Florida Teacher Certification Examination
Test Preparation Guide
for
Biology 6-12
FLORIDA DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION
www.fldoe.org
Third Edition
Developed, produced, and printed under the authority of the
Florida Department of Education
Subject area content developed by the
Institute for Instructional Research and Practice
College of Education
University of South Florida
Produced by the
Institute for Instructional Research and Practice
College of Education
University of South Florida
Authorization for reproduction of this document is hereby granted to
persons acting in an official capacity within the Florida K-20 education
system, as enumerated in Section 1000.04, Florida Statutes.
Permission is NOT granted for distribution or reproduction outside the
State system of public education or for commercial distribution of the
copyrighted materials without written authorization from the
Department of Education. Questions regarding use of these
copyrighted materials are to be addressed to:
FTCE Administrator
Florida Department of Education
325 West Gaines Street, Suite 414
Tallahassee, Florida 32399-0400
Copyright 2005
State of Florida
Department of State
Contents
1
Test and Test Preparation Guide Development 1
2
Preparation for the Test
3
3
Competencies and Skills
5
4
Test Format and Sample Questions
13
5
Test-Taking Advice
31
6
Additional Information
33
1
Test and Test Preparation Guide Development
Teacher Certification Testing
Since 1980, Florida teacher certification candidates have been
required to pass the Florida Teacher Certification Examination
(FTCE), which has consisted of tests in reading, writing,
mathematics, and professional knowledge. The 1986 Florida
Legislature modified the testing program by also requiring teacher
candidates to pass a test in the subject area in which they wish to be
certified. In addition, the Legislature substituted the Florida CollegeLevel Academic Skills Test (CLAST) for the reading, writing, and
mathematics portions of the FTCE. The 2000 Florida Legislature
replaced the CLAST with the General Knowledge Test, effective July
1, 2002.
The subject area knowledge tested on the Biology 6-12 examination
was identified and validated by committees of content specialists
from within the state of Florida. A majority of the committee members
were public school teachers, but the committees also included district
supervisors and college faculty with expertise in this field. Committee
members were selected on the basis of recommendations by
professional associations, experts in the field, and teachers’ unions.
In developing the test, the committees used an extensive literature
review, interviews with selected public school teachers, a large-scale
survey of teachers, pilot tests, and their own professional judgment.
Role of the Test Preparation Guide
The purpose of this test preparation guide is to help candidates taking
the Initial Teacher Subject Area Test in Biology 6-12 prepare
effectively for the examination. The guide was designed to familiarize
prospective test takers with various aspects of the examination,
including the content that is covered and the way it is represented.
The guide should enable candidates to direct their study and to focus
on relevant material for review.
This test preparation guide is intended primarily for use by
certification candidates, who may be students in a college or
university teacher-preparation program, teachers with provisional
certification, teachers seeking certification in an additional subject
area, or persons making a career change to public school teaching.
Candidates may have studied and worked in Florida or may be from
out of state.
1
College or university faculty may also use the guide to prepare students
for certification, and inservice trainers may find the guide useful for
helping previously certified teachers prepare for recertification or
multiple certification.
This test preparation guide is not intended as an all-inclusive source of
subject area knowledge, nor is it a substitute for college course work in
the subject area. The sample items are not an exact representation of
the content of the actual test. Instead, the guide is intended to help
candidates prepare for the subject area test by presenting an overview
of the content and format of the examination.
2
2
Preparation for the Test
The following outline may help you to prepare for the examination.
Adapt these suggestions to suit your own study habits and the time
you have available for review.
Overview
•
Look over the organization of the test preparation guide.
Section 1 discusses the development of the test and test
preparation guide.
Section 2 (this section) outlines test preparation steps.
Section 3 presents information about the content of the test.
Section 4 lists question formats and includes sample test items.
Section 5 offers strategies for taking the test.
Section 6 identifies sources of further information.
Self-Assessment
•
Decide which content areas you should review.
Section 3 includes the competencies and skills used to develop
this subject area test and the approximate proportion of test items
from each competency area.
Review
•
Study according to your needs.
Review all of the competencies, concentrating on areas with
which you are least familiar.
Practice
•
Acquaint yourself with the format of the examination.
Section 4 describes types of questions you may find on the
examination.
•
Answer sample test questions.
Section 4 gives you an opportunity to test yourself with sample
test questions and provides an answer key.
Final preparation
•
Review test-taking advice.
Section 5 includes suggestions for improving your performance
on the examination.
3
4
3
Competencies and Skills
The table on the following pages lists the competencies and skills
used as the basis for the Biology 6-12 examination. These
competencies and skills represent the knowledge that teams of
teachers, subject area specialists, and district-level educators have
determined to be important for beginning teachers. This table could
serve as a checklist for assessing your familiarity with each of the
areas covered by the test. The competencies and skills should help
you to organize your review.
The following excerpt illustrates the components of the table:
Competency
Percentage of total test items
Competency/Skill
%
1 Knowledge of the investigative processes of science
15
1 Demonstrate knowledge of the proper use and care of the light
microscope.
2 Recognize and distinguish between the types of microscopy and uses.
3 Identify common laboratory techniques (e.g., dissection; preserving,
staining, and mounting microscope specimens; preparing laboratory
solutions).
4 Identify proper field techniques (e.g., site selection, field procedures,
sampling, capture/recapture, transects, collecting techniques,
environmental quality assessment).
5 Identify the uses of PCR, chromatography, spectrophotometry,
centrifugation, and electrophoresis.
Skill
Competencies are areas of content knowledge.
Skills identify behaviors that demonstrate the competencies.
Percentages indicate the approximate proportion of test items that
represent the competencies on the test.
5
Table of Competencies, Skills, and Percentages
Competency/Skill
%
1
15
Knowledge of the investigative processes of science
1
Demonstrate knowledge of the proper use and care of the light
microscope.
2
Recognize and distinguish between the types of microscopy and uses.
3
Identify common laboratory techniques (e.g., dissection; preserving,
staining, and mounting microscope specimens; preparing laboratory
solutions).
4
Identify proper field techniques (e.g., site selection, field procedures,
sampling, capture/recapture, transects, collecting techniques,
environmental quality assessment).
5
Identify the uses of PCR, chromatography, spectrophotometry,
centrifugation, and electrophoresis.
6
Identify terms in a formula (e.g., chemical, ecological, physical) and
assess the relationships among the terms.
7
Identify the units in the metric system and convert between dimensional
units for one-, two-, and three-dimensional objects.
8
Identify assumptions, observations, hypotheses, conclusions, and
theories and differentiate between them.
9
Evaluate, interpret, and predict from data sets, including graphical data.
10 Differentiate the characteristics of scientific research from other areas of
learning.
11 Distinguish between accuracy and precision, and between systematic
error and random error.
12 Characterize variables and the outcomes for appropriate experimental
designs.
13 Recognize that the validity and reliability of scientific knowledge is based
on reproducibility of results and statistical significance of results, and is
limited by the state of current technology and possible bias.
14 Identify the development of biological knowledge through important
historical events, individuals (e.g., Robert Hooke, Mattias Schleiden,
Françis Jacob, Jacques Monod), and experimental evidence.
15 Differentiate between qualitative and quantitative data in experimental,
observational, and modeling methods of research.
16 Recognize the elements of a well-designed and controlled experiment.
17 Identify evidence of the evolutionary nature of science in the face of new
observations.
6
Competency/Skill
%
18 Identify the consistent patterns that govern the occurrence of most
natural events.
2
3
Knowledge of the interaction of science, technology, and society,
including ethical, legal, and social issues
1
Identify and analyze areas of scientific research that may contribute to
ethical, legal, and social conflicts (e.g., reproductive and life-sustaining
technologies; genetic basis for behavior, population growth and control;
government and business influences on biotechnology).
2
Identify principles and uses of cloning, genomics, proteomics, and
genetic engineering and analyze possible ethical conflicts.
3
Recognize and analyze global environmental challenges that may result
from scientific and technological advances and the subsequent
resolution of these problems (e.g., CFCs as coolants and ozone
depletion; insecticides for protecting crops and pollution events).
4
Analyze the synergistic relationship between basic and applied research,
technology, the economy, and public welfare.
5
Analyze the causes and effects of multidrug resistance and globalization
on the spread and treatment of human pathogens.
6
Demonstrate knowledge of pertinent legislation and national guidelines
(e.g., NABT, ISEF) regarding laboratory safety, hazardous materials,
experimentation, and/or the use of organisms in the classroom.
Knowledge of the chemical processes of living things
1
Identify the structures, functions, and importance of inorganic and
organic compounds (e.g., water, mineral salts, carbohydrates, lipids,
proteins, nucleic acids) in cells.
2
Compare and apply the laws of thermodynamics to living systems,
including the role of enzymes in biological reactions.
3
Predict the effects of changes in pH, temperature, substrate
concentration, and enzyme concentration on enzyme activity.
4
Identify substrates, products, and relationships between glycolysis,
Krebs cycle, and electron transport, including the respiration of
carbohydrates, fats, and amino acids.
5
Compare end products and energy yields of alcoholic fermentation,
lactic acid fermentation, and aerobic respiration.
5
12
7
Table of Competencies, Skills, and Percentages
Competency/Skill
6
Identify the raw materials and products of C-3 photosynthesis, including
the Calvin cycle, light dependent and light independent reactions, and
factors that affect their rate.
7
Identify key differences between C-3, C-4, and CAM photosynthesis, and
the ecological significance of these pathways.
8
Identify and analyze the process of chemiosmosis in photosynthesis and
respiration.
9
Compare heterotrophy and autotrophy and the roles of these processes
in the environment.
%
10 Define antigen and antibody and recognize the antigen-antibody
reaction.
11 Compare active and passive immunity, identifying the positive and
negative effects of vaccines and inoculations.
12 Evaluate the roles of cell recognition (e.g., cell-to-cell signaling,
autoimmune diseases, tissue rejection, cancer, pollen/stigma-style
interaction) in normal and abnormal cell activity.
13 Identify the effect of environmental factors on the biochemistry of living
things (e.g., UV light effects on melanin and vitamin D production).
14 Identify the roles of ATP and ADP in cellular processes.
15 Compare chemosynthetic and photosynthetic processes and the roles of
organisms using these processes in the ecosystem.
16 Identify cell-to-cell communication in living things (e.g., electrical,
molecular, ionic).
4
Knowledge of the interaction of cell structure and function
1
Identify and analyze the major events in the development of the cell
theory.
2
Distinguish between the major structural characteristics of prokaryotic
and eukaryotic cells.
3
Relate the structure of cell organelles to their functions.
4
Identify and evaluate the events of each phase of the cell cycle (G1, S,
G2, M) and the regulatory mechanisms of the cycle.
Compare the mechanisms and results of nuclear division (karyokinesis)
and cell division (cytokinesis) in plant and animal cells.
5
8
10
Competency/Skill
5
6
Compare characteristics of the major taxa (kingdoms/domains),
including cellular characteristics.
7
Evaluate the relationships between the structures and functions of cell
membrane elements.
8
Identify and compare active and passive transport mechanisms.
Knowledge of genetic principles, processes, and applications
1
Evaluate the relationships between the structure and function of DNA.
2
Identify and sequence the principal events in DNA replication.
3
Identify and sequence the principal events of protein synthesis.
4
Distinguish between the various functions of DNA and RNA.
5
Distinguish between the regulatory systems for prokaryotic and
eukaryotic protein synthesis.
6
Evaluate the appropriate application of DNA manipulation techniques
(e.g., gene splicing, recombinant DNA, gene identification, PCR
technique).
7
Predict the effects of environmental and other influences on gene
structure and expression (e.g., viruses, oncogenes, carcinogenic agents,
mutagenic agents).
8
Analyze the processes and products of meiosis (e.g., gametogenesis in
male and female vertebrates; plant, animal and fungi meiosis) in
representative examples from various kingdoms.
9
Differentiate between classical laws of inheritance, their relationship to
chromosomes, and related terminology.
%
12
10 Analyze applications of probability and chi-square analysis in genetics.
11 Analyze various patterns of inheritance (e.g., sex-linked, sex-influenced,
sex-limited, incomplete dominance, autosomal linkage, multiple alleles,
polygenic inheritance).
12 Identify the causes of genetic disorders (e.g., point mutation,
nondisjunction, translocation, deletion, insertion, inversion, duplication).
13 Identify the effect of a mutation in a DNA sequence on the products of
protein synthesis.
9
Table of Competencies, Skills, and Percentages
Competency/Skill
%
6
5
7
Knowledge of the structural and functional diversity of viruses and
prokaryotic organisms
1
Distinguish the structure and function of viruses and prokaryotic
organisms.
2
Identify the effects of viruses (e.g., HIV, influenza, measles, TMV, feline
leukemia, genital warts, some human cancers) on organisms.
3
Relate the structures and functions (e.g., morphology, motility,
reproduction and growth, metabolic diversity) of prokaryotic organisms
to their behavior and identification.
4
Differentiate between the major types of bacterial genetic recombination
(i.e., transduction, transformation, and conjugation).
5
Relate microbial processes and products that are helpful or harmful to
human beings and their use in biotechnology.
Knowledge of the structural and functional diversity of protists, fungi,
and plants
1
Identify major types of protists, fungi, and plants.
2
Characterize the relationships of protists, fungi, and plants to other living
things.
3
Distinguish between the structures and functions of various plant
tissues.
4
Identify the characteristics of vascular and nonvascular plants and relate
these characteristics to adaptations allowing these plants to broaden
their ecological niches.
5
Identify the functions and survival advantages of the major organs of
angiosperms and gymnosperms.
6
Distinguish between the structures of monocots and dicots (e.g., seeds,
vascular bundles, venation, flower parts).
7
Identify the major mechanisms (e.g., transport, storage, conservation) in
plants and evaluate the survival advantages these mechanisms give to
different groups of plants.
8
Analyze the role of major plant growth regulators.
9
Apply concepts of major methods of reproduction in plants, including
dispersal mechanisms.
10 Analyze patterns of alternation of generations in various groups of plants
and algae.
10
10
Competency/Skill
%
8
11
Knowledge of the structural and functional diversity of animals
1
Relate the structures of major animal tissue types to their function.
2
Identify major animal body plans (e.g., symmetry, coelomic character,
embryonic origin).
3
Relate the processes of animal growth and development to early
embryological development (e.g., embryonic induction, ontogeny
recapitulating phylogeny).
4
Relate the structures to functions of circulatory and respiratory systems.
5
Relate the structures to functions of excretory and digestive systems.
6
Relate the structures to functions of endocrine and nervous systems.
7
Relate the structures to functions of integumentary and musculoskeletal
systems.
8
Relate the structures to functions of reproductive systems.
9
Relate the structures to functions of the human immune system.
10 Analyze the interconnectedness of animal organ systems.
11 Analyze the effects of feedback loops in human systems (e.g., classical
vertebrate hormones, fight or flight).
12 Identify aspects of animal social behavior (e.g., communication and
signals, dominance hierarchy, territoriality, aggression, courtship, innate
and learned behavior).
9
Knowledge of ecological principles and processes
1
Distinguish between individuals, populations, communities, ecosystems,
biomes, and the biosphere.
2
Analyze the relationship between organisms and their niches.
3
Analyze the roles of organisms in the major biogeochemical cycles and
processes.
4
Analyze patterns of energy flow in the biosphere.
5
Evaluate factors that affect population composition, growth, size, and
geographic distribution.
6
Distinguish between examples of competition, predation, and differing
types of symbioses (e.g., parasitism, mutualism, commensalism).
7
Evaluate succession in communities.
12
11
Table of Competencies, Skills, and Percentages
Competency/Skill
8
Identify renewable and nonrenewable resources and compare
management strategies for each, including environmental quality
assessment and mitigation.
9
Analyze the effects of resource availability on society.
%
10 Identify the potential local and global economic, aesthetic, and medical
consequences of air, land, and water pollution and evaluate proposed
solutions.
11 Identify the potential local and global economic, aesthetic, and medical
consequences of global warming and evaluate proposed solutions.
12 Analyze the local and global consequences of loss of biodiversity.
13 Characterize ecosystems unique to Florida (i.e., terrestrial, marine,
freshwater) and identify indicator species of each.
10 Knowledge of evolutionary mechanisms
1
Compare evolution by natural selection with other theories (e.g.,
Lamarck, Darwin).
2
Analyze the classical species concept and its limitations.
3
Compare systems of classification (e.g., classical taxonomy, phenetics,
cladistics).
4
Apply a taxonomic key to a set of objects.
5
Analyze variation within a species and its relationship to changes along
an environmental cline.
6
Identify factors affecting speciation and evolution in general (e.g.,
mutation, recombination, isolation, sexual reproduction and selection,
genetic drift, plate tectonics and geographic distribution).
7
Evaluate the role of mutation, recombination, isolation, sexual
reproduction and selection, genetic drift, and plate tectonics and
geographic distribution on evolution.
8
Compare the concepts of punctuated equilibrium and gradualism.
9
Distinguish between examples of evidences for evolutionary theory
(e.g., biochemical, morphological, embryological, paleontological).
10 Analyze aspects of modern theories on the origin of life on Earth.
11 Recognize general evolutionary trends as they relate to major taxa.
12 Apply the Hardy-Weinberg formula and identify the assumptions upon
which it is based.
12
8
4
Test Format and Sample Questions
The Biology 6-12 subject area test consists of approximately 120
multiple-choice questions. You will have two-and-one-half hours to
complete the test.
You will receive a test booklet and a separate answer sheet. Each
question will contain four response options, and you will record your
selection by bubbling in A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet.
The table below presents types of questions on the examination and
directs you to examples of these formats among the sample items
that follow.
Table of Question Formats
Type of question
Sample item
Direct question
Choose the response option that best
answers the question.
Item 1, page 15
Sentence completion
Select the response option that best
completes the sentence.
Item 4, page 15
Command
Select the best response option.
Item 5, page 15
Graphics
Examine a drawing or a diagram and select
the response option that best answers the
question.
Item 7, page 16
Scenario
Examine a situation, problem, or case study.
Then answer a question, make a diagnosis,
or recommend a course of action by
selecting the best response option.
Item 8, page 16
13
Sample Items
The following items represent both the form and content of questions
you will encounter on the examination. These sample items cannot
cover all of the competencies and skills that are tested, and they can
only approximate the degree of difficulty of actual examination
questions. However, these items will acquaint you with the general
format of the examination.
An answer key follows on page 30.
14
DIRECTIONS: Read each item and select the best response.
1.
Which microscope would be most appropriate for examining the fine detail of the external
structure of a chloroplast?
A.
phase contrast microscope
B.
fluorescent microscope
C. scanning electron microscope
D. transmission electron microscope
2.
A teacher wants to study the microscopic living organisms found in a nearby pond. Which
technique would be the most appropriate?
A.
gram staining
B.
heat fixing
C. viewing prepared slides
D. viewing wet-mount slides
3.
Which of the following techniques would be most appropriate for estimating the population of
a particular species of tree in a 5-hectare plot?
A.
aerial inventory
B.
mark and recapture
C. percent coverage
D. random sampling
4.
The most common method of separating plasma from the red blood cells would be
A.
chromotography.
B.
spectrophotometry.
C. centrifugation.
D. electrophoresis.
5.
In the following formula, light + 6 H2O + 6 CO2 Æ C6H12O6 + 6 O2, identify the products.
A.
6 H2O + 6 CO2
B.
6 CO2 + 6 O2
C. C6H12O6 + 6 O2
D. C6H12O6 + 6 CO2
15
6.
Bacteria cell length is usually measured in which of the following units?
A.
meters
B.
centimeters
C. millimeters
D. micrometers
7.
Use the graph above to determine the wavelength of maximum absorption for chlorophyll a.
A.
720 nm
B.
680 nm
C. 560 nm
D. 440 nm
8.
Five groups of plants are grown in five different temperatures ranging from 10 °C to 50 °C.
Their heights are recorded each day for 20 days. In this experiment, which is the dependent
variable?
A.
number of plants
B.
heights of plants
C. temperature
D. number of days
16
9.
A scientific study is valid if the results
A.
are repeatable using similar procedures.
B.
agree with the findings of leading scientists in the field.
C. are obtained using the latest technology.
D. show a detailed analysis of the data.
10. The first convincing demonstration that microorganisms do not arise spontaneously from
nonliving matter was made by
A.
Robert Koch.
B.
Louis Pasteur.
C. Alexander Fleming.
D. Jonas Salk.
11. Melatonin levels produced by the pineal gland show a consistent rise as the intensity of
sunlight decreases late in the day. This is an example of
A.
a negative feedback mechanism.
B.
imprinting.
C. cognition.
D. a circadian rhythm.
12. As more freshwater is diverted away from the Everglades to meet the drinking and irrigation
needs of a growing human population, it is reasonable to expect that the Everglades will
A.
lose some of its unique organisms.
B.
be disrupted slightly, but recover eventually.
C. be subject to less saltwater intrusion.
D. not be affected because the area is so large.
13. NASA developed coatings for rockets, which eventually led to nonstick surfaces on certain
consumer products. This synergism benefited
A.
applied research.
B.
basic research.
C. public welfare.
D. technology.
17
14. If a large chemical fire flares in a laboratory, the correct procedure is to
A.
notify the school office by intercom and then use a fire extinguisher.
B.
read the label of the extinguisher and attempt to put out the fire.
C. attempt to extinguish the flames and then send the students outside.
D. evacuate the room and notify the school office and fire department of the fire.
15. Which of the following characteristics would distinguish a protein from another type of
organic compound?
A.
contains amino acid monomers
B.
contains a sequence of nucleotides
C. contains only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
D. contains long fatty acid chains
16. According to the second law of thermodynamics, plants use solar energy in photosynthesis
because they need a constant input of energy to counteract
A.
enthalpy.
B.
oxidation.
C. entropy.
D. photo respiration.
17.
Salivary Amylase
Starch
Maltose
If the reaction above is carried out in a test tube at 35 °C, and the temperature is increased
from 35 °C to 80 °C, the rate of the reaction would
A.
decrease because the overheated enzyme becomes denatured and nonfunctional.
B.
increase because the rate of any chemical reaction increases with increasing temperature.
C. increase because the starch enzyme complex would form more readily at a higher temperature.
D. decrease because the increase in temperature would promote a conversion of maltose to starch.
18
18. Energy necessary for the fixation of carbon in the Calvin cycle is one result of the excitation
of chlorophyll. This energy is transported as ATP and
A.
NADP.
B.
RuBP.
C. ADP.
D. NADPH.
19. Decomposers are classified as
A.
autotrophs.
B.
omnivores.
C. anaerobes.
D. heterotrophs.
20. Which substance elicits an immune response?
A.
antibody
B.
phagocyte
C. antigen
D. platelet
21. Radioactive strontium in a sample of milk poses a danger because the strontium
A.
can increase the probability of kidney stones.
B.
prematurely sours the milk.
C. denatures the proteins in the milk.
D. can replace calcium in the bones.
22. Which of the following illustrates cell-to-cell communication?
A.
autophage transduction
B.
contact inhibition
C. DNA transcription
D. RNA polymerization
19
23. Which of the following pairs of scientists is most associated with the development of cell
theory?
A.
James Watson and Francis Crick
B.
Alexander Oparin and J. B. S. Haldane
C. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
D. Mattias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann
24. A student looking at photographs from an electron microscope observes a group of cells that
exhibit the following characteristics: a plasma membrane, ribosomes, one circular DNA
molecule but no nuclear membrane. How should these cells be classified?
A.
prokaryotic
B.
haploid
C. somatic
D. eukaryotic
25. What is the function associated with the mitochondrial cristae?
A.
chemiosmosis
B.
photosynthesis
C. storage of cellular enzymes
D. production of proteins
26. In the reproduction of higher plant cells, cytokinesis is usually accomplished by the
A.
formation of a cleavage furrow.
B.
inward growth of a cell wall and membrane.
C. formation of a cell plate.
D. formation of a large cell and a polar body.
27. If a lump of sugar is placed into a beaker of water, the sugar molecules eventually become
distributed evenly throughout the water. This process is called
A.
osmosis.
B.
diffusion.
C. pinocytosis.
D. facilitated diffusion.
20
28. DNA polymerase
A.
unwinds the DNA helix during replication.
B.
seals the broken ends of DNA strands.
C. adds nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand.
D. stabilizes the unwound helix.
29. The transfer of information from the DNA to the RNA molecule during protein synthesis is
referred to as
A.
reverse translation.
B.
transduction.
C. transcription.
D. translation.
30. Which technique would be employed to produce millions of copies of a gene fragment?
A.
polymerase chain reaction
B.
gene splicing
C. genetic mapping
D. recombination
31. Skin cancer is most commonly associated with overexposure to
A.
ultraviolet radiation.
B.
infrared radiation.
C. visible light radiation.
D. microwave radiation.
32. During meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced by
A.
two replications of DNA and two cell divisions.
B.
one replication of DNA and two cell divisions.
C. two replications of DNA and one cell division.
D. one replication of DNA and one cell division.
21
33. An organism's genotype for a particular trait is Uu. Which of the following statements would
best describe this trait?
A.
The organism exhibits the recessive condition.
B.
The organism exhibits a blend of the two conditions.
C. The organism is homozygous for the trait.
D. The organism is heterozygous for the trait.
34. Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t).
What proportion of progeny of the cross BbTt x BBtt will have black fur and long tails?
A.
1
16
B.
1
4
C. 1
2
D. 3
4
35. An individual with Tay-Sachs disease fails to properly metabolize lipids. The responsible
enzyme has an altered
A.
nucleotide sequence caused by differing amino acids.
B.
amino acid sequence and an altered function.
C. amino acid sequence and a corresponding normal nucleotide sequence.
D. nucleotide sequence with a corresponding normal amino acid sequence.
36. While studying an unknown biological sample, a student discovers an object with a protein
coat, a regular geometric structure, and the presence of RNA inside the protein coat. Which of
the following was found?
A.
a bacterium
B.
a virus
C. a protist
D. a plant cell
22
37. A single bacterium has a spherical shape. Which term correctly describes its morphology?
A.
bacillus
B.
spirillum
C. coccus
D. staphylococcus
38. The transfer of genetic material through a cytoplasmic bridge between two different mating
types of bacterial cells is called
A.
conjugation.
B.
binary fission.
C. transduction.
D. transformation.
39. Which of the following organisms are members of the Kingdom Protista?
A.
Amoeba, Euglena, and Paramecium
B.
Plasmodium, cyanobacteria, and Spirillum
C. Amoeba, fungi, and blue-green algae
D. Euglena, Plasmodium, and Streptococcus
40. Mosses are able to live only in very moist areas and are generally very small because mosses
A.
reproduce using spores.
B.
are wind pollinated.
C. rely on insects to pollinate their flowers.
D. are nonvascular plants.
41. Which of the following describes a structural difference between monocot and dicot seeds?
A.
size of mature seed
B.
method of seed dispersal
C. number of cotyledons
D. method of water uptake
23
42. Which of the following explains, in part, water's movement from the roots, through the xylem,
and up to the leaves?
A.
hydrolysis
B.
cohesion tension
C. bulk flow
D. pressure flow
43. Which of the following is an effect of gibberellins?
A.
inhibition of lateral bud growth
B.
induction of dormancy in buds and seeds
C. promotion of rapid stem elongation
D. positive geotropism of roots
44. A key feature that distinguishes the phylum Cnidaria is
A.
segmentation.
B.
radial symmetry.
C. asymmetry.
D. bilateral symmetry.
45. What generally happens in human embryological development after the formation of a hollow
sphere composed of a single layer of cells?
A.
The sphere collapses into a two-layered flat tissue.
B.
The sphere begins to fold inward.
C. The sphere divides, forming two spheres.
D. The sphere breaks apart, forming limbs.
46. Which of the following structures in the mammalian heart prevents backflow of blood from the
aorta into the left ventricle?
A.
atrioventricular valve
B.
sinoatrial node
C. semilunar valve
D. inferior vena cava
24
47. Which of the following endocrine glands is primarily responsible for maintaining the correct
levels of blood sugar in a vertebrate animal?
A.
pancreas
B.
hypothalamus
C. liver
D. thyroid
48. Muscles are connected to bones by which of the following structures?
A.
ligaments
B.
marrow
C. tendons
D. cartilage
49. Which of the following describes the reproductive advantage of being hermaphroditic?
A.
increased genetic diversity
B.
increased opportunity to pass on genes to the next generation
C. increased chances of survival for the offspring
D. increased chances for finding a favorable habitat
50. Konrad Lorenz and his students conducted behavioral experiments using graylag geese. Each
student cared for and became the "mother" of a group of goslings. When the students and
their goslings interacted, Professor Lorenz prescribed a hierarchy the students were to follow.
If the hierarchy of the students changed, then the dominance hierarchy of the goslings
changed. What inference could be made?
A.
Dominant behaviors are inherited in some goslings.
B.
Dominance is both inherited and learned in graylag geese.
C. The experiment was invalid; big goslings are dominant.
D. Dominance is a learned behavior among graylag geese.
51. What is the correct ecological term for all of the bullfrogs living in a single pond?
A.
biota
B.
population
C. community
D. ecosystem
25
52. In a freshwater habitat, the highest trophic level that an algae-eating organism could occupy
is
A.
producer.
B.
1st order consumer.
C. 2nd order consumer.
D. 3rd order consumer.
53. In a pyramid of energy flow, the amount of available energy in the system
A.
increases as the trophic level increases.
B.
decreases as the trophic level decreases.
C. decreases as the trophic level increases.
D. remains the same in the various tropic levels.
26
54. Limpkins are the major predator of apple snails. Which graph shows the probable long- term
change in the apple snail population if the limpkins were removed?
Number of snails
A.
Time
Number of snails
B.
Time
Number of snails
C.
Time
Number of snails
D.
Time
55. A continuing intimate association between individuals of two different species in which one
member is benefited and the other member is neither benefited nor harmed is called
A.
commensalism.
B.
mutualism.
C. parasitism.
D. competition.
27
56. The damaging consequences of acid rain include
A.
dissolving marble statues.
B.
destruction of the ozone layer.
C. carbon dioxide buildup.
D. elevated global temperatures.
57. The loss of a single species of minnow in a small river ecosystem would
A.
change only the behavior of the prey of that minnow.
B.
change only the behavior of the predator of that minnow.
C. not affect the food web system in the stream at all.
D. change the structure of the river food web.
58. A mule does not fit the classical definition of a species because
A.
all of the offspring look alike.
B.
mules do not produce viable offspring.
C. the genes of a mule are like those of its parents.
D. mules are chromosomally triploid.
59. The taxonomic system that places greatest emphasis on chronology of phylogenetic
branching is
A.
classical taxonomy.
B.
numerical taxonomy.
C. cladistics.
D. phenetics.
60. Each species of trilobite existed relatively unchanged for a long period of time and then
experienced rapid change. Which theory does this exemplify?
A.
Darwinian evolution
B.
punctuated equilibrium
C. natural selection
D. Lamarckian evolution
28
61. The technique used in molecular systematics that relies on the comparison of cytochrome C
in different animals is referred to as
A.
DNA – DNA hybridization.
B.
homologous structures.
C. embryological comparison.
D. polypeptide comparison.
62. In his classic experiment on the origins of life, Stanley Miller used hydrogen, water vapor,
methane, and ammonia as the primary gases in his "primitive atmosphere." Using the energy
from an electrical source, which of the following did Miller form?
A.
amino acids
B.
nucleic acids
C. proteins
D. starches
63. In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive allele is
0.3. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for this allele?
A.
9
B.
21
C. 30
D. 42
29
Answer Key
30
1. C
22. B
43. C
2. D
23. D
44. B
3. D
24. A
45. B
4. C
25. A
46. C
5. C
26. C
47. A
6. D
27. B
48. C
7. D
28. C
49. B
8. B
29. C
50. D
9. A
30. A
51. B
10. B
31. A
52. B
11. D
32. B
53. C
12. A
33. D
54. D
13. C
34. C
55. A
14. D
35. B
56. A
15. A
36. B
57. D
16. C
37. C
58. B
17. A
38. A
59. C
18. D
39. A
60. B
19. D
40. D
61. D
20. C
41. C
62. A
21. D
42. B
63. D
5
Test-taking Advice
•
•
Go into the examination prepared, alert, and well rested.
•
Dress comfortably and bring a sweater or jacket in case the room
is too cool.
•
Take the following with you to the test site:
Admission ticket
Picture identification
Watch
Money for lunch and change for vending machines
•
There are many strategies for taking a test and different
techniques for dealing with different types of questions.
Nevertheless, you may find the following general suggestions
useful.
Complete your travel arrangements prior to the examination date.
Plan to arrive early so that you can locate the parking facilities
and examination room without rushing.
•
Read each question and all the response options carefully
before marking your answer. Pay attention to all of the details.
•
Go through the entire test once and answer all the questions
you are reasonably certain about. Then go back and tackle
the questions that require more thought.
•
Check periodically to be sure that you are correctly coding
your answers on the answer sheet. When you answer a
question out of sequence, be certain that the number of the
circle you mark on your answer sheet corresponds to the
proper question number in the test booklet.
•
When you are not certain of the right answer, eliminate as
many options as you can and choose the response that
seems best. It is to your advantage to answer all the questions
on the test, even if you are uncertain about some of your
choices.
•
Be certain to mark your answers clearly on the answer sheet.
If you change an answer, erase the first pencil mark
completely. Also make sure there are no stray marks on the
answer sheet.
•
After completing the examination, go back and check every
question. Verify that you have answered all of the questions
and that your responses are correctly entered.
31
32
6
Additional Information
Write to the following address to request an FTCE registration
bulletin. You may also request information on test administration,
retakes, and score reports, or offer comments about this test
preparation guide.
FTCE Inquiries
Florida Department of Education
325 West Gaines Street, Suite 414
Tallahassee, Florida 32399-0400
Write to the address below for an order form and price list if you wish
to order additional copies of this test preparation guide or guides for
other subject areas, the Professional Education Test, the General
Knowledge Test, or the Florida Educational Leadership Examination.
Test Preparation Guides / USF
The Institute for Instructional Research and Practice
FAO199
4202 Fowler Avenue
Tampa, Florida 33620-7930
Refer to the following Web site for additional FTCE information
including upcoming test dates, test registration, pass/fail status, and
score reports.
www.cefe.usf.edu
33
34
002