PHRM 836 Exam I key - 1 Examination I Key PHRM 836 – Biochemistry for Pharmaceutical Sciences II September 24, 2013 Correct answers in multiple choice questions are indicated in RED and underlined. Correct answers to essay questions are indicated in RED in comic book font. In some cases and explanation is provided in BLUE/BLUE 1. A relaxed circular 400 bp long dsDNA is compared to the same DNA with a single supercoil. Under physiologic conditions but with no protein present, the supercoiled DNA has: more twisting distortion and more bending distortion than the relaxed circular DNA more twisting distortion and the same bending distortion as the relaxed circular DNA more twisting distortion and less bending distortion than the relaxed circular DNA the same twisting distortion and more bending distortion than the relaxed circular DNA the same twisting distortion and the same bending distortion as the relaxed circular DNA the same twisting distortion and less bending distortion than the relaxed circular DNA less twisting distortion and more bending distortion than the relaxed circular DNA less twisting distortion and the same bending distortion as the relaxed circular DNA less twisting distortion and less bending distortion than the relaxed circular DNA In its lowest energy state the sc DNA would be in a plectonemic form (a figure 8), but would have the normal number of helices per 400 bp. Thus the sc DNA would have no twisting distortion. The plectonemic form actually has as much bending as a toroidal form, which would be two loops with much tighter bending then the one larger circular DNA (when relaxed). Hence there is more bending in the plectonemic form than the relaxed circular form. 2. The function of ATP hydrolysis by all type II topoisomerases is to hydrolyze the G-DNA phopsphodiester bonds re-ligate the G-DNA wind the DNA around the CTD unwind the DNA from around the CTD induce a large conformational change in the protein that is essential for the overall reaction activate a tyrosine that is involved in breaking and re-ligating the G-DNA 3. Camptothecin is a therapeutic drug that directly inhibits telomerase DNA polymerase type I topoisomerases type II topoisomerases primase DNA helicase RNA polymerase II cyclin-dependent protein kinases nucleotide excision DNA repair mRNA splicing PHRM 836 Exam I key - 2 4. DNA helicases carry out their function by binding both bases in the next base pair and breaking the hydrogen bonds between them binding to and twisting the deoxyriboses involved in the next base pair moving along one of the DNA strands moving along both the separated DNA strands moving along the dsDNA, pulling a trailing plow-like region of the protein that splits the DNA 5. A licensing factor is a protein that is made during the G1 phase of the cell cycle and activates cdks is made during the G1 phase of the cell cycle and inhibits cdks is made during the G1 phase of the cell cycle, is essential for initiation of replication, then is degraded immediately is made throughout the cell cycle but is degraded as soon as it is used is made in a cell cycle dependent manner, with levels peaking at a particular point in the cell cycle, and activates cdks is made in a cell cycle dependent manner, with levels peaking at a particular point in the cell cycle, and inhibits cdks 6. At the initiation of replication in mammals, the DNA is initially melted by the action of TFIIH hexameric MCM a dimer of hexameric MCMs ORC cdk topoisomerase II core histones 7. An example of an anti-cancer therapeutic agent that acts via reacting with DNA such that it creates double strand DNA breaks is camptothecin etoposide 5-flurouracil methotrexate cisplatin gleevec 8. For a cellular gene to become an oncogene that causes cancer it must be mutated so that it is not expressed or is expressed at a level much below normal either not expressed (or under-expressed) or is expressed in a non-functional form expressed at a higher level than normal expressed in a more active form than normal expressed either at a higher level than normal or in a more active form than normal PHRM 836 Exam I key - 3 9. The initial DNA melting that occurs with the start of the synthesis of each mRNA transcript in eukaryotes is produced by TBP binding to the TATA box a DNA helicase that is part of TFIIH RNA polymerase II phosphorylation of DNA by a cdk MCM topoisomerase 10. The complexly interacting regulation of transcription by transcription regulatory factors is called a licensing system a gene regulatory network checkpoint control epigenetics DNA remodeling enhancer element interactions distal promoter element interactions modular promoters alternative promoters RNA interference 11. Recent genome-wide studies, including ENCODE, show that 95% of the human genome is transcribed. This has led to a proposal for a novel type of regulation of transcription that involves RNA splicing RNA degradation at the exosome chromatin remodeling DNA methylation transcription at one promoter affecting the transcription initiation at a nearby promoter RNA interference Licensing factors 12. If an exon in a gene is 305 bp long, and this exon includes an alternative 5´ splice site that divides this exon into left and right parts, what length constraint commonly applies to the location of this alternative splice site in this exon? The left part must be shorter than the right part The right part must be shorter than the left part The left part must be a multiple of 3 bp long The right part must be a multiple of 3 bp long The two parts must differ in length by a multiple of 3 bp If the right part (which is optionally included or not) is not a multiple of 3 bp long, it will change the reading frame when it is included versus not included in the mature mRNA. In rare cases, this constraint might not apply: such as it is outside the ORF or it is paired with an alt 3´ splice site that immediately follows it. PHRM 836 Exam I key - 4 13. All of the following describe “protein recognition” except which phrase? contributes to the specificity of a protein-protein interaction arises from the chemical complementarity between an enzyme active site and substrate arises from the spatial complementarity between an enzyme active site and a heterotropic effector is involved with Hb binding O2. is involved with small-molecule antigens binding antibodies is involved with the association of subunits in an oligomeric protein 14. In chymotrypsin, serine transfers a proton to a histidine. Which of the following is correct? Serine is acting as a transition-state stabilization catalyst. Chymotrypsin is relatively insensitive to pH changes. Histidine is acting as a general acid. Serine is acting as a general acid. A covalent intermediate is formed between serine and histidine. The above statement is false because serine transfers a proton to aspartic acid. 15. Which phrase best describes the structure/function relationship of serine proteases? all serine proteases have the same tertiary structure the S1 residue is a serine the P1 residue must be a Trp the spatial orientation of the catalytic triad of Ser, His, Asp is conserved P1 refers to one type of serine protease that recognizes the substrate S1 the active form of a serine protease is converted to the inactive zymogen form serine proteases catalyze hydrolysis of polypeptides with Ser none of the above 16. Which phrase best explains why a given antibody has very high affinity and specificity for a particular antigen? hydrophobicity disulfide bonds hypervariable loops IgG fold C domains -sandwich carbohydrate linkages PHRM 836 Exam I key - 5 17. The energy diagram below shows the energy as a function of reaction coordinate for an uncatalyzed and enzyme-catalyzed reaction. Which phrase accurately describes an enzyme-catalyzed reaction? GO is the same for both uncatalyzed and catalyzed reactions. At equilibrium, more product is formed for the catalyzed reaction than the uncatalyzed reaction. At equilibrium, more product is formed for the uncatalyzed reaction than the catalyzed reaction. The enzyme stabilizes the transition state and forms a stable transition-state complex. The rate of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction increases as the energy of the ES complex decreases. The transition state is not a stable complex and the enzyme does not stabilize the transition state. E* is the energy difference between the catalyzed and uncatalyzed transition states of the reaction. choices and choices and 18. Which of the following phrases does NOT accurately describe the cooperativity of hemoglobin? interactions between the FG corner of one subunit and the C helix of an adjacent subunit six-coordinated Fe2+ moves into the heme plane rotation of one dimer relative to the other dimer stabilizing oxyhemoglobin shifts the curve of saturation vs pO2 to the right. His F8 interaction with heme iron contributes to the cooperativity mechanism conversion of the deoxy form to oxyhemoglobin releases protons the R state is stabilized by oxygen binding none of the above (all statements are accurate) 19. Based on your knowledge about how 1,6 bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) alters the affinity for oxygen by hemoglobin and about the structure of hemoglobin, what is the most probable site for the binding of BPG? BPG binds the heme Fe and displaces oxygen BPG binds the heme on the opposite side of oxygen and causes the opposite direction of structural changes as oxygen BPG binds at the 11 interface BPG binds at the interface between the two dimers BPG binds on the surface near the mutation site the causes sickle cell Hb The binding site of BPG cannot be inferred from knowing its affect on O2 affinity and Hb structure PHRM 836 Exam I key - 6 20. The phrase that accurately describes Hb structure or function is a homotetramer of all- chains a dimer of dimers and two heme groups four polypeptide chains with ionic interactions at the subunit interfaces undergoes a monomer to tetramer equilibrium four Mb chains associate to form Hb multiple copies of the Ig fold choices and none of the above 21. Enzyme catalysis is regulated by a number of mechanisms. Also, the flux through metabolic pathways must be regulated. Given the metabolic pathway below, which choice accurately describes the regulation of compound G levels? G is regulated by chemical modification of the enzyme that catalyzes step 3 G serves as an inhibitory effector of the allosteric enzyme that catalyzes step 3 G inhibits the expression of the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of D The reversible reaction of B to D is converted to an irreversible reaction. G destabilizes the complex of D with the enzyme that catalyzes step 3 Both and none of the above 22. One gene for alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) has 3 types of alleles that differ in a single base. The gene products, ADH 1, 2 and 3, have substitutions at position 47 and 369 (Table below). The crystal structure of ADH 1 holoenzyme shows that Arg47 and Arg369 form ionic interactions with the phosphate groups of NAD. Residues 47 and 369 are assumed to also be in close contact with the same region of NAD in the 2 and 3 holoenzyme complexes. The pH dependence of catalysis differs for 1, 2 and 3 primarily as a result of ADH interaction with NAD. The following phrases are an accurate statement of pH profiles of enzyme catalysis in general or for ADH excluding which phrase? Position 47 Position 369 pH optimum 10 Arg Arg 1 8.5 His Arg 2 ~7 Arg Cys 3 The pH optimum near 10 for 1 reflects the pKa of Arg. The KM for NAD is lower for 1 than 2 at pH 9. A change in KM for substrate can change a pH profile. A change in KM for cofactor can change a pH profile. The pH dependence of ADH 3 catalysis indicates the KM for NAD decreases above pH 8. Based on the crystal structure of the holoenzyme complex, 3 is likely to have lower affinity for NAD than 1 or 2. none of the above (all are accurate statements) PHRM 836 Exam I key - 7 23. In the 3-dimensional structure of immunoglobulins, the number of C domains equals the number of V domains. CL-VL associations form the complementary sites for binding antigens. in each chain (H and L), the C and V domains fold onto one another, forming CV interactions. high affinity binding of antigen arises from disulfide bonds formed with the antigen. hinge regions connect globular domains. -sheets align edge to edge. 24. [6 points] Explain why a cancer cell that no longer expresses functional p53 would be more easily killed by a genotoxic agent than if that same cancer cell still expresses functional p53. Functional p53 protein is needed for the delayed checkpoint control where cells stop entry into S or M phases when there is DNA damage present. If p53 is absent, then this delayed form of checkpoint control is absent. (While the immediate form of checkpoint control will still be present when p53 is lost, it is not able to be sustained over a long period of time.) When genotoxic anti-cancer agents are used to treat such cancer cells, the ones with p53 will stop dividing for a long time while they repair the DNA damage. Thus, cell growth will be slowed, but some, possibly most, cells will survive because they repaired their DNA damage. But for cells lacking a functional p53, checkpoint control will not be sustained and entry into S or M phases with significant amounts of DNA damage present will result in cell death nearly all the time. Note that p53 also has a role in producing apoptosis in response to massive amounts of DNA damage, particularly double strand DNA breaks. However, in this case, p53 makes the cells more easily killed by genotoxic agents and radiation. This is the opposite of what the question asks. Interestingly, it is likely that it is this response that provides a strong selection for p53 mutations in cancers, and why cancers often convert from p53+ cells to p53- after exposure to therapeutic doses of anti-cancer agents that are genotoxic. 25. [7 points] Topoisomerase IIA enzymes have three distinct structural regions that the T-DNA must pass through during the reaction it catalyzes. a. [6 points] In the three boxes below, indicate these three structural regions. You may identify them by a commonly used name or a unique structural or functional aspect, so long as you distinguish the three regions. X The C-terminal Gate; which might also be referred to as the non-ATP-binding gate Y The G-DNA binding region; which might also be referred to as the catalytic region (meaning region where the DNA-breaking catalysis occurs) Z The N-terminal Gate; which might also be known as the ATP-binding region. Note: The above three answers can be in any order. PHRM 836 Exam I key - 8 b. [1 point] The descriptions you provided in part a have a letter, X, Y, or Z, in the upper left corner of the box that contains the description of each structural region. Using these three letters, indicate the order that the T-DNA pass through these regions during the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme. N-terminal Gate, G-DNA binding region, then the C-terminal Gate. Based on the answers given in the key above, this would be indicated as Z, Y, X (the actual correct answer depends on the order of the answers given in part a.) 26. [4 points] The pH dependence of O2 binding to Hb is known as the Bohr effect; lower pH reduces O2 affinity. The figure shows one of the interactions in Hb that plays a role in the Bohr effect. a. What is the physiological significance of the Bohr effect? CO2, generated as a metabolic product in the tissues, leads to an increase in H+ and lower pH than in the lungs. Tissues: CO2 HCO3- + H+. Lower pH shifts the equilibrium of Hb binding O2 to the oxy form through the law of mass action, thereby promoting the delivery of O2 to the peripheral tissues from the lungs. b. As stated in lecture, there are many sequence variations of Hb among the human population, many of which do not affect Hb function while some do. If His 146 were substituted with Val, what, if any, would be the affect on Hb function? Explain your answer. The effect would be a significant reduction in the Bohr effect because His 146 is one source of the protons released upon conversion to deoxy Hb due to the altered pKa of His 146. Also, deoxy Hb would be destabilized due to the loss of the His146 salt bridge to Asp94 (shown in the figure). 27. [6 points] Histones have a single molecular mechanism involving DNA. By this molecular mechanism, histones have an important or critical role in TWO distinct cellular functions. What are those two distinct cellular functions? 1. Condensing the chromosomes so that they can segregate to the daughter cells at mitosis. 2. Regulation of gene transcription PHRM 836 Exam I key - 9 28. [8 points] CtXR is an allosteric enzyme regulated by ATP. CtXR converts the substrate xylose to the product xylitol. The enzyme-substrate interactions are shown below in the scheme on the right. The plot of initial velocity against [S] (below, left) shows CtXR activity in the absence of ATP, an allosteric effector of CtXR. Addition of ATP leads to an increase in the KM value of xylose. a. What kind of allosteric effector is ATP? Inhibitory effector. The increase in Km corresponds to lower affinity for xylose, and thus a decrease in activity. b. Draw on the plot (above) a curve showing the effect of ATP in enzyme activity. c. Predict the pH dependence of CtXR activity between pH 2 and pH 6, and explain your reasoning. The activity will be reduced at pH2 because Asp50 will be protonated and substrate binding affinity will be lowered because of weaker/loss of Asp50 interactions with –OH groups of xylose. d. Give one explanation for how ATP might alter the interactions shown in the figure. ATP binding likely changes the CtXR structure so that the interactions in the scheme are compromised. That is the hydrogen bonding of His113 or Tyr51 or Asn309 or Asp50 could be lost due to the conformational change induced by ATP. Another possibility is that potential hydrophobic interactions of the indole ring of Trp23 with xylose are lost. Another possibility is that ATP changes CtXR conformation in a way that alters the pKa of His113 or Asp50 in a direction that perturbs interaction with xylose.
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