A&P LECTURE EXAM PREP GUIDE
BIOL& 242, Spring 2017, Lecture Exam 1:
The Endocrine System (Martini et al. Ch. 18),
The Reproductive Systems (Ch. 28),
Prenatal Development (Ch. 29), and Blood (Ch. 19)
KEY TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – The correct answers are highlighted in yellow.
CHAPTER 18
1. Which of the following hormones requires a releasing hormone from the hypothalamus for its secretion?
a. oxytocin (OXT) b. prolactin (PRL) c. growth hormone (GH) d. both a and b e. both b and c
2. For the formation of thyroxine (T 4) to occur, it is essential that the ingredient _____ be present.
a. iodine b. calcitonin c. calcium d. iron e. albumin
3. What stimulates the release of PTH from the parathyroid glands?
a. calcitonin from the anterior pituitary gland b. TSH from the anterior pituitary gland
c. low levels of glucose in the blood d. high levels of calcium ions in the blood
e. low levels of calcium ions in the blood
4. Which of the following is classified as a glucocorticoid?
a. cortisol b. aldosterone c. corticosterone d. all of the above e. a and c only
5. Which region of the adrenal gland produces mineralocorticoids?
a. zona glomerulosa b. zona fasciculata c. zona reticularis d. medulla e. all of the above
6. The _____ cells of the pancreatic islets secrete insulin.
a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. F e. both a and b
Match the hormone with its effect.
7. Cortisol d.
a. stimulates uterine gland secretion
8. Testosterone e.
b. increases blood calcium levels
9. Progesterone a.
c. increases sodium reabsorption by the kidneys
10. Aldosterone c.
d. increases glucose and glycogen production by the liver
e. stimulates bone and muscle growth
11. Target cells for hypothalamic releasing hormones are in the
a. hypothalamus. b. anterior pituitary. c. posterior pituitary. d. all of the above e. b and c only
12. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of steroid hormones?
a. They are lipid soluble. b. They bind to receptors located on plasma (cell) membranes.
c. They can act directly on the DNA level without a second messenger. d. They bind to intracellular receptors.
e. They include the hormones produced by the adrenal cortex.
13. Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine functions?
a. pancreas b. anterior pituitary c. hypothalamus d. adrenal medulla e. none of the above
Page 1
14. Which of the following produce antagonistic results?
a. FSH and LH b. calcitonin and parathyroid hormone c. ADH and aldosterone d. oxytocin and prolactin
e. T3 and T4
15. Several tropic hormones are secreted by the
a. adrenal cortex. b. anterior pituitary. c. posterior pituitary. d. parathyroid glands. e. both b and c
16. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
a. causes the secretion of glucocorticoids. b. targets the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex.
c. is released in response to the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus.
d. all of the above e. a and b only
17. In healthy adults, the concentration of calcium ions in the blood is predominantly regulated by
a. thyroid hormones. b. PTH. c. calcitonin. d. both a and c e. both b and c
18. Growth hormone
a. stimulates testes to produce sperm and stimulates growth of the corpus luteum.
b. regulates the amount of calcium ions in the blood. c. stimulates reabsorption of both Na + and K+ by the kidneys.
d. decreases the metabolic rate of most cells. e. stimulates protein synthesis and cell division.
19. Glucocorticoids are produced in the
a. zona glomerulosa and regulate the concentration of extracellular electrolytes.
b. zona fasciculata, and influence carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism.
c. zona reticularis, and supplement sex hormones from the ovaries.
d. zona fasciculata, and regulate the concentration of extracellular electrolytes.
b. zona glomerulosa, and influence carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism.
20. Which of the following hormones increases the metabolic rate of most somatic cells?
a. PRL b. T3 c. FSH d. calcitonin e. oxytocin
21. When an excess of a hormone is present the number of target cell receptors may decrease. This change is
specifically called
a. up-regulation. b. accommodation. c. adaptation. d. down-regulation. e. amplification.
22. The cell bodies of the axons that innervate the posterior pituitary gland are located in the
a. infundibulum. b. anterior pituitary gland. c. posterior pituitary gland. d. pars intermedia. e. hypothalamus.
23. Which endocrine gland is NOT regulated by tropic hormones from the anterior pituitary?
a. parathyroid b. thyroid c. adrenal cortex d. ovary e. testis
Match the hormone with the correct comment.
24. Insulin c.
a. secreted by the thyroid gland to decrease blood calcium levels
25. Inhibin b.
b. secreted by the gonads to reduce FSH secretion
26. Calcitonin a.
c. secreted by the pancreas to regulate blood glucose levels
27. Glucagon c.
d. secreted by adipose tissue to suppress appetite
28. Leptin d.
29. The posterior pituitary gland stores and releases
a. prolactin and follicle stimulating hormone. b. growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone.
c. oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone. d. all of the above e. a and b only
30. A synthetic form of the hormone _____ is given to induce labor or to increase uterine muscle tone just after birth.
a. oxytocin b. luteinizing hormone c. norepinephrine d. estradiol e. prolactin
31. If you drank a liter of water very quickly, one likely ensuing result would be
a. increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone. b. decreased secretion of oxytocin.
c. decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone. d. increased secretion of oxytocin.
Page 2
32. Adrenal hormones that are useful clinically in the treatment of inflammation are
a. glucocorticoids. b. mineralocorticoids. c. epinephrine and norepinephrine. d. androgens. e. histamines
CHAPTER 28
33. Which of the following functions in both the urinary and reproductive systems of the male?
a. ductus deferens b. ureter c. urethra d. both a and c e. both b and c
34. The function of the enzymes that are found within the acrosome of a spermatozoon is to
a. protect the DNA of the sperm. b. aid the sperm in penetration into the oocyte during fertilization.
c. provide energy for the flagellum. d. neutralize the acidity of the female reproductive tract.
35. Erectile tissue of the penis includes the
a. smegma. b. corpus spongiosum. c. corpora cavernosa d. prepuce. e. both b and c
36. Which of the following is produced by the nurse cells of the testes?
a. inhibin b. testosterone c. luteinizing hormone d. follicle-stimulating hormone e. both a and b
37. Sperm move by means of
a. cilia b. tiny little feet c. flagella d. breaststroke
38. After ovulation, the _____ become(s) the _____.
a. secondary oocyte, primary oocyte b. thecal cells, corona radiata
c. tertiary (mature graafian) follicle, corpus luteum d. spermatid, spermatocyte e. follicle cells, granulosa cells
39. The cells in the testis responsible for producing testosterone are the
a. spermatozoa. b. spermatogonia. c. nurse cells. d. spermatids. e. interstitial cells.
40. The testes are covered by layer of dense white connective tissue rich with collagen fibers called the
a. scrotum. b. tunica vaginalis. c. tunica albuginea. d. pampiniform plexus. e. rete testis
41. Which of the following cells reside directly next to the outer connective tissue capsule of the seminiferous tubules?
a. primary spermatocytes b. spermatozoa c. spermatogonia d. secondary spermatocytes e. spermatids
42. A zygote is
a. diploid. b. the cell formed by the union of an oocyte and sperm. c. also known as a gamete. d. all of the above
e. a and b only
43. The spermatic cord contains more than just the ductus (vas) deferens.
a. True b. False
44. In the testis, spermatogonia _____, and primary spermatocytes _____.
a. divide by mitosis; also divide by mitosis b. divide by mitosis; divide by meiosis.
c. divide by meiosis; divide by mitosis d. divide my meiosis; also divide by meiosis
45. The daily production of sperm in the testes is _____ of sperm.
a. hundreds b. thousands c. millions d. hundreds of millions e. hundreds of billions
46. Which of these hormones may stimulate (either directly or indirectly) testosterone secretion in the male?
a. FSH b. LH c. GnRH d. both a and b e. both b and c
47. The hormone inhibin is produced by the _____ and inhibits the secretion of _____.
a. hypothalamus; LH b. anterior pituitary gland; testosterone c. nurse cells; FSH d. interstitial cells; GnRH
48. What accessory gland(s) contribute(s) the majority of the liquid portion of semen?
a. prostate gland b. bulbourethral glands c. seminal glands d. testes
Page 3
49. At birth, a couple million oogonia are present in each ovary, but only about _____ of these will eventually be
ovulated.
a. five b. five hundred c. five thousand d. five hundred thousand e. half
50. In the ovary, oocytes begin meiosis I
a. before birth. b. during early childhood. c. after puberty. d. after ovulation. e. after menopause.
51. The open, funnel-shaped segment of a uterine tube (closest to the ovary) is specifically called the
a. fundus. b. ampulla. c. infundibulum. d. isthmus. e. fimbria
52. Fertilization of the oocyte by a sperm usually occurs in the
a. vagina. b. cervix of the uterus. c. uterine tube. d. ovary. e. pelvic cavity.
53. The functional zone of the endometrium
a. is shed during menstruation. b. is built up during the proliferative and secretory phases of the uterine cycle.
c. is highly vascular. d. contains mucus-secreting glands at certain points in the uterine cycle. e. all of the above
54. The main estrogen hormone is
a. estriol. b. progesterone. c. estradiol. d. estrone.
55. The tertiary (mature Graafian) follicle continues to enlarge and increase its estrogen production during the _____ of
the uterine cycle.
a. secretory phase b. proliferative phase c. menstrual phase
CHAPTER 29
56. Prenatal development prior to week 9 is specifically called
a. postnatal development. b. fetal development. c. embryonic development. d. placentation. e. all of the above
57. Just prior to amphimixis, the maternal DNA of the fertilized ovum is contained within a structure called the
a. zygotic nucleus. b. male pronucleus. c. female pronucleus. d. female postnucleus e. both c and d
58. The process that sperm undergo which allow them to be able to fertilize a secondary oocyte is specifically called
a. polyspermy. b. ejaculation. c. capacitation. d. implantation. e. amphimixis
59. Which of the following statements about fertilization is NOT true?
a. Multiple sperm are needed to break down the corona radiata of the oocyte.
b. Multiple sperm typically fertilize each egg and contribute to the genetic material of the zygote.
c. Amphimixis is the fusion of the male and female pronuclei.
d. The oocyte is roughly 2,000 times the size of the sperm by volume.
e. Fertilization typically takes place 12-24 hours after ovulation.
CHAPTER 19
60. Which of the following plasma proteins mainly function to help regulate blood volume by being a major
contributor to blood osmotic pressure?
a. globulins b. albumins c. fibrinogen d. all of the above e. a and b only
61. Which white blood cell type functions to attack large pathogens (such as some parasitic worms), phagocytize
materials coated with antibodies, and release antihistamine?
a. basophils b. neutrophils c. eosinophils d. monocytes e. lymphocytes
62. The primary site of hemopoiesis in adult humans is the
a. spleen. b. red bone marrow. c. liver. d. thymus. e. kidneys.
Page 4
63. Which of the following is an agranular leukocyte that can leave the blood and become a macrophage?
a. monocyte b. neutrophil c. eosinophil d. basophil e. lymphocyte
64. Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?
a. transport of dissolved gases b. distribution of nutrients c. restriction of fluid losses through damaged vessels
d. defense against toxins and pathogens e. digestion of nutrients
65. Disregarding the Rh factor, which blood type in theory could be considered the "universal donor"?
a. A b. B c. O d. AB e. any of the above
66. Plasma proteins which are also known as antibodies and attack foreign antigens are classified as
a. albumins. b fibrinogens. c. immunoglobulins. d. both a and c e. both b and c
67. In general, the formation of all blood cell types is called
a. hemopoiesis. b. erythropoiesis. c. thrombocytopoiesis. d. lymphopoiesis. e. hemophilia.
68. Which formed elements are produced from fragmentation of megakaryocytes?
a. leukocytes b. erythrocytes c. platelets d. all of the above e. a and c only
69. Vascular spasms and platelet plug formation are steps in the process of
a. hemostasis. b. homeostasis. c. agglutination. d. erythropoiesis. e. diapedesis.
70. Disregarding the Rh factor, an individual who is blood type AB could safely receive which of the following types
of blood?
a. A. b. B. c. O. d. any of the above e. a or b only
71. During hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis),
a. the baby's blood cells hemolyse because the mother's Rh antigens cross the placenta.
b. the baby's blood cells hemolyse because the mother's anti-A and anti-B antibodies cross the placenta.
c. the mother's blood cells hemolyse because the baby's Rh antigens cross the placenta.
d. the baby's blood cells hemolyse because the mother’s anti-Rh antibodies cross the placenta.
e. the mother's blood cells hemolyse because the baby's anti-Rh antibodies cross the placenta.
72. Which of the following is the first step of the common pathway in blood clotting?
a. activation of clotting factor X b. activation of clotting factor XII c. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
d. tissue damage e. activation of thrombin
73. Fibrinolysis refers to
a. clot retraction. b. dissolution of a clot by plasmin.
c. rapid mitosis of fibroblasts at the edges of a damaged vessel. d. breakdown of fibrin to form fibrinogen.
74. An individual who has the agglutinin anti-B in his or her blood plasma
a. may be the universal donor blood type. b. may be the universal recipient blood type.
c. may have the agglutinogen A on his or her RBCs. d. both a and c e. both b and c
75. Which of the following is true concerning Rh?
a. The presence or absence of Rh antigens is genetically determined.
b. All Rh- people can donate blood to recipients of any blood type.
c. The presence or absence of anti-Rh antibodies is genetically determined. d. all of the above e. a and c only
76. The most abundant molecules present in blood plasma are
a. albumin proteins. b. fibrinogen proteins. c. glucose molecules. d. sodium chloride ions. e. water molecules.
77. The different types of white blood cells are identified microscopically by the shape of their _____ and presence or
absence of _____ in the cytoplasm.
a. cell membrane; stained vesicles b. nuclei; endoplasmic reticulum c. nuclei; stained vesicles
d. cell membrane; nuclei e. endoplasmic reticulum; stained vesicles
Page 5
78. Neutrophils and macrophages are active in
a. phagocytosis. b. red blood cell formation. c. blood coagulation. d. antibody formation. e. histamine release.
79. People with type AB blood have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma.
a. True b. False
Page 6