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Chapter 12 Self Quiz
Bohm, Introduction to Criminal Justice, 8th Edition
1. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of the helping role of community correctional program
personnel?
A)
the direct provision of services to offenders
B)
the supervision of offenders
C)
the referral of offenders to various agencies in the community
D)
advocacy
2. Which of the following is NOT a type of probation?
A)
suspended sentence
B)
split sentence
C)
shock
D)
all of the above are types of probation
3. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental objective of probation agencies?
A)
to assist the court in matters pertaining to sentencing
B)
to incarcerate offenders so that the safety and security of the community is not
compromised
C)
to promote the betterment of offenders
D)
to promote community protection by supervising and monitoring persons sentenced to
probation
4. By what year did all states have probation statutes?
A)
1868
B)
1899
C)
1924
D)
1957
5. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of privately prepared PSIs?
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A)
improper sentences may be recommended
B)
they can discriminate against the poor
C)
they can reduce credibility and funding from probation agencies
D)
they reduce probation agency workloads and saves tax dollars
6. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that there is no absolute right to counsel at
probation or parole revocation proceedings. Whether the offender is provided with counsel is to be
determined on a case-by-case basis and, absent a compelling reason for providing counsel, counsel is
unnecessary?
A)
Morrissey v. Brewer
B)
Gagnon v. Scarpelli
C)
Griffin v. Wisconsin
D)
Mempa v. Rhay
7. In which of the following decisions did the Supreme Court hold that a search warrant based on
probable cause is unnecessary for a probation officer to search a probationer's home; that reasonable
grounds is a sufficient basis for the search?
A)
Morrissey v. Brewer
B)
Gagnon v. Scarpelli
C)
Griffin v. Wisconsin
D)
Minnesota v. Murphy
8. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental objective of parole?
A)
to control the behavior of prison inmates
B)
to promote offender betterment and reintegration into society
C)
to relieve and contain prison crowding
D)
all of the above are fundamental objectives of parole
9. In what year was federal parole abolished for anyone convicted of a federal crime (after the date of
abolition)?
A)
1837
B)
1969
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C)
1987
D)
federal parole has not been abolished
10. Which of the following factors did a recent national study find to be the most important in
determining whether to grant or to deny an inmate parole?
A)
seriousness of the current offense
B)
history of prior violent behavior
C)
prior felony convictions
D)
use of a firearm in committing the current offense
11. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that parole release is an act of grace, is
distinct from parole revocation and, thus, is not subject to the due process provisions outlined in
Morrissey v. Brewer?
A)
Minnesota v. Murphy
B)
Gagnon v. Scarpelli
C)
Griffin v. Wisconsin
D)
Greenholtz v. Inmates of the Nebraska Penal and Correctional Complex
12. According to a recent study, which of the following is one of the two most important factors parole
authorities consider in determining whether to revoke parole?
A)
the parolee's attitude
B)
the seriousness of the violation
C)
the parolee's number of prior felony convictions
D)
how long the parolee has been on parole
13. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of parole release?
A)
it undermines both retribution and deterrence
B)
it subtly coerces inmates into programs that are often of questionable effectiveness
C)
it does not sufficiently guarantee public safety
D)
all of the above are criticisms
14. Which of the following rights does a convicted felon NOT forfeit?
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A)
right to hold public office and certain other jobs
B)
right to jury service
C)
right to citizenship
D)
all of the above rights are forfeited
15. According to John Watkins Jr., which of the following is NOT a central element for establishing
liability on the part of parole (and probation) officials?
A)
the existence of a legal duty owed the public
B)
evidence of a breach of the required standard of duty
C)
an injury or damage to a person or group proximately caused by the breach of duty
D)
an injury or damage caused by unsatisfactory performance of discretionary functions
16. Which of the following is NOT a feature of ISP programs, at least in theory?
A)
mandatory curfews
B)
inescapable supervision
C)
specially trained intensive-supervision officers with small caseloads
D)
all are features of ISP programs
17. When and where were day reporting centers pioneered in the United States?
A)
1986, Massachusetts
B)
1969, New York
C)
1950, Illinois
D)
1899, Michigan
18. When and where was the first structured-fine program implemented in the United States?
A)
1986, Massachusetts
B)
1899, Michigan
C)
1988, New York
D)
1920, Ohio
19. When did electronic monitoring equipment become readily available in the United States?
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A)
1960s
B)
1970s
C)
1980s
D)
1990s
20. When did temporary release programs gain widespread popularity among correctional officials?
A)
1950s
B)
1960s
C)
1970s
D)
1980s
21. A phenomenon that occurs when offenders placed in a novel program are not the offenders for
whom the program was designed, with the consequence that those in the program receive more severe
sanctions than they would have received had the new program remained unavailable is known as _____.
A)
net deepening
B)
extinction
C)
net widening
D)
diversion
22. _____ refers to organized, systematic efforts to remove individuals from further processing in
criminal justice by placing them in alternative programs; may be pretrial or post-trial.
A)
probation
B)
diversion
C)
community corrections
D)
net widening
23. Programs that allow jail or prison inmates to leave the facility for short periods to participate in
approved community activities are called _____.
A)
probation
B)
day reporting centers
C)
temporary release
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D)
parole
24. A convicted offender's payment of money or provision of services to the victims, their survivors, or
the community that has been victimized is referred to as _____.
A)
probation conditions
B)
structured fine (day fine)
C)
tariff fine
D)
restitution
25. _____ refers to the return of probationers to crime during or after probation.
A)
revocation
B)
diversion
C)
recidivism
D)
net widening
26. ______ can broadly be defined as the subfield of corrections consisting of programs in which
offenders are supervised and provided with services outside jail or prison.
A)
Community corrections
B)
Probation
C)
Parole
D)
Intermediate sanctions
27. _______ usually involves two sentences. The offender is initially sentences to prison but is soon
recalled to court and placed on probation.
A)
Straight probation
B)
Suspended-sentence probation
C)
Shock Probation
D)
Residential probation
28. _________ occurs when an offender is sentenced only to probation, with no incarceration or any
other form of residential placement.
A)
Straight probation
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B)
Suspended-sentence probation
C)
Shock Probation
D)
Residential probation
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ANSWERS
1. B
2. D
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
B
D
D
B
C
D
C
A
D
B
D
C
D
D
A
C
C
B
C
B
C
D
C
A
C
A
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