kh; Roj.k a rFkk f=T;k R gS rks Ra dk eku
gksxk&
F
10.
4kg
F=2N
F
10.
(1) g
(2) 2g
(3) 3g
(4) 4g
,d 288 gV~Zt vko`fÙk dk Lofj=] ,d vU; Lofj= ds lkFk
4 [email protected] mRiUu dj jgk gAS vKkr vko`fÙk ds Lofj=
ij FkksM+k lk ekse yxkus ij ;g 2 [email protected] mRiUu
djrk gAS vKkr Lofj= dh vko`fÙk gS %
11.
(1) 286 cps
(2) 292 cps
(3) 294 cps
(4) 288 cps
,d fuf'pr fudk; esa yEckbZ] nzO;eku rFkk le; dh bdkbZ
1 cm, 100 g rFkk 10 s fy;s x;s gaAS xfrt ÅtkZ dh bdkbZ
gksxh%&
(1) 0.1 vxZ
(2) 1 vxZ
(3) 10 vxZ
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
0999DM310115020
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
Two particles P and Q move in a straight line towards
each other at initial velocities v1 and v2 and with
constant accelerations a1 and a2 directed against the
corresponding velocities at the initial instant. What
must be the maximum initial separation between
them for which they meet during the motion ?
12.
nks d.k P rFkk Q izkjfEHkd osxksa v1 rFkk v2 ls rFkk izkjfEHkd
{k.k ij laxr osxksa ds fo:¼ funsZf'kr fu;r Roj.kksa a1 rFkk
a2 ls ljy js[kk esa ,d nwljs dh vksj xfr djrs gaSA xfr
ds nkjS ku tc os feyrs gaS rks muds e/; vf/kdre izkjfEHkd
nwjh D;k gksxh\
(1)
( v1 + v 2 )
2 ( a1 + a 2 )
v12
v 22
+
(2)
2a1 2a 2
(3)
( v1 + v 2 )
2
2 ( a1 + a 2 )
(4) None of these
2
( v1 + v 2 )
2 ( a1 + a 2 )
2
(1)
(3)
13.
( v1 + v 2 )
2
1
2
2
v
v
(2) 2a + 2a
1
2
2
2
(4) None of these
2 ( a1 + a 2 )
2
The v–t graph of the motion of a wooden block
of mass 1 kg is shown in figure. It is given an
initial push at t=0, along a horizontal table. The
coefficient of friction between the block and table
is (g= 10 ms–2)
13.
1 kg nzO;eku okys ydM+h ds cDls dh xfr dk v–t xzkQ]
fp= esa iznf'kZr gAS bls t=0 ij {kfS rt est ds vuqfn'k
izkjfEHkd /kDdk fn;k tkrk gSA CykWd rFkk est ds e/; ?k"kZ.k
xq.kkad gksxk%& (g= 10 ms–2)
v(ms)–1
v(ms)–1
14
14
0
14.
0
t(S)
14
(1) 0.2
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.4
(4) 1.4
The diagram shows a uniform disc of mass M &
radius ‘a’. If the moment of inertia of the disc
about the axis XY is I, its moment of inertia about
an axis through O and perpendicular to the plane
of the disc is
(1) 0.2
14.
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.4
gksxk&
Y
a/2
a/2
a/2
cm
o
o
X
(1)
4
Ma 2
3
(3) 2I
(4) 1.4
M nzO;eku rFkk a f=T;k dh ,dleku pdrh dks fp=
esa iznf'kZr fd;k x;k gAS ;fn XY v{k ds lkis{k pdrh
dk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ I gS rks pdrh ds ry ds yEcor~ rFkk
O ls gksdj xqtjus okyh v{k ds lkis{k bldk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ
Y
cm
t(S)
14
a/2
12.
X
(2) I +
(4)
I
2
1
2
Ma
4
(1)
4
Ma 2
3
(3) 2I
(2) I +
(4)
1
2
Ma
4
I
2
iz R;s d iz ' u dks vtqZ u cudj djks A
0999DM310115020
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
15.
(1) y = asin(wt + kx)
lehdj.k y = asin (wt – kx) }kjk iznf'kZr ,d rjax] ,d
vizxkeh rjax cukus ds fy, ,d vU; rjax ds lkFk v/
;kjksfir gksrh gS] ftlls fd x = 0 ij fuLiUn cusA nwljh
rjax dh lehdj.k gS %
(2) y = – asin(wt + kx)
(1) y = asin(wt + kx)
(2) y = – asin(wt + kx)
(3) y = asin(wt – kx)
(4) y = – asin(wt – kx)
A wave y = asin(wt – kx) on a string meets with
another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then the
equation of the unknown wave is-
15.
(3) y = asin(wt – kx)
(4) y = – asin(wt – kx)
16.
a
a - t2
The dimensions of
in the relation P =
b
bx
16.
(1) M L T
(2) M L T
(3) M L T
(4) MLT–2
0
17.
0
0
–2
0
–2
37°
200 m
(1) 4 s
(3) 2 s
18.
19.
20.
4/42
esa
a
b
dh foek,¡ D;k gksxh] tgk¡ P
(1) M–1L0T–2
(2) M L0T–2
(3) M0L0T–2
(4) MLT–2
–2
Two particles A and B are moving in horizontal
plane as shown in figure at t = 0, then time after
which A will catch to B will bev
30 m/s
A
a - t2
bx
nkc] x nwjh rFkk t le; g-S
where P is the pressure, x is the distance and t is
the time, is–1
lEcU/k P =
17.
nks d.k A vkjS B ,d {kfS rt lery esa fuEu fp= ds vuqlkj
py jgs gSaA fdrus le; ckn d.k A d.k B dks idM+ ysxk&
v
A
B
37°
200 m
(1) 4 s
(3) 2 s
(2) 5 s
(4) 8 s
A body of mass m dropped from a height h reaches
30 m/s
18.
B
(2) 5 s
(4) 8 s
m nzO;eku dh ,d oLrq dks h Å¡ pkbZ ls fxjkus ij og
the ground with a speed of 1.4 gh . The work
1.4 gh dh pky ls tehu ij igq¡prh gAS ok;q ?k"kZ.k ds
done by air drag is-
}kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk&
(1) –0.2 mgh
(1) –0.2 mgh
(2) –0.02 mgh
(2) –0.02 mgh
(3) –0.04 mgh
(3) –0.04 mgh
(4) mgh
(4) mgh
A solid sphere of mass M and radius R cannot
have moment of inertia
19.
M nzO;eku rFkk R f=T;k okys ,d Bksl xksys dk tM+Ro
vk?kw.kZ ugha gks ldrk gS &
(1)
2
MR2
3
(2)
1
MR 2
2
(1)
2
MR2
3
(2)
1
MR 2
2
(3)
2
MR 2
5
(4)
2
MR 2
7
(3)
2
MR 2
5
(4)
2
MR 2
7
An observer moves towards a stationary source
of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity
of sound. what is the percentage increase in the
apparent frequency ?
20.
dksbZ izs{kd fdlh fLFkj /ofu òksr dh vksj /ofu ds osx
ds 1/5 osa osx ls xfr djrk gSA vkHkklh vko`fÙk esa izfr'kr
o`f¼ D;k gS ?
(1) zero
(2) 0.5%
(1) 'kwU;
(2) 0.5%
(3) 5%
(4) 20%
(3) 5%
(4) 20%
0999DM310115020
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
21.
22.
A physical quantity P is given by P =
1
1
A 3B 2
A 3B 2
-4
C D
3
2
. The
21.
3
C -4 D 2
ls iznf'kZr dh tkrh
gS rks P esa vf/kdre =qfV fdl jkf'k ds dkj.k vk ldrh
g\
S
(1) A
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
A particle is moving with a velocity of
r
v = ( 3iˆ + 4tjˆ ) m / s . Find the ratio of tangential
22.
(1) 4/3
(2) 3/4
(3) 5/3
(4) 3/5
Find out the total energy of a particle moving in
a circular orbit of radius r.
23.
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
,d d.k vr = ( 3iˆ + 4tjˆ ) m / s ds osx ls xfr dj jgk gAS
t = 1 s ij mlds Li'kZ js[kh; Roj.k o vfHkyEc Roj.k
dk vuqikr Kkr dhft,&
(1) 4/3
(2) 3/4
(3) 5/3
(4) 3/5
r f=T;k dh o`Ùkkdkj d{kk esa xfr'khy d.k dh dqy ÅtkZ
Kkr dhft,A
lw puk I : d.k fu;r pky v ls xfr djrk gAS
Information I : Particle moves with constant
speed v.
lw puk II : d.k laj{kh cy {ks= esa xfr djrk gAS
Information II : Particle moves in a conservative
force field.
(1) iz'u dks dsoy lwpuk&I }kjk gy fd;k tk ldrk
(1) Question can be solved by information I only.
(2) iz'u dks dsoy lwpuk&II }kjk gy fd;k tk ldrk
gS
gS
(2) Question can be solved by information II only.
24.
P=
quantity which brings the maximum percentage
error in P is–
acceleration to that of normal acceleration at
t = 1 sec.
23.
,d HkkfS rd jkf'k P lw=
(3) Question can be solved by information I and
II in combined form only.
(3) iz'u dks lwpuk&I rFkk lwpuk&II }kjk la;qä :i ls gy
(4) Question can not be solved by both the
informations only.
(4) iz'u dks dsoy nksuksa lwpukvksa }kjk gh gy ugha fd;k
In the following figure r1 and r2 are 5 cm and
30 cm respectively. If the moment of inertia of
the wheel is 5100 kg-m 2 then its angular
acceleration will be-
fd;k tk ldrk gS
tk ldrk gS
24.
fp=kuqlkj r1 o r2 Øe'k% 5 lseh o 30 lseh gAS ;fn ifg,
dk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ 5100 fdxzk&eh2 gks rks bldk dks.kh; Roj.k
gksxk :–
10N
10N
°
30
30
°
r1
r1
12N
12N
r2
r2
9N
9N
(1) 10–4 rad/s2
(2) 10–3 rad/s2
(1) 10–4 jsfM;[email protected]
(2) 10–3 jsfM;[email protected]
(3) 10–2 rad/s2
(4) 10–1 rad/s2
(3) 10–2 jsfM;[email protected]
(4) 10–1 jsfM;[email protected]
dksbZ Hkh iz'u
0999DM310115020
Key Filling
ls xyr ugha gks uk pkfg,A
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
25.
S1 , S2 are two coherent sources of sound located
along x - axis separated by 4 l where l is
wavelength of sound emitted by them . Number
of maxima located on the elliptical boundary
around it will be :
S1
4l
26.
27.
28.
25.
S1
4l
S2
(1) 16
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 4
A particle is situated at the origin of a coordinate
system. The following forces begin to act on the
particle simulta-neously
r
r
F1 = 5iˆ - 5ˆj + 5kˆ , F2 = 2iˆ + 8ˆj + 6kˆ ,
r
r
F3 = -6iˆ + 4ˆj - 7kˆ , F4 = -ˆi - 3ˆj - 2kˆ .
Then the particle will move :
(1) in X–Y plane
(2) in Y–Z plane
(3) in Z–X plane
(4) along X–axis
Two projectile A and B are projected with angle
of projection 15° for the projectile A and 45° for
the projectile B. If RA and RB be the horizontal
range for the two projectiles, then
(1) RA < RB
(2) RA = RB
(3) RA > RB
(4) the information is insufficient to decide the
relation of RA with RB
A particle with total energy E moves in one
dimension in a region where the potential energy
is U(x). The acceleration of the particle is zero
where
(1) U(x) = 0
26.
6/42
(1) 16
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 4
,d d.k funs'Z kkadksa ds ewy fcUnq ij mifLFkr gAaS fuEufyf[kr
cy ,d lkFk bl ij yxuk izkjEHk djrs gaS
r
r
F3 = -6iˆ + 4ˆj - 7kˆ , F4 = -ˆi - 3ˆj - 2kˆ
27.
rks d.k xfr djsxk
(1) X–Y ry esa
(2) Y–Z ry esa
(3) Z–X ry esa
(4) X–v{k ds vuqfn'k
nks iz {ksI ;ksa A rFkk B dks] A ds fy;s iz{ ksi.k dks.k
15°rFkk B ds fy;s iz{ksi.k dks.k 45° ds lkFk iz{ ksf ir
fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn RA rFkk RB nks iz {ksI;ksa dh {kSfrt
ijkl gS] rks %&
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
28.
RA
RA
RA
RA
< RB
= RB
> RB
rFkk RB ds e/; lEcU/k LFkkfir djus ds fy,
lwpuk vi;kZIr gS
,d d.k ftldh dqy ÅtkZ E g]S ,d {ks= esa ,dfoeh;
xfr djrk g]S tgk¡ fLFkfrt ÅtkZ U(x) gSA d.k dk Roj.k
'kwU; gksxk] tgk¡
(1) U(x) = 0
d2 U ( x )
(3)
=0
dx 2
(4) U(x) = E
540 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 540 g of water
at 80°C. The final temperature of the mixture is
(Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/g and
specific heat capacity of water = 1 cal/g0C)
(1) 0°C
(2) 40°C
(3) 80°C
(4) less than 0°C
S2
r
r
F1 = 5iˆ - 5ˆj + 5kˆ , F2 = 2iˆ + 8ˆj + 6kˆ ,
dU ( x )
(2)
=0
dx
29.
/ofu ds nks dyklaca¼ lzkrs S1 , S2 x v{k ds vuqfn'k
fLFkr gS rFkk muds e/; nwjh 4 l gAS tgka l muds }kjk mRlftZr
/ofu dh rjaxnS/;Z gSA buds pkjksa vksj nh?kZo`Ùkh; ifjlhek
ij fLFkfr mfPp"Bksa dh la[;k gksxh %&
(2)
dU ( x )
=0
dx
(3)
d2 U ( x )
=0
dx 2
(4) U(x) = E
29.
0°C ij cQZ dh 540 xzke ek=k dks 80°C ij ty dh
540 xzke ek=k ds lkFk fefJr fd;k tkrk gAS feJ.k dk
vfUre rki gks x k ( fn;k x;k g S % xyu dh xq I r
Å"ek = 80 cal/g rFkk ty dh fof'k"V Å"ek = 1 cal/g0C)
(1) 0°C
(3) 80°C
(2) 40°C
(4) 0°C ls de
0999DM310115020
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
30.
31.
The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours.
If the separation between the centre of earth and
the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous
value, the new time period will become(1) 10 h
(2) 80 h
(3) 40 h
(4) 20 h
The potential energy U between the atoms in a
diatomic molecule as a function of the distance x
between the atoms is shown in figure. The atoms
30.
31.
i`Foh ds fdlh mixzg dk vkorZdky 5 ?kaVs gAS ;fn i`Foh
ds dsUæ o mixzg ds chp dh nwjh 4 xquk gks tk, rks mixzg
dk u;k vkorZdky gksxk %&
(1) 10 ?kaVs
(2) 80 ?kaVs
(3) 40 ?kaVs
(4) 20 ?kaVs
,d f}ijekf.od v.kq ds ijek.kqvksa ds e/; fLFkfrt ÅtkZ (U)
dk ifjorZu ijek.kqvksa ds e/; nwjh (x) ds lkFk fpf=r gS rks ijek.kq&
U
U
B
O
32.
A
x
C
(1) Attract each other when x is between A and B
(2) Attract each other when x is between B and C
(3) Attract each other when x is at B
(4) Repel each other when x is at B
A boat moves relative to water with a speed which
is
1
32.
(3)
33.
(2) sin–1
2
p
+ sin–1
2
1
(4)
n
p
2
xquk pky lss pyrh gSA uko dks U;wure viogu ds
fy;s unh ds cgko dh fn'kk ls fdl dks. k ij pyuk
pkfg, %&
n
+ sin–1(n)
(3) t
TA
temperatures are TA and TB. The ratio T will be
B
2
p
+ sin–1
2
(4)
p
2
n
+ sin–1(n)
(3) t
(4)
1
t
nks fo|qr cYc A o B leku 'kfDr fofdfjr djrs gaAS muds
rUrqvksa dh foek,a ,d leku gS rFkk mRltZdrk,a eA o eB
gAS budh lrgksa ds rki TA rFkk TB gAS vuqikr
TA
TB
dk
eku gksxk&
1/4
æ eB ö
(2) ç ÷
è eA ø
1/2
æ eA ö
(4) ç ÷
è eB ø
æ eA ö
(3) ç ÷
è eB ø
æ eA ö
(4) ç ÷
è eB ø
n
(2) fLFkjkad
t
1/4
1/2
1
1
le; t = 0 ij ,d d.k x-v{k ij xfr izkjEHk djrk gAS
;fn mldh xfrt ÅtkZ le; 't' ds lkFk ,dleku :i ls
c<+ jgh gS] rc ml ij dk;Z'khy ifj.kkeh cy blds
lekuqikrh gS :(1)
34.
(2) sin–1
æ eB ö
(1) ç ÷
è eA ø
æ eB ö
(2) ç ÷
è eA ø
æ eA ö
(3) ç ÷
è eB ø
33.
p
1/2
1/4
æ eB ö
(1) ç ÷
è eA ø
(3)
(4)
equal to :–
vkdZf"kr djsaxsA
(2) tc x nwjh B vkjS C ds e/; gS rc vkil esa vkdZf"kr djsxa s
(3) tc x B ij gS rc vkil esa vkdZf"kr djsaxsA
(4) tc x B ij gS rc vkil esa izfrdf"kZr djsaxsA
,d uko ikuh ds lkis { k unh ds cgko dh pky dh
(1)
1
t
Two electric lamps A and B radiate the same
power. Their filaments have the same dimensions,
and have emissivities eA and eB. Their surface
(2) constant
t
x
n
1
At time t = 0 particle starts moving along the
x-axis. If its kinetic energy increases uniformly
with time 't', the net force acting on it must be
proportional to :(1)
34.
p
C
1
to the stream direction should the boat move to
minimise drifting (assume n > 1)
(1)
A
(1) tc x nw j h A vkSj B ds e/; gS] rc vkil es a
times the river flow speed. At what angle
n
B
O
1/2
1/4
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
0999DM310115020
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
35.
What is the minimum energy required to launch
a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet
of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an
altitude of 2R ?
5GmM
(1)
6R
(3)
36.
35.
djus ds fy, U;wure ÅtkZ vko';d gS %
2GmM
(2)
3R
GmM
2R
GmM
3R
(4)
r
The velocity of a particle is v = 6iˆ + 2ˆj - 2kˆ . The
36.
(1)
5GmM
6R
(2)
2GmM
3R
(3)
GmM
2R
(4)
GmM
3R
,d d.k dk os x vr = 6iˆ + 2ˆj - 2kˆ g S A lfn'k
r
a = ˆi + ˆj + kˆ ds lekUrj bl d.k ds os x dk ?kVd
component of the velocity of a particle parallel to
r
vector a = ˆi + ˆj + kˆ is :-
37.
æO;eku M ,oa f=T;k R ds ,d xzg ds i`"B ls æO;eku
m ds ,d mixzg dks 2R Å¡pkbZ ij o`Ùkh; d{k esa ykUp
gS :-
(1) 6iˆ + 2ˆj + 2kˆ
(2) 2iˆ + 2ˆj + 2kˆ
(1) 6iˆ + 2ˆj + 2kˆ
(2) 2iˆ + 2ˆj + 2kˆ
(3) ˆi + ˆj + kˆ
(4) 6iˆ + 2ˆj - 2kˆ
(3) ˆi + ˆj + kˆ
(4) 6iˆ + 2ˆj - 2kˆ
In the figure shown, the acceleration of wedge is
(Neglect friction)
37.
iznf'kZr fp= esa ost dk Roj.k gksxk (?k"kZ.k ux.; ekfu;s)
F
F
M
(wedge)
m
(1)
F
M
(2)
(3) zero
38.
M
(wedge)
m
(1)
F
m+M
(4)
F
m
Five uniform circular plates, each of diameter D
and mass m are laid out in a pattern shown. Using
the origin shown, find the y co–ordinate of the
centre of mass of the five–plate system.
F
M
(2)
(3) zero
38.
(4)
+y
+x
+x
origin
8/42
F
m
ik¡p le:i o`Ùkkdkj IysVas ftuesa izR;sd dk O;kl D rFkk
æO;eku m gS fp=kuqlkj j[kh xbZ gAS ewy fcUnq dk iz;ksx
djrs gq ; s ik¡ p Iys V ks a ds fudk; ds nzO;eku dsUæ dk
y funsZ'kkad Kkr dhft,&
+y
(1) 2D/5
(3) D/3
F
m+M
origin
(2) 4D/5
(4) D/5
(1) 2D/5
(3) D/3
(2) 4D/5
(4) D/5
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
39.
One mole of a gas is subjected to two process AB
and BC, one after the other as shown in the figure.
BC is represented by PVn = constant. We can
concludethat (where T= temperature, W = work
done by gas, V = volume and U = internal energy)
39.
fp=kuqlkj ,d eksy xSl dks nks izØeksa AB rFkk BC esa
ls ,d ds ckn ,d ys tk;k tkrk gAS BC dks PVn = fu;r
}kjk iznf'kZr fd;k x;k gAS ge fu"d"kZ fudky ldrs gaS fd
(tgka T= rki] W=xSl }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z] V= vk;ru
rFkk U = vkarfjd ÅtkZ)
P
P
A B
A B
C
V 0 2V 0
40.
3V 0
V
V 0 2V 0
(1) TA = TB = TC
(1) TA = TB = TC
(2) VA < VB, PB < PC
(2) VA < VB, PB < PC
(3) WAB < WBC
(3) WAB < WBC
(4) UA < UB
(4) UA < UB
Two blocks of mass 3 kg and 6 kg respectively
are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. They
are connected by a light spring of force constant
k = 200 N/m. Initially the spring is unstretched.
The indicated velocities are imparted to the blocks.
The maximum extension of the spring will be :-
40.
(1) 30 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 15 cm
A particle is moving in a straight line y=3x. Its
velocity time graph is shown in figure. Its speed
is minimum at t =.............
41.
(1) 30 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 15 cm
,d d.k ,d ljy js[kk y=3x ds vuqfn'k xfr dj jgk
g S A bldk os x &le; xz k Q fp= es a n'kkZ ; k x;k g S A
t =............. ij bldh pky U;wure gksxhA
–1
v(ms )
–1
v(ms )
10
10
5
0
6kg
3kg
(2) 25 cm
V
2.0m/s
1.0m/s
6kg
3kg
3V 0
nks xqVds ftudk nzO;eku 3 kg vkjS 6 kg Øe'k% g]S mUgsa
,d {kSfrt fpdus lrg ij j[kk x;k gAS mUgsa gYds fLizax
ftldk cy fu;rkad 200 N/m ls tksM+k x;k gAS izkjaHk
esa fLizax ruh gqbZ ugha gAS xqVds dks fn;k x;k osx fp= esa
fn[kk;k x;k gAS fLizax esa vf/kdre foLrkj gksxk :-
2.0m/s
1.0m/s
41.
C
t(s)
2
4
6
8
5
0
–10
t(s)
2
4
6
8
–10
(1) 2s
(2) 4s
(1) 2 lsd.M
(2) 4 lsd.M
(3) 6s
(4) 8s
(3) 6 lsd.M
(4) 8 lsd.M
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
42.
If a constant external force starts acting on a
moving particle, which of the following is not
essentially true?
42.
(1) the line of motion of the particle will keep changing
(2) the speed of the particle will keep changing
(3) the particle will keep moving
(4) none is essentially true
43.
A body of mass 4 kg is acted on by a force which
varies as shown in the graph below. The
momentum acquired is
F(N)
F(N)
10
10
0
44.
45.
10/42
43.
;fn fdlh xfr'khy d.k ij ,d fu;r ckg~; cy dk;Z
djuk izkjEHk djrk gAS fuEu esa ls dkSu ls vko';d :i
ls lR; ugha g\
S
(1) d.k dh xfr dh js[kk ifjorZu'khy jgsxh
(2) d.k dh pky ifjorZu'khy jgsxh
(3) d.k xfr'khy jgsxk
(4) dksbZ Hkh vko';d :i ls lR; ugha gS
4 kg nzO;eku dh ,d oLrq ij ,d cy dk;Z djrk gS tks
fd uhps iznf'kZr xzkQ ds vuqlkj ifjofrZr gksrk gAS izkIr
laoxs gksxk%&
5
9
t(s)
0
5
9
t(s)
(1) 280 N–s
(2) 140 N–s
(1) 280 N–s
(2) 140 N–s
(3) 70 N–s
(4) 210 N–s
(3) 70 N–s
(4) 210 N–s
A body cools from 50.0°C to 49.9°C in 5 s. How
long will it take to cool from 40.0°C to 39.9°C?
Assume the temperature of surroundings to be
30.0°C
(1) 2.5 s
(2) 10 s
(3) 20 s
(4) 5 s
A wire of length l, area of cross-section A and
Young's modulus of elasticity Y is suspended
from the proof of a building. A block of mass m
is attached at lower end of the wire. If the block
is displacement from its mean position and then
released the block starts oscillation. Time period
of these oscillations will be :-
44.
45.
fdlh oLrq dks 50.0°C ls 49.9°C rd BaMk gksus esa 5
lsd.M dk le; yxrk gAS bls 40.0°C ls 39.9°C rd
BaMk gksus esa fdruk le; yxsxk ;fn okrkoj.k dk rki
30.0°C gks %&
(1) 2.5 lsd.M
(2) 10 lsd.M
(3) 20 lsd.M
(4) 5 lsd.M
edku dh Nr ls ,d rkj ftldh yackbZ l, vuqizLFk dkj
dk {ks=Qy A, ;ax ekikad Y g]S yVdk;k x;k gSA rkj ds
fupys fljs ls m nzO;eku okys xqVds dks tksM+k x;k gAS ;fn
xqVds dks ek/; fLFkfr ls foLFkkfir fd;k tkrk gS vkSj mls
NksM+k tkrk gS rks og nksyu djus yxrk gSA nksyu dk
vkorZdky gksxk :-
(1) 2p
Al
mY
(2) 2p
AY
ml
(1) 2p
Al
mY
(2) 2p
AY
ml
(3) 2p
ml
YA
(4) 2p
m
YAl
(3) 2p
ml
YA
(4) 2p
m
YAl
0999DM310115020
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
XeF 6 fluorinates I 2 to IF 7 and li berates
Xenon(g). 210 mmol of XeF 6 can yield a
maximum of_____ mmol of IF7
(1) 420
(2) 180
(3) 210
(4) 245
Calculate change in entropy when 2 moles of
an ideal gas is expanded from 10 litre to
20 litre reversibly and isothermally
(1) 1.2 Cal
(2) 2.772 Cal
(3) –1.2 Cal
(4) –2.772 Cal
In which of the following species are planar.
(1) I3 --, XeF 2 , ClF 3
(2) H2 O, OCl –, ICl2+
(3) XeF 5--, XeF 4 , BF 3
(4) All are correct
Which is the strongest Lewis acid?
46.
47.
(1) 1.2 Cal
(3) –1.2 Cal
48.
(2) 2.772 Cal
(4) –2.772 Cal
fuEu esa ls dkuS lh iztkfr;k¡ leryh; gS %&
(1) I3 --, XeF 2 , ClF 3
(3) XeF 5--, XeF 4 , BF 3
49.
(2) H2 O, OCl –, ICl2+
(4) lHkh lgh gSA
buesa ls dkuS lcls 'kfDr'kkyh yqbZl vEy gS ?
(1) BF3
(2) BCl3
(1) BF3
(2) BCl3
(3) BBr3
(4) BI3
(3) BBr3
(4) BI3
CH3–CH–CH = CH2 + HBr ®
X
(product)
50.
CH3–CH–CH = CH2 + HBr ® X (mRikn)
CH3
which is predominate; X is -
dkuS lk X (mRikn) vf/kdre ek=k esa cusxk -
(1) CH3 - CH - CH2CH2Br
(1) CH3 - CH - CH2CH2Br
Br
|
(2) CH3 - C - CH2 - CH3
|
CH3
Br
|
(2) CH3 - C - CH2 - CH3
|
CH3
(3) CH3 - CH - CH - CH3
(3) CH3 - CH - CH - CH3
(4) None is correct
(4) None is correct
|
CH3
|
CH3
|
|
CH3 Br
|
|
CH3 Br
112.0 mL of NO2 at STP (1atm, 273K) was
liquefied, the density of the liquid being
1.15 g mL–1 . Calculate the volume and the
number of molecules in the liquid NO2
(At. wt. N = 14)
51.
(3) 0.20 mL and 6.02 × 1023
(4) 0.40 mL and 6.02 × 1021
If Ksp for AgCl is 10–10. Calculate solubility of
AgCl in 0.1M NaCl solution in mol/litre.
(1) 10–5
(2) 10–9
(3) 10–4
(4) 10–7
0999DM310115020
112.0 feyh NO2 dk STP (1 ok;qe.My, 273K) ij
nzohdj.k djus ij izkIr nzo dk ?kuRo 1.15 g mL–1 ik;k
x;kA izkIr nzo NO2 dk vk;ru ,oa v.kqvksa dh la[;k dh
x.kuk dhft;s (At. wt. N = 14)
(1) 0.10 feyh vkjS 3.01 × 1022
(1) 0.10 mL and 3.01 × 1022
(2) 0.20 mL and 3.01 × 1021
52.
(1) 420
(2) 180
(3) 210
(4) 245
2 eksy vkn'kZ xSl dks 10 litre ls 20 litre rd mRØe.kh;
o lerkih izfØ;k ls izlkfjr fd;k x;k gS ,UVªkWih esa ifjorZu
gksxk %&
CH3
51.
XeF6 , I2 dk ¶yksjhuhdj.k djds IF7 rFkk Xe(g) nsrk
gAS 210 feyh eksy XeF6 , IF7 dk vfèkdre------feyh
eksy ns ldrk gS %&
(2) 0.20 feyh vkjS 3.01 × 1021
(3) 0.20 feyh vkjS 6.02 × 1023
52.
(4) 0.40 feyh vkjS 6.02 × 1021
AgCl ds fy, Ksp 10–10 gAS AgCl dh 0.1M NaCl esa
foys;rk gksxh (eksy@yhVj) %&
(1) 10–5
(2) 10–9
(3) 10–4
(4) 10–7
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
53.
Which of the following order is/are correct
53.
about the bond angle.
(1) OF2 > H2O < Cl2O > ClO2
(1) OF2 > H2O < Cl2O > ClO2
(2) COF 2 <COCl2<COBr2 <COI2 (X–C–X–ca / k
(2) COF2<COCl2<COBr2<COI2 (X–C–X–Bond
angle)
dks.k)
(3) PH3 > PF3
(3) PH3 > PF3
(4) KrF4 > XeF4
(4) KrF4 > XeF4
54.
B2H6 + CH3Cl ¾® Product
55.
product which not possible
(1) B2(CH3)6
(2) B2H4(CH3)2
(3) B2H3(CH3)3
(4) B2H5(CH3)
Which of the following is most stable ?
CH3
(1) H
54.
B2H6 + CH3Cl ¾® mRikn
mRikn tks fd laHko ugh gS
(1) B2(CH3)6
(3) B2H3(CH3)3
55.
(2) B2H4(CH3)2
(4) B2H5(CH3)
fuEu esa ls lokZf/kd LFkk;h gS ?
CH3
CH3
H
ca/k dks.k ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkuS lR; gS %&
H
H
H
H
(2) H
H
(1) H
57.
58.
12/42
(2) H
H
CH3
(3) H
(4) All have same stability
H
H
H
In Heisenberg's uncertainty experiment
incorrect statement is :(1) Use of high intensity light increases
accuracy in the measurement of distance of
electron from nucleus.
(2) Use of high frequency light increases
accuracy in the measurement of distance of
electron from the nucleus
(3) Use of long wavelength light increases
accuracy in measurement of speed of electron
(4) If an experiment is designed to measure the
distance of electron from nucleus, the speed
measured in the same experiment would be
highly imprecise.
Calculate no. of moles of KMnO4 required to
completely react with 1 mole of KI in alkaline
medium.
2
3
(4)
5
5
Which of the following forms only p-bond
using M.O. theory :
(1) Li2
(2) C2
(3) N2
(4) O2
(1) 2
H
CH
CH3 3
(3) H
56.
H
H
CH
CH3 3
H
H
CH3
CH3
H
CH3
CH3
(2) 1
56.
H
H
(4) mijksDr lHkh dk LFkkf;Ro leku gS
gkbtsucxZ ds vfuf'prrk okys iz;ksx ds fy, xyr dFku
gksxk :(1) mPPk rhozrk okys izdk'k dk iz;ksx djus ij ukfHkd ls
bysDVªksu dh nwjh ekius esa vf/kd ;FkkFkZrk izkIr gksrh gAS
(2) mPPk vko`fÙk dk izdk'k iz;ksx djus ij ukfHkd ls bysDVªkus
dh nwjh dh ;FkkZFkrk vf/kd gksxhA
(3) yEch rjaxn/S ;Z dh mi;ksx djus ij bysDVªksu ds osx dh
;FkkFkZrk vf/kd izkIr gksxhA
(4) ;fn iz;ksx dks bl izdkj fd;k x;k ftlls bysDVªksu dh
ukfHkd ls nwjh lgh izkIr gks tk;s rks bl iz;ksx esa osx esa
vLi"Vrk vf/kd gksxhA
57.
1 eksy KI dks {kkjh; ek/;e esa iw.kZr;k fØ;k djokus ds
fy, KMnO4 ds fdrus eksy dh vko';drk gS
(1) 2
(3)
58.
(2) 1
(3)
2
5
(4)
3
5
vkf.od d{kd fl¼kar ds vuqlkj fuEu esa ls dkSu flQZ
p&ca/k cukrk gS :
(1) Li2
(2) C2
(3) N2
(4) O2
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
59.
60.
Inert pair effect is predominant in
59.
(1) Si
(2) Pb
(1) Si
(2) Pb
(3) Ge
(4) Sn
(3) Ge
(4) Sn
Ozonolysis of 2-methyl-2-butene, in presence
of Zn, yields -
60.
(1) Only aldehyde
(2) Only ketone
(3) Both aldehyde and ketone
(4) Only carboxylic acid
61.
At relatively high pressure, the van der waal's
equations reduces to :-
61.
(2) PV = RT + Pb
(2) PV = RT + Pb
(3) PV = RT
(4) PV = RT – a/V
(4) PV = RT – a/V2
Solid AgNO3 is added to a solution which is
0.1 M in Cl– and 0.1 M in CrO42–. Ksp values
of AgCl and Ag 2 CrO 4 are 1.7 × 10 –10 and
1.9 × 10 –12 respectively.The concentration of
Cl– when Ag2CrO4 starts precipitating will be :-
62.
foys;rk xq.kuQy Øe'k% 1.7 × 10–10 rFkk 1.9 × 10–12
gksa rks Cl– dh lkUærk ml le; Kkr dhft, tc Ag2CrO4
dk vo{ksi.k izkjEHk gks tk,xk :3.9 × 10–5M
2.9 × 10–5M
3.9 × 10–3M
1.9 × 10–2M
;fn AX3 v.kq dk f}/kzqo vk?kw.kZ 'kwU; gS rc v.kq dh lEHkkfor
vkÏfr gksxh :(1) fijkfeMh;
(2) T–vkd`fr
(3) f=dks.kh; leryh;
(4) prq"Qydh;
fn;s x;s ;k S f xd dk lgh IUPAC uke g S
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2) 2.9 × 10–5M
(3) 3.9 × 10–3M
(4) 1.9 × 10–2M
65.
0.1 M Cl– rFkk 0.1 M CrO42– okys foy;u esa Bksl
AgNO3 feyk;k x;kA ;fn AgCl rFkk Ag2CrO 4ds
(1) 3.9 × 10–5M
64.
vfHkfØ;k ij nsx h (1) dsoy ,sYMhgkbM
(2) dsoy dhVksu
(3) ,YMhgkbM ,oa dhVksu nksuksa
(4) dkcksZ fDlfyd vEy
lkis{kr% mPp nkc ij okUMjoky lehdj.k dks fy[kk tk
ldrk gS :(1) PV = RT – a/V
2
63.
2-esfFky -2-C; qV hu, Zn dh mifLFkfr esa vkstksuhdj.k
(1) PV = RT – a/V
(3) PV = RT
62.
vfØ; ;qXe izHkko fdlesa lokZf/kd gS %&
If dipole moment of AX3 molecule is zero then
possible shape of molecule will be :(1) Pyramidal
(2) T–shape
(3) Trigonal planner
(4) Tedrahedral
The
correct
IUPAC
name
of
63.
64.
CH3 - CH2 - C - COOH is :
||
CH2
CH3 - CH2 - C - COOH
||
CH2
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
2-Methyl butanoic acid
2-Ethyl propenoic acid
2- Carboxy-1- butene
None of the above
Which of the following compounds will not
give white precipitate with Tollen's reagent(1) Ethyne
(2) 1-Butyne
(3) 3-Methyl-1-butyne (4) 2-Pentyne
65.
:-
2-esfFky C;sVsuksbd vEy
2-,sfFky izksihuksbd vEy
2-dkcksZDlh-1- C;wVhu
buesa ls dksbZ ugh
fuEu esa ls dkSu VkWysu vfHkdeZd ds lkFk 'osr vo{ksi
ugh nsxk (1) bFkkbZu
(2) 1-C;w VkbZ u
(3) 3-esfFky -1-C; w VkbZ u
(4) 2-isUVkbZ u
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
0999DM310115020
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
66.
For the reaction
66.
ˆˆ† OH– + H2PO4–
H2O + HPO42– ‡ˆˆ
Which of the following is correct ?
Acids
(1) H2O; H2PO4
(2) H2O; H2PO4
(3) H2O; H2PO4
H2O/HPO42– ;H2 PO4 – /OH–
–
(2) H2O; H2PO42–
H2 O/H– ;H2PO4 2– /H2PO4 –
2–
(3) H2O; H2PO4–
H2O/OH– ;H 2PO 4– /HPO4 2–
H2O/HPO4 ;H2 PO4 /OH
2–
–
H2 O/H ;H2PO4 /H2PO4
–
–
–
H2O/OH ;H 2PO 4 /HPO4
–
2–
–
–
68.
69.
(4) H2PO42–;H2PO4–
–
(4) H2PO4 ;H2PO4 HPO4 /OH ;H2 PO4 /H2 O
67. If x is the velocity of an electron in first Bohr’s
orbit. What would be the velocity of the
electron in third Bhor’s orbit -
x
9
x
(3) 3x
(4) 9 x
3
H2O2 can act as all of these except
(1) acid
(2) base
(3) oxidising agent
(4) reducing agent
The IUPAC name of the given compound is :-
67.
(1)
(2)
68.
69.
71.
(1) 2-Bromo-2-chloro-2-fluoroethanal
(2) 1-Bromo-1-chloro-2-fluoroethanal
(3) 2-Fluoro-2-chloro-2-bromoethanal
(4) 1-Fluoro-1-chloro-1-bromoethanal
Among the following groups, the group that
deactivates the benzene ring for further
electrophilic substitution, is –
(1) –OH
(2) –CH3 (3) –NO2 (4) –NH 2
At 200ºC, nitrogen oxide reacts with oxygen
to form nitrogen dioxide as follows :
ˆˆ† 2NO2 , kc = 3 × 106
2NO + O2 ‡ˆˆ
In a mixture of the three species at equilibrium,
we can accurately predict that
(1) The concentration of both NO and O2 will be
much larger than the concentration of NO2
(2) The concentrations of both NO and O2 will be
much smaller than the concentration of NO2.
(3) The concentrations of either NO or O 2
(and possibly both) will be much smaller
than the concentration of NO2
(4) The concentration of O2 will be exactly one
half the concentration of NO
14/42
HPO42– /OH–;H2 PO4 –/H2 O
;fn cksgj ds izFke d{k esa bysDVªkWu dk osx x g]S rks cksgj ds
rhljs d{k esa bysDVªkWu dk osx gksxk x
9
(2)
x
3
(3) 3x
(4) 9 x
H2O2 buesa ls fdlds vfrfjä lHkh dh rjg dk;Z dj
ldrk gS %&
(1) vEy (2) {kkj (3) vkWDlhdkjd (4) vipk;d
fn;s x;s ;kSfxd dk lgh IUPAC uke gS %&
Br
|
Cl - C - CHO
|
F
70.
la ;qXeh vEy {kkj ;qXe
(1) H2O; H2PO4–
–
2–
2–
2–
(1)
vEy
Conjugate acid-base pairs
–
ˆˆ† OH– + H2PO4–
vfHkfØ;k H2O + HPO42– ‡ˆˆ
ds fy;s dkuS lk lgh gS ?
Br
|
Cl - C - CHO
|
F
70.
(1) 2-czkseks-2-Dyksjks-2-¶yksjks,Fs ksuy
(2) 1 czkseks-1-Dyksjks-2-¶yksjks,Fs ksuy
(3) 2-¶yksjks-2-Dyksjks-2-czke
s ks,Fs ksuy
(4) 1-¶yksjks-1-Dyksjks-1-czke
s ks,Fs ksuy
fuEu esa ls dkSu csUthu dh bysDVªkWuLusgh ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k
dks fuf"Ø; djrk gS –
(1) –OH
71.
(2) –CH3
(3) –NO2
(4) –NH2
ˆˆ† 2NO2 , kc = 3 × 106
lehdj.k 2NO + O2 ‡ˆˆ
ds vuqlkj ukbfVªd vkWDlkbM vkWDlhtu ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k
djds ukbVª k stu MkbZ v kW D lkbM dk fuekZ . k djrk gS A
lkE;koLFkk ij rhuksa xSlksa ds feJ.k esa ge lgh&lgh vuqeku
dj ldrs gS :(1) NO o O2 nksuksa dh lkanzrk NO2 dh rqyuk esa cgqr
vfèkd gksxh
(2) NO o O2 nksuksa dh lkanzrk NO2 dh rqyuk esa cgqr de
gksxh.
(3) ;k rks NO ;k O2 fdlh ,d dh lkanzrk (o lEHkor%
nksuksa) NO2 dh rqyuk esa cgqr de gksxhA
(4) O2 dh lkUnzrk NO dh lkanzrk dh Bhd vk/kh gksxhA
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
72.
73.
74.
What is the density (in g mL–1) of a 3.60 M
aqeous sulphuric acid solution that is 29.0%
H2SO4 by mass :(1) 1.22
(2) 1.45
(3) 1.64
(4) 1.88
The boiling point of water is exceptionally high
due to
(1) covalent bond between H and O
(2) linear shape
(3) hydrogen bonding
(4) non linear shape
Which is a pair of geometrical isomers ?
I.
Cl
III.
75.
76.
H
Cl
C=C
C=C
Br
Br
CH3
II.
IV.
Cl
H
H
C=C
C=C
72.
3.60 M lY¶;w f jd vEy ds foy;u dk ?kuRo
(g/mL) D;k gksxk ;fn bl foy;u esa 29.0% Hkkj ds
:i esa H2SO4 mifLFkr gS :(1) 1.22
(2) 1.45
(3) 1.64
(4) 1.88
73.
ty dk DoFkukad buesa ls fdlds dkj.k vioknLo:i vfèkd
gS
(1) H o O ds chp lgla;kstd ca/k
(2) js[kh; lajpuk
(3) gkbMªkstu ca/k
(4) vjs[kh; lajpuk
dkSulk T;kferh leko;oh;ksa dk ;qXe gS ?
74.
I.
Br
CH3
III.
Br
CH3
Cl
H
Br
(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and IV
(4) III and IV
Friedel – Craft alkylation proceeds through
the formation of intermediate (1) Alkyl anion
(2) Alkyl free radical
(3) Alkyl cation
(4) None of these
Which is correct statement :
(1) On moving away from the nucleus, kinetic
energy of electron decreases in a H-like atom.
(2) Energy difference between energy levels
will be changed, if P.E. at infinity assigned
value other than zero
(3) The difference in angular momentum
associates with the electron present in
75.
(4) Frequency of electron in an orbit in a
H-atom is in the order of f4 > f3 > f2 > f 1
(fn : where n is orbit number for a given atom)
Select the correct statement(s)
(1) The normal oxide formed by the element
on extreme left is the most basic.
(2) The tendency of group IA (i.e. 1 st group)
to form oxygen rich compounds increases
from top to bottom.
(3) Oxides of metals are called as basic
anhydrides.
(4)All are correct
0999DM310115020
H
Cl
Br
C=C
Br
76.
II.
Br
C=C
CH3
H
IV.
Cl
H
H
Cl
C=C
C=C
(1) I vkjS II
(2) I vkjS III
(3) II vkjS IV
(4) III vkjS IV
Br
CH3
Br
CH3
ÝhMy&Øk¶V vfHkfØ;k esa cuus okyk e /;orhZ gS (1) ,fYdy ½.kk;u (2) ,fYdy eqä ewy d
(3) ,fYdy /kuk;u
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku lgh gaS :
(1) gkbMªkstu ln`'; ijek.kqvksa esa ukfHkd ls nwj tkus ij
bysDVªkWuksa dh xfrt ÅtkZ ?kVrh gSA
(2) ;fn fLFkfrt ÅtkZ dk eku vuUr ij 'kwU; ls vyx ekuk
tk; rks fofHkUu ÅtkZ Lrjksa ds e/; ÅtkZ dk vUrj
ifjo£rr gksxkA
(3) gkbMªkstu ijek.kq dh ,dkUrj d{kkvksa esa bysDVªkWuksa ls
lEcfU/kr dks.kh; laoxs dk vUrj
h
alternate orbit of H-atom is
2p
77.
Cl
h
gAS
2p
(4) gkbMªkstu ijek.kq ds fofHkUu d{kkvksa esa bysDVªkWu dh
77.
vko` r h dk Øe f 4 > f 3 > f 2 > f 1 g S A
(fn : tgk¡ n fn;s x;s ijek.kq dk d{kk Øekad gS )
lgh dFku pqfu, %&
(1) pje ckabZ rjQ ds rRoksa }kjk cuk, x, vkWDlkbM vfèkdre
{kkjh; gksrs gSA
(2) IA lewg ds rRoksa dh vkWDlhtu vkf/kD; ;kSfxd cukus
dh izo`fÙk mij ls uhps tkus ij c<+rh gAS
(3) /kkrqvksa ds vkWDlkbM {kkjh; ,ugkMªkbM (ty jfgr)
dgykrs gAS
(4) lHkh lgh gAS
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
78.
78.
Which of following reaction gives H2 gas?
dkSulh vfHkfØ;k H2 xl
S nsrh g\
S
(1) CaH2 + H2O
(1) CaH2 + H2O
(2) Al + NaOH excess
(2) Al + NaOH vkf/kD;
(3) Zn + dil. H2SO4
(3) Zn + ruq. H2SO4
(4) All
(4) mijksDr lHkh
CH2–CH3
CH2–CH3
Cl2
¾¾¾
® Major
hn
79.
product ?
CH2–CH2–Cl
Cl–CH–CH3
(1)
CH2–CH2–Cl
(2)
Cl
Cl–CH–CH3
(1)
CH2–CH 3
CH2–CH 3
(3)
Cl
2
¾¾¾
® eq[; mRikn gS
hn
79.
(2)
CH2–CH 3
CH2–CH 3
Cl
(3)
(4)
(4)
Cl
Cl
80.
Which of the following resonating structure
contributes equally to the resonance hybrid.
Å
80.
fuEu esa ls dkuS lh vuqukn lajpuk;a]s vuqukn ladj esa leku
;ksxnku nsrh gS %&
Å
(1) CH3 – C – CH = CH – CH3 ¬¾®
(1) CH3 – C – CH = CH – CH3 ¬¾®
|
|
CH3
CH3
Å
Å
CH3 – C = CH – C H – CH3
CH3 – C = CH – C H – CH3
|
|
CH3
CH3
+
(2) CH3 – C – NH2 ¬¾® CH 3 – C = NH 2
||
O-
||
|
O-
O
-
O
(3) CH3 – C
+
(2) CH3 – C – NH2 ¬¾® CH 3 – C = NH 2
|
O-
O
O
(3) CH3 – C
O
O
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = O ¬¾®
+
-
O
¬¾® CH3 – C
-
CH 2 – CH = CH – O
O
-
¬¾® CH3 – C
O
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = O ¬¾®
+
-
CH 2 – CH = CH – O
LoLFk jgks] eLr jgks rFkk i<+kbZ esa O;Lr jgks A
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81.
Three different gasses He, O2 & CH4 each of
1 mole are expanded reversibly and
adiabatically as shown in graph.
81.
rhu fHkUu xl
S ksa izR;sd ds 1 eksy He, O2 vkjS CH4 dks
mRØe.kh; :¼ks"e izfØ;k ls foLrkj dj jgs gaS ftudks xzkQ
esa fn[kk;k x;k gS
P
P
82.
A
A
B
C
B
C
V
Then correct representation is
(1) A ® He
B ® O2
C ® CH4
(2) A ® CH4
B ® O2
C ® He
(3) A ® CH4
B ® He
C ® O2
(4) A ® He
B ® CH4 C ® O2
Which one of the following statements is
incorrect in relation to ionisation enthalpy ?
V
rc lgh izn'kZu gksxk
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
82.
(1) Ionization enthalpy increases for each
successive electron.
83.
84.
85.
A
A
A
A
®
®
®
®
He
CH4
CH4
He
B
B
B
B
®
®
®
®
O2
O2
He
CH4
C
C
C
C
®
®
®
®
CH4
He
O2
O2
vk;uu ÅtkZ ds laEc/k esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku vlR;
gS ?
(1) ,d ds ckn ,d byDS VªkWu ds fy, vk;uu ÅtkZ c<+rh gSA
(2) The greatest increase in ionization enthalpy
is experienced on removal of electron from
core of noble gas configuration.
(2) vk;uu ÅtkZ esa lcls vf/kd o`f¼ vfØ; xSl foU;kl
(3) Determination of valence electrons is
marked by a large jump in ionization
enthalpy.
(4) Removal of electron from orbitals bearing
lower n value is easier than from orbital
having higher n value.
Which is least thermally stable?
(3) la;ksth bySDVªkWu dk fu/kkZj.k vk;uu ÅtkZ esa cM+s varj ls
ds dksj ls bysDVªkWu dks gVkus ij vuqHko gksrh gAS
fpfUgr gksrk gAS
(4) de n eku ds d{kd ls bySDVªkWu gVkuk] vf/kd n eku
ds d{kd ds ctk; vklku gAS
83.
fuEu esa ls dkuS rkih; :i ls lcls de LFkk;h gS ?
(1) Li2CO3
(2) Na2CO3
(1) Li2CO3
(2) Na2CO3
(3) K2CO3
(4) Rb 2CO3
(3) K2CO3
(4) Rb 2CO3
A mixture of ethyl iodide and n-propyl
iodide is subjected to Wurtz reaction. The
hydrocarbon that will not be formed is(1) n–Butane
(2) Isobutane
(3) n–Pentane
(4) n–Hexane
Find the strongest acid among the following
compounds.
(1) CH3CHCOOH
NO2
(3) CH3CH2COOH
(2) CH3 – CH – COOH
85.
,sfFky vk;ksMkbZM vkSj n-izkfs iy vk;ksMkbZM feJ.k esa
oqVZt vfHkfØ;k djkbZ tkrh gS ] dkSulk gkbMªksdkcZ u ugh
cusxk (1) n–C; wVsu
(2) vkblks C;q Vsu
(3) n–isUVsu
(4) n–gsDlsu
fuEu ;kfS xdks esa ls izcyre vEy gS %&
(1) CH3CHCOOH
NO2
(2) CH3 – CH – COOH
Cl
Cl
(4) CH 3CHCOOH
C ºN
0999DM310115020
84.
(3) CH3CH2COOH
(4) CH 3CHCOOH
C ºN
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86.
In the following figure, when the two stopcocks
are opened, the total pressure inside the flask
will be :-
CO2
2.13 atm
1.5L
87.
88.
89.
90.
H2
1.0L
0.861 atm
86.
fuEufyf[kr fp= esa ;fn nksuks LVkWi&dkWd dks [kksy fn;k
tk;s rks vUnj dqy nkc gksxk :-
CO2
2.13 atm
1.5L
Ar
1.15 atm
2.0L
H2
1.0L
0.861 atm
Ar
1.15 atm
2.0L
(1) 1.41 atm
(2) 2.41 atm
(1) 1.41 atm
(2) 2.41 atm
(3) 3.41 atm
(4) 1.12 atm
(3) 3.41 atm
(4) 1.12 atm
Select the correct order of solubility (in water)
from the following :-
87.
fuEu esa ls tyh; foy;u esa foys; rk dk lgh Øe
pqfu, :-
(1) SrSO4 < CaSO4 < MgSO4 < BeSO4
(1) SrSO4 < CaSO4 < MgSO4 < BeSO4
(2) NaF < KF < RbF < CsF
(2) NaF < KF < RbF < CsF
(3) Ba(OH)2 > Sr(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2
(3) Ba(OH)2 > Sr(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2
(4) All of these
(4) lHkh lgh gSA
Which one of the following does not impart
colour to the flame :-
88.
fuEufyf[kr es ls dkSulk ,d yo.k Tokyk dks jax iznku ugh
djrk gS :-
(1) MgCl2
(2) NaCl
(1) MgCl2
(2) NaCl
(3) SrCl2
(4) BaCl2
(3) SrCl2
(4) BaCl2
When n–butyl magnesium iodide reacts with
water the product is :
(1) n– Butane
tc n–C;wfVy eSfXuf'k;e vk;ksMkbZM dh vfHkfØ;k ikuh
ds lkFk gksrh gS rks mRikn D;k gksxk :(1) n– C;wVsu
(2) a –Butylene
(2) a–C;w fVyhu
(3) n–Butyl alcohol
(3) n–C;w fVy ,Ydksg kW y
(4) n–Butyl ether
(4) n–C;w fVy bZ Fkj
Order of basic strength in the following
compounds.
..
NH2
I
..
NH2
..
NH2
CH3
NO2
II
III
(1) II > I > III
(2) I > II > III
(3) III > II > I
(4) II > III > I
89.
90.
fuEu ;ksfxdks dh {kkjh; {kerk dk Øe gS %&
..
NH2
I
..
NH2
..
NH2
CH3
NO2
II
III
(1) II > I > III
(2) I > II > III
(3) III > II > I
(4) II > III > I
fdlh iz' u ij ns j rd :dks ugha A
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91.
91.
Find out mismatched pair/pairs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Common
Family
Order
Name
Wheat
Poaceae
Sapindales
Mango Anacardiaceae Poales
House fly
Muscidae
Diptera
Man
Hominidae
Primata
lk/kkj.k uke
(1) Only B
93.
dqy
x.k
A. xsgw¡
iks,fl
lsfiuMsy~l
B. vke
,ukdkjfM,flZ
iks,y~l
C. eD[kh
eqflfM
fMiVsjk
D. ekuo
gksfefufM
izkbesVk
(2) A and B
(1) dsoy B
(3) A and C
(2) A vkjS B
(3) A vkjS C
(4) B and D
92.
vlqesfyr ;qXe ;k ;qXeksa dks igpkfu, ?
(4) B vkjS D
Plant having vascular tissues but no seeds (1) Polytrichum
(2) Equisetum
(3) Sequoia
(4) Funaria
Which of following represent correct sequence
of given figure ?
(1) Long day plant, short day plant, Day neutral
plant
92.
93.
ik/S ks esa laoguh Ård rFkk cht ugh (1) ikWyhVªkbde
(2) bfDoflV~e
(3) lhdksb ;k
(4) Qqusfjvk
fuEu esa dkSulk Øe fp= dks lgh izn£'kr djrk gS %&
(1) nh?kZiznhIr dkyh ikni] vYi iznhIr dkyh ikni] fnol
fujis{k ikni
(2) Short day plant, long day plant, Day neutral
plant
(2) vYi iznhIr dkyh ikni] nh?kZinz hIr dkyh ikni] fnol
(3) Long day plant, Day neutral plant, Shor day
plant
(3) nh?kZinz hIr dkyh ikni] fnol fujis{k ikni] vYi iznhIr
(4) Short day plant, Day neutral plant, Long
day plant
(4) vYi iznhIr dkyh ik/S kk] fnol fujis{k ikni] nh?kZ iznhIr
fujis{k ikni
dkyh ik/S kk
dkyh ikni
J ges ' kk eq L djkrs jgsa A
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94.
Match the column I with column II and select
out correct option from the code given below
Column I
(Element)
(i)
Alcohol
dehydrogenase
(b) Zn2+
(ii)
Nitrogenase
(c) Mg
95.
96.
97.
a (i)
b (ii)
c (iii)
(2)
a (ii)
b (i)
c (iii)
(3)
a (iii)
b (ii)
c (i)
(4) a (iii)
b (i)
c (ii)
Read the following statement
(A) The main axis terminates in a flower
(B) Limited growth
(C) The flowers born in a acropetal succession
Which of the following statement are correct
with respect to cymose type of infloresence?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only A and B
(4) All of the above
Notochord is a____A____derived-rod-like
structure formed on the ____B____side during
embryonic development in chordates
(i)
,Ydksgy
fMgkbMªksftusl
(b) Zn2+
(ii)
ukbVªksftusl
(c) Mg2+
(iii) dkbust
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
95.
96.
B
a
a
a
a
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iii)
v/kj
i`"B
v/kj
i`"B
Dorsal
(2) cká'pehZ;
(3) Endodermally
Ventral
(3) var'pehZ;
(4) Mesodermally
Dorsal
(4) e/;'pehZ;
(1) Rana
Nitrogenous
waste
Uricotelic
(2) Pheretima
Nephridia
Urea
(3) Periplaneta
Malpighian Uricotelic
tubules
(4) Tadpole larva Kidneys
Ammonotelic
of frog
c
c
c
c
B
(2) Ectodermally
Excretory
structures
Kidneys
(ii)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
A
(1) e/;'pehZ;
97.
b
b
b
b
(iii)
(iii)
(i)
(ii)
fuEu dFkuksa dks if<,
(A) eq[; v{k iq"i esa lekIr gksrk gAS
(B) lhfer o`f¼
(C) iq"i vxzkfHklkjh Øe esa yxk gksrk gAS
fuEu esa ls dkuS ls dFku llhek{kh iq"iØe ds lEcU/k esa lgh g\
S
(1) dsoy A
(2) dsoy B
(3) dsoy A vkjS B
(4) mijksä lHkh
i`"B jTtq ,d____A____mn~Hkkfor naMuqek lajpuk gS tks
jTtqdhvksa esa Hkwz.kh; mn~fodkl ds nkjS ku ____B____Hkkx
esa curh gS
Ventral
Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.
animals, their excretory structure, and the type
of nitrogenous waste excreted by them?
LrEHk II
(,Utkbe )
(a) Mo
(1) Mesodermally
Animals
20/42
LrEHk I
(rRo)
(iii) Kinase
(1)
A
LrEHk I dk LrEHk II ls feyku dhft, vkjS uhps fn;s x;s
dwV esa ls lgh dk pquko dhft, %&
Column II
(Enzyme)
(a) Mo
2+
94.
buesa ls dkSulk tUrq] mlds mRlthZ lajpuk rFkk ukbVªksthuh
vif'k"V inkFkZ ds ckjs esa xyr fn;k gS ?
tUrq
(1) Rana
(2) Pheretima
mRlthZ
laj puk
o Dd
o Ddd
(3) Periplaneta
ekyihxh
ufydk
(4) es< d
+ dk VsM iksy o Dd
ykokZ
ukbVªk st uh
vif'k"V inkFkZ
;wf jd vEy
mRlthZ
;wf j;k
;wf jd vEy
mRlthZ
veksf u;k
mRlthZ
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98.
The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below
represents four different types of animal tissue.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the
option given along with its correct location and
function ?
(A)
98.
fuEufyf[kr pkj js[kk fp=] (A, B, C rFkk D) pkj fofHkUu
izdkj ds tUrq mrd dks nZ'kkrs gSa] crkb;s fuEu esa ls dkSulk
vius lgh LFkku rFkk dk;Z ds lkFk lqefs yr gaS %&
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
fodYi :Option :-
mrd
Tissue
(1) (B) Adipose
tissue
Location
Between adjacent Prevents the
bones of the
jerk
vertebral column
(4) (A) Ciliated
Inner lining of
columnar stomach
epithelium
99.
Provide the
elasticity
Secretion &
absorption
Which of the following are in direct contact
with the AV valves and prevent these from
collapsing back into atria
(1) Chordae tendinae
(2) Columnae carnae
(3) Papillary muscle
(4) Musculi pectinatii
100. Dissociation curve is associated with (1) Carbonic anhydrase
(2) CO
(3) CHCl3
(4) Oxyhaemoglobin
dk;Z
(1) (B) olh; Ård Ropk ds uhps rFkk
lkekU;r%
ÅtkZ iznku
djrs gaS
(2) (C) l?ku
Ropk esa
izR;kLFkrk
iznku djrk
gAS
(3) (D) mikfLFk
d'ks:d n.M dh nks >Vdksa ls
vfLFk;ksa ds e/;
cpkrk gS
(4) (A) i{ekHk
vkek'k; dk vkarfjd L=ko.k o
Lrj
vo'kks"k.k
vkek'k; ij
Beneath the skin Generally
& on the stomach provide the
energy
(2) (C) Dense
In the skin
irregular
connective
tissue
(3) (D) Cartilage
Function
LFkku
vfu;fer
la;ksth Ård
LrEHkkdkj
midyk
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS AV dikVksa ds lh/ks laidZ esa gksrk
gS rFkk dikVksa dks okil vkfyUn dh vksj [kqyus ls cpkrk
gS %&
(1) dkWMhZ VsfUMuh
(2) dkWyeus dkWuhZ
(3) ii
S hyjh is'kh
(4) eLdqyh isDVhusVh
100. fo;kstu oØ fdl ls layXu gS \
(1) dkcksZfud ,ugkbMªst
99.
(2) CO
(3) CHCl3
(4) vkWDlhtfur gheksXyksfcu
viuh {kerk dks iwj k olw yus dk iz; kl djs a A
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101. fuEufyf[kr ikS/kksa dks igpkfu, %&
101. Identify following plants
A.
(i) Salvinia
(i) lky~fofu;k
B.
(ii) Ginkgo
B.
(ii) fxad~xks
C.
(iii) Selaginella
C.
(iii) lsyfS tuy
S k
D.
(iv) Sphagnum
D.
(iv) LQx
S ue
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
102. Read the following statements (A ® E) and
answer as asked next to them :(A) A bud is present in the axil of leaflets of Neem.
(B) Leaflets are attached at a common point i.e.,
at the tip of petiole in Neem.
(C) In Maize the leaf base expands into a sheath
covering the stem partially or wholly.
(D) In Calotropis more than two leaves arise at
a node and form a whorl.
(E) Half inferior ovary is present in Plum.
How many of above statements are correct ?
(1) Three
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A.
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two
102. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa (A ® E) dks if<, vkSj vkxs fn;s mÙkjksa
dks igpkfu, :(A) uhe esa i=d dh i.kZo`r d{k ij dyh ik;h tkrh gAS
(B) uhe dh MaBy dh uksd ij i=d ,d lkekU; fcUnq ij
tqM+s gksrs gAS
(C) eDdk esa i.kZ/kkj pknj dh rjg Qy
S dj rus dks iwjk vFkok
vkaf'kd :i ls <d ysrk gAS
(D) dsyksVªksfil esa ,d gh xkaB ij nks ls vf/kd ifÙk;k¡
fudyrh gS vkjS ,d pDdj cukrh gAS
(E) vk/kk v/kksg vaMk'k; csj esa ekStwn gksrk gSA
Åij fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa fdrus lgh gS ?
(1) rhu
(2) pkj
(3) ik¡p
(4) nks
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103. Which of the following is product of two
decarboxylation of isocitric acid ?
(1) Succinyl Co–A
103. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk vkblks flfVªd vEy ds nks MhdkcksfZ Dlys'ku
dk mRikn gS ?
(1) lDlhukby Co–A
(2) a-ketoglutaric acid
(2) a-dhVksXywV sfjd vEy
(3) Citric acid
(3) flfVªd vEy
(4) Oxalo succinic acid
(4) vksDlsyks lDlhuhd vEy
104. Water move from a cell _____ water potential
to a cell ______ water potential
104. ty dk LFkkukrja.k_____ ty foHko dh dksf'kdk ls
______ ty foHko dh dksf'kdk dh vksj gksrk gS %&
(1) Higher, lower
(1) T;knk] de
(2) Lower, higher
(2) de] T;knk
(3) Less negative, high negative
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) de uxsfVo] T;knk uxsfVo
(4) nksuksa (1) vkjS (3)
105. Some example are given below select out how
many have actinomorphic and how many have
zygmorphic symmetry.
Mustard, Datura, Chilli, Pea, Gulmohar, Bean,
Cassia, Canna
Actinomorphic
Zygomorphic
(1)
4
3
(2)
5
3
(3)
4
4
(4)
3
4
106. The four sketches (A,B,C and D) given below,
represent four animals. Which of these is
correctly identified in the options given, along
with its correct type and phylum :-
(a)
(b)
(c)
1
2
3
4
Animal
Scorpion
Locusta
Butter fly
Prawn
Type
Living fossil
Gregarious pest
Vector
Parasitic
(d)
105. uhps fn;s x;s dqN mnkgj.kksa esa ls irk yxkvksa fd fdrus
f=T;lefer vkjS fdrus ,dO;kl lefer j[krs gS
Mustard, Datura, Chilli, Pea, Gulmohar, Bean,
Cassia, Canna
f=T;lefefr
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
,dO;kl lefefr
4
5
4
3
3
3
4
4
106. uhps fn;s x, pkj fp=ksa (A,B,C rFkk D) esa] pkj tUrq fn[kk,
x, gaSA buesa ls fdl ,d dks uhps fn;s x, fodyi esa lgh
igpkuk x;k ,oa mlds izdkj rFkk Qkbye Hkh lgh fn;s x;s
gS :-
(a)
(b)
(c)
Phylum
Mollusca
Arthropoda
Arthropoda
Arthropoda
1
2
3
4
tUrq
fcPNw
yksdLVk
frryh
izkus
izdkj
thf
roko
th
'e
;wFk ihM+d
okgd
ijthoh
(d)
Qkbye
eksyLdk
vkFkkZis ksMk
vkFkkZis ksMk
vkFkkZis ksMk
Time Management is Life Management
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107. With reference to cockroach, match the
following columns :Column-I
107. frypV~Vs ds laca/k ls LraHkksa dk lgh feyku djsa :-
dWk ye -I
Column-II
dWk ye -II
(A) xqn h; yqe
(1)
(2) 10th segment
(B) Vsxfeu
(2) 10 oha [kaM
(C) Testes
(3) Forewings
(C) o`"k.k
(3) vxz ia[k
(D) Ommatidia
(4) Sclerites
(D) us=k'kad
(4)
dBd
(E) Exoskeleton
(5)
(E) cká dadky
(5)
la;qDr us= dh bZdkbZ
(A) Anal cerci
(1) 4th or 6th segments
(B) Tegmina
Units of compound
eyes
(1) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(1), (D)-(5), (E)-(4)
(2) (A)-(4), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(5), (E)-(1)
(3) (A)-(3), (B)-(4), (C)-(5), (D)-(2), (E)-(1)
(4) (A)-(5), (B)-(4), (C)-(3), (D)-(2), (E)-(1)
108. Identify the type of epithelial tissue shown
below as well as the related right place of its
occurrence in our body along with its correct
function and select the correct option for the
two together ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A)-(2),
(A)-(4),
(A)-(3),
(A)-(5),
(B)-(3),
(B)-(3),
(B)-(4),
(B)-(4),
4th o 6th [kaM
(C)-(1),
(C)-(2),
(C)-(5),
(C)-(3),
(D)-(5),
(D)-(5),
(D)-(2),
(D)-(2),
(E)-(4)
(E)-(1)
(E)-(1)
(E)-(1)
108. uhps fn, x, midyk mÙkd dks igpkfu, rFkk mldks gekjs
'kjhj esa mlds ik, tkus ds LFkku rFkk mlds dk;Z ds lkFk layXu
djks vkSj ml lgh fodYi dk pquko fdft, ftlesa ;s
lqesfyr gks ?
fodYi :Option :Type of epithelial
Tissue
(1) Simple squamous
Epithelium
- Found in wall of
blood vessels and air
sacs of lungs.
- Function-forming a
diffusion boundary
(2) Simple cuboidal
epithelium
- Found in wall of the
ducts of gland
- Function-diffusion
and excretion
(3) Simple columnar
epithelium
- Found in wall of
nephrones and wall
of ducts of glands
- Function-secretion
and Absorption
(4) Simple squamous
epithelium
24/42
midyk mÙkd dk
iz d kj
Occurance & its
function
- Found in wall of
stomach and intestine
- Function-absorption
and secretion
LFkku rFkk dk;Z
(1)
ljy 'kYdh; midyk jä okfguh rFkk Qq¶Qql dh ok;q
dwfidkvksa dh nhokj ij ik,
tkrs gS
dk;Z & folj.k lrg dk fuekZ.k
(2)
ljy ?kukdkj midyk xzafFk;ksa dh uyh dh nhokj esa
dk;Z&folj.k rFkk mRltZu
(3)
ljy LrEHkkdkj
midyk
(4)
ljy 'kYdh; midyk vkek'k; rFkk vka= dh nhokj esaA
dk;Z & vo'kks"k.k rFkk L=ko.k
usÝkWu dh nhokj rFkk xzafFk dh
uyh dh nhokj esa
dk;Z &L=ko.k rFkk vo'kks"k.k
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109. Which of the following blood vascular by
passes are present in the circulatory system
before birth
(1) Foramen ovale
(2) Fossa ovalis
(3) Ductus arteriosus
(4) Both (1) & (3)
110. All of the following structures are situated in
the renal medulla except (1) Loop of Henle
(2) Vasa recta
(3) Duct of Bellini
(4) DCT
111. Haplo-diplontic pattern of life cycle is present
in(1) Funaria
(2) Ectocarpus
(3) Polysiphonia
(4) All
112. Match the following figures with there related
plants ?
(A)
i.
China rose
(B)
ii.
Argemone
(C)
iii. Gulmohur
(D)
iv. Plum
Option :(1) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
(2) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
113. Florigen is synthesized in :(1) Stem
(2) Leaves
(3) Root
(4) Fruits
114. Number of carboxylation in photosynthesis in
Sorghum and maize is :(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
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109. ifjlapj.k ra= esa dkSulk miekxZ tUe ls igys mifLFkr gksrk
gS %&
(1) Qksjkesu vksoy
s
(2) Qkslk vksofs yl
(3) MDVl vkVhZfj;ksfll
(4) (1) rFkk (3) nksuksa
110. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldks NksM +dj lHkh la jpuk, o` Dd
eè;ka'k esa ikbZ tkrh gS (1) gsuys dk ywi
(2) oklk jsDVk
(3) csfyuh dh ufydk
(4) DCT (nwjLFk dqaMfyr ufydk)
111. gsiyks fMiyksufVd (vxqf.kre&f}xqf.krd) rjhds dk thou
pØ fdlesa ik;k tkrk gS (1) Qwusfj;k
(2) ,DVksdkiZl
(3) ikWfylkbQksfuvk
(4) lHkh esa
112. fuEufyf[kr ikS/kksa dks muls lacaf/kr fp=ksa ls igpkfu, ?
(A)
i.
xqMgy
(B)
ii.
vkjtheksu
(C)
iii. xqyeksgj
(D)
iv. csj
fodYi %&
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A
A
A
A
-
iii,
iv,
iii,
iv,
B - iv,
B - iii,
B - iv,
B - iii,
C
C
C
C
-
ii, D - i
i, D - ii
i, D - ii
ii, D - i
113. ¶yksjhtu dk la'ys"k.k gksrk gS :(1) ruk esa
(2) ifÙk;ka esa
(3) ewy esa
(4) Qy esa
114. lks j ?ke (Tokj ) rFkk eDdk es iz d k'k la ' ys " k.k es
dkcksZfDlyhdj.k dh la[;k gS :(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
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115. Find the incorrect statement(s) from the
following and give correct answer :(A) Family is a group of related genera with less
number of similarities than genus and
species
115. fuEu fn;s x;s dFkuksa ls xyr dFku dk irk yxkvks vkjS tokc
(B) Genera are aggregates of closely related
species
(B) oa'k lehiLFk lacf/kr tkfr;ksa dk ,d lewg gksrk gAS
(C) Every taxonomic category / taxon
represents a unit of classification
(A) dqy lEcf/kr oa'k ds lewg gksrs gS tks oa'k rFkk tkfr
dh rqyuk esa de lekurk izn£'kr djrs gAS
(C) izR;sd o£xdh laoxZ oxZd oxhZdj.k dh bZdkbZ dks
izn£'kr djrk gSA
(D) ICNB is a code for nomenclature of plants
only
(D) ICNB dksM dsoy ikni ukseus dyspj ds fy, gksrk
(1) Only A & B
(1) dsoy A & B
(2) Only B
(2) dsoy B
(3) Only C & D
(3) dsoy C & D
(4) Only D
(4) dsoy D
116. Consider the following figure & choose the
correct option :-
(1) Regular dense
connective tissue
Tendon
Connects
muscle
to skin
(2) Regular dense
connective tissue
Ligament Connects
bone
to bone
(3) Irregular dense
connective tissue
Tendon
(4) Irregular dense
connective tissue
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l gh mÙkj nks :-
Connects
muscle
to bone
Ligament Connects
muscle
to bone
gSA
116. uhps fn, x, fp= ij fopkj dhft, vkSj lgh fodYi
pqus :-
(1) fu;fer l?ku
daMjk is'kh dks Ropk ls
tksMu+ k
(2) fu;fer l?ku
Luk;q vfLFk dks vfLFk
ls tksM+uk
(3) vfu;fer l?ku
daMjk is'kh dks vfLFk ls
tksMu+ k
(4) vfu;fer l?ku
Luk;q
la;ksth mÙkd
la;ksth mÙkd
la;ksth mÙkd
la;ksth mÙkd
is'kh dks vfLFk ls
tksMu+ k
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117. Observe the diagram and identify the structures
labelled and choose the correct option:
A
D
117. fp= dks nsf[k, rFkk vafdr lajpukvksa dks igpkfu, rFkk lgh
fodYi pqfu, :
A
D
B
B
C
(1) A-Spermatheca, B-Collaterial glands,
C-Genital chamber, D - Common oviduct
(2) A-Common oviduct , B-Genital chamber,
C-collaterial glands, D-spermatheca
(3) A-collaterial gland, B-Common oviduct or
vagina, C - Spermatheca, D - Genital
chamber
(4) A - Genital chamber, B-Collaterial glands,
C-Common oviduct , D-Spermatheca
118. Find the correct statement w.r.t mechanism of
hormonal action shown.
(1) Hormones exhibiting such mechanism
interact with membrane bound receptors
(2) These hormones generate second
messengers to mediate their action
(3) Hormones exhibiting such mechanism
mostly regulate gene expression or
chromosome function
(4) Such hormonal mechanism does not result
in physiological and developmental effects
0999DM310115020
C
(1) A- 'kq Ø xz f gdk , B- 'ys " d xz a f Fk , C- tuu d{k ,
D - lkekU; vaMokfguh
(2) A-lkekU; vaMokfguh, B-tuu d{k, C-'ys"d xzfUFk,
D-'kqØxzkfgdk
(3) A- 'ys " d xz f UFk , B- lkekU; va M o k fguh ]
C - 'kqØxzkfgdk, D - tuud{k
(4) A - tuu d{k, B-'ys"d xzfUFk, C-lkekU; va.Mokfguh,
D-'kqØxzkfgdk
118. gkWeksZu dk;Zfof/k dh izfØ;k ds lanHkZ esa lgh dFku dk pquko
dhft, %&
(1) gkWeksZu bl fØ;kfof/k dks f>Yyh cfU/kr xzkgh;ksa ds lkFk
layXu gksdj izn£'kr djrs gSA
(2) ;s gkWeksZu f}rh;d lan's kokgd dk mRiknu djrs gaS tks
muds dk;Z dh e/;LFkrk djrk gSA
(3) gkWeksZu bl fØ;kfof/k dks izn£'kr djrs g]S oks T;knkrj
thu vfHkO;fä ;k Øksekslkse ds dk;Z dk fu;eu djrs
gSA
(4) bu gkWeksZu dh fØ;kfof/k dk ifj.kke 'kkjhfjd rFkk o`f¼
izHkko esa ugha gksrk gAS
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119. Which is true for thyrocalcitonin?
(1) Produced by parathyroid, decreases
in ECF
Ca++
(2) Produced by thyroid, decreases Ca ++ in
ECF
(3) Produced by parathyroid, increases Ca++
in ECF
(4) Produced by thyroid, increases Ca++ in ECF
120. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) Locomotion and many other movements
require coordinated muscular activities
(2) Muscle is a specialised tissues of
endodermal in origin
(3) There are about 639 muscles which
contribute about 40-50 % of adult body
weight
(4) Muscles show contractibility, excitability
and elasticity
121. Bracket fungi or puff balls belongs to (1) Deuteromycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Phycomycetes
122. Match the following floral formulas with there
related plants ?
A. +
K(5) C(5) A5 GG
(2)(2)
i. Mustard
B.
% K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A(9) + 1
C.
+
K2 + 2 C4 A2 + 4 G(2)
G1
ii. Aloe
iii.Lupin
D. Br + P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G (3)
iv.Potato
Option :(1) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
123. The three boxes in this diagram represent the
three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic
respiration. Arrow represent net reactants or
products
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119. FkkbjksdSfYlVksfuu ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkSu lR; gS ?
(1) ijS kFkkbjkbM }kjk mRiknu] ECF esa Ca++ dh ek=k dks
de djrk gAS
(2) FkkbjkbM }kjk mRiknu] ECF esa Ca++ dh ek=k dks
de djrk gAS
(3) ijS kFkkbjkbM }kjk mRiknu] ECF esa Ca++ dh ek=k dks
c<+krk gAS
(4) FkkbjkbM }kjk mRiknu] ECF esa Ca++ dh ek=k dks
c<+krk gAS
120. buesa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS ?
(1) xeu rFkk fofHkUu izdkj ds lapyuksa ds fy, leUof;r
is'kh; dk;Zfof/k;ksa dh t:jr gksrh gAS
(2) is'kh ,d fof'k"V Ård ftldk mn~Hko var'pehZ; gksrk
gSA
(3) euq"; 'kjhj esa yxHkx 639 isf'k;k¡ gksrh gaS 'kkjhfjdHkkj
dk 40-50 % Hkkx cukrh gAS
(4) is'kh;k¡ ladqpu'khyrk] mÙkstu'khyrk rFkk izR;kLFkrk
izn£'kr djrh gSA
121. czSdsV dod o iQ xsan fdlds varxZr vkrs gS (1) M;wfVjksekbflVht
(2) ,sLdksekbflVht
(3) csflfM;ksekbflVht
(4) QkbdksekbflVht
122. fuEufyf[kr ikni lw=ksa dks muds ikniksa ds lkFk igpkfu, ?
K(5) C(5) A5 GG
(2)(2)
A.
+
B.
% K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A(9) + 1 G 1 ii.
C.
+
D.
Br +
i.
K2 + 2 C4 A2 + 4 G(2)
P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G (3)
,yks;
iii. Y;qfiu
iv. vkyw
fodYi %&
(1) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
123. fn;s x;s fp= esa rhu cDls ok;qoh; 'olu ds rhu izeq[k
toS la'ys"kh (biosynthetic) ekxZ dk izfrfuf/kRo gS] rhj 'kq¼
vfHkdkjd ;k mRikn dk izfrfuf/kRo djrk gS %&
Arrow numbered 4, 8 and 12 can all be
rhj Øekad 4, 8 rFkk 12 lHkh gksaxs %&
(1) FAD+ or FADH2
(3) ATP
(1) FAD+ or FADH2
(3) ATP
(2) NADH
(4) H2O
ljlks
(2) NADH
(4) H2O
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124. Which of the following is not correct statement
for bryophytes ?
(1) Their plant body is more differentiated than
that of algae
(2) Sporophyte is not free-living but attached
to photosynthetic gametophyte and derive
nourishment from it
(3) All cells of the sporophyte undergo
reduction division to produce haploid
spores
(4) They may possess root-like leaf-like and
stem-like structures
125. Some algal members are given in a box.
Porphyra, Gracilaria, Polysiphonia, Gelidium,
Ectocarpus, Ulothrix, Laminaria
How many of them lack flagella in their life
cycle?
(1) Six
(2) Five
(3) Three (4) Four
126. Cavity of sphenoid bone, in which pituitary
gland is present called :(1) Sella turcica
(2) Cranium
(3) Pituitary pit
(4) Parietal cavity
127. Which one of the following pairs of kind of
cells and their function is not correctly
matched?
(1) Parietal cells
- secrete hydrochloric
acid and intrinsic factor
(2) Ameloblasts
- secrete dentine
(3) Zymogen cells - secrete a large quantity
of pepsinogen
(4) Paneth cells
- Antibacterial secretion
128. Identify the hormone with its correct matching
of source and functions
Hormone
Source & Function
(1) Oxytocin - Posterior pituitary, growth
and maintenance of
mammary gland
124. fuEu es a dk S ulk dFku cz k ;ksQ kbV ds fy, lgh ugh
gS\
(1) budk ikni 'kjhj 'kSoky ls vf/kd foHksfnr gksrk
gSA
(2) chtk.kqnfHkn~ eqDr thoh ugha gksrk gS ysfdu izdk'kla'ys"kh
;qXedksn~fHkn~ ls tqM+k jgrk gS vkjS iks"k.k izkIr djrk gAS
(3) chtk.kqnfHkn~ dh lHkh dksf'kdk,a U;wudkjh foHkktu djrh
gS vkjS vxqf.kr chtk.kq mRiUu djrh gAS
(4) blesa tM+&leku ] i.kZ&leku] vkjS rus leku lajpuk
gks ldrh gAS
125. uhps dqN 'ko
S ky ds lnL; fn;s x;s gS %&
iks j Qk;jk ] xzs f lysf j;k ] iks y hlEÝksf u;k ] ftys f M;e]
,DVksdkiZl] ;wyksfFkzDl] ySfeusfj;kA
blesa ls fdruks ds thou pØ esa ¶yt
S yk vuqifLFkr gksrk g?S
(1) N%
(2) ik¡p
(3) rhu
(4) pkj
126. Sphenoid vfLFk dh xqgk] ftlesa ih;w"k xzafFk ikbZ tkrh g]S
dgykrk gS %&
(1) lsyk Vjfldk
(2) diky
(3) ih;w"k xìk
(4) isjkbVy xqgk
127. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ;qXe dh dksf'kdk,¡ rFkk mudk dk;Z
lqefs yr ugh gS ?
(1) isjkbVy dksf'kdk
- HCl rFkk ut
S dkjd dk
L=ko
(2) vehyksCykLV
- MsfUVu dk L=ko
dksf'kdk
(3) tkbekstu dksf'kdk - izpqj ek=k esa isfIlukstu dk
L=ko
(4) isfuFk dksf'kdk
- thok.kqjks/kh dk L=ko
128. gkW eks Z u dks mlds L=ksr rFkk dk;ks ± ds lkFk lq e sf yr
dh igpku djsa %&
gkWeksZu
L=ksr rFkk dk;Z
(1) vkWDlhVksflu
i'p ih;q"k xzafFk] nqX/k xzazfFk dh
o`f¼ rFkk j[k j[kko
(2)
Atrial
nutriuretic
factor
(3) Melatonin - Pineal gland, regulate the
normal rhythm of
sleepwake cycle
ân; ANF okfgdk esa ladqpu
djrk gS rFkk BP esa o`f¼ djrk
gS
(3)
eSysVksfuu
fifu;y xzafFk] lksus&tkxus okys
pØ dk fu;eu
(4) ADH
(4)
ADH
,MhuksgkbiksQkbfll] ADH ty
ds iqu% vo'kks"k.k dks c<+krk gSA
(2) Atrial
- Heart ANF can cause vaso
constriction, increase the
natriuretic
factor
BP
0999DM310115020
- Adenohypophysis, ADH
facilitates water
reabsorption
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129. Which one of the following animals is correctly
matched with its one characteristics and the taxon
Animal
Duckbilled
1
platypus
Characteristic
129. buesa ls dkSuls tUrq dks mldh ,d fo'ks"krk rFkk VSDlksu ls
lgh feyku fd;k x;k gS \
tUrq
Taxon
fo'ks" krk
VSDlksu
Mammal
1
Mdfcy IySfVil vaMt
Ventral nerve
Mammal
cord
3 Sea Anemone Triploblastic
Cnidaria
Pectoral and Pelvic
Chordata
4 Silverfish
fins
2
feyhihM
v/kj raf=dk rarq Lru/kkjh
3
leqnz ,suheksu
f=dksfjd
ukbMsfj;k
4
flYojfQ'k
val rFkk Jks.kh
ehuia[k
jTtqdh
Oviparous
2 Milipede
130. Na+ - K+ pump
I. Needs energy (ATP) to work
II. Export 3 Na+ for every 2K+ ions imported
III. Works against a concentration gradient
130. Na+ - K+ ia i
I. dk;Z djus ds fy, ÅtkZ (ATP) dh t:jr gksrh gAS
II. 2K+ vk;kr ij 3 Na+ fu;kZr
III. lkanzrk izo.krk ds fo:¼ dk;Z djrk gSA
IV. Maintains resting potential
IV. fojkedyk foHko cuk, j[krk gAS
(1) All are correct
(1) lHkh lgh gSA
(2) Only II and III are correct
(2) II rFkk III lgh gAS
(3) Only I and III are correct
(3) I rFkk III lgh gAS
(4) Only I is correct
(4) dsoy I lgh gS
131. Mismatched in following is -
131. fuEufyf[kr esa vlqesfyr ;qXe gS -
(1) Sporangiospores
- Endogenous
(1) Liksjsuth;ks chtk.kq
- vartkZrh;
(2) Basidiospores
- Endogenous
(2) csflfM;kschtk.kq
- vartkZrh;
(3) Conidia
- Exogenous
(3) dksfufM;k
- cfgtkZrh;
(4) Ascospores
- Endogenous
(4) ,sLdksLiksj
- vartkZrh;
132. Read the following statements A ® E and
answer as asked next to them
A- Vegetative propagation in Mint occurs by
sucker.
B- Juicy hair like structure observed in the
lemon fruit develop from mesocarp.
C- Phylloclade is modification of leaf and
found in Opuntia
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Lru/kkjh
132. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ( A ® E ) dks if<, rFkk muds vkxs
fn;s mÙkjksa dks igpkfu, %&
A- iwnhus esa dkf;d izo/kZu sucker ds }kjk gksrk gAS
B- uhacw esa jlnkj cky tl
S h ik;h tkus okyh lajpuk
Mesocarp ls fodflr gksrs gaSA
C- i.kkZHko`Ur (Phylloclade) iÙkh ds :ikUrj.k gS vkjS esa
vksifU'k;k (Opuntia) ik;s tkrs gAS
D- In Sweet pea placentation is marginal.
D- ehBs eVj esa chtk.MU;kl lhekar gksrk gAS
E- Caryopsis fruit is characteristic of Fabaceae.
E- djS h;ksilhl Qy Qscfs l (Fabaceae) ds y{k.k gksrs gAS
Number of correct and incorret statements are
lgh vkSj xyr dFkuksa dh la[;k gS
(1) Three & two
(2) Four & one
(1) rhu vkSj nks
(2) pkj vkSj ,d
(3) Two & Three
(4) One & four
(3) nks vkjS rhu
(4) ,d vkSj pkj
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133. In a give diagram of citric acid cycle, identify
A, B, C and select the correct option
133. flfVªd vEy pØ ds fn;s x;s fp= esa A, B, C dh igpku
dhft, vkSj lgh fodYi dk pquko dhft, %&
A
A
C
C
B
B
A
B
(1) oxaloacetate aceyl CoA
C
succinic acid
(1) vkWDlsyks,slhVsV
(2) acetyl CoA
oxaloacetate
succinic acid
(2) ,lhVkby dks,t
a kbe A vkWDlsyks,slhVsV
lDlhfud vEy
(3) acetyl CoA
succinic acid oxaloacetate
(3) ,lhVkby dks,t
a kbe A lDlhfud vEy
vkWDlsyks,slhVsV
(4) vkWDls yks,slhVsV
,lhVkby dks,atkbeA
(4) oxaloacetate succinic acid acetyl CoA
134. Match the column I and column II
Column I
a Auxin
A
C
,lhVkby dks,t
a kbe A lDlhfud vEy
lDlhfud vEy
134. dkW y e I rFkk dkW y e II dks lqesfyr dhft,
C olu m n I
Column II
p GA3
B
C olu m n II
a
vkWfDlu
p
GA3
b Gibberellin q
Indole acetic
acid
b
ftCcsj sf y u
q
b.Mksy ,flfVd
v Ey
c Cytokinin
r
Abscisic acid
c
l k;Vksd kbfuu r
,cflfld vEy
d Dormin
s
Acetic acid
d
Mks£ eu
t
Zeatin
(1) a–q, b-r, c-p, d-t
(2) a–q, b-s, c-p, d-t
(3) a-q, b-p, c-t, d-r
(4) a-q, b-t, c-p, d-t
135. Which one of the following groups in plantae
is completely heterosporous?
(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Spermatophyta
(4) Embryophyta
136. Which of the following animals has
longitudinal muscles and syncytial epidermis
with an elastic cuticle
(1)
(2)
0999DM310115020
(3)
(4)
s
,flfVd vEy
t
ft ;kfV~u
(1) a–q, b-r, c-p, d-t
(3) a-q, b-p, c-t, d-r
(2) a–q, b-s, c-p, d-t
(4) a-q, b-t, c-p, d-t
135. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d ikni lewg iw.kZ:i ls fo"ke fctk.kqd
gksrk gS ?
(1) czk;ksQkbVk
(2) VSfjMksQkbVk
(3) LiesZVksQkbVk
(4) Hkwz.kh;ikni
136. buesa ls fdl tarq esa vuqn/S ;Z isf'k;k¡ rFkk ladksf'kdk gksrh gS
,oa ,d yphyk D;wfVdy gksrk gS %&
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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137. Trachea divides at the level of
(1) 2nd thoracic vertebra (2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(3) 5th cervical vertebra (4) 4th cervical vertebra
138. Which of the following is an incorrect match?
(1) Heart sound lubb - Closure of valve
during ventricular
systole
(2) Heart sound dub - Opening of semilunar
valve during
ventricular diastole
(3) Cardiac output - Stroke volume × Heart rate
(4) Neurogenic heart - Cockroach
139. Which of the following statements is correct
about squamous epithelium ?
(1) It consists of a single thin layer of flattened
cell with irregular boundaries.
(2) It is found in the wall of blood vessel, air
sac of lungs, etc.
(3) It is involved in many functions like
formation of a diffusion boundary
(4) All of the above
140. Following structures are given below A. Lens
B. Aqueous humour
C. Vitreous humour
D Cornea
Choose the correct sequence of pathway of
light from outside to inside the eyeball (1) D, B, A, C
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) D, C, B, A
(4) A, D, B, C
141. The given table shows classes of algae and their
main characteristics. Some characteristics in
this table mentioned as A, B, C and D, Observe
the table and choose the option in which A, B,
C and D are correctly identified :Classes
Chlorophyceae Phaeophyceae Rhodophyceae
Major
Chl a, b
Pigments
Stored
Starch
Food
Cell Wall
C
Chl a, c
Flagellar 2-8
Number
2
B
Cellulose,
algin
A
B
(1) Chl a, e Fat & oil
Chl a, d Mannitol,
(2)
Laminarin
(3) Chl a, d Paramylum
(4) Chl a, c Glycogen
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A
Floridean starch
Cellulose, pectin,
polysulphate ester
137. 'okluky (Vªfs d;k) fdl Lrj ij tkdj foHkkftr gks tkrk gS
(1) f}rh; o{kh; d'ks:dk (2) iape o{kh; d'ks:dk
(3) iape xzhok d'ks:dk
(4) prqFkZ xzhok d'ks:dk
138. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk vlqefs yr ;qXe gS \
(1) ân; /ofu lubb - fuy; ladqpu ds nkjS ku dikV dk
cUn gksuk
(2) ân; /ofu dub - fuy; f'kfFkyu ds nkjS ku v¼Zpanzkdkj
dikV dk [kqyuk
(3) ân; fudkl - izokgh vk;ru × ân; nj
(4) raf=dh; tfur ân; - frypêk
139. buesa ls dkSulk dFku 'kYdh midyk ds fy, lgh gS ?
(1) ;g ,d piVh dksf'kdkvksa ds irys Lrj ls curk gS ftlds
fdukjs vfu;fer gksrs gaSA
(2) ;g jä okfgdkvksa dh fHkfÙk rFkk QsQMs ds ok;q dks'k
esa ik;k tkrk gSA
(3) ;g dbZ dk;ks± esa lfEefyr gS tl
S s folj.k lhek cukuk
(4) mijksä lHkh
140. uhps dqN lajpuk,¡ nh xbZ gS A. yaSl
B. tyh; nzo
C. dkpkHk nzo
D dkW£u;k
us = es a ckgj ls va nj izd k'k dk lgh ekxZ dk pquko
dhft,(1) D, B, A, C
(3) D, C, B, A
(2) A, B, C, D
(4) A, D, B, C
141. nh xbZ rkfydk esa 'ko
S ky ds oxZ vkSj muds eq[; vfHky{k.kksa
dks n'kkZ ;k x;k g SA dq N vfHky{k.kksa dks rkfydk es a
A, B, C vkjS D, ds :i esa fy[kk x;k gSA rkfydk dks izsf{kr
djsa vkjS ml fodYi dks pqus ftlesa A, B, C vkjS D dks
lgh igpkuk x;k gS :-
oxZ
eq[; o.kZd
lafpr Hkkstu
Dyksj ksQ kblh fQ;ks Qkblh jks Mks Qkblh
Chl a, b
LVkpZ
dksf'kdk fHkfÙk
C
A
Chl a, c
B
¶yksj hfM;u
LVkpZ
lsyy
q kst]
isfDVu] ikWyhlYQsV
,LVj
lsyy
q kst]
,Ythu
D
d'kkfHkdk la[;k 2-8
C
D
Peptidoglycan Many
Cellulose
Absent
Lipoprotein
Cellulose
One
Absent
D
2
A
B
C
D
(1) Chl a, e olk o rsy
isIVhMksXykbdu dbZ
(2) Chl a, d esfuVksy] ysehusfju lssyqykst
vuqifLFkr
(3) Chl a, d isjkekbye
(4) Chl a, c Xykbdkstu
fyiksizksVhu
lsyqykst
,d
vuqifLFkr
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142. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occur
in:(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene
143. Which one of the following ion is essential for
photolysis of water
(1) Manganese
(2) Magnesium
(3) Carbon
(4) Copper
144. Read the following statement and select out
wrong one
(1) RER is frequently observed in the cell,
actively involved in protein synthesis and
secretion
(2) In animal cells lipid-like steroidal hormones
are synthesised in SER
(3) Chloroplast contains enzymes required for
the synthesis of only protein
142. flusIVksfuey lfEeJ dk fo?kVu gksrk gS :(2) ;qXeiê (tkbxksVhu)
(3) LFkwyiê (iSdkbZVhu)
(4) fMIyksVhu
143. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk ,d vk;u izdk'kh; ty vi?kVu ds fy,
t:jh g\
S
(1) eSXuht
(2) eXS uhf'k;e
(3) dkcZu
(4) dkWij
144. fuEu dFkuksa dks i<+dj xyr dFku dks Nk¡Vs\
(1) tks dksf'kdk,a izksVhu la'ys"k.k ,oa L=o.k esa lfØ; Hkkx
ysrh gS muesa [kqjnjh variznO;h tkfydk cgqrk;r ls
feyrh gAS
(2) izkf.k;ks fd dksf'kdk esa fyfiM dh Hkk¡fr LVhjk;My gkWeksuZ
fpdus varnZzO;h tkfydk esa curh gAS
(3) gfjr yod ds vUnj flQZ izksVhu la'ys"k.k ds ,Utkbe
gksrs gAS
(4) rkjddsUnz i{ekHk o d'kkfHkdk dk vk/kkjhdk; cukrk gAS
(4) Centriole form basal body of cilia or flagella
145. The living differentiated cell which has lost the
capacity to divide, can regain capacity of
division under certain condition. This
phenomenon is called :–
(1) ruqiê (fyIVksVhu)
145. thfor foHksfnr dksf'kdk tks foHkktu dh {kerk [kks pqdh
gksrh g]S oks dqN [kkl ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa foHkktu dh {kerk iqu%
izkIr dj ldrh gS ;g ?kVuk dgykrh gS :–
(1) Dedifferentiation
(1) fu£oHksnu
(2) Differentiation
(2) foHks nu
(3) Redifferentiation
(3) iqu£oHksnu
(4) Reproduction
(4) iztuu
146. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
correct option :
Column-I
146. dkWye-I ,oa dkWye-II dk feyku dhft, ,oa lgh fodYi
dk p;u dhft,A
Column-II
Column-I
Column-II
(A)
Abducens
(i)
Movement of Eyeball
(A)
vipkyd
(i)
us= xksy d dh xfr
(B)
Accessory spinal
(ii)
Movement of Pharynx
(B)
lq" kqEuh; lgk;d raf=dk;sa
(ii)
xzl uh dh xfr
(C)
Hypoglossal
(iii) Visceral Sensation
(C)
ftOgk v/kkso/khZ
(iii) dkseykax lao sn u
(D)
Vagus
(iv) Movement of Tongue
(D)
osx l
(iv)
ftg~o k dh xfr
(v)
L[kyu
(v)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A
(iii)
(i)
(i)
(iii)
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B
(i)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
Ejaculation
C
(ii)
(iv)
(iv)
(iv)
D
(iv)
(iii)
(v)
(v)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A
(iii)
(i)
(i)
(iii)
B
(i)
(ii)
(ii)
(ii)
C
(ii)
(iv)
(iv)
(iv)
D
(iv)
(iii)
(v)
(v)
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147. Which of the following disorder is related to
cigarette smoking in which alveolar walls are
damaged?
(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Atelectasis
(4) Bend's disease
148. Given below is an incomplete table about
certain hormones, their source glands and one
major effect of each on the body in humans.
Identify the correct option for the three blanks
A, B and C :
Gland
Secretion
Oestrogen
A
Alpha cells of
Islets of
Langerhans
B
Anterior
pituitary
C
Options :
A
(1) Ovary
(2) Placenta
(3) Ovary
(4) Placenta
149. Red coloured
muscle is :-
Effect on Body
Maintenance of
secondary sexual
characters
Raises blood sugar
level
Over secretion
leads to gigantism
B
C
Glucagon Growth hormone
Insulin
Vasopressin
Insulin
Calcitonin
Glucagon
Calcitonin
oxygen storing pigment of
(1) Myoglobin
(2) Haemoglobin
(3) ATP
(4) Both (1) and (2)
150. Which of the following statements is false ?
(1) Hormones provide chemical coordination,
integration and regulation in the human
body
(2) Hormones regulate metabolism, growth and
development of our organs
(3) Besides hypothalamus, pituitary, pineal,
thyroid, adrenal, parathyroid, thymus, etc.,
GIT, heart, kidney, etc also produce
hormones
(4) Hormone can be used again and again like
biocatalyst
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147. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk fodkj /kweziku djus ls dwidh;
nhokj foÏr gksus ls lacaf/kr g\
S
(1) vLFkek ('okal jksx)
(2) bEQkblhek
(3) ,VkysDVsfll
(4) cSUM dk jksx
148. uhps ,d viw.kZ lkj.kh nh xbZ gS ftlesa dqN fof'k"V gkWeksZu]
mudh L=ksr xzafFk rFkk muds ekuo 'kjhj esa mudk eq[; izHkko
fn;k x;k g]S fjä LFkku ds fy, lgh fodYi dk pquko fdft,
(A, B ,C) :
xzafFk
L=ko.k
,LVªkstu
A
ySxjgSal dh
}hfidk dh a
dksf'kdk
vxzih;w"k xzafFk
'kjhj ij iz Hkko
f}rh;d ;kSu y{k.kksa
dk vuqj{k.k
jä 'kdZjk ds Lrj esa
o`f¼
B
vfrL=ko.k ls
vfrdk;rk gksrh gAS
C
fodYi :
A
B
C
(1) v.Mk'k;
(2) vijk
(3) v.Mk'k;
(4) vijk
XywdsxkWu
o`f¼ gkWeksZu
balqfyu
ol
S ksizfs lu
balqfyu
dSYlhVksfuu
XywdsxkWu
dSYlhVksfuu
149. is'kh esa vkDlhtu HkaMkj.k okys yky jax ds o.kZd dks D;k
dgrs g\
S
(1) ek;ksXyksfcu
(2) fgeksXyksfcu
(3) ATP
(4) (1) vkjS (2) nksuksa
150. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dFku vlR; gS ?
(1) gkWeksZu ekuo 'kjhj esa jklk;fud leUo;] ,dhdj.k rFkk
fu;a=.k iznku djrs gSA
(2) gkWeksZu gekjs vaxksa esa mikip;u] o`f¼ rFkk fodkl dks
fu;af=r djrk gAS
(3) gkbiksFky
S sel] ih;w"k xzafFk] ihfu;y xzafFk] FkkbjkW;M xzafFk]
vf/ko`Dd xzafFk] ijS kFkkbjkW;M xzafFk] Fkkbel ds vykok
th-vkbZ-Vh- (tBj vka=h; ekxZ)] ân;] o`Dd Hkh gkWeksZu
L=kfor djrs gAS
(4) gkWeksZu to
S mRizsjd dh rjg ckj&ckj iz;ksx fd, tk ldrs
gSaA
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151. Which of following fungi is commonly known
as imperfect fungi?
(1) Alternaria
(2) Colletotrichum
(3) Trichoderma
(4) All of above
152.
151. fuEufyf[kr dodksa esa vkerkjS ij dkSulk dod viw.kZ dod
ds :i esa tkuk tkrk gS ?
(1) vkYVjusfj;k
(2) dksyhVksVªkbde
(3) VªkbZdksMekZ
(4) mijksä lHkh
152.
A
B
Identify the stages A & B of cell division shown in
above diagram and choose the correct option:A
A
B
dksf'kdk foHkktu ds fn;s x;s fp= A vkjS B dh voLFkk
dks igpkfu, vkSj lgh ;qXe dk p;u djs :A
B
B
(1)
Metaphase-I
Anaphase
(1)
e/;koLFkk-I
i'pkoLFkk
(2)
Metaphase
Anaphase
(2)
e/;koLFkk
i'pkoLFkk
(3)
Metaphase-I
Anaphase-I
(3)
e/;koLFkk-I
i'pkoLFkk-I
(4)
Metaphase
Anaphase-I
(4)
e/;koLFkk
i'pkoLFkk-I
153. Read the following statements carefully :(i) PSI is involved in non cyclic
photophosphorylation only
(ii) PSII is involved in both cyclic and non
cyclic photophosphorylation
(iii) Stromal lamellae membrane possess PSI only
(iv) Grana thylakoid membrane possess both
PSI and PSII
How many of above statements are wrong?
(1) Only one (2) Two (3) Three
(4) Four
154. Consider the following four statements (a-d)
and select the option which includes all the
correct ones only :(a) The collenchyma occurs in layers below the
epidermis in dicotyledonous plant
(b) Casparian strips are present in endodermal
cells of dicotyledonous stem
(c) Conjoint and collateral type of vascular
bundles are found in stems and leaves
(d) In dicot stems phellogen originates from cells of
pericycle at the time of secondary growth
Option
(1) Statements (b) (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a) (c) and (d)
(3) Statements (a) and (c)
(4) Statements (b) and (d)
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153. fuEu dFkuksa dks /;kuiwoZd if<;s %&
(i) PSI dsoy vpØh; QksLQksjhys'ku esa Hkkx ysrk gAS
(ii) PSII pØh; vkSj vpØh; QksLQksjhys'ku nksuksa esa Hkkx
ysrk gAS
(iii) ihBhdk iVfydk f>Yyh dsoy PSI j[krh gS
(iv) xzkuk FkkbysdksbM f>Yyh PSI vkjS PSII nksuksa j[krh gAS
mijksä fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa fdrus xyr gS %&
(1) dsoy ,d
(2) nks (3) rhu
(4) pkj
154. fuEufyf[kr pkj dFkuksa (a-d) ij fopkj fdft;s vkSj dsoy
lgh dFkuksa okyk ,d fodYi pqfu;s :(a) f}chti=h ik/S kksa essa vf/kpeZ ds uhps LFkwydks.kksÙkd dh
ijr ikbZ tkrh gS
(b) f}chti=h ruksa esa mifLFkr ,.MksMfeZl dksf'kdkvksa esa
dsLisfj;u ifV~Vdk,a mifLFkr gksrh gS
(c) rus o ifÙk;ksa esa laoguiwy la;qDr o lEikf'oZd izdkj
ds ik;s tkrs gS
(d) f}chti=h ruksa esa Qy
S kstu f}fr;d o`f¼ ds le; ifjjEHk
dh dksf'kdkvksa ls curh gAS
fodYi
(1) dFku (b) (c) vkSj (d)
(2) dFku (a) (c) vkSj (d)
(3) dFku (a) vkSj (c)
(4) dFku (b) vkSj (d)
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155. Identify the given diagrams (A-D) :-
155. fn;s x, fp= (A-D) dh igpku dhft, :-
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
A
B
C
(1)
Anaphase
Metaphase-I Anaphase-I
Anaphase-II
(2)
Prophase-I
Metaphase-I Metaphase
(3)
Prophase-I
Metaphase
(4)
Anaphase-II Metaphase-I Anaphase-I
Prophase
D
A
B
C
D
(1)
i'pko LFkk
e/;ko LFkk -I
i'pko LFkk-I
i'pkoLFkk-II
Anaphase
(2)
iwo kZo LFkk-I
e/;ko LFkk -I
e/;ko LFkk
i'pko LFkk
Telophase
(3)
iwo kZo LFkk-I
e/;ko LFkk
iwo kZo LFkk
vR;ako LFkk
Anaphase
(4)
i'pko LFkk-II
e/;ko LFkk -I
i'pko LFkk-I
i'pkoLFkk
156. Which of the following animals is correctly
matched with its one characteristic and their taxon.
156. bues ls fdl tUrq dks mlds fof'k"V y{k.k rFkk VSDlku ls
gh feyk;k x;k gS %&
Animal Characteristic Taxon
(1) Ascaris Pseudocoelome Platyhelminthes
(2) Hirudo Schizocoelome Annelida
& Metamerism
tUrq
y{k.k
(1) Ascaris
dwV nsg xqgk
IySfVgsyfefFkl
(2) Hirudo
,ufS yMk
(3) Dugesia Flame cells
Aschelminthes
ladder like
nervous system
lkbtkslhykse rFkk
[kaMhHkou
(3) Dugesia
¶yse dksf'kdk,¡
,LdfS YeaFl
lh<+huqek raf=dk ra=
(4) Taenia
izxqgh;
(4) Taenia Eucoelomate Platyhelminthes
157. Every 1000 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
approximately____ml of CO2 to the alveoli.
(l) 4 ml
(2) 40 ml (3) 5 ml
(4) 50 ml
158. Match the column I with column II :Column–I
Column–II
(A) Germinal
(p) Neurosensory
Epithelium
epithelium
(B) Gut epithelium (q) Cuboidal
(C) Olfactory
Epithelium
Epithelium
(r) Alveoli of lungs
(D) Pavement
(s) Columnar
Epithelium
Epithelium
(1) (A) – (p), (B) – (s), (C) – (q), (D) – (r)
(2) (A) – (r), (B) – (p), (C) – (q), (D) – (s)
(3) (A) – (q), (B) – (s), (C) – (p), (D) – (r)
(4) (A) – (p), (B) – (q), (C) – (r), (D) – (s)
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VS D lkWu
IySfVgSfYeaFl
157. izfr 1000 ml fovksfDltfur jä }kjk yxHkx fdruh ml
CO2 dwfidk dks iznku dh tkrh gS %&
(l) 4 ml
(2) 40 ml (3) 5 ml
(4) 50 ml
158. LrEHk I dks LrEHk II ls lqefs yr dhft, :-
LrEHk–I
(A) tehZuy midyk
LrEHk–II
(p) raf=dk laosnh midyk
(B)
vkgkjuky midyk (q) ?kukdkj midyk
(C)
?kzk.k midyk
(r)
Qq¶Qql dh dwfidk
(D)
isoesaV midyk
(s)
LrEHkkdkj midyk
(1) (A) – (p), (B) – (s), (C) – (q), (D) – (r)
(2) (A) – (r), (B) – (p), (C) – (q), (D) – (s)
(3) (A) – (q), (B) – (s), (C) – (p), (D) – (r)
(4) (A) – (p), (B) – (q), (C) – (r), (D) – (s)
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159. The narrow distal part of stomach leading to the
intestine is called (1) Cardiac
(2) Pyloric
(3) Fundus
160.
(4) Body
Identify the correct match from column I, II & III:Column - II
Column - I
(1)
RBCs
(2)
Acidophils
(b)
(3)
Monocyte
(c)
159. vkek'k; dk ladjk nwjLFk Hkkx tks NksVh vka= dh rjQ
fu"dkflr gksrk gS (1) tBjkxe Hkkx
(2) tBjfuxZeh Hkkx
(3) QaMl {ks=
(4) 'kjhj
160. dkWy e I, II rFkk III ls lgh feyku igpkus :-
Column - III
Transport of
gases
Synthesis of
Haemoglobin (ii)
antibody
Prevent
Large and
body from
Round
(iii)
allergy and
nucleus
parasite
(a) Macropoliceman (i)
Column - I
(1)
RBCs
Column - II
Column - III
(a) esØksiksfyl eSu (i)
xSlksa dk ifjogu
(2) ,sflMksfQYl (b) gheksXyksfcu (ii) ,aVhckWMh dk fuekZ.k
nh?kZ o xksy
,ythZ o ijthoh
(3) eksukslkbV~l (c)
(iii)
dsUnzd
ls 'kjhj dh lqj{kk
Hk{kk.kq
(4) fyEQkslkbV~l (d) f}ikfyr dsUnzd (iv)
(4) Lymphocytes (d) Bilobed nucleus (iv) Phagocytic
(1) (1)-(b)-(iii); (2)-(d)-(i); (3)-(a)-(iv); (4)-(c)-(ii)
(1) (1)-(b)-(iii); (2)-(d)-(i); (3)-(a)-(iv); (4)-(c)-(ii)
(2) (1)-(b)-(i); (2)-(d)-(iii); (3)-(a)-(iv); (4)-(c)-(ii)
(2) (1)-(b)-(i); (2)-(d)-(iii); (3)-(a)-(iv); (4)-(c)-(ii)
(3) (1)-(b)-(i); (2)-(d)-(iii); (3)-(a)-(ii); (4)-(c)-(iv)
(3) (1)-(b)-(i); (2)-(d)-(iii); (3)-(a)-(ii); (4)-(c)-(iv)
(4) (1)-(d)-(i); (2)-(b)-(iii); (3)-(c)-(iv); (4)-(a)-(ii)
(4) (1)-(d)-(i); (2)-(b)-(iii); (3)-(c)-(iv); (4)-(a)-(ii)
161. Identify correct pair –
161. lqefs yr ;qXe dks igpkfu, –
(1) Homosporous – Selaginella
(1) lechtk.kq – lsyfS tuy
S k
(2) Homosporous – Salvinia
(2) lechtk.kq – lky~fofu;k
(3) Heterosporous – Cycas
(3) fo"kechtk.k – lkbdl
(4) Heterosporous – Funaria
(4) fo"kechtk.kq – Qqusfj;k
162. The first reaction in photorespiration is :-
162. izdk'k 'olu dh igyh izfrfØ;k gksrh gS :-
(1) Carboxylation
(2) Decarboxylation
(1) dkcksZfDlyslu
(2) MhdkcksZfDlyslu
(3) Oxygenation
(4) Phosphorylation
(3) vkWfDlftuslu
(4) QkWLQksjkbyslu
163. Which of the following step is associated with
ATP
formation
(substrate
level
phosphorylation) ?
163. fuEu esa ls dk S u lk pj.k ATP fuekZ . k ls la E cf/kr
gAS (fØ;kèkkj Lrjh; QkWLQksjhdj.k)
(1) QkWLQksbuksy ik;:osV ® ik;:fod vEy
(1) Phosphoenolpyruvate ® pyruvic acid
(2) Malic acid ® oxaloacetic acid
(2) efS yd vEy ® vkWDlSfyd vEy
(3) Fructose 6 phosphate ® fructose 1, 6
bisphosphate
(3) ÝqDVkst 6 QkWLQsV ® ÝqDVkst 1, 6 ckbQkWLQsV
(4) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate ® dihydroxy
acetone phosphate
(4) XyhljYMhgkbM 3 QkLQsV ® MkbgkbMªksDlh ,lhVksu
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QkWLQsV
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164. Read the following statement (i–iv)
(i) Mature sieve tube elements are enucleated
(ii) Central vacuole is present in each sieve cell
(iii) The functions of sieve tube are controlled
by the nucleus of companion cell
(iv) Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of
the monocotyledons
How many above statements are correct ?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
165. From the column-I, Column-II and Column-III
how many of the following are correctly
match:Column-I
Column-II
Column-III
164. fuEu dFkuksa (i–iv) dks if<+, %&
(i) ifjiDo pkyuh ufydk vdsanzdh; gksrh gAS
(ii) gj pkyuh dksf'kdk esa e/; jl/kkuh ik;h tkrh gAS
(iii) pkyuh ufydk ds dk;Z dks lgpj ds dsUnzd fu;af=r
djrs gaSA
(iv) ¶yks,e ijS sadkbek eksuksdksV esa ugh ikbZ tkrh gAS
Åij fn;s x;s fdrus dFku lgh gaS \
(1) ,d
(2) nks
(3) rhu
(4) pkj
165. fuEufyf[kr LrEHk-I, ,II ,III esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqefs yr
gS :LrEHk -I
LrEHk-II
LrEHk -III
a Ribosome
Composed of r-RNA Site of
and protein
protein
synthesis
a jkbckslkse
r-RNA vkjS izkVs hu dk izksVhu la'ys"k.k
cuk gksrk gAS
dk LFky
b ER
Network of tiny
tubular structure
scattered in the
cytoplasm
b ER
dksf'kdk nzO; esa NksVh dkczkgs kbMªVs
la' ys"k.k dk
ufydk ;qä fc[kjh
LFky
lajpuk dk tky
c dkbusV ksd ksj
xq.klw= ds f}rh;d
ldhZ. ku ij fMLd
vkdkj dh lajpuk
rdqZ rUrqv ks ds
tqM us dk LFky
d ekbØksckWMh
f>Yyh ls f?kjh NksVh
iqfVdk
dso y ikni
dksf'kdk esa
ik;h tkrh gS
Site for
synthesis of
carbohydrate
c Kinetochore disc shape
structure present
on secondary
constriction of
chrom osom e
Site for
attachement
of spindle
fibres
d M icrobody
Present only
in plant cell
M em brane bound
m inute vesicle
(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three
166. Identify given animal :-
Choose incorrect statement regarding this.
(1) It is marine and sessile animal
(2) It is larva undergoes retrogressive
metamorphosis
(3) It is one protochordate with motile larva in
its life history
(4) Adults shows gills for respiration and
notochord persists throughout life
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(1) Two
(3) Four
(2) One
(4) Three
166. fn, x;s tUrq dks igpkfu, %&
blds ckjs esa vlR; dFku dk pquko dhft, %&
(1) ;s leqnzh izk.kh gS rFkk ;s xeu izn£'kr ugh djrkA
(2) bldk ykokZ izfrØe.kh dk;karj.k djrk gAS
(3) bl jTtqdh ds thou pØ esa pyk;eku ykokZ gksrk gAS
(4) O;Ldksa esa 'olu ds fy, Dykse gksrs gaS rFkk i`"B jTtq
thoui;ZUr gksrh gAS
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167. Following is the oxygen-haemoglobin
dissociation curve, mark the conditions in
which that curve will shift from A to B.
a. Increase in DPG
b. Increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide
c. Low temperature
d. Increase in pH, blood becomes more
alkaline.
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d
168. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and
select the option which include all incorrect one
only:
(a) Duramater is innermost layer which is thick,
very strong and non-elastic
(b) Arachnoid is a middle layer
(c) Piamater is outermost thin layer which is
highly vascular
(d) Arachnoid is found only in Amphibia
(1) Statement a, b, c
(2) Statement a and c
(3) Statement a, c and d
(4) Statement b only
169. Which of the following sequence is correct?
(1) Descending part of colon ® Rectum ® Anus
(2) Stomach ® Jejunum ® Duodenum
(3) Ileum ® Colon ® Caecum
(4) Colon ® Anus ® Rectum
170. The enzyme trypsin hydrolyses(1) Proteins to peptides
(2) Fats to fatty acids
(3) Glucose to ethyl alcohol
(4) Polysaccharides to monosaccharides
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167. fuEufyf[kr ,d O2 fgeksXyksf cu fo;kstu oØ gS ] mu
voLFkkvksa dks fpfUgr fdth;s ftlesa oØ A ls B dh vksj
LFkkukarfjr gks tk,xk &
a. DPG dk c<+uk
b. CO2 ds vkaf'kd nkc esa o`f¼
c. rkieku esa deh
d. pH esa o`f¼] jä dk vf/kd {kkjh; gksuk
(1) a and b
(3) c and d
(2) b and c
(4) a and d
168. fuEufyf[kr pkj okD;ksa (a-d) dks /;kuiwoZd if<+;s ,oa ml
fodYi dk p;u dhft;s tks lHkh xyr dFku j[krs gS &
(a) M~;jw kesVj lcls vkarfjd ijr ga S tks fd eksVh] cgqr etcwr
,oa vyphyh gksrh gAS
(b) ,jDukW;M e/; dh ijr gAS
(c) ik;kesVj ckg~;re iryh ijr gaS tks fd vfrlaoguh;
gSA
(d) ,jDukW;M dsoy mHk;pjksa esa mifLFkr gAS
(1) dFku a, b, c
(2) dFku a ,oa c
(3) dFku a, c ,oa d
(4) dsoy dFku b
169. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk Øe lgh gS ?
(1) dksyu dh vojksgh Hkkx ® eyk'k; ® xqnk
(2) vkek'k; ® e/;ka= ® xzg.kh
(3) bfy;e ® dksyu ® lhde
(4) dksyu ® xqnk ® eyk'k;
170. fVª Ilhu fodj ty vi?kVu djrk gS (1) izksVhu dks isi~V kbM esa
(2) olk dks olh ; vEyksa esa
(3) Xywdkst dks bFkkWby vYdksgy esa
(4) ikWyhlsDjkbM dks eksukslsDjkbM esa
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171. Read the following statements (A – E) and
answer as asked next to them (A) Mosses have more elaborate sporophyte as
compared to liver worts.
(B) Cycas is branched and Dioecious
(C) Pteridophytes are mostly heterosporous
(D) Endosperm of Cycas is haploid.
(E) In Marchantia, archegonia & Antheridia
develops on different thallus
Number of correct and incorrect statements are
respectively –
(1) Two and Three
(2) Three and Two
(3) Four and One
(4) One and Four
172. Which one is false about kranz anatomy :(1) Bundle sheath have large chloroplast and
less developed grana
(2) Mesophyll cells have agranal chloroplast
(3) It is found in sugarcane, maize
(4) Plant
having
it
have
better
photosynthesizing power than C3 plant
173. Leghaemoglobin in the root nodule of legume
plant generate
(1) Aerobic condition
(2) Anaerobic condition
(3) Acidic condition
(4) Some time aerobic and some time anaerobic
174. Match the columns related to vascular bundle
Column-I
(i)
Bicollateral
171. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa (A – E) dks if<, vkSj muds vkxs fn;s
mÙkjksa dks igpkfu, (A) ekWl esa LiksjksQkbV fyojoVZ dh vis{kk vf/kd fodflr
gksrk gAS
(B) lkbdl 'kkf[kr ,oa ,dfyaxkJ;h (Dioecious) gksrs gAS
(C) T;knkrj VSfjMksQkbV fo"kechtk.kq gksrs gAS
(D) lkbdl dh ,.MksLieZ vxqf.kr gksrk gAS
(E) ekjdsaf'k;k esa vkjfpxksuh;k vkjS ,UFkhfjfM;k vyx Fky
S l
ij fodflr gksrk gAS
lgh vkSj xyr dFkuksa dh la[;k Øe'k% gS –
(1) nks vkjS rhu
(2) rhu vkSj nks
(3) pkj vkSj ,d
(4) ,d vkSj pkj
172. fuEu esa dkSulk Økat 'kkfjfjdh ds laca/k esa xyr g\
S
(1) iwykPNn esa cM+s DyksjksIykLV vkjS de fodflr xzus k ik;s
tkrs gAS
(2) e/;ksÙkd dksf'kdk esa agranal DyksjksIykLV ik;s tkrs
gSA
(3) ;s xUus] eDdk esa ik;h tkrh gAS
(4) bu ikniksa esa C3 ikniksa ds eqdkcys esa T;knk csgrjhu
izdk'k la'ys"k.kh; {kerk gksrh gSa
173. ysX;we ikni ds ewy xzfa Fkdk esa ysxgheksXyksfcu mRikfnr djrk
gS %&
(1) vkWDlh voLFkk
(2) vukWDlh voLFkk
(3) vEyh; voLFkk
(4) dqN le; vkWDlh vkSj dqN le; vukWDlh
174. laogu iwy ls lacaf/kr LrEHkksa dk esy djsa %&
LrEHk& I
Column-II
LrEHk-II
(a) Root
(i)
ckbdksyVs ªy
(a) tM+
(ii) Closed
(b) Stem of monocots
(ii)
can
(b) ,dchti=h ruk
(iii) Open
(c) Stem of gymnosperm
(iii) [kqyk
(c) ftEuksLieZ
(iv) Exarch
(d) Cucurbitaceae stem
(iv) ckáfnnk:d
(d) dqdjfcVslh ruk
Select out the correct match
(1) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(3) i-d, ii-b,iii-c, iv-a
(4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
175. If in a cell 20 tetrads are present in prophaseI, then what will be the number of chromatids
in each cell during metaphase-II and
anaphase-I respectively?
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lgh esy fodYi dks pqfu, %&
(1) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(3) i-d, ii-b,iii-c, iv-a
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
175. ;fn iw o kZ o LFkk I es a dks f 'kdk es a 20 prq " d g S] rks
e/;ko LFkk-II vkSj i'pkoLFkk-I ds nkjS ku izR;sd dksf'kdk esa
ØkseSfVM dh la[;k D;k gksxh ?
(1) 40 and 40
(2) 20 and 40
(1) 40 vkjS 40
(2) 20 vkjS 40
(3) 40 and 80
(4) 40 and 40
(3) 40 vkjS 80
(4) 40 vkjS 40
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176. Given below is the diagram of juxtaglomerular
apparatus. Label with A, B, C what is A, B, C
(respectively)?
176. fuEu fn;k x;k fp= tDlVk Xykse:
s yj la;a= dk g]S ftlds
dqN Hkkxksa dks A, B, C ls iznf'kZr fd;k x;k gAS ;g A, B,
C (Øe'k%) D;k g\
S
Afferent arteriole
Afferent arteriole
A
A
C
Efferent arteriole
177.
178.
179.
180.
(1) A = Juxta cells, B = Glomerular cells,
C = Lacis cells
(2) A = Juxta cells, B = Glomerular cells,
C = Mesangial cells
(3) A = Macula densa, B = Juxta glomerular cells,
C = Lacis cells
(4) A = Juxtaglomerular cells, B = Macula densa,
C = Mesangial cells
Which of the following statements is true about
sternum
(1) Flat bone present an dorsal midline of
thorax.
(2) Metasternum is also called xiphoid process
(3) 2 nd to 7 th pair of ribs are attached with
mesosternum.
(4) Both (2) and (3)
To obtain a standard ECG a patient is connected to
the machine with three electrode attached.
(1) one to each wrist & to the left ankle
(2) one to each ankle & to the left wrist
(3) one to each wrist & to the left chest region.
(4) one to each ankle and to the left chest region
Exchange of gases (1) Occurs between the alveoli and pulmonary
blood capillary
(2) Occurs between blood and tissues
(3) Takes place by diffusion
(4) All of the above
"The deoxygenated blood pumped into the
__A__ is passed on the lungs from where the
__B__ is carried by __C__ into the __D__
atrium. This pathway constitutes the __E__
circulation. What is true about A, B, C, D, E?
(1) A = Pulmonary artery, D = Right,
E = Pulmonary
(2) B = Oxygenated blood, C = Pulmonary artery,
D = Left
(3) A = Pulmonary artery, D = Left,
E = Pulmonary
(4) B = Deoxygenated blood, C = Pulmonary vein,
D = Left
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C
Efferent arteriole
(1) A = tDlVk dksf'kdk, B = Xykse:
s yj dksf'kdk,
C = ykWfld dksf'kdk
(2) A = tDlVk dksf'kdk, B = Xykse:
s yj dksf'kdk,
C = ehlsuth;y dksf'kdk
(3) A = eDS ;wyk MuS l
s k, B = tDlVk Xykse:
s yj,
C = ykWfld dksf'kdk
(4) A = tDlVk Xykse:
s yj dksf'kdk, B = eDS ;wyk MSulkW,
C = ehlsuth;y dksf'kdk
177. mjksfLFk ds ckjs esa lR; dFku gS :(1) o{k dh e/; i`"B js[kk ij fLFkr piVh vfLFk gAS
(2) esVk mjksfLFk dks Xiphoid process Hkh dgk tkrk gSA
(3) ilfy;ks a dh nw l jh ls ys d j lkroh tks f M;ka ]
mesosternum ls tqM +h gSA
(4) (2) vkjS (3) nksuksa
178. ekud ECG ysus ds fy, ,d jksxh dks e'khu ds lkFk rhu
bysDVªksM ls tksM+k tkrk gS %&
(1) ,d izR;sd dykbZ rFkk ckbZ ,sM+h ij
(2) ,d izR;sd ,sM+h rFkk ckbZ dykbZ ij
(3) ,d izR;sd dykbZ rFkk ck,s o{kh; Hkkx
(4) ,d izR;sd ,sM+h rFkk ck¡,s o{kh; Hkkx ij
179. xl
S h; fofue; gksrk gS (1) dwfidkvksa rFkk Qq¶Qqlh; dsf'kdk,¡ ds e/;
(2) Ård rFkk jä ds e/;
(3) folj.k ds }kjk
(4) mijksä lHkh
180. ^^vkWDlhtu jfgr jDr dks __A__ esa iai fd;k tkrk
g]S tks QsQM+kas esa __B__ gksdj __C__ ls gksrk gqvk
__D__ vkfyan esa vkrk gAS ;g lapj.k iFk __E__
dgykrk gAS ** A, B, C, D, E ds ckjs esa lR; D;k g\
S
(1) A = Qq¶Qqlh; /keuh, D = nka;k,
E = Qq¶Qqlh;
(2) B = vkWDlhtfur, C = Qq¶Qqlh; /keuh,
D = cka;k
(3) A = Qq¶Qqlh; /keuh, D = cka;k,
E = Qq¶Qqlh;
(4) B = vkWDlhtu jfgr jDr, C = Qq¶Qqlh; f'kjk,
D = cka;k
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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE/Pre-Medical /AIPMT/21-02-2016
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy;s txg
Your moral duty
is to prove that ALLEN is ALLEN
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